chất lượng

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TEXT 1
THE ICEHOTEL
For many years the Arctic was a popular destination in the summer season to see the land of the
midnight sun but in winter the few inhabitants had the snow and ice to themselves. By the end of the
1980sitwasdecidedthatthedarkandcoldwintershouldbeseenasanadvantage.Inthe winterof1990the
French artist Jannot Derit was invited to have the opening of an exhibition in a specially built igloo (a
building made of snow) in the little town of Jukkasjärvi on the frozen TorneRiver.Thebuilding,named
ArcticHall,attractedmanyinterestedvisitorsto thearea.One night a group of foreign guests decided it
would be a good idea to sleep in the Arctic Hall. The following morning the brave group were very
pleased with their experience and the idea of an ice hotel was born. Today it is world famous.
As soon as winter begins, a team of snow builders, architects and artists from all over the world
come to Jukkasjärvi and they make the hotel for that year. As one part is completed, it opens to visitors and
overnight guests, while the other parts are still being built. The first part is completed in December and each
week after that a new part opens, until January 7th when the hotel is completed. As the ICEHOTEL is built
under the open sky, using the natural materials of the winter season, the finishing date depends on nature
and therefore there are sometimes changes to the plan. In the spring, as the weather gets warmer, the hotel
melts.
Inside the hotel, the temperature is never colder than –5 °C to –8 °C, however cold it may be
outside. Winter outer clothes such as warm overalls, hats and gloves are included in the cost of guests’
stay at the hotel. In addition to this, it is a good idea for guests to bring sweaters and a scarf as well as
plentyof woollensocksandtochoosefootwearthatis largerthannormalto allow space for thicksocks.
Ifyouareplanningtocometothehotel,youcanbuywarmsweaters,woollensocksandmuch more
on the ICEHOTEL website. Youcan order these and the equipment you will need at the same time as
you bookyour visit.The items will be deliveredto your roomwhen youcheck in.
The hotel is in the village of Jukkasjärvi, 200 km above the Arctic Circle but only 15 km from Kiruna
airport and 17 km from Kiruna train station. Transport by bus can be arranged from the airport or train
station to the ICEHOTEL.
21. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To describe the difficulty of building the house
B. to show tourists to build the house by themselves
C. to introduce tourists useful information for their stay in the Ice hotel
D. to show tourists how to book rooms in the Ice hotel
22. Tourists used to go to the Artic in the summer because
A. There’s a good hotel to stay in B. It’s too dark and cold in the winter
B. People did not want to see snow in the winter D. People could see the midnight sun there
23. Who do NOT take part in building the hotel in winter?
A. Architects B. snow builders C. Artists D. Visitors
24. The building of the hotel
A. Always ends on 7th
January B. often ends in Spring
C. never ends D. is influenced by the weather
25. The temperature inside the hotel
A. changes according to the weather outside B. is from -5C to -8C

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C. is cooler than -5C D. is cooler than -8C
26. Guests’ footwear should
A. fit as tightly as possible B. be smaller than normal
C. be larger than normal D. match with their woolen socks
27. The word “these” in the paragraph 4 refers to
A. sweaters B. sweaters and woolen socks
C. woolen socks D. Sweaters, woolen socks and other stuffs on the Ice hotel
28. Items ordered from the Ice hotel will be delivered to
A. your home D. your hotel C. your hotel room D. your bedroom
29. How far is the Ice hotel?
A. 17km from Kiruna airport B. 17km from the Arctic Circle
C. 15km from the Arctic Circle D. 15km from Kiruna airport
30. According to the passage, tourists can get to the Ice hotel by
A. By train B. By bus C. By car D. On foot
TEXT 2
Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country’s
impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In
September 1966 Canada’s population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this surging growth came from
natural increase. The depression of the 1930s and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up
process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950s, producing a population
increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded
only once before in Canada’s history, in the decade before 1911, when the prairies were being settled.
Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950s supported a growth in the population, but the
expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families.
In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in theworld.
After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in
1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the
depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at
school longer, more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before
starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was
once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western
world since the time of the IndustrialRevolution.
Although the growth in Canada’s population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half
of the 1960s was only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would
be composed of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Educational changes in Canadian society B. Canada during the Second World War
C. Population trends in postwar Canada D. Standards of living in Canada
Question 2. The word “five” in bold refers to
A. Canadians B. years C. decades D. marriages
Question 3. The word “surging” in bold is closest in meaning to
A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising
Question 4. The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950’s
A. the urban population decreased rapidly B. fewer people married
C. economic conditions were poor D. the birth rate was very high
Question 5. The word “trend” in bold is closest in meaning to
A. tendency B. aim C. growth D. directive
Question 6. The word “peak” in bold is closest in meaning to
A. pointed B. dismal C. mountain D. maximum
Question 7. The author mention all of the foll[owing as causes of declines in population growth after 1957

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EXCEPT
A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier
C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses
Question 8. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution
A. families were larger B. population statistics were unreliable
C. the population grew steadily D. economic conditions were bad
Question 9. The word “it” in bold refers to
A. horizon B. population wave C. nine percent D. first half
Question 10. The phrase “prior to” in bold is closest in meaning to
A. behind B. since C. during D. preceding
CẤU TRÚC, TỪ VỰNG ĐIỂN HÌNH
1. Mark (n): mức, mốc. Eg: They had already passed the a million mark: Họ đã vượt mức một triệu rồi.
2. Catching up (n): sự theo kịp, bắt kịp. Eg: He had been away for a year, he had a lot of
catching ups to do with his family: Anh ấy đã xa nhà một năm, anh ấy có rất nhiều điều cần biết
để nắm được thông tin về gia đình.
3. Expansion (n): sự mở rộng, bành trướng. Eg: We are impressed by the restaurant’s
expansion in series. Chúng tôi rất ấn tượng với chuỗi mở rộng của nhà hàng.
4. Undoubtedly (adv): không có nghi ngờ gì. Eg: She is, undoubtedly, the greatest star of British ballet:
Cô ấy không còn nghi ngờ gì nữa chính là ngôi sao thành công nhất của ba – lê nước Anh.
5. A growth in something: tăng trưởng, sự gia tăng . Eg There has been a recent growth in the
the rate of criminals: Tỉ lệ tội phạm gần đây có sự gia tăng.
6. To derive from: bắt nguồn từ, xuất phát từ, chuyển hóa từ. Eg: Many English words
derive from Latin: Nhiều từ Tiếng Anh bắt nguồn từ tiếng La - tinh.
7. To reflect: phản ánh, cho thấy. Eg: Our actions reflect our thoughts: Hành động của chúng
ta phản ánh suy nghĩ của chúng ta.
8. Society (n): xã hội Eg: We are all members of a society: Chúng ta đều là thành viên của một xã hội.
9. Automobile: (cách nói khác của car) xe ô tô, xe hơi (Anh Mỹ). Eg: It is not difficult to find a
job in the automobile industry: Không khó để có thể tìm được công việc trong ngành công nghiệp
xe hơi.
10. To cut down on something: cắt giảm sử dụng cái gì Eg: Our sister tries to cut down on
caffeine: Con gái chúng tôi cố gắng cắt giảm lượng caffeine
TEXT 3
Hermit crabs
Hermit crabs occupy the empty shells of dead sea snails for protection while still retaining their mobility.
They are capable of discriminating among a selection of shells of various sizes and species, and they choose the
one that fits the body most closely. Hermit crabs change shells as they grow, although in some marine
environments a large enough variety of shells may not be available and the hermit crab may be forced to occupy
a smaller-than-ideal “house.” When a Shell becomes too small for the hermit crab to occupy, it will sometimes
become aggressive and fight other hermit crabs to gain a larger shell.
Hermit crabs may encounter empty shells in the course of their daily activity, but the vacant Shell is
usually spotted by sight. The hermit crab’s visual response increases with the size of an object and its contrast
against the background. The hermit crab then seizes the Shell with its walking legs and climbs on it, monitoring
its size. If the size is right, the crab investigates its shape and texture by rolling it over between its walking legs
and running its claws over the surface. Once the shell’s opening has been located, the crab uses its claws to
remove any foreign material before preparing to enter. The crab rises above the opening, flexes its abdomen,
and enters the shell backward. The shell interior is monitored by the abdomen as the crab repeatedly enters and
withdraws. When completely satisfied with its new mobile home, the hermit crab will emerge one last time,
turn the shell over and make a final entrance.

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1. According to the passage, hermit crabs occupy vacant shells for ___________.
A. mobility B. flexibility C. protection D. discrimination
2. According to the passage, a hermit crab changes shells when it __________________.
A. outgrows the one it has B. hunts for food
C. becomes aggressive D. locates any vacant Shell
3. According to the passage, the way in which hermit crabs locate empty shells is through which of the
following senses?
A. Hearing B. Touch C. Taste D. Sight
4. What does a crab NOT investigate a vacant shell for?
A. size B. type C. shape D. texture
5. According to the passage, a hermit crab enters a new shell _____________.
A. head first B. claws first C. backward D. with its walking legs
6. According to the passage, a hermit crab settles into its new “mobile home” ________________.
A. after entering and leaving several times B. without inspecting the interior first
C. immediately after locating the shell opening D. after fighting other hermit crabs for a larger shell
TEXT 4
Nile Valley and Delta, Egypt
The Nile Valley and Delta, the most extensive oasis on earth, was created by the world's longest river and its
seemingly inexhaustible sources. Without the topographic channel that permits the Nile to flow across the
Sahara, Egypt would be entirely desert; the Nile River traverses about 1,600 kilometers through Egypt and
flows northwardfrom the Egyptian-Sudanese border to the Mediterranean Sea. The Nile is a combination of
three long rivers whose sources are in central Africa: the White Nile, the Blue Nile, and the Atbarah.
The White Nile, which begins at Lake Victoria in Uganda, supplies about 28 percent of the Nile's waters in
Egypt. In its course from Lake Victoria to Juba in southern Sudan, the elevation of the White Nile's channel
drops more than 600 meters. In its 1,600-kilometer course from Juba to Khartoum, Sudan's capital, the river
descends only 75 meters. In southern and central Sudan, the White Nile passes through a wide, flat plain covered
with swamp vegetation and slows almost to stagnation.
The Blue Nile, which originates at Lake Tana in Ethiopia, provides an average of 58 percent of the Nile's waters
in Egypt. It has a steeper gradient and flows more swiftly than the White Nile, which it joins at Khartoum.
Unlike the White Nile, the Blue Nile carries a considerable amount of sediment; for several kilometers north of
Khartoum, water closer to the eastern bank of the river is visibly muddy and comes from the Blue Nile, while
the water closer to the western bank is clearer and comes from the White Nile.
1. In the first paragraph, what is the meaning of the word "inexhaustible"?
A. endless B. limited C. finite D. lack
2, What does NOT describe the Nile River?
A. It flows from south to north. B. It flows from north to south.
C. It flows to the Mediterranean Sea. D. It is the world's longest river.
3. What is another word of "supplies" in the second paragraph?
A. takes B.flows C. provides D. Restricts
4. In what country does the White Nile begin?
A. Lake Victoria B. Khartoum C. Egypt D. Uganda
5. Where does the Blue Nile join with the White Nile?
A. Khartoum B. Ethiopia C. Sudan D. Egypt
6. What created the Nile Valley and Delta?
A. the White Nile B. the Nile C. the Blue Nile D. the Atbarah
7. If it were not for the Nile River, what would Egypt be?
A. a delta B. a desert C. an oasis D. a valley
8. In the last paragraph, what is the meaning of the word "originated"?
A. navigated B. located C. prevented D. derived

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9. What dos NOT describe the Blue Nile?
A. It begins at Lake Tana. B. supplies more than half of the Nile's waters in Egypt
C. Its source is Lake Victoria. D. It carries much sediment.
10. The tone of this article can best be described as
(A) Informative B. exaggerated C. indignant D. humorous
TEXT 5: Memorandum
To all staff
The hospital is always trying to cut its carbon footprint, and to do this, we want to encourage staff, visitors and
patients to use environmentally-friendly forms of transport to and from the hospital. Therefore, we are making
the following changes, which will come into effect from 1st April:
Car Park A will stay as a staff car park, but, to encourage car sharing, it will only be available to cars containing
3 passengers or more. This rule will be in place between 7am and 6pm. A car park attendant will monitor users.
Note that cars do not have to leave the car park with three passengers. The parking fee will remain at the current
price of £1 an hour up to a maximum of £5 per day. If you are interested in car sharing and wish to find members
of staff who live in your area or along your route, please click on the link on the human resources page of the
hospital website.
Car Park C, previously a staff-only car-park, will now be open to visitors at the increased cost of £2/hour up to
5 hours, and £1 an hour after that. These new rates will also apply to staff/visitor Car Park E. Car Park B will
only be open to blue card holders. Only senior and emergency staff are eligible for this card.
Car park D will no longer be in use, as it will make way for an improved bus park. The current bus service
(Service 56D) from the city centre will be replaced by two services. The service will be available to staff,
patients and visitors alike.
Service 57A will run from: Hebdon Town centre, Hebden Station, Critchley Park and Ride, Grafton Street Train
Station, Portchester City Centre (Bus Stop D on Mill Yard) to the hospital. The service will run 24 hours a day
every 20 minutes between 7am and 7pm and once an hour during the night.
Service 62A will run from Oldgrave Town Centre, Kings Wood Park and Ride and Polegate Park and Ride to
the hospital every 15 minutes between 7.30 am and 7.00 pm and once every 30 minutes thereafter.
The buses will have a flat rate of £1 per journey. Staff will be able to buy a bus pass valid for 20 trips for just
£15. These can be purchased on the bus.
Staff can also purchase a Go! pass from the human resources website. The Go! pass costs £45 and entitles users
to park at any of the city’s park and ride services for just £2 a day. It is valid for one year.
There will also be an improved lock-up shed for bicycles and motorcycles in the former car park D. Hospital
staff may wish to take advantage of the voucher giving 50% off all cycles and cycle accessories bought
from Perkin’s Wheels, which is downloadable from the Human Resources website. Note that you will have to
show your staff ID card at the store when making purchases. There will be a fix-it session once a fortnight in
car park D on Fridays at 2pm- 5pm. At this time, bicycle mechanics from Perkins Wheels will give advice on
bicycle upkeep and make minor bicycle repairs free of charge. We hope you will take advantages of these
schemes.
1. Under the rules, staff can only park in car park A at noon if...
a. they hold a blue card. c. there are three people in the car.
b. they stay for a maximum of 5 hours d. they have to pay maximum 5 pound
2. Staff should _____ to find people to share a car with them.
a. go online c. visit the human resources department
b. speak to their departmental manager d. register with the human resources manager
3. After April 1st, Car Park C will be for...
a. staff only c. visitors only

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b. staff and visitors d. blue card holders only
4. The cost to park in Car Park B is ...
a. the same as car parks C & E c. the same as car park A
b. released for the blue card holders d. not given in the text
5. A member of staff who does not have a blue card can park in...
a. car parks C, D & E. c. car parks A, C & D.
b. car parks A, C & E. d. car parks A, B & C.
6. Joe comes into Portchester by rail. Which bus service should he use to get to the hospital?
a. 62A b. 57A c. 57D d. 56D
7. Joe sometimes works the night shift. What is the maximum time he may have to wait for a bus from
the hospital to the station?
a. 60 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 15 minutes
8. Go! pass allows users to
a. Use bus services c. park in the city parks and ride services
b. Park at any of city’s parks d. use ride services
9. What forms of transport will be able to use Car Park D after April 1st?
a. Buses and cars c. buses, cars, bicycles and motorbikes
b. cars, bicycles and motorbikes d. buses, bicycles and motorbikes
10. Which is NOT true about Perkin’s Wheels?
a. It will fix staff member’s bikes for no charge
b. It sells bicycles and motorbikes
c. It will sell goods to staff at half price
d. It will give advice on bicycle upkeep
TEXT 6 ZOO THEN AND NOW
Modern zoos are very different from zoos that were built fifty years ago. At that time, zoos were places
where people could go to see animals from many parts of the world. The animals lived in cages that were made
of concrete with iron bars, cages that were easy to keep clean. Unfortunately for the animals, the cages were
small and impossible to hide in.
The zoo environment was anything but natural. Although the zoo keepers took good care of the animals
and fed them well, many of the animals did not thrive = grow: they behaved in strange ways and they often
became ill.
In modern zoos, people can see animals in more natural habitats. The animals are given more freedom
in larger areas so that they can live more as they would in nature. Even the appearance of zoos has changed.
Trees and grass grow in the cages and streams of water flow through the areas that the animals live in. There
are few bars: instead, there is often only a cheap ditch, filled with water, which is called a moat. The moat
surrounds an area where several species of animals live together as they would naturally. For example, in the
San Diego Zoo, the visitor can walk through a huge special cage that is filled with trees, some small animals
and many birds. This particular kind of cage is called an aviary: it is large enough that the birds can live naturally.
The birds in the aviary fly around, make nests in the trees and hunt for food. At the Zoological Park in New
York City, because of special night lights, people can observe nocturnal animals that most people have never
seen: these animals are active only at night, when most zoos are closed. In a zoo like the Arizona Sonora Desert
Museum, people can see animals that live in special environments like the desert. Some other zoos have special
places for visitors to watch animals that live under water like fish. Still other zoos have special places for animals
that live in cold polar surroundings like the great bear from the Arctic Region.

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Modem zoos not only display animals for visitors, but they also preserve and save endangered species.
Endangered animals such as the American bald eagle and bison are now living and producing offspring in zoos.
For this reason, fifty years from now the grandchildren of today’s visitors will still be able to enjoy watching
these animals.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
a. Animals should be kept in a safe place
b. Modern zoos are now both a recreational area and an animal reserve
c. A lot of modern zoos are built all over the world
d. Zoos in the past offer safer natural surroundings for animals
2. Compared to animals fifty years ago, animals nowadays are
a. freer b. physically weaker
c. better fed d. more intelligent
3. Cages in the past were
a. Built in a natural environment b. spacious enough
c. easily to clean up d. convenient for animals to live in
4. Which of the following sentences is NOT TRUE about modern zoos?
a. Some endangered species living here are likely to become extinct
b. There are some improvements in their design
c. They provide more space for animals to live in natural habitats.
d. They offer good conditions for endangered species to bring up and produce more descendants
5. What is a “moat” in paragraph 3?
a. a gate without any bars b. a cage with a lot of trees
c. an area with trees and grassd. a small channel filled with water
6. What is TRUE about animals living in the zoos in the past?
a. They did not grow well b. they were not well - protected
c. They were physically strong d. they lived in natural surrounding
7. What does the word “Nocturnal” in paragraph 3 mean?
a. natural bred b. active at night c. rare d. well-protected
8. What is NOT TRUE about aviary?
a. birds can build their home
b. the cage is big enough for visitors to walk around
c. there are readily-made food for animals to eat
d. there are some special designs for animals
9. What does “this reason” in paragraph 4 mean?
a. visitors are eager to watch eagles and bison
b. modern zoos provide a recreational area for visitors
c. endangered species can be well-protected in modern zoos in the next fifty years
d. modern zoos give natural habitats for endangered species to breed
10. What does the word “offspring” in paragraph 4 mean?
a. partners b. children C. relatives d. mates
TEXT 7
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In January and
February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is
larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a
wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He

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ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying
sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which she joins
the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum.
Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy=inhabit the
deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with
leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. even to occupy the
deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with
leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two or
three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about
her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold.
It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out,
they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and keep the
parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken.
Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before
fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life by November and
drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own.
Question 1:What is the topic of this passage?
A. Raising a family of great horned owls B. Mating rituals of great horned owls
C. Nest building of great horned owls D. Habits of young great horned owls
2. In line 3-4, the phrase "a resonant hoot" is closest in meaning to
A. an instrument B a sound C a movement D an offering of food
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls
A. takes place on the ground B. is an active process
C. happens in the fall D. involves the male alone
4. According to the passage, great horned owls
A. are excellent nest builders B need big nests for their numerous eggs
C may inhabit a previously used nest D build nests on tree limbs
5. According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job?
A To initiate the courtship ritual B To feed the young
C To sit on the nest D To build the nest
6. The phrase "precious charges" in lines 23 refers to
A the eggs B the nest C the hawks and crows D other nesting owls
7. According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT
A other small birds B insects C small mammals D nuts and seeds
8. In line 27, the word "they" refers to
A the wise old men B the adult birds C the young birds D the prey
9. What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned owls?
A They are sorry to see their young leave home.
B They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
C They probably don't see their young after November.
D They don't eat while they are feeding their young.

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10. The phrase "weary of" in line 32 is closest in meaning to
A tire of B become sad about C support D are attracted to
TEXT 8
It was previously believed that dinosaurs were cold-blooded creatures, like reptiles. However, a recent
discovery has led researchers to believe they may have been warm-blooded. The fossilized remains of a 66
million-year-old dinosaur’s heart were discovered and examined by x-ray. The basis for the analysis that they
were warm-blooded is the number of chambers in the heart as well as the existence of a single aorta.
Most reptiles have three chambers in their hearts, although some do have four. But those that have four
chambers, such as the crocodile, have two arteries to mix the oxygen-heavy blood with oxygen-lean blood.
Reptiles are cold-blooded, meaning that they are dependent on the environment for body heat. Yet the fossilized
heart had four chambers in the heart as well as a single aorta. The single aorta means that the oxygen-rich blood
was completely separated from the oxygen-poor blood and sent through the aorta to all parts of the body.
Mammals, on the other hand, are warm-blooded, meaning that they generate their own body heat and
are thus more tolerant of temperature extremes. Birds and mammals, because they are warm blooded, move
more swiftly and have greater physical endurance than reptiles. Scientists believe that the evidence now
points to the idea that all dinosaurs were actually warm-blooded. Ironically, the particular dinosaur in which
the discovery was made was a Tescelosaurus, which translates to “marvelous lizard.” A lizard, of course, is a
reptile.
1. The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to _________.
A. researchers B. dinosaurs C. reptiles D. Discoveries
2. According to the author, what theory was previously held and now is being questioned?
A. That dinosaurs were cold-blooded
B. That dinosaurs were warm-blooded
C. That dinosaurs had four-chambered hearts
D. That dinosaurs were swifter and stronger than reptiles
3. What is the basis of the researchers’ new theory?
A. They performed mathematical calculations and determined that dinosaurs must have had
fourchambered hearts.
B. They found a fossil of an entire dinosaur and reviewed the arteries and veins flowing from and to the
heart.
C. They viewed a fossil of a dinosaur’s heart and discovered that it had two aortas.
D. They found a fossil of a dinosaur’s heart and discovered it had four chambers and one aorta.
4. The word “those” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. hearts B. chambers C. reptiles D. arteries
5. The author implies that reptiles _________.
A. are cold-blooded B. have four-chambered hearts
C. have one aorta D. are faster and have more endurance than mammals
6. The word “completely” in paragraph two is closest in meaning to _________.
A. constantly B. unevenly C. partially D. entirely
7. The word “generate” in paragraph three is closest in meaning to _________.
A. use B. lose C. produce D. tolerate

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8. The author implies that birds _________.
A. move slower and have less endurance than reptiles
B. move faster and have greater endurance than reptiles
C. move faster and have greater endurance than dinosaurs
D. move slower and have less endurance than dinosaurs
9. What does the author imply by the sentence:
“Ironically, the particular dinosaur in which the discovery was made was a Tescelosaurus, which translates
to “marvelous lizard”.
A. It is unusual that the creature would have a name with the suffix of a dinosaur.
B. It is surprising that the fossilized heart was discovered.
C. It is paradoxical that the dinosaur’s name includes the word lizard, because now scientists believe it is
not a lizard.
D. It should have been realized long ago that dinosaurs were warm-blooded.
10. The word “particular” in paragraph four is closest in meaning to _________.
A. special B. specific C. sparse D. Spatial
TEXT 9
Sometimes people worry about the germs that they come into contact with daily. In fact, most people would be
surprised to learn just how many microbes actually inhabit a human’s body at any given time, in addition to
the larger visitors that come around occasionally. Such natural species that regularly come into contact with our
bodies include mites, lice, yeast, and fungus, just to name a few. We are, in fact, an ecosystem much like a rain
forest is to the natural flora and fauna that call it home.
Lice, or nits, are particularly horrible to even think about. To learn that one’s child has been found in school
with head lice can cause trauma and shame. People think that having lice is a symptom of being unclean,
although one can be infected by contact with somebody else who has them. Although lice are not that common
in general circles, children can easily acquire them just because of their close contact with other children at
school or play. Some large cities host highpriced nit pickers who make a living removing head lice from
children.
Mites on the human body are much more common, and cleanliness does not eliminate the chance of having
them. They are also microscopic, so they are invisible to the naked eye. There are a number of different species
of mites, two of which have the human face as their natural habitat, particularly the skin of the
forehead. Others are very content among human hair, living among the follicles of the eyelashes, eyebrows,
and scalp hair.
Not all such inhabitants are harmful. In fact, even the annoying mite lives on dead skin cells, actually doing
us a favor by removing them. The dreaded dust mite, for example, blamed for causing allergies, removes dead
skin from bed coverings. And harmless bacteria often keep potentially harmful bacteria from being able to
survive. So people should not try to eliminate mites from their bodies, although some have tried. Some sufferers
of obsessive/compulsive disorder have scrubbed themselves raw trying to eliminate all scavengers from their
bodies, only to damage their skin, and all to no avail.
Certain types of yeast also regularly live on the human body, sometimes causing annoyances. One common
type lives on the oil produced in the skin of the face or scalp, causing a condition known as pityriasis versicolor,
which is a scaling and discoloration of the skin.
Ailments such as athlete’s foot are caused by a fungus that grows in warm, moist conditions. To avoid them or
avoid a recurrence, patients are encouraged keep their feet dry and cool, which of course may not be easy,
depending on one’s work or personal habits. Ringworm is also a fungus acquired by contact with keratin-rich
soil in many parts of the world.
Besides the tiny inhabitants, we are also regularly harassed by insects that feed off of our bodies, like
mosquitoes, ticks, and fleas, which sometimes deposit harmful illnesses at the same time they probe the skin for

11. 11
the blood on which they live. Mosquitoes have been known to cause malaria and yellow fever as well as
encephalitis. Fleas have transmitted bubonic plague, and ticks have caused lime disease.
Just like a river, an ocean, a rain forest, or any other ecological wonder in which numerous species survive,
feeding upon other inhabitants, our bodies are natural providers of nutrition and life for various small and
microscopic species.
1 The word “inhabit” in the second sentence is closest in meaning to _________.
A. Escape B. feed on C. live in D. abuse
2. The author’s main point is _________.
A. to describe how the human body is host to a number of different harmful and harmless
inhabitants and visitors.
B. to describe the dangerous ailments that can result from insects and microbes.
C. to warn people about the dangers of being attacked by small life forms.
D. to describe how to rid oneself of bacteria and insects.
3. The author infers that lice and mites are different in that _________.
A. lice are not harmful, but mites are.
B. mites live only on the skin, and lice live only in the hair.
C. mites are treatable, and lice are not.
D. mites are totally unavoidable, while lice may be avoidable.
4. The word “shame” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. anger B. embarrassment C. disbelief D. contentment
5. The word “their” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. lice’s B. schools’ C. circles’ D. children’s
6. The word “Others” in the third paragraph refers to _________.
A. foreheads B. Follicles C. mite species D. habitats
7. The author indicates that lice are also known as _________.
A. yeast B. nits C. microbes D. ticks
8. The author indicates that a nit picker is _________.
A. somebody who removes lice professionally
B. somebody who is afraid of mites
C. a doctor who treats patients for infection
D. somebody who has been bitten by a tick
9. The author infers that _________.
A. being host to insects and microbes is unwise
B. one can avoid infestation by microbes
C. insects are the cause of microbial infestation
D. being host to insects and microbes is inevitable
10. What does the author mean by the statement “Not all such inhabitants are harmful” at the
beginning of the fourth paragraph?
A. Mites are the same as yeast.
B. Some mites eat other harmful mites.
C. Mites actually are beneficial because they remove dead skin particles from the body and habitat.
D. The diseases mites carry do not pass to humans.
TEXT 10
Mount Rushmore is a well – known monument in the Black Hills of South Dakota that features the countenances
of four United States presidents: Washington, Jefferson, Roosevelt, and Lincoln. What is not so well known is
that the process of creating this national treasure was not exactly an uneventful one.
Mount Rushmore was the project of the visionary sculptor John Gutzen de la Mothe Borglum, who was born in
Idaho but studied sculpture in Paris in his youth and befriended the famous French sculptor Auguste Rodin. In
1927 Borglum was granted a commission by the federal government to create the sculpture on Mount Rushmore.

12. 12
Though he was nearly sixty years old when he started, he was undaunted by the enormity of the project and the
obstacles that it engendered. He optimistically asserted that the project would be completed within five years,
not caring to recognize the potential problems that such a massive project would involve, the problems of
dealing with financing, with government bureaucracy, and with Mother Nature herself. An example of what
Mother Nature had to throw at the project was the fissure – or large crack – that developed in the granite where
Jefferson was being carved. Jefferson had to be moved to the other side of Washington, next to Roosevelt
because of the break in the stone. The work that had been started on the first Jefferson had to be dynamited
away.
Mount Rushmore was not completed within the five years predicted by Borglum and was in fact not actually
completed within Borglum’s lifetime, although it was almost finished. Borglum died on March 6, 1941, at the
age of seventy – four, after fourteen years of work on the project, completed the monument within eight months
of his father’s death.
Question 1: Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. Mount Rushmore was a huge project filled with the numerous obstacles.
B. Mount Rushmore is a famous American monument.
C. Mount Rushmore has sculptures of four United States presidents on it.
D. John Gutzen de la Mothe Borglum created Mount Rushmore.
Question 2: Which of the following best describes the relationship between Borglum and Rodin in
Borglum’s early years?
A. Borglum studied about Rodin in Paris.
B. Borglum was far more famous than Rodin as a sculptor.
C. Borglum and Rodin were born and raised in the same place.
D. Borglum and Rodin were friends.
Question 3: The word “nearly” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by which of the following.
A. Over B. Closely C. Almost D. Barely Question
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT true about Borglum?
A. He began Mount Rushmore around the age of sixty.
B. He predicted that Mount Rushmore would be finished around 1932.
C. Mount Rushmore was finished when Borglum predicted it would be.
D. Borglum worked on Mount Rushmore for more than a decade.
Question 5: It can be inferred from the passage that Borglum was someone who
A. expected the best to happen
B. set realistic goals
C. never tried anything too changeling
D. was always afraid that bad things were going to happen
Question 6: A “fissure” in paragraph 2 is a
A. discoloration B. break C. unevenness D. softness
Question 7: Why does the author mention the fact that the carving of Thomas Jefferson was moved?
A. It shows what a perfectionist Borglum was.
B. It demonstrates Borglum’s artistic style.
C. It gives insight into Jefferson’s character.
D. It is an example of a problem caused by nature.
Question 8: The pronoun “it” in paragraph 3 refers to which of the following?
A. The first Jefferson
B. Mount Rushmore
C. Borglum’s lifetime
D. Fourteen years of work
Question 9: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the expression “within eight months of his
father’s death” in paragraph 3?
A. More than eight months before his father’s death
B. Less than eight months before his father’s death

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C. Less than eight months after his father’s death
D. More than eight months after his father’s death
Question 10: This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
A. art history B. geography C. management D. government
TEXT 11
Icebergs are among nature’s most spectacular creations, and yet most people have never seen one. Avague air
of mystery envelops them. They come into being somewhere-in faraway, frigid waters, amid thunderous noise
and splashing turbulence, which in most cases no one hears or sees. They exist only a short time and then slowly
waste away just unnoticed.
Objects of sheerest beauty, they have been called. Appearing in an endless variety of shapes they may be
dazzlingly white, or they may be glassy blue, green, or purple, tinted faintly or in darker hues. They are graceful,
stately, inspiring-in calm, sunlit seas.
But they are also called frightening and dangerous, and that they are-in the night, in the fog, and in storms. Even
in clear weather one is wise to stay a safe distance away from them. Most of their bulk is hidden below the
water, so their underwater parts may extend out far beyond the visible top. Also, they may roll over
unexpectedly, churning the waters around them.
Icebergs are parts of glaciers that break off, drift into the water, float about a while, and finally melt. Icebergs
afloat today are made of snowflakes that have fallen over long ages of time. They embody snows that drifted
down hundreds, or many thousands, or in some cases maybe a million years ago. The snows fell in polar regions
and on cold mountains, where they melted only a little or not at all, and so collected to great depths over the
years and centuries.
As each year’s snow accumulation lay on the surface, evaporation and melting caused the snowflakes slowly to
lose their feathery points and become tiny grains of ice. When new snow fell on top of the old, it too turned to
icy grains. So blankets of snow and ice grains mounted layer upon layer and were of such great thickness that
the weight of the upper layers compressed the lower ones. With time and pressure from above, the many small
ice grains joined and changed to larger crystals, and eventually the deeper crystals merged into a solid mass of
ice.
Question 1. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Melting of Icebergs B. The Nature and Origin of Icebergs
C. The Size and Shape of Icebergs D. The Dangers of Icebergs
Question 2. The author states that icebergs are rarely seen because they are
A. surrounded by fog
B. hidden beneath the mountains
C. located in remote regions of the world
D. broken by waves soon after they are formed
Question 3. The passage mentions all of the following colors for icebergs EXCEPT
A. yellow B. blue C. green D. purple
Question 4. According to the passage, icebergs are dangerous because they
A. usually melt quickly B. can turn over very suddenly

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C. may create immense snowdrifts D. can cause unexpected avalanches
Question 5. According to the passage, icebergs originate from a buildup of
A. turbulent water B. feathers
C. underwater pressure D. snowflakes
Question 6. The formation of an iceberg is most clearly analogous to which of the following
activities?
A. Walking on fluffy new snow, causing it to become more compact and icy
B. Plowing large areas of earth, leaving the land flat and barren
C. Skating across a frozen lake and leaving a trail behind
D. Blowing snow into one large pile to clear an area
Question 7. In line 20, the expression "from above" refers to
A. sunlit seas B. polar regions
C. weight of mountains D. layers of ice and snow
Question 8. The attitude of the author toward icebergs is one of
A. disappointment B. humor C. disinterest D. wonder
TEXT 12
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s up- bringing can give it the ability to do
outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply something a
person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be developed. The
truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a child’s ability
to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and opportunities. As one
psychologist says “to have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel”. Scientists have recently assessed
intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that were separated shortly after birth and
brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was based on intelligence, and later influenced
by the child’s environment. Once case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a
normal upbringing, performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive parents
and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though starting out with the same degree
of intelligence as the other, performed even better. This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and
ability. The more favorable the environment, the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed.
However, there is no link between intelligence and the socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words,
it does not matter how poor or how rich a family is, as this does not affect intelligence. Gifted people can not
be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One professor of music said that
outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary performers, often because their
parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard work and training in
order to reach the level they were capable of attaining. People who want to have very gifted children are
given the following advice:
- Marry an intelligent person
- Allow children to follow their interests rather than the interests of the parents.
- Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
- Encourage the children to play ; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for child who wants
to become an outstanding musician.
Question 1. What s the main idea of the passage?

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A. Studying different twins is not a useful scientific procedure
B. To become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and development
C. Educational development depends completely on economic well- being
D. A child’s intelligence in not influenced by his/ her parents
Question 2. The writer advised that gifted children should be allowed to follow____________.
A. their parents’ interests B. only their interests in computer games
C. their own interests D. only their interests in musical instruments
Question 3. When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that________________.
A. ability depends mainly on intelligence and achievement
B. ability depends both on intelligence and on environment
C. different twins generally have different levels of ability
D. intelligence and development are irrelevant to ability
Question 4. Scientists choose twins for their study because________________.
A. each twin has the same environment as his/ her twin
B. they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
C. they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence
D. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing
Question 5. The word “ Others” used in the first paragraph refers to ________________.
A. other scientists B. other children C. other geniuses D. other people
Question 6. Which of the following word has the opposite meaning with the word “ intelligent” in the
second paragraph ?
A. Stupid B. Studious C. Clever D. Weak
Question 7. The word “favorable” in the passage mostly means________________.
A. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”
B. “good for someone and making him/ her likely to be successful”
C. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people”
D. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”
Question 8. It can be inferred from the passage that in order to become a genius________________.
A. You need intelligence and you need to develop it
B. You need to have good health and good nourishment
C. You should try to move quickly and efficiently
D. You must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
TEXT 13
San Francisco is where I grew up between the ages of two and ten and where I lived for a period when
I was about 13 and again as a married man from the ages of 37 to 51. So quite a bit slice of my life has been
spent there. My mother, who is now 90, still lives in Los Gatos, about 60 miles south of San Francisco. Even
though I have since lived in Switzerland and settled in London over 25 years ago, I have kept property in
California for sentimential reasons.
I was born in New York and I love the United States. It is still a land of enormous drive, strength,
imagination and opportunity. I know it well, having played in every town and, during the war, in every army
camp. I have grown new roots in London as I did in Switzerland and if I am asked now where I want to live
permanently, I would say London. But I will always remain an American citizen.

16. 16
Climatically, San Francisco and London are similar and so are the people who settle in both cities. San
Francisco is sophisticated, and like London, has many parks and squares. Every day my sisters and I were taken
to play in the parks as children. We had an English upbringing in terms of plenty of fresh air and outdoors
games. I didn’t go to school. My whole formal education consisted of some three hours when I was five. I was
sent to school but came home at noon on the first day and said I didn’t enjoyed it, hadn’t learned anything and
couldn’t see the point of a lot of children sitting restlessly while a teacher taught from a big book. My parents
decided, wisely I think, that school was not for me and I never went back.
My mother then took over my education and brought up my two sisters and me rather in the way of an
educated English lady. The emphasis was on languages and reading rather than sciences and mathematics.
Sometimes she taught us herself, but we also had other teachers and we were kept to a strict routine. About once
a week we walked to Golden Gate Park which led down to the sea and on our walks my mother taught me to
read music. One day I noticed a small windmill in the window of a shop we passed on our way back to the park
and I remember now how my heart yearned for it. I couldn’t roll my ‘r’s when I was small and my mother who
was a perfecttionist regarding pronunciation, said if I could pronounce an “r” well I’d have the windmill. I
practised and practised and one morning woke everyone up with my ‘r’s. I got the windmill. I usually get the
things I want in life-but I work for them and dream of them.
1. When the writer was twelve he was living in
A. San Francisco B. Los Gatos
C. London D. a place unknown to the reader
2. During the war, the writer
A. became an American soldier. B. went camping all over the country.
C. gave concerts for soldiers. D. left the United States.
3. The writer did not attend school in America because
A. his mother wanted him to go to school in England.
B. His parents did not think he was suited to formal education.
C. His mother preferred him to play outdoors in the parks.
D. He couldn’t get on with the other children.
4. He was educated at home by
A. his mother and other teachers. B. an educated English lady.
C. his mother and sisters. D. teachers of languages and science.
5. The writer managed to obtain the little windmill he wanted by
A. borrowing the money for it. B. learning to rad music.
C. succeeding in speaking properly. D. working hard at his lessons.
TEXT 14
The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by thermonuclear reactions near its center that convert
hydrogen to helium. The Sun has existed in its present state for about 4 billion, 600 million years and is
thousands of times larger than the Earth.
By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the rest of the Sun’s life will be like. About 5 billion years
from now, the core of the Sun will shrink and become hotter. The surface temperature will fall. The higher
temperature of the center will increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions of the Sun will
expand approximately 35 million miles, about the distance to Mercury, which is the closest planet to the Sun.
The Sun will then be a red giant star. Temperatures on the Earth will become too hot for life to exist.

17. 17
Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant, it will begin to shrink. After it shrinks to the
size of the Earth, it will become a white dwarf star. The Sun may throw off huge amounts of gases in violent
eruptions called nova explosions as it changes from a red giant to a white dwarf.
After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have used up all its fuel and will have lost its heat. Such a
star is called a black dwarf. After the Sun has become a black dwarf, the Earth will be dark and cold. If any
atmosphere remains there, it will have frozen onto the Earth’s surface.
1. What is the primary purpose of this passage?
A. To alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
B. To discuss conditions on Earth in the far future
C. To present a theory about red giant stars
D. To describe changes that the Sun will go through
2. The word “fueled” in line 1 is closest in meaning to
A. powered B. bombarded C. created D. propelled
3. The word “state” in line 2 is closest in meaning to
A. Shape B. Condition C. Location D. Size
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun
A. is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf
B. has been in existence for 10 billion years
C. is rapidly changing in size and brightness
D. will continue as a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years
5. What will probably be the first stage of change as the Sun becomes a red giant?
A. Its core will cool off and use less fuel B. Its surface will become hotter and shrink.
C. It will throw off huge amounts of gases D. Its center will grow smaller and hotter.
6. When the Sun becomes a red giant, what will conditions be like on Earth?
A. Its atmosphere will freeze and become solid.
B. It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the Sun.
C. It will become too hot for life to exist.
D. It will be nearly destroyed by nova explosions.
7. As a white dwarf, the Sun will be
A. the same size as the planet Mercury B. thousands of times smaller than it is today
C. around 35 million miles in diameter D. cold and dark
8. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the sequence of stages that the Sun
will probably pass through?
A. Yellow dwarf, white dwarf, red giant, black giant
B. Red giant, white dwarf, red dwarf, nova explosion
C. Yellow dwarf, red giant, white dwarf, black dwarf
D. White dwarf, red giant, black dwarf, yellow dwarf
9. The phrase “throw off” in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. Eject B. burn up C. convert D. let in
10. The word “there” in line 15 refers to
A. our own planet B. the outer surface of the Sun
C. the core of a black dwarf D. the planet Mercury
TEXT 15
Read the following passage and mark the letter А, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global warming.
Scientists have already observed shifts in the lifecycle of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming
earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species began shifting where they live or their migration
patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher
elevation. Plants will also attempt shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In many
places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland blocking

18. 18
their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystem, such as those found in polar
and mountaintop regions are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not possible. For example,
polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling sea ice but have nowhere
farther north to go.
Protecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have
estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further
warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals. Some
species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to adjust quickly enough
and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global warming.
Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the
coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching
and death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean
and increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.
(Adapted from “Global Warming” by Michael Maslraiulreo and Stephen II. Schneider)
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles. B. Global warming and possible solutions.
C. Effects of global warming on animals and plants. D. Global warming and species migration.
Question 37: The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to ____________.
A. species B. ecosystems C. habitats D. areas
Question 38: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers to ________.
A. die instantly B. lose color C. become lighter D. bloom earlier
Question 39: The word “dwindling sea ice" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. the frozen water in the Artic. B. the violent Artic Ocean.
C. the melting ice in the Artic. D. the cold ice in the Artic.
Question 40: The word “fragile" in paragraph 4 mostly means ___________.
A. very large B. easily damaged C. rather strong D. pretty hard
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by the rising amount of carbon dioxide entering the ocean.
В. When habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher
elevations.
C. The bleaching of coral reefs leads to warmer ocean temperatures and breaks down ocean ecosystem.
D. If some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer temperatures, they may be endangered.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. All species are able to adjust quickly to warmer temperatures so that they can begin to develop.
B. Species living in unique ecosystems are especially not at stake because their migration to new habitats is
impossible.
C. The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by the extinction of species in coastal areas.
D. Nearly half of species could become extinct if the global temperatures rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees.
TEXT 16
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry,
was born in North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school
until the age of fifteen, where he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a
licensed pharmacist. However, within a year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague of
his Father’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding sheep. During
this time, Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion, and Porter gained a
knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved to Austin for
three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym
appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887,
Porter married Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First
National Bank.

19. 19
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that
failed within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the
First National Bank was examined, and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter
had embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife
and child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however
she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and sentenced to five years
imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated man; he had losthis job, his
home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later, reborn as O. Henry, the
pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his
freedom, went to New York City, where he
published more than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer.
Porter married again in 1907, but after months of poor health, he died in New York City at the
age of forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world.
1. Why did the author write the passage?
(a) because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer
(b) to outline the career of a famous American
(c) because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer
(d) to outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing
2. According to the passage, Porter’s Father was
(a) responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas
(b) the person who gave him a life-long love of books
(c) a medical doctor
(d) a licensed pharmacist
3. The word “allegedly” in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(a)supposedly (b) reportedly (c)wrongly (d)mistakenly
4. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
(a) both of Porter’s wives died before he died
(b) Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist
(c) Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”
(d) the first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin
5. The word “venture” in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(a) challenging experiment (b) bold initiative
(c) speculative action (d) sorry experience
6. The word “subsequent in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(a)resulting (b) police (c) alleged(d) official
7. Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison EXCEPT his
(a)home (b)wife (c)job (d)books
8. According to the author, how many stories did Porter write while in prison for three
years?
(a) more than 300 (b) 35 (c) at least 12 (d) over 20
9. The author implies which of the following is true?
(a) Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for
three years
(b) Porter was in poor health throughout his life
(c) O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America

20. 20
(d) Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he
fled.
10. Where in the passage does the author mention a habit of Porter that was to become very
useful for him later?
(a) lines 6-10 (b) lines 11-15 (c) lines 16-20 (d) lines 21-25
TEXT 17
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little space, is
closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of resources,
or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain number of
people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food and other
resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple farming, gardening,
herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers of people because
these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.
In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe,
overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large quantities
of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and
agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high densities of people
in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural
productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147 persons
per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual farming, which
contributes to the country’s extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe,
such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as well. These countries practice
mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however, and therefore have high standards of
living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less than
30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these countries also
have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a consequence,
these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low population density and high agricultural
productivity; it is one of the world’s wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many poor
families because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies
commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide
little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small
have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population growth.
Question 1: Which of the following is given a definition in paragraph 1?
A. Poverty B. Population density C. Overpopulation D. Simple farming
Question 2: What will suffer when there are excessively high population densities?
A. Available resources B. Farming methods C. Land area D. Skilled labor

21. 21
Question 3: The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ______.
A. resources B. countries C. people D. densities
Question 4: In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because ______.
A. there is an abundance of resources B. there is no shortage of skilled labor
C. there are small numbers of laborers D. there is lack of mechanization
Question 5: Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ______.
A. population density in metropolitan areas
B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. its population density only
D. its high agricultural productivity
Question 6: The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. escape from B. look into C. give up D. participate in
Question 7: The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. impossible B. unproductive C. disused D. inaccessible
Question 8: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
B. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
C. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
D. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
Question 9: Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries?
A. High-tech facilities B. High birth rates
C. Economic resources D. Sufficient financial support
Question 10: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences B. Poverty in Developing Countries
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem D. Overpopulation: A Cause of poverty
/. TEXT 28
Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with breakthroughs in satellite
technology and computer equipment, have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving
equipment for scientists doing research on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often
became sluggish, and their mental concentration was severely limited. Because undersea pressure affects
their speech organs, communication among divers has always been difficult or impossible. But today,
most oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable human divers, preferring to reduce the risk to human life
and make direct obervations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples take
from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the ocean floor
can be made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in the water and even by the
technology of sophisticated aerial photgraphy from vantage points above the surface of more than seven
miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by
remote control in order to transmit data back to land-based laboratories via satellite. Particularly important
for ocean study are data about water temperature, currents, and weather. Satellite photographs can show
the distribution of sea ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite
pictures can represent the temperature and the color of the ocean’s surface, enabling researchers to study
the ocean currents from laboratories on dry land. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect,
organize, and analyze data from submarines and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean’s movement

22. 22
and characteristics, scientists can predict the patterns and possible effects of the ocean on the enviroment.
Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research
ships or even submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly
and more effectively. Some of humankind’s most serious problems, especially those concerning energy
and food, may be solved with the help of observations made possible by this new technology.
1. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs?
A. A model of the ocean’s movements. B. Cloud formations over the ocean.
C. The temperature of the ocean’s surface. D. The location of sea ice.
2. The words “those” refers to _______.
A. vehicles B. ships C. problems D. computers
3. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Technological advances in oceanography. B. Direct observation of the ocean floor.
C. Undersea vehicles. D. Communication among drivers.
4. The word “sluggish” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. slow moving B. very weak C. nervous D. confused
5. The word “cruise” could best be replaced by _______.
A. function without problems B. travel at a constant speed
C. stay in communication D. remain still
6. Undersea vehicles _______.
A. have the same limitations that divers have B. are too small for a man to fit inside
C. are very slow to respond D. make direct observations of the ocean floor
7. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon _______.
A. controlling currents and the weather B. vehicles as well as divers
C. radios that divers use to communicate D. the limitations of diving equipment
8. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because _______.
A. they did not pronounce clearly B. the water destroyed their speech organs
C. the vehicles they used have not been perfected D. the pressure affected their speech organs
9. The word “data” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. samples B. photographs C. articles D. information
10. How is a radio-quipped buoy operated?
A. by operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform.
B. By operators outside the vehicle on ship.
C. by operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore.
D. by operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater.
TEXT 19
GLOBAL THINKING IN THE 21ST CENTURY
At the end of the 20th century, the world is changing in important ways. Until recently, nations acted
independently. Each country did its business and tried to solve its problems alone. But now, the economy
is worldwide and communications technologies have connected people all over the globe. Many problems
are global, too, and can no longer be solved by individual nations.
Environmental destruction is one of these problems. As the world's population has grown and technology
has developed, the environment has suffered. Some nations have begun to try to stop the pollution and the

23. 23
environmental destruction. But the environment is global -- the atmosphere, the oceans, and many forms
of life are all connected. Thus, the solutions require global thinking.
The problem of ocean pollution is a good example. All the oceans of the world are connected. Pollution
does not stay where it begins. It spreads out from every river and every harbor and affects bodies of water
everywhere.
For centuries, people have used the oceans as a dumping place. Many cities take tons of garbage out to
sea and dump it there. The quantity of garbage that ends up in the water is incredible. Five million plastic
containers are thrown into the world's oceans every day. Aside from plastics, many other dangerous
substances are dumped in oceans. These include human waste and chemicals used in agriculture. And
every year, oil tankers accidentally spill millions of gallons of oil into the sea.
Some people believe that the oceans are so large that chemicals and waste will disappear. However, many
things, such as chemicals and plastics, stay in the water and create problems. They eventually float to
shore and are eaten by tiny sea creatures. Then the larger animals that eat the tiny creatures are poisoned
and die. Harbors and coasts around the world have become unsafe for humans or animals. The world's
fish populations are rapidly shrinking.
Another global pollution problem concerns the atmosphere. Until recently, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
were used around the world in manufacturing refrigerators. Scientists discovered that these CFCs were
destroying the ozone layer in the atmosphere. The ozone layer helps protect the earth from the sun's rays.
Without this layer, most forms of life on earth — including humans — probably would not be able to
live.
CFCs will soon be completely banned in the United States and in most developed countries. But many
other countries still use CFCs in manufacturing. Among these countries are some of the most populous
on earth, such as India and China. These countries need to change their refrigerator factories to non-CFC
processes. But they may not be able to make this change alone. They will need help from the industrialized
countries. This is what global thinking means working together for solutions.
1. This passage is about _______
A. air pollution. B. global thinking.
C. old ways of thinking. D. refrigerator factories in China.
2. You may infer from this passage that in the past _______
A. individual nations did not have as many problems.
B. nations were more interested in the environment.
C. the economy was more global.
D. problems were more local.
3. Until now, most nations followed the principal that _______
A. all countries should share their problems.
B. all nations were enemies.
C. what happens in China affects everyone.
D. each nation should take care of its own problems.
4. According to this passage, many environmental problems _______
A. are caused by global thinking.
B. cannot be solved by local laws.
C. are caused by old ways of thinking.
D. are caused by the United States and Japan.
5. The solution to ocean pollution requires global thinking because _______

24. 24
A. all the world's oceans are connected.
B. no one cares about the ocean.
C. the oceans are so large.
D. more oil is needed in the developing countries.
6. Increasing global population and the development of technology _______
A. will solve the problem of ocean pollution.
B. is a result of global thinking.
C. have made the pollution problem worse.
D. have resulted in more business opportunities.
7. From this article, we can infer that, in manufacturing refrigerators, _______
A. other chemicals can be used in place of CFCs. B. CFCs must be used all around the world.
C. only China uses CFCs D. only CFCs are available in China.
8. Nations must learn to think globally because _______
A. communication technologies will solve our problems.
B. that is the only way to solve global problems.
C. large businesses will spread around the world.
D. changes in the world require stronger nations.
TEXT 20
GOOD MORNING SUNSHINE
Energy research is discovering more good reasons to regularly seek some rays and boost your vitamin
levels.
Strong gums the: Sunshine vitamins: can help protect the gums from bacterial infections leading to
gingivitis and periodontitis, a US study shows. The research found gum cells treated with vitamin D produced
a protein with anbiotic properties that killed more bacteria than untreated cells.
Healthier offspring: pregnant women with optimum vitamin D level may be setting up their kids to be
a healthy weight. The American Journal of Clinical Nution reports babies born to mothers with low vitamins D
levels during their pregnancies had more body fat at six years of age. “There could be programmed effects on
the foetus arising from a lack of material vitamin D that remains with the baby and predisposes him or her to
gain excess body fat in later childhood”. Says lead author Dr. Sian Robinson.
Better eyesight: Vitamin D could help fight age-related eye diseases like mascular degeneration, say UK
researchers. In their study, older mice given vitamin D supplements for six weeks had notable improvements
in their vision.
Am I getting enough? To determine the safest way to maintain healthy levels of vitamin D all year
round, visit WWW. Cancer.org.au for the Cancer Council Australia’s guide to sun exposure or if you suspect
you’re vitamin D deficient. Talk to your GP about having your levels tested.
1. In the first paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence “Energy research is discovering more
good reasons to regularly seek some rays and boost your vitamin levels”.
A. Researchers often do research on sun lights
B. The best way to increase vitamin D is to seek for sun lights for more vitamin D
C. According to the research, it is important to expose to the sunlight for more vitamin D
D. According to the research, people must seek for sun lights to improve their vitamin D levels.
2. What can help protect the gums from bacterial infections?
A. Protein B. gingivitis C. periodontitis D. Vitamin D
3. The word “offspring” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

25. 25
A. Baby B. mother C. childhood D. foetus
4. The word “optimum” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
A. Low vitamin D B. too much vitamin D C. ideal vitamin D D.sufficient vitamin D
5. What effects do mother with low vitamin D level have on their babies?
A. Be underweight B. be lack of vitamin D
C. gain excess body fat D. be a healthy weight
6. The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. babies born to mothers with optimum vitamin D B. babies born to mother with low vitamin D
C. Pregnant women with optimum vitamin D D. pregrant women with low vitamin D
7. The word “notable” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by
A. many B. some C. unimportant D. important
8. According to the passage, how are healthy levels of vitamin D maintained?
A. talk to your GP B. take more vitamin D supplements
C. visit Cancer Council Australia D. refer to the guide from WWW. Cancer.org.au
9. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. researchers B. diseases D. pregnant women D. Babies
10. The author mentions all of the following as the benefits of Vitamin D EXCEPT
A. heathy gum B. Stronger babies C. mental health D. better eyesight
TEXT 21
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance
that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the
most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At
first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval
of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop.
Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways.
Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains, mimicking
arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood,
wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are
not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be
protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or
sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled
herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the
labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins,
particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives,
especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers,
peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your
Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
1. The topic of this passage is _______________.
A. reactions to foods C.food and nutrition
B. infants and allergies D. a good diet
2. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to _________.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
3. The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. Indications C. Diets

26. 26
B. Diagnosis D. Prescription
4. The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A.Relieved C. Identified
B.Avoided D. Triggered
5. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants. (0-6 months)
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
6. The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. overly active C. unusually low activity
B. excited D. inquisitive
7. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to
do with the infant's ___________.
A. lack of teeth C poor metabolism
B. underdeveloped intestinal tract D. inability to swallow solid foods
8. The word "these" refers to ___________.
A. food additives C. food colorings
B. innutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates
9. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas C. Avoiding all Oriental foods
B. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
10. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT ___________.
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
TEXT 22
People of Hispanic origin were on the North American continent centuries before settlers arrived from Europe
in the early 1600s and the thirteen colonies joined together to form the United States in the late 1700s. The first
census of the new nation was conducted in 1790, and counted about four million people, most of whom were
white. Of the white citizens, more than 80% traced their ancestry back to England. There were close to 700,000
slaves and about 60,000 “free Negroes”. Only a few Native American Indians who paid taxes were included in
the census count, but the total Native American population was probably about one million.
By 1815, the population of the United States was 8.4 million. Over the next 100 years, the country took in about
35 million immigrants, with the greatest numbers coming in the late 1800s and early 1900s. In 1882, 40,000
Chinese arrived, and between 1900 and 1907, there were more than 30,000 Japanese immigrants. But by far,
the largest numbers of the new immigrants were from central, eastern, and southern Europe. An enormous
amount of racial and ethnic assimilation has taken place in the United States. In 1908, play-write Israel Zangwill
first used the term “melting pot” to describe the concept of a place where many races melted in a crucible and
re-formed to populate a new land. Some years during the first two decades of the 20th century, there were as
many as one million new immigrants per year, an astonishing 1 percent of the total population of the United
States.

27. 27
In 1921, however, the country began to limit immigration, and the Immigration Act of 1924 virtually closed
the door. The total number of immigrants admitted per year dropped from as many as a million to only 150,000.
A quota system was established that specified the number of immigrants that could come from each country. It
heavily favored immigrants from northern and western Europe and severely limited everyone else. This system
remained in effect until 1965, although after World War II, several exceptions were made to the quota system
to allow in groups of refugees.
1. Why did the author write the passage
A. To outline the ways immigration has been restricted
B. To emphasize the impact of migrants from Europe
C. To explain and give examples of the concept of a “melting pot”
D. To summarize the main features of immigration
2. According to the passage, which ancestry predominated at the time of the first census
A. Native Americans B. Negroes C. English D. Hispanic
3. The word “ancestry” in line 5 is closest meaning to
A. Origins B. inheritance C. Color D. Freedom
4. The word “their” in line 5 refers to which of the following
A. Immigrants B. People of Hispanic origin C. White citizens D. Native Americans
5. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. A quota system was in place from 1908.
B. A peak period of immigration was in the late 1800 and early 1900s
C. Slaves were not counted in the first census
D. Only those who paid taxes were included in the first census
6. The number of immigrants taken in over the 100 years to 1915 was
A. Probably about 1 million B. about 35 million
C. 8.4 million D. about 4 million
7. The word “concept” in line 15 is closest in meaning to
A. location B. type C. complexity D. thought
8. The word “virtually” in line 20 is closest in meaning to
A. effectively B. occasionally C. thoroughly D. undeservedly
9. Which of the following is NOT true about immigrants?
A. they were subjected to an official quota in the Immigration Act from 1924
B. during the 1900s immigrants numbered 1 percent of the total population
C. Settlers of Hispanic origin arrived centuries before those from Europe
D. Numbers began to be limited from 1921.
10. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Preserving a developing “American” culture was a major factor leading to the introduction of the quota
system
B. Racial and ethnic assimilation did not occur as planned
C. Racial and ethnic tensions would have increased if the quota system had not been introduced
D. The quota system was introduced to limit population growth.