1. 1
HEART
521- Cardiac enzyme used in diagnosis of heart attack
Answer: .tropinon enzyme
Q- Most sensitive and specific test for myocardial damage? Troponin
69- A 60-year-old man presents with complain of chest pain twice weekly. History revealed, chronic stable angina with hypertension and is on
atenolol 100 mg daily.
Blood Pressure : 147/93 mmHg
Heart rate : 65/min
What is the best management?
Add isosorbide dinitrate 20 mg twice daily
61-Which of the following medication should be prescribed to the patients with angina to treat an acute attack ?
Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets
Q- acute heart attack TTT?
Isosorbide dinitrate OR short acting nitrates
Nitroglycerin sbl, isosorbide dinitrate sbl
. Nitroglycerin introduces coronary vasodilation
. what is not effect of nitroglycerin : slow HR
477 - Drug of choice in prinzmetal angina ?
Nitroglycerin and calcium channel blockers
Q- Patient with angina which one can worse his case? Celecoxib
(50)Which of the following medications to be used under caution is in patients with ischemic heart disease? celecoxib
74- Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in heart failure? Celecoxib
70- Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for the use of celecoxib? Ischemic heart disease
929- DOC for endocarditis : penicillin G
Q- What is the appropriate antiarrhythmic for a patient has HF ? Dofetilide
678 - Drug accelerate HF? Gabapentin
Q- Heart Failure EF less than 40 which medication should be avoided ? CCB
575 - What is the meaning of P wave in ECG
P wave = arterial depolarization
QRS = ventricular depolarization
T wave = ventricular repolarization
Q- Arterial depolarization ? P-WAVE
Q- Ventricular depolarization ? QRS COMPLEX
Q-absolute refractory period? QRS complex
HYPERTENSION
22 - What are hypertension Stages ?
Answer : STAGE 1 or Prehypertension is 120/80 to 139/89 STAGE 2 or Mild Hypertension is 140/90 to 159/99 STAGE 3 or
Moderate Hypertension is 160/100 to 179/109 STAGE 4 or Severe Hypertension is 180/110 or higher
8. Dash Diet lifestyle of disease ?
Hypertension
34. The aim in the management of uncomplicated hypertension ?
< 13080
313 -Which following have vasoconstriction effect? Alpha 1
22. α1 receptor activation lead to? elevate systolic B.P
14- Which of the following is a consequence of stimulation of ꭤ1 - adrenoceptors? elevated blood pressure
75- Which of the following is a selective ꭤ1 blocker? terazosin
Q- Prazocin MOA ? Prazosin is a selective alpha 1-adrenergic blocking agent
56. prazosin ? is post synaptic alpha1 blocker
Q- Drug that cause syncope? Prazosin
91- Which medication can cause orthostatic hypotension? prazosin
43. Which of the following statements describing first dose phenomenon that associated with prazocin is true?
A marked postural hypotension 30 to 90 minutes following the initial dose of prazocin. When used prophylactically
84- Which of the following is the mode of action of Phentolamine?
alpha-adrenergic blocker (non selective alpha blocker)
49. phentolamine class ? alpha antagonist (blocker)
74. (Isoprenaline) : Non selective β stimulant
. Alpha blocker side effect : postural hypotension
32. one of following is not alpha 2 agonist ? Guanethidine
34. guanthedin SE are all ? orthostatic hypotension
2. 2
Q- Any of these have more alpha activity? NOREpinephrine
EYE 76. Phenylephrine act on ? alpha agonist
344- Function of clonidine? Stimulate alpha and decrease sympathetic responses
. Clonidine used in : hypertension
8. clonidine :Stimulate alpha and decrease sympathetic responses
59. clonidine and methyldopa are ? alpha 2 adrenergic agonists
42. Clonidine MOA in treatment of Hypertension: ?: Alpha2 Agoinst decrease sympathetic outflow
2. How to start anti- hypertension in elderly? Start low dose and increase gradually
35. indapemide used in ? Pulmonary eodema, Essential hypertension
87 -What is class of aliskiren ? Answer Direct renin inhibitors
306- What is MOA aliskiren ?
Answer: Decreases plasma renin activity and inhibits conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
9) Which of the following of the hypertensive therapies is preferred to be used during the acute phase of ischemic stroke if elevated blood
pressure should be treated? nicardipine
Q- Patient has HTN and stroke, What is the most appropriate treatment for him ?
Thiazides + ACEI
ACEI contraindicated in renal failure
. Cardiospecific b blocker: Labetalol.
. b blockers: Selective: Acebutolol
Non selective: timolol, Labetalol, Betoxolol
. Atenolol is :non selective B1 blocker, selective B2 blocker
. Inderal is :B blocker
. Labetalol is: B1 blocker
. Propranolol and Hydralazine to: ⬇ reflux tachycardia
. B2 agonist: Salbutamol
. B1 agonist cause: ⬆ O2 consumption, ⬆ ectopi + inotropic effect
. Na nitroprusside: vasodilator. .. Na Nitroprusside :Slow iv infusion
. Dobutamine: parasympathomimetic, hypotensive, cardiac surgery
. Methyldopa: no vasodilator
. Reserpine cause : depression
. Deltiazem is: Ca channel blocker
. Isoptin (verapamil) used in : supraventicular arrhythmias
. Ca channel blockers: Nifedipine (heart + BP), Diltiazem(heart) , Verapamil( heart) , Amlodipine (heart+ BP)
. Adinosine used for : supraventicular tachycardia
. Adinosine cause : facial flushing & dyspnea
. Moduretic is: Amiloride +hydrochlorothiazide
. Amiloride causes :hyperkalemia
. Captopril dose: 150 mg /day
23. Salbutamol :salbutamol is a short-acting, selective beta2-adrenergic receptor agonist
36. MOA of antiarrhythmic Class 1A ( quinidine ) ? :decrease rate of phase o depolarization
44. amphetamine pharmacological action ? :indirect acting adrenergic agonist.
24. Calcium channel blockers
Calcium channel antagonists block the inward movement of calcium by binding to L-type calcium channels in the heart and in smooth
muscle of the coronary and peripheral arteriolar vasculature. This causes vascular smooth muscle to relax, dilating mainly arterioles.
Calcium channel blockers do not dilate veins.
45. Calcium-channel blockers mode of action ? decrease the inward calcium to cells
75. Amlodipine :Calcium channel blocker (CCBs)
33. Diltiazem actin ? CCB calcuim channel blocker
61. atenolol is ? cardio selective beta 1 blocker
Q- Bisoprolol? beta 1 adrenergic receptor blocker
73. Labetalol : is a selective alpha-1 and non-selective beta adrenergic blocker
81. nitroglycerin:coronary vasodilation
3. 3
BETA BLOCKERS
26. beta blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity ?
pindolol and acebutalol
755- Beta blocker intrinsic?
Acebutolol (β1-selective antagonist) and pindolol (nonselective β-blocker) [PIN-doe-lole]
780- Carvidelol
Answer: Non Selective Beta And Alpha One-Blocker…No Intrinsic Activity For Use In Chf Or Htn
116 - One drug approved to reduce mortality in heart failure??
beta blocker
Q- Patient has atrial fab and heart failure which the most appropriate drug?
Amiodaron
Q- Patient has Afeb witch drug is the best for her RHYTM control?
Sotalol Because he wants rhythm control not rate control
Q- Patient has Afeb witch drug is the best for her RATE control?
Amlodipine Because Amlodipine decrease the rate
165- Side effect of amiodarone?
Answer Hyperthyroidism
Hypotension, bradycardia, corneal microdeposits, dizziness, ataxia, N/V constipation, tremor, drug-induced lupus erythematosus (DILE)
721- Amiodarone monitoring? liver
28- A 47-year-old man is admitted to hospital with atrial arhythmia and is prescribed amiodarone.
Which of the following is the most likely side effects to be monitored?
Pulmonary toxicity
57- A 45-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation is treated with amiodarone 400 mg/day and rivaroxaban 20 mg/day with the evening meal. He
has concern about his drugs routine monitoring.
Which of the following would be the best recommended regarding amiodarone monitoring?
Liver function tests at baseline and every 6 months
34- what is the therapeutic use of salbutamol?
bronchodilator
40-Which of the following receptors is the main site of action for salbutamol to produce its pharmacological activity in asthma?
Beta 2 agonist
37-Which of the following drugs may decrease heart rate?
Metoprolol (beta blocker)
16-A 36-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy who is recently diagnosed with hypertension.
Blood pressure 150/90mmHg
Heart rate 76/min
Respiratory 18/min
Which of the following is the best and safest therapy?
Labetalol
84- Which of the following beta-blockers is indicated for use in heart failure patients?
Carvedilol
Q- Beta blocker for HF patient? Bisoprolol
Q- Bisoprolol Class ? Selective beta 1 blocker + Class 2 anti arrhythmia
Q- Atenolol class ? Selective B1 blocker
Q- B blocker his low lipophilic activity and no CNS side effect ? Atenolol AND Sotalol
Q- AF which is rhythm control ? Sotalol
910- B-blocker that has low lipophilic character and no CNS side effect?
Answer: Atenolol
149- Propranolol similar to which one ?
Answer: Nadolol
116- One drug approved to reduce mortality in heart failure??
beta blocker
99- Which drug that decrease mortality in patients with stage 4 HF?
Answer Carvedilol,metoprolol succinate (controlled release) or bisoprolol
CYP2C9 (Carvedilol, celecoxib, glipizide, ibuprofen, Irbesartan, losartan)
Q- Rule of propranolol in hypo or hyperthyroidism ? In hyperthyroidism to ttt tachycardia
4. 4
435- The medication use to treat the symptoms of hyperthyrodisim ? Answer Propranolol
87- A 34-year-old woman who is still experiencing symptoms of hyperthyroidism despite treatment with carbimazole.
Which medication can be added to provide additional symptomatic relief? Propranolol
36-Which of the following drugs is known to have significant variable bioavailability due to its extensive hepatic metabolism upon oral
administration? Propranolol
84. Used in prophylaxis of Migraine
Beta blocker Propranolol is effective in reducing migraine episodes When used prophylactically
89. First line for migraine
Triptans
Migraine and headache medications (serotonin 5-hydroxytryptamine agonists or triptans)
38 -First line for migraine?
Triptans are selective agonists for the 5-HT1 receptor and cause vasoconstriction of cranial blood vessels, inhibit neuropeptide release
and decrease pain transmission. They are first line for acute treatment.
401 - Propranolol is considered selective and not???????
Answer: Propranolol is nonselective B1 and B2 it blocks both receptors with equal inf
486 -What is Bisoprolol selectivity?
Answer Is a synthetic beta1-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker with a low affinity for beta2-receptors in bronchial smooth
muscle, blood vessels, and fat cells and no intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.
669- Beta Blocker With Intrinsic Sympathomimetic Activity ?
Answer: such as pindolol (Visken),
penbutolol sulfate (Levatol),
and acebutolol hydrochloride (Sectral)
differ from other beta blockers as they possess intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA), which means they mimic the effects of
epinephrine and norepinephrine and can cause an increase in blood pressure.
Q- Beta blocker cause erectile dysfunction ?
Beta-blockers dampen the response to nerve impulses that lead to an erection.
They also make it more difficult for the arteries in the penis to widen and let in blood
87- Which of the following is an indication for the use of streptokinase?
myocardial infarction
5. 5
DIURETICS
14. Drug cannot be used as monotherapy in mild hypertension?
Hydralazine
37 )Which of the following can the pharmacological property of hydralazine be directly responsible for?
Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
. Hydralazine :Antihypertensive, vasodilator
. Vasodilation effect: Hydrazine, enalapril, prazocin, nicotinic acid
28. diuretic of choice in renal failure ?
loop diuretic
56. example of k sparing diuretic?
Spironolactone
Q- Which of the following diuretics is an aldosterone antagonist? Spironolactone
7. A man patient is placed on a new medication to control his elevated BP. After one month he noted that his breasts have become enlarged
and tender. Which of the following medication is the most properly prescribed? spironolactone
34. Adverse effect of Spironolactone :Hyperkalemia
12. Spironolactone caused increase in potassium how to decrease?
Use thiazide because it decrease potassium
39. long term treatment with thiazide requires ?
K
17- What is chlorothiazide side effects? Answer Hypokalemia
Q- Which is the best diuretic for pat have cardio problem ?
furosemide
Q-Loop diuretic? Furosemide
4. Patient has hyperkalemia treatment ?
Furosemide
157. safest drug to used in sulfa allergy :
Fruosemide
19. Furosemide infusion over how much time required
40 mg via slow inj over 1-2 minutes
54. Furosemide 120mg infuse during?
A maximum infusion rate of 4 mg/minute has been recommended for doses greater than 120 mg
13. What is the best diuretic in heart failure with renal insufficiency
Loop diuretics (Bumetanide, furosemide, torsemide, and ethacrynic acid)
459- HF patient on medication...., lab k high, creatinine high, next management?
Answer: Diuretics Like furosemide decrease K level ACE inhibiter
410- What is the best diuretic in heart failure with renal insufficiency?
Answer: Loop diuretics (Bumetanide, furosemide, torsemide, and ethacrynic acid)
310- Which Diuretic increase excretion of sodium , potassium , magnesium and promote reabsorption of uric acid ?
Answer Loop diuretic (Bumetanide, Torsemide )
422 Which loop dirutic avoid or safe! In sulfa allergy ?
Answer Furosemide and Ethacrynic acid (safe)
148- Patient has hyperkalemia treatment ?
Answer: Furosemide
779- Ratio furosmide and spironolactone
Answer: 100:40 ( TO MAINTAIN NORMOKALEMIA )
714 - Furosemide infusion over how much time required? Answer: 40 mg via slow inj over 1-2 minutes. If no adequate response within 1 hour, a
further 80 mg may be given via slow IV inj over 1-2 minutes.
--------
51- Which of the following medications is an osmotic diuretic?
mannitol
6. 6
ACEI
11. What is component responsible of cough in ACE inhibitor ? Bradykinin
544 -Patient complain of chronic cough and he has HTN and receiving lisinopril what is the cause of cough? Answer : ACEI
30) 69-year-oId woman presented with complains of severe dry cough for a has week ,she has been recently prescribed hydrochlorothiazide and
captopril for hypertension ,salbutamol and fexofenadine for allergic asthma .Which drug is the most likely reason of the patient’s complaint?
Captopril
Q- ACI contraindication in which statement?
Pregnancy, in history of angioedema, bilateral artery stenosis
67-Which one of the following conditions is a contraindication for the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?
idiopathic angioedema
9-which of the following group of drugs can prevent the progression of micro-albuminuria to macro-albuminuria in patients with diabetics
mellitus
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
583- Patient Came to Physician for Follow Up as A Routine He Takes Captopril for Hypertension and It Well Control. He Has A Cough
BUT HE DID NOT COMPLAINED .What Is A Best Procure For Him?
Answer: Switch to ARB
33. Captopril and Enalapril do all the following except ?
Competitively blocks Angiotensin Il at it's receptors
796- The mechanism of action of enalapril?
Answer: block the enzyme ACE which cleaves angiotensin I to form the potent vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
571- How Long Is Must To Be Between Stop Captopril And Start Losartan?
Answer: 36 Hours
985- If you want to change from enalapril to sacubitril/ valsartan?
Answer Start after 36 hr of dc
Contraindicated with concomitant use of an ACE inhibitor; if switching from an ACE inhibitor to sacubitril/valsartan, allow a washout
period of 36 hr between administration of the 2 drugs
Q- Shifting from ACEI to ARB ?
No time needed, but if there is no this choice Choose 36 hr
Q- ACEI to ARBs how many hours to change between them ? No time is needed
Q- ACEI to ARNi how many hours to change between them ? 36 HOURS
Q- ARBs to ARNi how many hours to change between them ? No time is needed
Q- Which is the best drug for pat have DM, HTN, Proteinuria ? ACE
LISINOPRIL
41- What is the main advantage of losartan over Lisinopril ?
Higher oral bioavailability
16. Which drugs not true companions ?
Valsartan and Lisinopril
821- What is inappropriate combination in HTN?
Answer:Losrtan and lisnopril
827- Patient on metformin, lisnopril, sitagliptin What is the most important thing to monitor ?
Answer: Renal function
880 -Patient had an accident and needed CT scan, they gave him IV contrast dye, he is taking lisinopril, omeprazole, simvastatin ,
which of his medication you have to stop while giving the IV dye ?
Answer : Lisinopril(ACE inhibitor and ARB never combine)
228- What is important monitoring for Lisinopril?
Renal function BP, heart rate, BUN, CBC with differential LFT, serum K and creatinine levels. Assess for signs of angioedema all of these
should be monitored
541- Patient suffer from heart disease?
Answer:: Sildenafil or teradonifil for 4 hr after Lisinopril.
Which drug is associated with growth restrictions if taken during pregnancy?
Lisinopril (ACEIs)
Drugs that act on the renin-angiotensin system are associated with oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios, due to decreased fetal renal function, may lead
7. 7
to fetal lung hypoplasia and skeletal malformations. The use of these drugs in pregnancy is also associated with anuria, hypotension, renal failure, skull
hypoplasia, and death in the fetus/neonate.
---------------------------------
67 - Medication cause non Productive cough ? Answer: Captopril , Acei-arbi
8) The effects of four anti-hypertensive drug classes (A-D) on the Renin-angiotensin system are shown (see table) .Which class is represented by
the drug -C? Angiotensin II receptor blockers (C)
CCB
415 - What are high dose of simvastatin, with verapamil?
Answer: 10 mg daily
522 -Patient with a high heart rate and there was a CI to use Metoprolol which will be use?
Answer Diltiazem (calcium channel blocker )
27. deltiazem used in hypertension to ?
inhibit calcium influx
AMLODIPINE
Q- Patient has Afeb witch drug is the best for her RATE control?
Amlodipine Because Amlodipine decrease the rate
15. first line treatment of hypertension in adult ?
Amlodipine
5. Patient with African descent has hypertension so first line?
Amlodipine
Hypertension in African treatment long acting dihdropyridine CCB or indapamide
1. Treatment of hypertension in black patient?
thiazide-like diuretic or long-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
23. antihypertensive drug avoided in elderly
Amlodipine
68- Which of the following antihypertensive agents is most likely to cause peripheral edema?
Amlodipine
792- Side effect of amlodipine? Ankle edema
(19) Which of the following drugs lower esophagus sphincter pressure and delay gastric emptying time?
amlodipine ( CCB)
54)Which of the following is most likely the reason for using amlodipine in the treatment of hypertension?
calcium channel blocker
71- Patient has Stage 2 hypertension … What is the treatment?
Answer: Losartan + amlodipine Two first-line drugs of different classes are recommended with stage 2 hypertension
98- Which of the following calcium channel blockers is a non- dihydropyridine drug?
Diltiazem
43. Which of the following mechanisms of actions most appropriately describes nifedipine?
calcium channel blocker
300- Drug use in Raynaud's syndrome ?
Answer: the goals of treatment are to:
Reduce the number and severity of attacks, Prevent tissue damage, Treat the underlying disease or condition
Medications:
Calcium channel blockers. These drugs relax and open small blood vessels in your hands and feet, decreasing the frequency and
severity of attacks in most people with Raynaud's. These drugs can also help heal skin ulcers on your fingers or toes. Examples include
nifedipine, amlodipine, felodipine and isradipine.
Vasodilators. These drugs, which relax blood vessels, include nitroglycerin cream applied to the base of your fingers to help heal skin
ulcers. Other vasodilators include the high blood pressure drug losartan (, the erectile dysfunction medication sildenafil the
antidepressant fluoxetine and a class of medications called prostaglandins
80- A 76-year-old cardiac male patient was transferred to the hospital for palpitation with a heart rate of 177 bpm. He is a heavy smoker and his
past medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia and coronary artery disease. His medications include aspirin, clopidogrel, carvedilol,
valsartan and atorvastatin. He was diagnosed as having fibrillation
Which of the following is the CHA2DS2-VASC score for this patient?
4
8. 8
ARRHYTHMIA√
4. Antiarrhythmic classes
43. Class Ia antiarrhythmic drug ?
Sodium-channel blockers
Quinidine , Disopyramide , Procainamid
129. Quinidine is similar in its action to?
Procainamide
. Quinidine = procainamide
6. Which class 1a Antiarrhythmic?
Procanmide
20. Antiarrhythmic drug class 1A ?
Disopyramide
37. another use of lidocaine beside local anesthetic
class 1 B antiarrythmic
3. Class IC antiarrhythmic drug?
Flecainide
39. Propranolol antiarrhythmic class is:
Class II
38. Verapamil antiarrhythmic class is:
Class IV
10. Quinine removed group converted to antiarrythemia?
Qunidine
65) Quinine is an important antimalarial drug with very complicated structure and is very sensitive stereochemistry (see image).
Which pharmacological activity the drug will possess stereochemistry at the arrow has changed from R to S?
antiarrhythmia
. Antiarrhythmic drug: - Quinidine sulphate - procainamide
. Digitalis arrhythmias ttt respectively: 1.lidocain 2.phenytoin 3.procainamide 4.propranolol
5. First line to treatment arrhythmia control ?
Beta blockers are generally first-line agents. Digoxin is no longer considered a first-line
agent for atrial fibrillation
35. Dispyramide as anti arrhythmia:
dec. phase 0
42. Phase 3 in Arrhythmia what mean?
Rapid repolarization
25. the pharmacological property of amphetamine is ?
Causes release of stored norepinephrine.
60- Which of the following is the reason of using verapamil as an antiarrhythmic drug?
it inhibits slow inward current of phase two of action potential
9- Which of the following situation is most likely to be controlled by administering parenteral calcium as an antidote?
Verapamil overdose
6- Which of the following medications is a class-IV antiarrhythmnic agent?
Verapamili
12- Which of the following drugs when given with verapamil can result in a major drug interaction?
Digoxin
1.Digoxin MOA:inhibits sodium-potassium atepase
Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitor
38- A 75-year-old women with congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin to improve cardiac muscle contractility. She has a marked
improvement in her symptoms. What cellular action of digoxin is responsible for its pharmacological action ?
Inhibition of Na + /k + ATPase enzyme
(11)Which of the following is the most appropriate time to draw a plasma blood sample for digoxin monitoring? 6 hours post-dose
7)A 90-year-old man with diabetes melitus, hypertension and congestive heart failure presented to his cardiology clinic complaining of nausea,
anorexia and visual changes. Current home medications include; metformin, aspirin, lisinopril,atrovastatin and digoxin.(see lab result)
Which of the following most likely explains the patient symptoms? high serum digoxin level due to renal impairment
26. arrhythmia due to
? dysfunction in generate heart pulse or conduction of it abnormal impulse conduction and abnormal impulse propagation
27. drug used in ventricular arrhythmia ?
Procainamide
23. which one used in ventricular arrhthmia with heart block ? Phynetoin
9. 9
SE
40. life threatening arrhythmia is side effect of
Digoxin
21. A Drug that may cause arrhythmia ?
Digoxin
15. Digoxin cause arrhythmia and hypo ca mg k ?
treatment by lidocaine
29. the main cause of digitalis toxicity is ?
renal faliure hypokalimai is main cause of digitalis toxicity
65. Digitalis toxicity due to ?
Hypokalemia
24. symptoms of digitalis toxicity include whitch one of the following ?
Arrhythmia
31. digitalis arrhythmia can be treated with ?
Lidocain
33. digitalis arrhythmia can be treated with ?
Phenytoin
34. teatment of digitalis induced arrthymea ?
phenytoin or lidocain
30. Digitalis arrhythmia treatment drugs RESPECTIVILY ? --------
56- What is the pharmacological property of cardiac glycosides? positive inotropic effect
. Cardiac glycosides : + inotropic
55. digoxin ? +ve inotropic effect
Q- digoxin MOA ? inhibits sodium-potassium atepase , Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitor
Q- Medication increase mortality ? digoxin
Q- Digoxin how many hours post dose?
After oral administration, there is an early rise in serum concentration.
Equilibration of serum and tissue levels occurs at approximately 6 to 8 hours.
For this reason, blood specimens for digoxin analysis should be drawn at least 6 to 8 hours after drug administration
Sampling times: Samples should be collected at least 6 hours after the last dose. A steady state should have been achieved before sampling.
When no loading dose has been given this may take 7 days in patients with normal renal function and 14 days for elderly patients
Q- Digoxin Typical dose? 0.125-0.25 mg daily
Q- Digoxin toxicity increased by ? Hypomagnesemia – Hypokalemia
. Digoxin toxicity : check Mg and K level and correct it
. Digoxin toxicity :⬆ with renal failure
. A drug increases the effect if highly bound to plasma protein : Digoxin
. About Digoxin what is false: oral bioavailability 100% (it is 90% completely absorbed, digoxin is 70%)
. Digoxin what is false: taken only orally
. decrease effect of digoxin : verapamil( inhibit metabolism), phenytoin( liver microsomal enzyme inducer), phenytoin, alcohol
. life threatening arrhythmias is SE of Digoxin
Q- Which medication cause arrhythmia if given IV rapidly? (Phenytoin)
23. which one used in ventricular arrhthmia with heart block ?
Phynetoin
19. Phenytoin effect decrease by ?
kidney impairmen
17. To Monitor Phenytoin levels you have to check ?
Trough Concentration
14. Phenytoin ?
1hr after LD if IV 24 after oral LD
32. usual daily dose of phenytoin?
100-300mg
12. Which antiarrythemia is contraindicated in patient with Atrial fibrillation + MI ? ---
18. Hypertension agents that cause depression?……..
32. antihypertensive produce tackycardia ? --------
