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USN

First Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Dec.2013lJan.2Ul4

Engineering Mathematics

-I

Time: 3 hrs.
Max. Marks:100
Note: l. Answer any FIW full questions, choosing at leust twofrom each part.
2. Answer all objective type questions only in OMR sheet page 5 of the answer booklel
3. Answer to objective tlpe questions on sheets other than OMR will not be valued.
PART _ A
o
o
o

1

u.,,.

,Choose
:

L

for the following

the

a

.

ii)

o

3e

If

iii)

-!. >
;n

bo'
troo
.= .a
-l

a=

o()
(g0
ooi
>d

B) (-l)nnl

iv)

y:

C)

(-.rt*i

(x + l)n*1

()

o>
oZ

t,

(-l)n (n + 1)!

A)

ioo
YJO
oC
FO

I

x+l

E

:

3o;;ect.answels

If

(ax +b)- with

(-1)'n!

D)

(x + l)n

1-1)n-rn!

(".

m: n, then y, is

fli

A)

n! an
B)0
C) n! bn
D)n!
The geometriCal interpretation of Lagrange's mean value theorem is

f(b)-f(a) B) f,r.t_f(b)+f(a)C; l''lc)_ f(b)-f(a)
A)f'(c)=g,(c) g(b)-g(a)
b-a
b-a

D)noneof these

The Maclaurin's series expansion of e-' is

2! 3!
,,:3!
C) *- x- * x3
(04 Marks)
D) * *4*d*
2t3!.213!
b. Ify:sinlog (x2 +2x+ l),provethat(x+ l)'yr,+ r+(2n+ 1)(x+ 1)yn+1n2+4)yn:0.
(04 Marks)

c.
d.
2 a.

3.)
oi=

If x ispositive, showthatx> log (1 +x)

(06 Marks)

Using Maclourin's series, expand log (1 + e*) upto the terms containing x
Choose the correct answers for the following

.
i)

(06 Marks)

:

.--..
/,|;J3!I equalto
-+l
lis
" -(
f;-x )
lim

=::
o-X

A)

o:
6:

r"-L*.

2

B)-2

C)

1

D)-1

ii) If $ be the angle between the tangent and radius vector at any point on the curve

alE

r = (e), then sin $ is equal to

!o

A)

5.e
boo
-50
o=

iii)

9O

tr>

iv)

o

L.)<
o
o

z

=
L

o

b.
c.

C) ,do
'dr

l'-tY

,2*rl-rr2

s1 ''*,lY'
'rl*x'-rr,

ct ? *,,'Y
'11

t

+

z -rt2

,t : a' cosm0.
Find the radius of curvature for the curve v2=d9:*),
x
-

D) dsl

:

Find the Pedal equation of the curve

x
d.

gt.do
'ds

The rate at which the curve is bending called
A) radius of curvature B) curvature
C) circle of curvature D)
The radius of curvature for polar curve r (e) is given by

A)
'

,i 6i

drlds

axis.

lim (ax + t )x.
Evaluate*--*(.ax-l)

(04 Marks)

where the curve meets the
(06 Marks)
(06 Marks)
1OMAT11

3 a.

Choose the correct answers for the following

i)

If

u: log (x2 + f + r'1,then I

2v
ts .,-+

x'+y'+z'
If

,,

0z

2x

ii)

:

u:(x,

x'+v'+7,-

y) and y is a function x, then

. du au

^'d*
Cd,
fu aury
ndu
-r
'dx
,l

I 

l

ax q

-

2z

D)

*2 +y2 +12

*2 +y2 -12

-au du audv
ax dx dy dx
^.au du dufo
ut

dudy

A

2z

c)

)

ax dx ar ax

dx

-

,'
^2.
iii) If r={*.s=- a2f a2f , then the condition for the shddle point is
&t=3
oxo
i','"''

dx'

dy'

:,,,

A) rr-s2?O g)rt-s2:o
iv) Ifu:x*yr z,y=,!+z,z:z,then

/
J[

b.

a

r1r*

s'>

D)rt-s2+0

O

''u'l ]ir.qrulto

x'Y'zl

c)0

B) -1

A)1

C)

mirror is given by the formula

of these
.none (04
Marks)

D)

I -I

u=

Z . If .qual errors. 'e' are made

(t + r)

in the determination of u and v. Show that the rosulting error in f is el

- -

I.

^
u: f(2x-3y.3y -42.42-2x).prove +"^*1tu;^ ,ur-)'v)
that
1;.i n*i;=0.
d. If x: u(1 - v), y: uY, Ftove that JJ' :1.
c.

4 a.

'

If

Choose the correct answers for the following :
Direotional derivative is maximum along
A) tangent to the surface
C) any unit vector

(04 Marks)

(06 Marks)
(06 Marks)

i)

,ii) Ifr:
iii) If f :

iv)

B) normal to the Suiftce
D) coordinate axes

lx;+y1 + 2rl, then Vrn is
3x2

- lf

C) V.Vr'
+ 4z2,thencurl (grad f) is

A) 4x - 6y + 8z
B) 4x1-6y; + 8z k C) b'
If the base vectors er and azzta orthogonal then I e1 x

A)0

D) none of these

B)-1

c)+1

D)3
e2 | is

D) none of

these

(04 Marks)
-+

b.

If F =(x+y+l)i+ j-(x+y)k,

c.

Find constants,a, and,b, such that

showthat F.crulF =0.

i

Also find a scalar function $such that
d.

= (axy + r31i+ (3x2

i - V0.

Prove that a spherical coordinate system is orthogonal.
1^{A

(04 Marks)

- z)j+ (brr2 - y)k is irrotational.
(06 Marks)
(06 Marks)
1OMAT11
PART _ B

5 a.

Choose the correct answers for the following

:

1l

il

7

Jsin

x

dx

is equal to

0

A)

ii)

The asymptote of (2

A)

iii)

x:2
.2
JfiA

iv)

c.
d.

6 a.

:

C) x - axis

Evaluate

+ acosx)dx

-)z

a(1 - cos0) is

B) 3a

Iar,t
0'

D) none of these

=:"'"
a^

*3 is
axis

)

n

c){
'2

2

6a

D)

35

B)I

2

1(tr

C):

The entire length f the asteroid x2l3 +

A)

b'

- x)l :
B) y -

The ar€a of the cordioid r

A)_

?)

32n

Bt
'35

zero

f :
'3

)/7

a-,"

JA

D)
'2

.

rS

D)

Cy,za

uy:airrrr.*iating

a.

(04 Marks)

under the integral si

2a

Evaluate

I"'.lZu- *2dr. using reduction

formula.

Find the volume of generated by the revolution of the curve
line.

Choose the

D
ii)

corrbct'u.rr*.r, for the following

:

(06 Marks)

.

The general solution of the differential equation dyldx : (y/x,) + tan (y/x) is
B) sin (y/x) : cx
sin (y/x) : c
C) cos(y/x) : ci , ,:
cos (y/x) : c
,,D)
.A)
''.'the family of straight lines passing through the origin is represented by the differential
equation:

A) ydx+xdy:0 B)xdy-ydx:0

xdx+ydy:0 D)ydy-xdx:0
iii) The homogeneous differential equation Mdx + Ndy : 0 can be reduced to a
C)

differential equation, in which the variables are separated by the substitution
A) v: vx
B)x*y:v
c) xy: v
D)x-y:v

ir)

The equationy

A)
b.

c.
d.

y: ae-"

Solve 1, +

fl9dx

- 2x:

c represents the orthogonal trajectories of the family

B) x2 + 2f

:u

c)

xy:.a

y = e3*1x + l)2.

D) x + 2y:

a
(04 Marks)
(04 Marks)

Solve (1 + xy) ydx+ (1 -xy) xdy:0.
Find the orthogonal trajectory of the cordioids

r:

3 of 4

(06 Marks)

a(l

-

cos 0).

(06 Marks)
1OMATl1

7 a.

Choose the correct answers for the following

i)

:

If every minor of order 'r' of a matrix A i, ,..o, then rank of A is
A) greater than r
B) equal r
C) less than or -r----- -" .
D) less
rvo'
/
than r.
"q*l,o
-:
The trivial solution for the given system of equations x +
ly * 3z:0, 3x + 4y+ 42* 0,
J
7x+ 10 y + l2z:0 is

ii)

A) (1, 1, t)
B) (1,0,0)
c) (0, 1,0)
iii) Matrix has a value. This statement / "> -' "''
. . , 11) is always true B) depends upon the matrices C) is false
iv){.ai1singularandp(A):p(A:B)thenthesystemhas

D) (0,0,0)

D; none of these

solution B) infinitely many solution c) trivial sorution D) no solution.
Using elementary transformations, find the rank of the matrix '; ' ,.'
A) unique

b.

,'

tt

l:41
I ^ 3

l-2

2

_l
21.

(04Marks)

s_l

c.

Showthat the system*

d.

Apply Gauss

8a.

2x+ 5y t

7z

i

y'*

z:4;2x+ y - z: l; x- y *22:2

:- 52 ; 2x-r y - z:

Jordan method to sorve the system of equation
0; + S, +

i

;': ;.-

Choose the correct answers lor the following
A square matrix A is called orthosonai

i)

A)A:AL

ii)

B)A':A-I

The eigen vatues ofrhe ,nu,ri*

ii0
iv)
'

A)lrJ6'

is consistent, solve the
(06 Marks)

:

(06 Marks)

:

Iif ,,,gy AA-r:I

D) none of these

| | fl ^r,
142 2)

B)ltJ5

c)Js

D)l

form xf +2xf-3xj are respecrively
T11e^iTex;d
A) 2,.t
B)
C) 1,
-:
njrron. of these
Two square matrices A and B are similar. if
::.
A) A: B
B) B : p-rAI,
C) Ar : Br
D) A-r : B-r.
signature of the quadratic

"

1,2

1

* 322 - 12yz + 4zx_gxy to tt . .urronfuii Orljo Marks)

Reduce the quadratic

c.

Determine the characteristic roots and eigen vectors
21

s
I-6 -6
A=l
7

l, -4

.

.:.

b.

d'

:,'

-41
3j

Reduce the quadratic

form

gx2

+

7y2

of

.

form

(04 Marks)

(06 Marks)

xl + 2xl -

7"1

***rF*

-

4xp2+ 8x2x3 into sum of squares.

(06 Marks)
06PIJYt2t22

USN

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Dec.2013 lJan.20l4

Engineering Physics

lr!t
,,,_ '1,'

:=

:::',:,':'::

Max. Marks:,I00
:.
i

Time: 3 hrs.
(.)

any FIW full questions, choosing at least twofrom each part.
all objective type questions only in OMR sheet page 5 of the ansipei booklet.
3. Answer to objective fi;pe questions on sheets other than OMR will not:he.valued.
4. Physic.u,l constants : h : 6.62 x 1tr34 JS, c : 3 x 108 m/s, m" : 9r,1"''*'1A31 kg.
:::,,,.,_.._,.-.
I
PART _ A
(04 Marks)
a. Choose the correct answers for the following :
i) Photo electric effect signifies
A) particularc,aat:re of radiation
B) wave natureofradiation
C) both particulate and wave nature of radiation
D) none of these
ii) In a blackbody radiation spectrum, Wien's displacement law is true for
A) high frequency region
B) low &equency region
,'
C) all range of fiequencies ;,.",,,.D) not applicable for blackbody radiation
iii) If the velocity of a particle douli&s, then de-Broglie wavelength
1
A) increases by 2 times .
B) decreasesby 2times
"ii,
C) no change
D) none of these

Note:

(f

(.)

o.
E

1. Answer
2. Answer

;,

()

o
!

C)x

Jh
5

,,,,,,,,,,,

ll

oo

eoo
.=N
cO+

noo
Y()
(Jtr
-o

o=
6=

o

I

6.)

1",,,

iv)

b0i

b.

,6
Ed

-?o
'Cn
oi=

o.A
tra.
o=

A,i,

c.
d.

Compton effect takes place
A) only lor high frequency radiation
B) only for low frequency radiation
C) for all range of,,freQuencies
D) none ofthese
Explain with a neat,,diagram, how the Davison-Germer experiment proves the concept of
matter waves.
(07 Marks)
Obtain an expression for group velocity.
(05 Marks)
Calculate tho:de-Broglie wavelength associated with rain drops.:fi+ting under gravity with a
speed otoi;$,b
Given, the average diameter of the drops is t rnm a""a density of water is
"/s.
1000 kg/t'n'
(04 Marks)

2 a. Choose the correct answers for the following
. i) The uncertainty in location of a particle
'
uncertainty in velocity if AxAp : h is
:

LO
JE

>'!

oo"
cbO
o=
*o

A)V

tr>
o
l,
-N
o
'7

.dr

ii)
iii)

o

ir)

u);

is

equal

to de-Broglie wavelefrgth.

The

::::

c)

2v

between
momentum

D) 4V

/6Y

Uncertainty principle applies only
l-q,
A) position and
B) energy and
,'.'fl .enstou f;ij
C) any two canonically conjugate variables D) either A or B.
.{ t.rsnefrv / I /
It
If width of the potential well increases by 4 times, energy of the particler
/"Vil
,/^pt',
A) reduces to 114
B) reduces to 1116 times
C) increases by 4
D) increases by 16
Probability of finding the particle is
A) highest in ground state
B) lowest in first excited state
C) independent of energy of the state
D) increases with energy of the state

times
times

time

particler#.
o"V'C'7
times 'Y942
06PHYt2t22

2 b.
c.
d.
rr'3|'

r'

Obtain an expression for energy eigen value of a particle in a potential well of infinite
height.
(07 Marks)
Explain the most probable state of the particle by drawing probability curves. (05 Marks)
The position and momentum of 2 kev electrons are simultaneously determined and if its
position is located within 0.12 nn, what is the percentage of uncertainty in its momentum=
(04 Marks)

3.

Choose the correct answers for the following

i)

A)

ii)
iii)

c.
4 a.

u,+

., +

"

D) independent of T

If Fermi energy of a metal is 3 eV, its Fermi temperature is
A) 3'"5 r 104 K
B) 1.6 x 102 K
c) 3.5 , 103 K,

'',

"

D)

10-12

K

Current,of 3A is flowing through a cylindrical copper wire ofradius 3 mm. the current
density is nearly
A) 105
B) 1or
c) 106 A/#
D) 10-6 A/m2
Drift velocity of electrons in a metal depends on
A) mass of eterman
B) applied electric field
C) mean collision time
D) all of these
Define mean tree path. mean collision time and relaxation time. Derive an expression for
conductivity in metals.
(10 Marks)
Explain the merits of quantum free eleOtron theory.
(06 Marks)

Nrl .:.,,

iv)

b.

12

gl|IiT.?

:

At very high temperatures, the mean collision time or an electron t,

A/m2

Choose the correct answers for tfre,fof6wing

(04 Marks)

i)

The dipolemendent between the pair

iD

separated by a distance of l0 prm is
A) 10 x 10-12
B) 10-12
C) 10 x 1012
D) 10-12 cm
The distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled. The capacitance

iii)

cm

'
of

cm

opposite charges each

of magnitude 1 pC

cm

A) doubled
B) halved
C) increases,by 4 times
D) decreases by 4 times
Relation,between magnetic flux density, permeability and magnetic
(with uiual notations) is given by
''

field intensity

A)p:BH
B) B: pH
C) H: Bpr
il; No relation exist
iv) " ;Barium titanate is an example of
"
A) ferromagnetic material
B) superconducting mateiial
C) ferroelectric material
D) none of these
Explain various electrical polarization mechanisms in dielectrics.
(06 Marks)
What are ferroelectrics? Explain ferloelectric hysterisis.
(05 Marks)
Briefly explain the paramagnetism phenomenon using Langevin's theory.
(05 Marks)
,,,,,...

b.
"c.
d.
5 a.

PART _ B
Choose the correct answers for the following :
Pumping process in diode LASER is by

i)

optical means
B) forward bias
C) electrical discharge
D) thermal means
Semiconductor LASER is not preferred in LASER drilling since
A) beam is less powerful
B) beam is highly powerful
C) beam has large wavelength
D) none of these

A)

i,

(04 Marks)
06P}IYl2l22

5 a. iii)

Holograms can give a clear 3D image if they are observed under
A) white light
B) green light
C) blue light
D) same wavelength of light used for recording the hologram.
ir) LASER beam is highly powerful due to
A) high intensity
B) less broadening
C) constructive interference
D) all of these
With the necessary diagram, explain the construction and working of He-Ne

c.
d.

6 a.

d.

Marks)

Wlf

LASER is preferred for environmental pollution monitoring? Explain the principle and
relative merits of LIDAR system
(05 Marks)
Find the ratio between Einstein coefficients for stimulated and spontaneous transmissions in
a LASER system emitting light of wavelength 5000 A.
(04 Marks)
., ,:"'.,,.
Choose the correct answers for the following
If the critical temperature lor specimen is above 0 K.

i)

A) semiconductor B) conductor

..

a.

(04 Marks)

it must be
C) insulator

D) super conductor
SQUID is used ro measure
A) high magnetic field
,: B) low magnetic field
,:. D) high resistance
C) high potential dilference
iii) Propagation of light ray in graded index fiber is by
eg$TFi.e.L
B) diffiaction
, ggi:1,t",;l'ri"
C) reflective confinement
D) none of these
iv) Shorter wavelength radiations are not preferred in optical fibers due to
A) high absorption loss
B) high scattering loss
C) not easily available
D) none of these
Explain type I and type II super conductors with necessary graph and example. (06 Marks)
Obtain an expression for angle of acceptance and numerical aperture of an optical fiber.
Also explain the condition for light propagation in a optical fiber.
(06 Marks)
An optical fiber has core index of 1.6 and cladding index of 1.4 with core diameter of
40 pm. Calculate 'V' number ratio when the fiber is in air and;ih water of refractive index
1.33. Given wavelength of light is 500 nm.
(04 Marks)

ii)

b.
c.

LAS%

.'

Choose the correct answers for the following

i)

ii)

iii)
iv)

:
(04 Marks)
The atomic packing factor of NaCl crystal
A) s2%
B) r00%
c) 74%
D) 68%
Four types of Bravasis lattices are observed in
A) Rhombohedral structure
B) Monoclinic system
C) Triclinic system
D) Orlhorhombic system
Acrystalhas unit cellproperties a* b * c and cr: p:90o + B, is
: ;]:
A) orthorhombic B)
..,1;;
C) tetragonal
D) triclinic
The Miller index of the plane parallel to Y-axis is

monoclinic

A)(101)

B)(01

1)

C)(1co1)

D)(co 1 1)

b.

Obtain an expression for interplanar spacing in a crystal in terms of lattice parameters.

c.

What is coordination number? Explain this with reference to SC, BCC and fcc structures.

(06 Marks)
(06 Marks)

d'

X-ray of wavelength 5 A interacts with a crystal. If the second order reflection was observed
at a glancing angle of 30o, calculate the lattice constant.
(04 Marks)
10crv13/23

USN

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Dec.2013 /Jan.2Dl4

Elements of Givil Engineering and Engineering Mechanics
Time: 3 hrs.
Max. Marks:100
Note: l. Answer any FIW full questions, choosing at least two from each part.
2. Answer all objective lype questions only in OMR sheet page 5 of the onswer booklel
' ,,
, 3. Answer to objective ltpe questions on sheets other than OMR will not be valaed.
(J

(.)

PART _ A

o
I

a

I a.

()

3e

--^l

-O

?a

bridge

b.
c.
2 a.

o -l'
a=

AE
!o

5.v
> (F
ooo

EOO

()=
*o
tr>
o

lr<
* a'l

minimum

translation

rotation
these
'
B) rotation
D) none of these
B)
D) none of

Z.CFry,:I
lF/
"-Y:
l*i *rre{.ut*" i:'; 
"*-*3'::': l;l
,.i*
trb
,/"ril
if,]ffi7
 6ff*,")

rotation
Moment,+f a force will produce
A) translation
C) porn translatlon and rotatron
L,). bottr translation ancl rotation
A bloc'k'weighing w : 10 kN is resting on an inclined plane as shown in'>8ry,6.
and

Determine its components normal to and parallel to the inclined plane. The plane makes an
angle of 20o with the horizontal.
. (04 Marks)
c, . A body is subjected to the tkee forces as shown in Fig.Q2(c). If possible determine the
direction of the force "F" so that the resultant is in 'x' direction, when (i) F : 5000 N,
( ii) F : 3000 N.
(12 Marks)

3a.

Choose the correct answers for the following

i)

o

o
q

(10 Marks)
(06 Marks)

maximum

C) both translation

(.)

Z

D) reservoir

water

maximum

A)

b.

dam

Choose the correct answers for the fullowing :
(04 Marks)
The component of a force perpendicular to its line of action is
A)
B)
C) zero
D) none of these
The moment of a force about a moment centre lying on its line of action is
A)
B) minimum
C) zero
D)
Two equal and opposite forces separated by a distance will produce

ii)

?()
so-

D) camber

What are infrastructure related projects?

o()
63O

'ia
On

margin

dam

D) lift bridge

B) soil
Cl air
D) none of these
With the help of neat sketches, briefly explain the cross-section of road and gravity dam.
A)

a=

a6

(04 Marks)

bridge

median

dams

i)

bQi
(! (!

bridge

Kerb

iii)

Jh

ET
(,) c

i)

ii)

()

goo
.= c-.I

Choose the correct answers for the following :
A bridge constructed at some angle to river flow is
A) -kpw
B) square
C) steel
The stttlature that separates roads into separate lanes is called
A)
B)
C) road
The upstream side of a dam
A) arch
B) gravity
C) earth

ii)
iii)
ir)

(04 Marks)

:

In case ofcoplanar concurrent force the resultant force passes through
A) point of concurrence
B) away from point of concurrence
C) different plane
D) none of these
If two concurrent forces each of 'P' act at right angles to each other, their resultant is
A) 2P
B)P
JiP
D 2JP
: 0 and IU: 0 for a coplanar nonconcurrent force system, then it is in
If IV
A) equilibrium B) translation C) rotation
D) none of these
Conditions of equilibrium for a coplanar concurrent force system is
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four

Q
10crv13/23

b.

Two forces acting on a body are 500 N and 1000 N as shown in Fig.Q3(b). Determine the
third force "F" such that the resultant of all the three forces is 1000 N directed at 45o to 'x'
(06 Marks)

axls.

c.

Determine the resultant of the four forces acting on a body as shown in Fig.Q3(c) with
(10 Marks)

respect to point "O".

4 a.

Choose the correct answers for the following

i)
ii)
iiil
iv)

(04 Marks)
:
distance from its apex.
triangle of height 'h' is located at a
The centroid of a
D)h
c) h/3
B) 2W3
A) W2
number of symmetrical axes will give centroid of plane area.
Intersection of _
D) none of these
c)2
B)4
Moment of an area about a reference axis passing through its centroid is
D) none of these
C) zero
B) minimum
A) maximum
Centroid of a semicircle from an axis passing through the diameter is

A)3

A) JL
'3n

b.

B)

a
4n

C)I
4r

D)11

3r
of a semi-circular lamina of radius "r" by the method of integration.
Determine the centroid
(06 Marks)

c.

Determine the centroid of the shaded area shown in the Fig.Qa(c) with respect to OX and
(10 Marks)

PART

5a.

-q

:

'
(04 Marks)
Choose the correct answers for the following
i) If three forces are acting at'a point and are in equilibrium, out of which two are acting
in the same line, then the third foree is
C) zero
D) none of these
B) minimum
A) maximum
A rigid body is in equilibrium if the resultant force of concurrent tbrce system is
C) zero
D) none ofthese
B) negative
A) positive
number o.f concurrent forces in equilibrium.
iii) Lami's theorem is valid for
C) four
D) none of these
B) three
A) two
iv) The force equal and opposite to resultant is called as
C) opponent force D) none of these
A) equilibriant B) similar force
(06 Marks)
State and prove Lami's theorem.
The frictionlesS pulley 'A' shown in Fig.Q5(c) is supplied by two bars AB and AC which
are hinged &t 'B' and 'C' to a vertical wall. The flexible cable DG hinged at 'D', goes over
the pulley afid supports a load of 20 kN at 'G'. The angles between the various members are
shown in the figure. Determine the forces in the bars AB and AC. Neglect the size and
(10 Marks)
weight of the pulley.

ii)

b.

c.

6 a.

Choose the correct answers for the following :
reactions.
A hinged support can have

i)

A)2

B)4

ii)

A determinate beam can

iii)

A fixed support

iv)

b.

c.

A)2

A)1

have
_

B)2

c)l

D) none ofthese

number of unknowns.

B)3
can have

(04 Marks)

c)1

reactions.

c)

3

D)4

D)4

udl stands for
A) Uniformly distributed load
B) Uniform dead load
C) Uniform door load
D) Uniform diameter load
The cantilever beam shown in Fig.Q6(b) is fixed at 'A' and is free at 'B'. Determine the
reaction when it is loaded as shown.
(06 Marks)
Find the forces in all the members of the truss loaded s shown in the Fig.6(c). Tabulate the

results.

(10 Marks)
10cIv13/23

a.

b.
c.
8 a.

Choose the correct answers for the following

i)

Compared to static liiction, kinetic friction is
A) greater
B) smaller
C) very large
D) zero
ii) Friction force is
to the contact surface between bodies.
A) parallel
B) perpendicular C) tangential
D) none of these
iii) Friction force is a
force.
A) active
B) passive
D) none of these
C) normal
iv) The tangent of the angle of friction is
A) angle of repose
B) coefficient of friction
C) cone of friction
D) limiting friction
(06Marks)
Defite: i) Angle of friction; ii) Coefhcient of friction; iii) Cone of friction.
What is the value of 'P' in the system shown in Fig.Q7(c), to cause the rnetion to impend to
the right? Assume the pulley is smooth and coefhcient of friction between the other contact
(10 Marks)
surfaces is 0,20.
Choose the corredt axswers for the following
Unit of second moment of area is

i)

ii)
iii)

B) *'
Unit of radius of gliration is _.

D) m'

mo

A)m
D) -o
B)-'
c) ,r,'
Moment of inertia of a square of side 'b' about an axis through its centroid is

c) 4

t4

B)

12

iv)

(04 Marks)

:

c)

A)m

A)-bo
b.
c.

(04 Marks)

:

!-

D)

36

8

q
12

lrlolrent of inertia is
A) Ir* + Iyl
B) I,* + 1,,
D) none of these
C) I, + I,,
Define: i) Moment of inertia; ii) Radius of gyration; iii) Polar moment of inertia. (06 Marks)
Determine the moment of inertia of the symmetrical I-section shown in Fig.Q8(c) about its
centroidal X-X and Y-Y axis.
(10 Marks)
P6ns

Fie.Q2(b)
Fig.Q2(c)

lfio$l
ElDd

5d,.J,

Fie.Q3(b)

Fig.Q3(c)
2 a€A
10crv13/23

Fig.Qa(c)
.' ..,

.1
a:

t:
,:: j

gppl, l1r.ll

lotsrt

16r*/ro
I
I

.:

":' ;''

Fig.Q6(c)

':t'

il_

{.1

CEB$f,P"F-L

j-'

LtEiit'&sv

I

*
t

elo-Fig.Q8(c)

!

. lt'..
r

,

...,.

,

i-'
'

*****

4of4

'

':::'

'al

"r:,,

'"./,,:""g

-./'

ir
r0ENIE14l24

USN

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Dec.2013 I Jan.20l4

Elements of Mechanical Engineering
Time: 3 hrs.

6)

o
o

Note: l. Answer any FIW full questions, choosing at least twofrom each part.
2. Answer all objective gtpe questions only in OMR sheet page 5 of the answer booklet.
3. Answer to objective gtpe questions on sheets other than OMR will not be valued.

:()

I a.

?a

PART _ A
Choose the.correct answers for the following

i)

ii)
Gv

=n
-*l
coo
.= c'l

iii)

b?!
otr
-O

(04 Marks)
:
energy sources.
_
A) renewable B) non-renewable C) celestial energy
D) bio-mass
Photosynthesis process is also known as
A) Helio therrnal process
B) Helio chemical process
C) Helio electrical process
.D) Pizeo electric process
Partially dry steam and:partially wet particles in steam called as
Gf;S{liiX'tA) dry steam
'i ' B) super heated steam
Li'#iili-i:i

Coal is.an,example for

u

Babcock and Wilcox boiler is an example for _.
A) fire tube boiler
B) vertical boiler
C) single tube boiler
D) externally fired boiler

a=

o()

b.

d
-! o

c.

b0c
c6d
-o:
-s
ss=

d.

E(6

-?o
'Ea
or=
^X
()

'.,

4. Use of steam table is permitted.

L
a

(.)

Max. Marks:lO0

--t

o=

ed

2 a.

!o

Name any four boiler mountings and state their-:functions.
(02 Marks)
With the help of neat sketch, explain the working of a Francis turbine.
(08 Marks)
Determine the total heat content per unit mass at the following state using the steam tables.
Assume ambient pressure to be 100 kPa and Cp: 2.0934 kJ/kg.
i) 10 bar absolute and 300"C
ii) 100 kPa gauge and 100 kPa abs and 250oC
iii) Dry steamat 1O0 kPa abs
iv) Steam at.l2bar and95o/o dry.
(06 Marks)
, ,.1,1
Choose the correct answers for the following

i) ,

' ii)

^.=
i,a

b0e5Q
6=
*o
tr>
:o
o-i
Lr<

t,^
()
o
'7
o

b.
c.
d.

:

converts in to mechanical energy.
energy B) weight
C) velocity

,.

,

,,,

(04 Marks)

.,'Steam turbine

A) kinetic

D) pgtential
nozzle and two or more set of moving blades

Compounding consists of one set of
called as
A) velocity compounding
B) pressure compounding
C) pressure velocity compounding
D) velocity pressure compounding
iii) Pelton wheel is example for
A) reaction water turbine
B) low head water turbine
C) impulse water turbine
D) steam turbine
iv) Combustioned gas is directly converted into the mechanical power called as
A) reaction turbine
B) impulse turbine
C) open or closed gas turbine
D) steam turbine
Explain the principle and working of reaction turbine.
(06 Marks)
(06 Marks)
With the help of a neat sketch, explain the working of a Francis turbine.
(04 Marks)
Explain the working principle of a gas turbine on closed cycle.
rqEM.El4l24

'
choose the correct answers for the following
example for
i) Otto cycle engine is angl
Ji;el engine
A) petrol engine
power stroke in
ii) 4 stroke engine has

3 a.

(04 Marks)

engine D) all of these
orrornorirre cv
A)everycycleB)everyalternativecycleirevolution of the crank shaft' '
D) in ali the
c) every third cycre
- ratio.is approximately
iiD rn t*o-Jt-t. p.trot engine compressive
^
o) 1:80
C) l:i
A)

r:22

e;

c)

dual

:

t'tt

iv) piesel cycle engine is also called as
D ^^-olonr pressure
B) constant nraea.rc cycle
a) corrsiarrt vohime
'
D) all of
' C) dual
,,,
E*piaiiJrJittr u,r.ut figure 4 stroke petrol
) stroke
Differentiatl u.t*..;4 stroke and
over four stroke engine'
uoru*:ii;;';;,;";,-k.

cYcle

b.
c.
d. cir.

cycle

engine.
engine.

i)

iD
iii)
ir)

":

(08 Marks)
(04 Marks)
(04 Marks)

:'::

'
:

(04 Marks)

,':
B) flammable
DJ non-toxic

A) high boiling Point
ci row thermai.;nAn ti'itv
Unit of refrigeration ii''
C) Ampere of rJfrigeration'
Ammonia refiigerant is used

i' I

,

"ttgi".

---^ c^-+L^ 4.^ll^.r,ino
Choose the corr€e1'answers for the following
Good refrigerant should be

a.

these

'

'

None of these

'' '"1 D)
in;,*,* ieti8elltol'

. r

D)airconditioner

^., ,
valvetn a refrigetator is to

C) vapourcompression

Function of theihrottle
A) reduce the PressurQ'
B) increase the Pressure
i',
C) converts vapgur'iefrigerant into
D) liquid refrigerant into vapour converslon
vapour.absorption'refrigerator' (08 Marks)
Describe with a neal,Sketch, the working of
exptain its worlringprinciple. (08 Marks)
,

liquid

b. "ffih;;;k;ril;i;.""r"
;:
5 a.

"ir_."ndit[ner,
PART _ B

Choqse the correct answers for the following
Function of the lathe is
i)

"'
,
ii)
ii,

,"

" ::

:

A) Produce cYlindrical Parts

C)

Produce slots
SPeed lathe is examPle for
A) geared head lathe B) simple lathe
Reaming oPeration is

B) produce keY holes
D) all of these
C) universal lathe

a
A) drill operation
C) milling operation

,-
B)

(04 Marks)

""!

D) caption lathe

i ,l operatton
lathe

D) grinding operation

Radial drilling machine is used for
B) medium works
A) small *ork,
) all of these
i) medium and heavy works
operation of radial drilling machine'
With a neat sketch, L*pi"i"."nstruction and
slide swiveling method'
Explain with figure iai., trtttittg with compound

iv)
'/
b.

c.

2 of3

(08 Marks)
(08 Marks)
t0EN,.Et4l24

6a.

Choose the correct answers for the following :
Milling machine removes the metal using

(04 Marks)

i)

A) multi point cutting tool

B) single point cutting tool
C) abrasive wheel
D) drill bit
ii) Work piece and cutting tool moves in the same direction called as
A) up milling
B) down milling
C) combination of up and down milling D) all of these
iii) Emery is an example for _ abrasive.
D) clay
A) natural
B) synthetic
C) artificial
iu) Center less grinding is used for
A) long work piece
B) short work piece
C) both long and short work piece
D) internalgrinding
With the help of a neat sketch, explain the working of a universal milling machine.(08 Marks)
(06 Marks)
Explain with figure working principle of center less grinding machine.
(02 Marks)
Explain any': milling operation.
'

b.

c.
d.

7a.

.t,.

Choose the correct answers for the following

(04 Marks)

:

D

Fusion welding is an example for
A) resistance welding
,B) arc welding
C) forge welding
D) Thermit pressure welding
ii) Copper base filler metal is used for
A) soft soldering B) hard soldering C) brazing
D) welding
iii) Grease is an example lor _ lubrication.
A) solid
B)
C) semi
D) all of these
iv) Collar bearing is also kno'ryn as
A) journal bearing B) tlrust bearing C) foot step bearing D) radial bearing
Explain the principle of arc welding with a figuie.
(06 Marks)
Name the three types of oxy-aCetylene flame. Expiain the application of each of them.
(06 Marks)
Describe the drop feed oil lubrication with neat sketches.
(04 Marks)

liquid:,,

b.

c.
d.

8a.

liquid

,,,

Choose the correct answers for the following
Jockey pulley is used for
A) inorease arc of contact
C)'deCrease arc of contact

(04 Marks)

:

D

B) increase spee4,,
D) decrease in speod,,.:
ii).-V/henabe1tmoVeSforwardwithoutcarryingpul1eyscalled
B) creep
,.. A) slip
C) both slip and creep
D) all of these
iii) Chain drive is used in
A) center distance less than 8m
B) high power rrunr-irrioNfug
C) positive power transmission
D) all ofthese
----iv) Spur gear is example for
A) parallel axis
B) non-parallel axis
C) co-axial D) non-intersecting
With a neat sketch, explain past and loose pulley.
(06 Marks)
Explain following gears:
i) Spur gear ii) Helical gear iii) Bevel gear iv) Rack and pinion (06 Marks)
In a compound train of wheels, the wheels A, B, C and D have 15, 30, 20 and 40 teeth
respectively. The wheels B and C are keyed to the same spindle. If the wheel A runs at
400 rpm, find the speed of the wheel D. Sketch the arrangements.
(04 Marks)
,,,

67'

b.
c.
d.

*{<*{<{<

3

of3
l0ELE15i25

USN

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Dec.2013 lJan.2014

Basic Electrical Engineering
Time: 3 hrs.
(J

(f
cg

o.

C)

Note: l. Answer uny FIW full questions, choosing at least twofrom euch purt.
2. Answer ali objectiie typi questions only ti Omn sheet page 5 of tie ilnswer booklet.
3. Answer to objective Stpe questions on sheets other than OMR will not be valuecl.

I a.

PART _ A
Choose the correct answers for the following :
The polarity of voltage drop across a resistor is determined by

oX

de
50

=€
gil
-O

3z
o:

b.
c.

A) the value of resistor
B) the value of current
C) direction of current in resistor
D) the polarity of source
ii) Three resistors of 4 f), 6 f) and 9 Q are connected in parallel in a network. Maximum
power will be consumed by_.
A) 4 f, resistor B) 6 O resistor C) 9 O resistor D) all resistors
iii) The magnitude of statically induced e.m.f, depends on
A) the coil resistance
B) the flux magnitude
C) the rate of change of flux
D) all of these
iv) The direction of induced e.m.f,in a conductor (or coil) can be determined by _.
A) Work law
B) Ampere's law
C) Fleming's right hand rule
D) Fleming's left hand rule
Derive equation for energy stored in magnetic field.
(04 Marks)
Find the value of resistance 'R' as shown in Fig.Ql(c), so that current drawn from the source
is 250 mA. All the resistor values are in ohm.
(06 Marks)
-f

-ao
6 .!r

sv_

t
,,
e$?€'fl$t*Lt*

^X oE:

o:

ho
Fig.Qi(c)

o=

AE,

d.

LO

5.v
>.:
bo-

i
.-c olJ
6=

o[i
=>
:o
VL

o-

(r<

:a.)

o
'7

(04 Marks)

D

=
C)

oc)

Max. Marks:100

2 a.

t t;}n&{ilv

G)l
.<l

Coils A and B in a magnetic circuit have 600 and 500 turns respectively. A
coil A produces a flux of 0.04 Wb. If coeflicient of coupling is 0.2, calculate:
i) Self inductance of coil A, with B open circuited.
ii) Flux linkage with coil B.
iii) The average emf induced in coil B when the flux with it changes from zero to full value
in 0.02 second.
iv) Mutual inductance.
(06 Marks)
Choose the correct answers for the following

:

(04 Marks)

D A coil is rotating in the uniform magnetic field of an 8 pole generator. In one

o

ii)

revolution of the coil, the number of cycles generated by the voltage is
A) one
B) two
C) four
D) eight
The average value of sin 0 over complete cycle is
D)%
A) +l
C) zero
B) -1
1^QA
10ELE15/25

2 a.

iii)

In the circuit shown in Fig.Q2(a)(iii), the potential

difference across the various

elements are shown. What is the source voltage, V?

t-;:ff;";"";il
Fig.Q2(aXiii)

A)

sOv

B) 100 v

iv) If two phasors A: 60FU, B :
A) 360EE

b.
c.
d.

C) zero
(6 + j0), then

D)

150

V

A/B

c)

B) 6080"

10E0"
D) 10[ -40"
Derive r.m.s. value of sinusoidal voltage in terms its maximum value.
(04 Marks)
An inductor coil is connected to supply of 250 V at 50 Hz and takes a eurrent of 5.{. The coil
dissipates 750 W. Calculate power factor, resistance and inductance of the coil. (06 Marks)
A capacitor of 50 ;-rF shunted across a non inductive resistance of 100 f) is connected in
series with a resislor of 50 f) to a 200 V, 50 Hz supply. Find circuit current and power
(06 Marks)

3 a.

b.
c.
d.

4 a.

Choose the correct answers fbr the following :
The advantage of star-connected supply system is that
A) line-current is equal to phase current

i)

(04 Marks)

B) line voltage is equal to
"6 phase voltage
C) two voltage can be used
D) it is simple arrangement
ii) The phase sequence R Y B denotes that
A) the e.m.f of R leads Y by 120"
B) the e.m.f of Y lags R by 120"
C) the e.m.f of Y leads B by 120"
D) all of these
iii) In a three-phase power measurement by two Wattmeter method, both Wattmeters
reads the same value. The power flactor of the load must be
A) unity
B) 0.707lag
C) 0.707lead
D) zero
iv) Three phase apparent power is equal to
A) .Ev.tr
B) ..EVr-Ir cos O C) ..6v.t. rio6
D) VLIL
With the aid of a phasor diagram obtain the relationship between the line and phase values
of voltages in a three phase star connected system.
(06 Marks)
State advantages of three-phase system over a single-phase system.
(04 Marks)
Three identical coils, each having a resistance of 10 f) and a reactance of 10 f) are
oonnected in delta, across 400 V, 3-phase supply. Find the line current and the readings on
the two Wattmeters connected to measure the power.
(06 Marks)
Choose the correct answers for the following :
Dynamometer type instrument-s can be used for

i)

A)

ii)
iii)
iv)

(04 Marks)

A.C. only
B) D.C. only
C) both A.C and D.C
D) none of these
The most commonly used induction type instrument is
A) Voltmeter
B) Ammeter
C) Watt-hour meter D) Wattmeter
Most modern wiring system for domestic and commercial installation is
A) Cleat wiring
B) Wooden-Batten wiring
C) Wooden-casing wiring
D) Conduit wiring
The fuse wire for smaller current rating (up to 10 A) are made of
A) Lead-tin alloy B) Copper
C) Lead
D) Aluminium

2of4
1OELE15/25

4 b.
c.
d.
5 a.

Explain with a neat sketch, single phase induction type energy meter.
Explain staircase wiring.
With a neat sketch, explain plate earthing.

(06 Marks)
(04 Marks)
(06 Marks)

PART _ B
Choose the correct answers for the following

i)

ii)

:

(04 Marks)

The number of parallel paths in the armature winding of a four pole, wave connected
dc machine having 28 coil-sides is

B)

A) 28

c)4

14

D)2

The e.m.f generated by a given dc generator depends upon
A) the flux only
B) the speed only
C) bothflux and speed
D) the terminal voltage
iii) The back e.m.f in a dc motor is given as
A) V+IaRa
D) I^R"
B)
C) V
iv) The speed of the d.c. motor is
A) directly proportional to both its back emf and flux
B) inversely proporlionalto both its back emf and flux
C) directly proportional to flux but inversely proportional to its back emf
D) directly proportional to its back emf but inversely proportional to flux
Explain working of d.c. motor and hence derive an equation lor torque.
(08 Marks)
An 8-pole generator has 500 armature conductors and has a useful flux per pole of
0.065 Wb. What will be the e.m.f. generated if it is lap connected and runs at 1000 rpm?
What must be the speed at which it is to be driven to produce the same emf if it is wave
(08 Marks)
wound?

V-r"&

b.
c.

6 a.

:

Choose the correct answers for the following
The core of a transformer is assembled with laminated sheets so as to
A) reduce hysteresis loss

i)

ii)

B) reduce Eddy current loss
C) both hysterisis and Eddy current loss
D) copper loss
A single phase, 5 kVA, 200 Vi100 V, transformer has rated primary and secondary
currents at rated voltage

A)25Aand50A

iii)
iu)

b.
c.
d.

(04 Marks)

B)50Aand25A

C) 12.5 A and 62.5 A
D) 62.5 A and 12.5 A
If the fuel load core loss of a transformer is 100 W. its core loss at half load wj{ffi}o
A) 200
B) 1oo
D)Zs
c) 50
q
A transformer operates at maximum efficiency, when
,t
- ?
CEt,EYgT&L
A) core losses minimum
g'ffi{{,ilt},Y
r"
B) copper loss minimum

w

w

w

yr6ffio.)

C) core loss : copper loss
D) none of these
Derive expressions for the r.m.s values of induced voltages in the
(05 Marks)
phase transformer connected to a sinusoidal supply.
Deduce the condition tbr maximum efficiency in a single-phase transformer. (05 Marks)
A transformer is rated at 100 kVA. At full load its copper loss is i200 W and its iron loss is
960 W. Calculate:
i) The efficiency at full load, OPF.
ii) The efficiency at half load, 0.8 pf.
(06 Marks)
iii) The load kVA at which maximum efficiency will occur.
10ELE1s/25

7 a.

:

Choose the correct answers for the following
(04 Marks)
In synchronous generators
A) the field poles are stationary and the armature conductors rotate
B) the armature conductors are stationary and the field poles rotate
C) field and armature both are stationary
D) none of these
A 4-pole, 1200 rpm alternater will generate an emf at a frequency of
B) 50 Hz
C) 40Hz
D) 25 Hz
A) 60 Hz
Full pitch windings have coil span of
B) goo
270'
D) 360"
A) 180"
The current from an alternator is taken out to external load circuit through
B) slip-rings
A) commutator segments
D) solid connectiofl
C) carbon brushes
By means of a neat diagram, describe the main parts of an alternator with their functions.

i)

ii)

iii)

c)

iv)

b.

A 3-phase, 6-pole, star-connected alternator revolves at 1000 rp*. rn. stator nu. ,[o3r]rl'ut)
and 8 conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 0.05 Wb (sinusoidally distributed). Calculate
the voltage generated by the machine if the winding factor is 0.96 line and phase value.
(08 Marks)

8 a.

Choose the correct answers for the following :
ln a three phase induction motor
A) rotor conductors are open circuited
B) rotor conductor are short circuited
C) stator winding is open
D) none of these
The relation between N,. Fand P of three-phase inductor is

il

ii)

A) N.=

iii)
iv)
b.
c.

d.

(04 Marks)

r20

f

B)N,=ry

c)

r=#

D)f=+

When speed ofthe induction motor is zero, its slip is
A) zero
B) 0.s
C) one
D) infinity
The number of slip rings in a three phase wound rotor induction motor is

A)3

c)e

B)4

D)2

Explain the, principle of operation of a three phase induction motor.
(05 Marks)
With the help of neat circuit diagram, explain star-delta stafter.
(06 Marks)
A 3-phase, 6-pole, 50 Hz induction motor has a slip of lo/o at no load. and 3Yo at fuIl load.
Determine: i)synchronous speed ; ii) no-load speed ; iii) full-load speed : iv) frequency of
rotor current at stand still ; v) fiequency of rotor current at full load.
(05 Marks)
**{<{<*

4of4
06crv18/28
Question Paper Version

USN

:

D

I I ll Semester B.E Degree Examination, Dec.2013 I Jan.20l4
ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
(coMMoN TO ALL BRANCHES)
Time: 2 hrs.l

[Max. Marks: 50

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1.

,
3.

"..............".

Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.
Use only:Btack ball point pen for writing / darkening the circleS:

For each qrrestion, after selecting your answer, darkcu the appropriate circle
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

4.

Darkening two circles lor the same question malg1the answer invalid.

5.

Damaging/overwriting, ,trsing whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
prohibited.

1.

,:::,,:::'

Population growth in developing countries creates environmental and socio
problems such as
a) Poverty
b) Natural resource depletion
c) Food problems
d) All of these

-

economic

Climate and Global air c'irculations are mainly affected by the properties of
a) Water and Air , -.'"
b) Temperature
c) Precipitation
d) None of these

3.

40,

C#F.{Tf;':r,!..

Reduction of'green house gases can be achieved by
a) Improving the efficiency of electricity generation
b) Switching to less polluting fossil fuels
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None of these
Ozone layer present in

.

a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Stratosphere

t$li3ftdr'it,f

.

d)

...:

Thermosphofe

5.

To achieve the goal of clean environment, important strategies required are
a) Effective laws
b) Active participation of the publics
c) Active participation of NGO's
d) Both (a) & (b)

6.

Least controllable man made source of pollution
a) Thermal power plants
b) Exhausts of automobiles
c) Chemical and industrial effluents d) Domestic cooking

-D1

-
06cIV18/28

21.

Which of the conceptual sphere of the environment is having the less storage capacity for
matter
a) Bio sphere
b) Hydrosphere
c) Lithosphere
d) Atmosphere

22.

Ecology is defined as the study of
a) relation between organisms to their environment.
b) relation between groups of organisms to their environment
c) both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

:

::"

23. Which of the following is the terrestrial system?
a)

Forest

b)

Grassland

c)

Desert

d)

of the United

Food and Agricultural organizatron (FAO)

All of these

Nations providing the

informatisn on

a)

c)
,(

Each cou,rrtries total food supplies
Quality of food produced

b) Dietary differenoeB.of the countries
d) None ofthese-,,
,,

Social security is one of the most impofiant programmes providing benefits to
Families of deceased d) All of these

a) Worker / Employee b) Un - employee c)

26. The first United Nationaicooference on Human environment was held at
a) New York
b) Stockholm c) Montreal
d) Basal

27.
28.

World Environmental day is celebrated on
a) June 5
b) August tr5' I ,'
.

l:,.

c)

December

d)

5

September 5

d)

1974

i

The Environmental (protection) Act oflrrdia was enacted in the year
a) 1986
b) l99Z'',,,,,,,"
1984

c)

29.

The objectives of wild Ufe 6roiection) Act lg72i;
a) To preserve the bio - diversity
b) To maintain essenlial ecologicaland life supporting system
c) Protection and conservation of wild Iife
d) All of these

30.

The study of,environmental system and their interaction is fall under
a) Environhental Science
b) Environmental Engineering
c) Eqlironmental Management
d) Both (a) & (c)

31.

Norrnal sound level of a quiet speech is
a) 120dB
b) 90dB

?,

J]'.

34.

Disposal of bio - medical waste is by
a) Autoclaving and landfilling
c) Both (a) & (b)

Activated sludge process is
a) Anaerobic method b) Aerobic

c)

d)

140dB

s0dB

b) Incineration
d) Land filling

method c)

Both (a) &

(b)

d) None of these

The major cause for the global population increase in the 19th century was due to
a) Decrease in birth rate
b) Industrial revolution
c) Decrease in death rate
d) Green revolution

-D3-
10crP18/28
Question Paper Version

USN

:

A

I I ll Semester B.E Degree Examination, Dec.2013/Jan.20l4
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA AND PROFESSIONAL ETHICS

(coMMoN TO ALL BRANCHES)

Time: 2 hrs.]

[Max. Marks: 50

TNSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1.
2.
3.

Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.
Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

4.
5.

Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.

Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly
prohibited.

1.

The basic feature of the Indian constitution is found in :
a) Fundamental duties
b) Fundamental rights
c) Preamble
d) Directive principles of state policy

Original constitution classified fundamental rights, into seven categories but now there
are,

Eight

a)
c) Regrouped into social, economic and
a) Polling
c) Announcement of results
4.

b)

Six

political d) Five
b) Counting of votes
d) None of these

The Indian Federal system is based on the Federal system of,
b) usA
c) France
d) Newzealand

a) Canada

Engineers must:
a) Recognize the value of a code of Ethics b) Support a code of ethics
c) Look upon a code of ethics as a sabred writ d) Both (a) and (b).
The President of India takes the Oath of office before the:
a) Vice President
b) Prime minister
c) Chiefjustice of supreme court
d) Speaker oflok sabha

7.

'Judicial Review' means:
a) Reviewing the lower court judgement b) Revieving the laws passed by the legislature
c) Examining the actions of executives d) Advising the president of India.
-A1-
10cIP18/28
The other names for Rajya Sabha are:
a) Upper house
c) A Federal house

b) Council of states
d) All the above

The term'Ethics' is derived from:
a) Ethical in English
c) Custom

b) 'Ethic' in Latin
d) Ethics in Greek.

The Governor of a state acts as:
a) Real executive of a state
c) Secretary of president

b) Agent of President
d) Advisor to central government

Jobs are reserved for SCs and STs,
a) For promotions
c) For appointments and promotions

b)

For appointments

d)

On the basis of their annual income

26.

How many subjects are there in the central, state and concurrent list:
a) 97, 66 and 41
b;) 47,66 and 98
cl 97.47 and 65
d) 47.96 and 55

27.

Village Panchayats (Article
government.

a) Republican

28. The fundamental
a) 1952

-

form of

40) are the best examples for India's

c)

b) Secular

d) Democratic

Sovereign

duties of Indian citizens were incorporated in the constitution in:
b) 1976
c) 1980
d) 198s

;

29,

The aim of the Directive principles of state policy is to establish:
a) Capitalist state in our country:,,
b) Communist state in our country
c) Wellare state in the country
d) Atlofthese

30.

Sexual harassment of working women in working places is violation of,
a) Right to profession
b) Right to reputation
c) Right to personal liberty
dt Right to life

31.

'
..'t,,
The chief minister of a state is appointed by the:
a) Speaker
b) Chiefjustice of high court
c) Prime minister
d; Governor

32,

Exclusion of Creamy layer makes a backward class:
a) Socially backward
b) Truly backward
c) More backward
d) Economically backward

33.

Special majority means more than,
a) 50% majority
c) 75% majority

,

"",

b) Two-third majority
d) 60oh majority

34. One of the ways of misusing the truth is:
a) Exaggerating the truth
c) Making confused statement

35.

b) Making wrong statement
d) Failure to seekout the truth

The constitution empowers state government to make special law for:
a) Workers
b) Teachers c) Women and Children

-A3-

d) Farmers
1st and 2and  Semester Physics Streem  (2013-December) Question Papers

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1st and 2and Semester Physics Streem (2013-December) Question Papers

  • 1. - ^, (r lOMATl1 USN First Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Dec.2013lJan.2Ul4 Engineering Mathematics -I Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks:100 Note: l. Answer any FIW full questions, choosing at leust twofrom each part. 2. Answer all objective type questions only in OMR sheet page 5 of the answer booklel 3. Answer to objective tlpe questions on sheets other than OMR will not be valued. PART _ A o o o 1 u.,,. ,Choose : L for the following the a . ii) o 3e If iii) -!. > ;n bo' troo .= .a -l a= o() (g0 ooi >d B) (-l)nnl iv) y: C) (-.rt*i (x + l)n*1 () o> oZ t, (-l)n (n + 1)! A) ioo YJO oC FO I x+l E : 3o;;ect.answels If (ax +b)- with (-1)'n! D) (x + l)n 1-1)n-rn! (". m: n, then y, is fli A) n! an B)0 C) n! bn D)n! The geometriCal interpretation of Lagrange's mean value theorem is f(b)-f(a) B) f,r.t_f(b)+f(a)C; l''lc)_ f(b)-f(a) A)f'(c)=g,(c) g(b)-g(a) b-a b-a D)noneof these The Maclaurin's series expansion of e-' is 2! 3! ,,:3! C) *- x- * x3 (04 Marks) D) * *4*d* 2t3!.213! b. Ify:sinlog (x2 +2x+ l),provethat(x+ l)'yr,+ r+(2n+ 1)(x+ 1)yn+1n2+4)yn:0. (04 Marks) c. d. 2 a. 3.) oi= If x ispositive, showthatx> log (1 +x) (06 Marks) Using Maclourin's series, expand log (1 + e*) upto the terms containing x Choose the correct answers for the following . i) (06 Marks) : .--.. /,|;J3!I equalto -+l lis " -( f;-x ) lim =:: o-X A) o: 6: r"-L*. 2 B)-2 C) 1 D)-1 ii) If $ be the angle between the tangent and radius vector at any point on the curve alE r = (e), then sin $ is equal to !o A) 5.e boo -50 o= iii) 9O tr> iv) o L.)< o o z = L o b. c. C) ,do 'dr l'-tY ,2*rl-rr2 s1 ''*,lY' 'rl*x'-rr, ct ? *,,'Y '11 t + z -rt2 ,t : a' cosm0. Find the radius of curvature for the curve v2=d9:*), x - D) dsl : Find the Pedal equation of the curve x d. gt.do 'ds The rate at which the curve is bending called A) radius of curvature B) curvature C) circle of curvature D) The radius of curvature for polar curve r (e) is given by A) ' ,i 6i drlds axis. lim (ax + t )x. Evaluate*--*(.ax-l) (04 Marks) where the curve meets the (06 Marks) (06 Marks)
  • 2. 1OMAT11 3 a. Choose the correct answers for the following i) If u: log (x2 + f + r'1,then I 2v ts .,-+ x'+y'+z' If ,, 0z 2x ii) : u:(x, x'+v'+7,- y) and y is a function x, then . du au ^'d* Cd, fu aury ndu -r 'dx ,l I l ax q - 2z D) *2 +y2 +12 *2 +y2 -12 -au du audv ax dx dy dx ^.au du dufo ut dudy A 2z c) ) ax dx ar ax dx - ,' ^2. iii) If r={*.s=- a2f a2f , then the condition for the shddle point is &t=3 oxo i','"'' dx' dy' :,,, A) rr-s2?O g)rt-s2:o iv) Ifu:x*yr z,y=,!+z,z:z,then / J[ b. a r1r* s'> D)rt-s2+0 O ''u'l ]ir.qrulto x'Y'zl c)0 B) -1 A)1 C) mirror is given by the formula of these .none (04 Marks) D) I -I u= Z . If .qual errors. 'e' are made (t + r) in the determination of u and v. Show that the rosulting error in f is el - - I. ^ u: f(2x-3y.3y -42.42-2x).prove +"^*1tu;^ ,ur-)'v) that 1;.i n*i;=0. d. If x: u(1 - v), y: uY, Ftove that JJ' :1. c. 4 a. ' If Choose the correct answers for the following : Direotional derivative is maximum along A) tangent to the surface C) any unit vector (04 Marks) (06 Marks) (06 Marks) i) ,ii) Ifr: iii) If f : iv) B) normal to the Suiftce D) coordinate axes lx;+y1 + 2rl, then Vrn is 3x2 - lf C) V.Vr' + 4z2,thencurl (grad f) is A) 4x - 6y + 8z B) 4x1-6y; + 8z k C) b' If the base vectors er and azzta orthogonal then I e1 x A)0 D) none of these B)-1 c)+1 D)3 e2 | is D) none of these (04 Marks) -+ b. If F =(x+y+l)i+ j-(x+y)k, c. Find constants,a, and,b, such that showthat F.crulF =0. i Also find a scalar function $such that d. = (axy + r31i+ (3x2 i - V0. Prove that a spherical coordinate system is orthogonal. 1^{A (04 Marks) - z)j+ (brr2 - y)k is irrotational. (06 Marks) (06 Marks)
  • 3. 1OMAT11 PART _ B 5 a. Choose the correct answers for the following : 1l il 7 Jsin x dx is equal to 0 A) ii) The asymptote of (2 A) iii) x:2 .2 JfiA iv) c. d. 6 a. : C) x - axis Evaluate + acosx)dx -)z a(1 - cos0) is B) 3a Iar,t 0' D) none of these =:"'" a^ *3 is axis ) n c){ '2 2 6a D) 35 B)I 2 1(tr C): The entire length f the asteroid x2l3 + A) b' - x)l : B) y - The ar€a of the cordioid r A)_ ?) 32n Bt '35 zero f : '3 )/7 a-," JA D) '2 . rS D) Cy,za uy:airrrr.*iating a. (04 Marks) under the integral si 2a Evaluate I"'.lZu- *2dr. using reduction formula. Find the volume of generated by the revolution of the curve line. Choose the D ii) corrbct'u.rr*.r, for the following : (06 Marks) . The general solution of the differential equation dyldx : (y/x,) + tan (y/x) is B) sin (y/x) : cx sin (y/x) : c C) cos(y/x) : ci , ,: cos (y/x) : c ,,D) .A) ''.'the family of straight lines passing through the origin is represented by the differential equation: A) ydx+xdy:0 B)xdy-ydx:0 xdx+ydy:0 D)ydy-xdx:0 iii) The homogeneous differential equation Mdx + Ndy : 0 can be reduced to a C) differential equation, in which the variables are separated by the substitution A) v: vx B)x*y:v c) xy: v D)x-y:v ir) The equationy A) b. c. d. y: ae-" Solve 1, + fl9dx - 2x: c represents the orthogonal trajectories of the family B) x2 + 2f :u c) xy:.a y = e3*1x + l)2. D) x + 2y: a (04 Marks) (04 Marks) Solve (1 + xy) ydx+ (1 -xy) xdy:0. Find the orthogonal trajectory of the cordioids r: 3 of 4 (06 Marks) a(l - cos 0). (06 Marks)
  • 4. 1OMATl1 7 a. Choose the correct answers for the following i) : If every minor of order 'r' of a matrix A i, ,..o, then rank of A is A) greater than r B) equal r C) less than or -r----- -" . D) less rvo' / than r. "q*l,o -: The trivial solution for the given system of equations x + ly * 3z:0, 3x + 4y+ 42* 0, J 7x+ 10 y + l2z:0 is ii) A) (1, 1, t) B) (1,0,0) c) (0, 1,0) iii) Matrix has a value. This statement / "> -' "'' . . , 11) is always true B) depends upon the matrices C) is false iv){.ai1singularandp(A):p(A:B)thenthesystemhas D) (0,0,0) D; none of these solution B) infinitely many solution c) trivial sorution D) no solution. Using elementary transformations, find the rank of the matrix '; ' ,.' A) unique b. ,' tt l:41 I ^ 3 l-2 2 _l 21. (04Marks) s_l c. Showthat the system* d. Apply Gauss 8a. 2x+ 5y t 7z i y'* z:4;2x+ y - z: l; x- y *22:2 :- 52 ; 2x-r y - z: Jordan method to sorve the system of equation 0; + S, + i ;': ;.- Choose the correct answers lor the following A square matrix A is called orthosonai i) A)A:AL ii) B)A':A-I The eigen vatues ofrhe ,nu,ri* ii0 iv) ' A)lrJ6' is consistent, solve the (06 Marks) : (06 Marks) : Iif ,,,gy AA-r:I D) none of these | | fl ^r, 142 2) B)ltJ5 c)Js D)l form xf +2xf-3xj are respecrively T11e^iTex;d A) 2,.t B) C) 1, -: njrron. of these Two square matrices A and B are similar. if ::. A) A: B B) B : p-rAI, C) Ar : Br D) A-r : B-r. signature of the quadratic " 1,2 1 * 322 - 12yz + 4zx_gxy to tt . .urronfuii Orljo Marks) Reduce the quadratic c. Determine the characteristic roots and eigen vectors 21 s I-6 -6 A=l 7 l, -4 . .:. b. d' :,' -41 3j Reduce the quadratic form gx2 + 7y2 of . form (04 Marks) (06 Marks) xl + 2xl - 7"1 ***rF* - 4xp2+ 8x2x3 into sum of squares. (06 Marks)
  • 5. 06PIJYt2t22 USN First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Dec.2013 lJan.20l4 Engineering Physics lr!t ,,,_ '1,' := :::',:,':':: Max. Marks:,I00 :. i Time: 3 hrs. (.) any FIW full questions, choosing at least twofrom each part. all objective type questions only in OMR sheet page 5 of the ansipei booklet. 3. Answer to objective fi;pe questions on sheets other than OMR will not:he.valued. 4. Physic.u,l constants : h : 6.62 x 1tr34 JS, c : 3 x 108 m/s, m" : 9r,1"''*'1A31 kg. :::,,,.,_.._,.-. I PART _ A (04 Marks) a. Choose the correct answers for the following : i) Photo electric effect signifies A) particularc,aat:re of radiation B) wave natureofradiation C) both particulate and wave nature of radiation D) none of these ii) In a blackbody radiation spectrum, Wien's displacement law is true for A) high frequency region B) low &equency region ,' C) all range of fiequencies ;,.",,,.D) not applicable for blackbody radiation iii) If the velocity of a particle douli&s, then de-Broglie wavelength 1 A) increases by 2 times . B) decreasesby 2times "ii, C) no change D) none of these Note: (f (.) o. E 1. Answer 2. Answer ;, () o ! C)x Jh 5 ,,,,,,,,,,, ll oo eoo .=N cO+ noo Y() (Jtr -o o= 6= o I 6.) 1",,, iv) b0i b. ,6 Ed -?o 'Cn oi= o.A tra. o= A,i, c. d. Compton effect takes place A) only lor high frequency radiation B) only for low frequency radiation C) for all range of,,freQuencies D) none ofthese Explain with a neat,,diagram, how the Davison-Germer experiment proves the concept of matter waves. (07 Marks) Obtain an expression for group velocity. (05 Marks) Calculate tho:de-Broglie wavelength associated with rain drops.:fi+ting under gravity with a speed otoi;$,b Given, the average diameter of the drops is t rnm a""a density of water is "/s. 1000 kg/t'n' (04 Marks) 2 a. Choose the correct answers for the following . i) The uncertainty in location of a particle ' uncertainty in velocity if AxAp : h is : LO JE >'! oo" cbO o= *o A)V tr> o l, -N o '7 .dr ii) iii) o ir) u); is equal to de-Broglie wavelefrgth. The :::: c) 2v between momentum D) 4V /6Y Uncertainty principle applies only l-q, A) position and B) energy and ,'.'fl .enstou f;ij C) any two canonically conjugate variables D) either A or B. .{ t.rsnefrv / I / It If width of the potential well increases by 4 times, energy of the particler /"Vil ,/^pt', A) reduces to 114 B) reduces to 1116 times C) increases by 4 D) increases by 16 Probability of finding the particle is A) highest in ground state B) lowest in first excited state C) independent of energy of the state D) increases with energy of the state times times time particler#. o"V'C'7 times 'Y942
  • 6. 06PHYt2t22 2 b. c. d. rr'3|' r' Obtain an expression for energy eigen value of a particle in a potential well of infinite height. (07 Marks) Explain the most probable state of the particle by drawing probability curves. (05 Marks) The position and momentum of 2 kev electrons are simultaneously determined and if its position is located within 0.12 nn, what is the percentage of uncertainty in its momentum= (04 Marks) 3. Choose the correct answers for the following i) A) ii) iii) c. 4 a. u,+ ., + " D) independent of T If Fermi energy of a metal is 3 eV, its Fermi temperature is A) 3'"5 r 104 K B) 1.6 x 102 K c) 3.5 , 103 K, '', " D) 10-12 K Current,of 3A is flowing through a cylindrical copper wire ofradius 3 mm. the current density is nearly A) 105 B) 1or c) 106 A/# D) 10-6 A/m2 Drift velocity of electrons in a metal depends on A) mass of eterman B) applied electric field C) mean collision time D) all of these Define mean tree path. mean collision time and relaxation time. Derive an expression for conductivity in metals. (10 Marks) Explain the merits of quantum free eleOtron theory. (06 Marks) Nrl .:.,, iv) b. 12 gl|IiT.? : At very high temperatures, the mean collision time or an electron t, A/m2 Choose the correct answers for tfre,fof6wing (04 Marks) i) The dipolemendent between the pair iD separated by a distance of l0 prm is A) 10 x 10-12 B) 10-12 C) 10 x 1012 D) 10-12 cm The distance between plates of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled. The capacitance iii) cm ' of cm opposite charges each of magnitude 1 pC cm A) doubled B) halved C) increases,by 4 times D) decreases by 4 times Relation,between magnetic flux density, permeability and magnetic (with uiual notations) is given by '' field intensity A)p:BH B) B: pH C) H: Bpr il; No relation exist iv) " ;Barium titanate is an example of " A) ferromagnetic material B) superconducting mateiial C) ferroelectric material D) none of these Explain various electrical polarization mechanisms in dielectrics. (06 Marks) What are ferroelectrics? Explain ferloelectric hysterisis. (05 Marks) Briefly explain the paramagnetism phenomenon using Langevin's theory. (05 Marks) ,,,,,... b. "c. d. 5 a. PART _ B Choose the correct answers for the following : Pumping process in diode LASER is by i) optical means B) forward bias C) electrical discharge D) thermal means Semiconductor LASER is not preferred in LASER drilling since A) beam is less powerful B) beam is highly powerful C) beam has large wavelength D) none of these A) i, (04 Marks)
  • 7. 06P}IYl2l22 5 a. iii) Holograms can give a clear 3D image if they are observed under A) white light B) green light C) blue light D) same wavelength of light used for recording the hologram. ir) LASER beam is highly powerful due to A) high intensity B) less broadening C) constructive interference D) all of these With the necessary diagram, explain the construction and working of He-Ne c. d. 6 a. d. Marks) Wlf LASER is preferred for environmental pollution monitoring? Explain the principle and relative merits of LIDAR system (05 Marks) Find the ratio between Einstein coefficients for stimulated and spontaneous transmissions in a LASER system emitting light of wavelength 5000 A. (04 Marks) ., ,:"'.,,. Choose the correct answers for the following If the critical temperature lor specimen is above 0 K. i) A) semiconductor B) conductor .. a. (04 Marks) it must be C) insulator D) super conductor SQUID is used ro measure A) high magnetic field ,: B) low magnetic field ,:. D) high resistance C) high potential dilference iii) Propagation of light ray in graded index fiber is by eg$TFi.e.L B) diffiaction , ggi:1,t",;l'ri" C) reflective confinement D) none of these iv) Shorter wavelength radiations are not preferred in optical fibers due to A) high absorption loss B) high scattering loss C) not easily available D) none of these Explain type I and type II super conductors with necessary graph and example. (06 Marks) Obtain an expression for angle of acceptance and numerical aperture of an optical fiber. Also explain the condition for light propagation in a optical fiber. (06 Marks) An optical fiber has core index of 1.6 and cladding index of 1.4 with core diameter of 40 pm. Calculate 'V' number ratio when the fiber is in air and;ih water of refractive index 1.33. Given wavelength of light is 500 nm. (04 Marks) ii) b. c. LAS% .' Choose the correct answers for the following i) ii) iii) iv) : (04 Marks) The atomic packing factor of NaCl crystal A) s2% B) r00% c) 74% D) 68% Four types of Bravasis lattices are observed in A) Rhombohedral structure B) Monoclinic system C) Triclinic system D) Orlhorhombic system Acrystalhas unit cellproperties a* b * c and cr: p:90o + B, is : ;]: A) orthorhombic B) ..,1;; C) tetragonal D) triclinic The Miller index of the plane parallel to Y-axis is monoclinic A)(101) B)(01 1) C)(1co1) D)(co 1 1) b. Obtain an expression for interplanar spacing in a crystal in terms of lattice parameters. c. What is coordination number? Explain this with reference to SC, BCC and fcc structures. (06 Marks) (06 Marks) d' X-ray of wavelength 5 A interacts with a crystal. If the second order reflection was observed at a glancing angle of 30o, calculate the lattice constant. (04 Marks)
  • 8. 10crv13/23 USN First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Dec.2013 /Jan.2Dl4 Elements of Givil Engineering and Engineering Mechanics Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks:100 Note: l. Answer any FIW full questions, choosing at least two from each part. 2. Answer all objective lype questions only in OMR sheet page 5 of the onswer booklel ' ,, , 3. Answer to objective ltpe questions on sheets other than OMR will not be valaed. (J (.) PART _ A o I a I a. () 3e --^l -O ?a bridge b. c. 2 a. o -l' a= AE !o 5.v > (F ooo EOO ()= *o tr> o lr< * a'l minimum translation rotation these ' B) rotation D) none of these B) D) none of Z.CFry,:I lF/ "-Y: l*i *rre{.ut*" i:'; "*-*3'::': l;l ,.i* trb ,/"ril if,]ffi7 6ff*,") rotation Moment,+f a force will produce A) translation C) porn translatlon and rotatron L,). bottr translation ancl rotation A bloc'k'weighing w : 10 kN is resting on an inclined plane as shown in'>8ry,6. and Determine its components normal to and parallel to the inclined plane. The plane makes an angle of 20o with the horizontal. . (04 Marks) c, . A body is subjected to the tkee forces as shown in Fig.Q2(c). If possible determine the direction of the force "F" so that the resultant is in 'x' direction, when (i) F : 5000 N, ( ii) F : 3000 N. (12 Marks) 3a. Choose the correct answers for the following i) o o q (10 Marks) (06 Marks) maximum C) both translation (.) Z D) reservoir water maximum A) b. dam Choose the correct answers for the fullowing : (04 Marks) The component of a force perpendicular to its line of action is A) B) C) zero D) none of these The moment of a force about a moment centre lying on its line of action is A) B) minimum C) zero D) Two equal and opposite forces separated by a distance will produce ii) ?() so- D) camber What are infrastructure related projects? o() 63O 'ia On margin dam D) lift bridge B) soil Cl air D) none of these With the help of neat sketches, briefly explain the cross-section of road and gravity dam. A) a= a6 (04 Marks) bridge median dams i) bQi (! (! bridge Kerb iii) Jh ET (,) c i) ii) () goo .= c-.I Choose the correct answers for the following : A bridge constructed at some angle to river flow is A) -kpw B) square C) steel The stttlature that separates roads into separate lanes is called A) B) C) road The upstream side of a dam A) arch B) gravity C) earth ii) iii) ir) (04 Marks) : In case ofcoplanar concurrent force the resultant force passes through A) point of concurrence B) away from point of concurrence C) different plane D) none of these If two concurrent forces each of 'P' act at right angles to each other, their resultant is A) 2P B)P JiP D 2JP : 0 and IU: 0 for a coplanar nonconcurrent force system, then it is in If IV A) equilibrium B) translation C) rotation D) none of these Conditions of equilibrium for a coplanar concurrent force system is A) one B) two C) three D) four Q
  • 9. 10crv13/23 b. Two forces acting on a body are 500 N and 1000 N as shown in Fig.Q3(b). Determine the third force "F" such that the resultant of all the three forces is 1000 N directed at 45o to 'x' (06 Marks) axls. c. Determine the resultant of the four forces acting on a body as shown in Fig.Q3(c) with (10 Marks) respect to point "O". 4 a. Choose the correct answers for the following i) ii) iiil iv) (04 Marks) : distance from its apex. triangle of height 'h' is located at a The centroid of a D)h c) h/3 B) 2W3 A) W2 number of symmetrical axes will give centroid of plane area. Intersection of _ D) none of these c)2 B)4 Moment of an area about a reference axis passing through its centroid is D) none of these C) zero B) minimum A) maximum Centroid of a semicircle from an axis passing through the diameter is A)3 A) JL '3n b. B) a 4n C)I 4r D)11 3r of a semi-circular lamina of radius "r" by the method of integration. Determine the centroid (06 Marks) c. Determine the centroid of the shaded area shown in the Fig.Qa(c) with respect to OX and (10 Marks) PART 5a. -q : ' (04 Marks) Choose the correct answers for the following i) If three forces are acting at'a point and are in equilibrium, out of which two are acting in the same line, then the third foree is C) zero D) none of these B) minimum A) maximum A rigid body is in equilibrium if the resultant force of concurrent tbrce system is C) zero D) none ofthese B) negative A) positive number o.f concurrent forces in equilibrium. iii) Lami's theorem is valid for C) four D) none of these B) three A) two iv) The force equal and opposite to resultant is called as C) opponent force D) none of these A) equilibriant B) similar force (06 Marks) State and prove Lami's theorem. The frictionlesS pulley 'A' shown in Fig.Q5(c) is supplied by two bars AB and AC which are hinged &t 'B' and 'C' to a vertical wall. The flexible cable DG hinged at 'D', goes over the pulley afid supports a load of 20 kN at 'G'. The angles between the various members are shown in the figure. Determine the forces in the bars AB and AC. Neglect the size and (10 Marks) weight of the pulley. ii) b. c. 6 a. Choose the correct answers for the following : reactions. A hinged support can have i) A)2 B)4 ii) A determinate beam can iii) A fixed support iv) b. c. A)2 A)1 have _ B)2 c)l D) none ofthese number of unknowns. B)3 can have (04 Marks) c)1 reactions. c) 3 D)4 D)4 udl stands for A) Uniformly distributed load B) Uniform dead load C) Uniform door load D) Uniform diameter load The cantilever beam shown in Fig.Q6(b) is fixed at 'A' and is free at 'B'. Determine the reaction when it is loaded as shown. (06 Marks) Find the forces in all the members of the truss loaded s shown in the Fig.6(c). Tabulate the results. (10 Marks)
  • 10. 10cIv13/23 a. b. c. 8 a. Choose the correct answers for the following i) Compared to static liiction, kinetic friction is A) greater B) smaller C) very large D) zero ii) Friction force is to the contact surface between bodies. A) parallel B) perpendicular C) tangential D) none of these iii) Friction force is a force. A) active B) passive D) none of these C) normal iv) The tangent of the angle of friction is A) angle of repose B) coefficient of friction C) cone of friction D) limiting friction (06Marks) Defite: i) Angle of friction; ii) Coefhcient of friction; iii) Cone of friction. What is the value of 'P' in the system shown in Fig.Q7(c), to cause the rnetion to impend to the right? Assume the pulley is smooth and coefhcient of friction between the other contact (10 Marks) surfaces is 0,20. Choose the corredt axswers for the following Unit of second moment of area is i) ii) iii) B) *' Unit of radius of gliration is _. D) m' mo A)m D) -o B)-' c) ,r,' Moment of inertia of a square of side 'b' about an axis through its centroid is c) 4 t4 B) 12 iv) (04 Marks) : c) A)m A)-bo b. c. (04 Marks) : !- D) 36 8 q 12 lrlolrent of inertia is A) Ir* + Iyl B) I,* + 1,, D) none of these C) I, + I,, Define: i) Moment of inertia; ii) Radius of gyration; iii) Polar moment of inertia. (06 Marks) Determine the moment of inertia of the symmetrical I-section shown in Fig.Q8(c) about its centroidal X-X and Y-Y axis. (10 Marks) P6ns Fie.Q2(b) Fig.Q2(c) lfio$l ElDd 5d,.J, Fie.Q3(b) Fig.Q3(c) 2 a€A
  • 11. 10crv13/23 Fig.Qa(c) .' .., .1 a: t: ,:: j gppl, l1r.ll lotsrt 16r*/ro I I .: ":' ;'' Fig.Q6(c) ':t' il_ {.1 CEB$f,P"F-L j-' LtEiit'&sv I * t elo-Fig.Q8(c) ! . lt'.. r , ...,. , i-' ' ***** 4of4 ' ':::' 'al "r:,, '"./,,:""g -./' ir
  • 12. r0ENIE14l24 USN First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Dec.2013 I Jan.20l4 Elements of Mechanical Engineering Time: 3 hrs. 6) o o Note: l. Answer any FIW full questions, choosing at least twofrom each part. 2. Answer all objective gtpe questions only in OMR sheet page 5 of the answer booklet. 3. Answer to objective gtpe questions on sheets other than OMR will not be valued. :() I a. ?a PART _ A Choose the.correct answers for the following i) ii) Gv =n -*l coo .= c'l iii) b?! otr -O (04 Marks) : energy sources. _ A) renewable B) non-renewable C) celestial energy D) bio-mass Photosynthesis process is also known as A) Helio therrnal process B) Helio chemical process C) Helio electrical process .D) Pizeo electric process Partially dry steam and:partially wet particles in steam called as Gf;S{liiX'tA) dry steam 'i ' B) super heated steam Li'#iili-i:i Coal is.an,example for u Babcock and Wilcox boiler is an example for _. A) fire tube boiler B) vertical boiler C) single tube boiler D) externally fired boiler a= o() b. d -! o c. b0c c6d -o: -s ss= d. E(6 -?o 'Ea or= ^X () '., 4. Use of steam table is permitted. L a (.) Max. Marks:lO0 --t o= ed 2 a. !o Name any four boiler mountings and state their-:functions. (02 Marks) With the help of neat sketch, explain the working of a Francis turbine. (08 Marks) Determine the total heat content per unit mass at the following state using the steam tables. Assume ambient pressure to be 100 kPa and Cp: 2.0934 kJ/kg. i) 10 bar absolute and 300"C ii) 100 kPa gauge and 100 kPa abs and 250oC iii) Dry steamat 1O0 kPa abs iv) Steam at.l2bar and95o/o dry. (06 Marks) , ,.1,1 Choose the correct answers for the following i) , ' ii) ^.= i,a b0e5Q 6= *o tr> :o o-i Lr< t,^ () o '7 o b. c. d. : converts in to mechanical energy. energy B) weight C) velocity ,. , ,,, (04 Marks) .,'Steam turbine A) kinetic D) pgtential nozzle and two or more set of moving blades Compounding consists of one set of called as A) velocity compounding B) pressure compounding C) pressure velocity compounding D) velocity pressure compounding iii) Pelton wheel is example for A) reaction water turbine B) low head water turbine C) impulse water turbine D) steam turbine iv) Combustioned gas is directly converted into the mechanical power called as A) reaction turbine B) impulse turbine C) open or closed gas turbine D) steam turbine Explain the principle and working of reaction turbine. (06 Marks) (06 Marks) With the help of a neat sketch, explain the working of a Francis turbine. (04 Marks) Explain the working principle of a gas turbine on closed cycle.
  • 13. rqEM.El4l24 ' choose the correct answers for the following example for i) Otto cycle engine is angl Ji;el engine A) petrol engine power stroke in ii) 4 stroke engine has 3 a. (04 Marks) engine D) all of these orrornorirre cv A)everycycleB)everyalternativecycleirevolution of the crank shaft' ' D) in ali the c) every third cycre - ratio.is approximately iiD rn t*o-Jt-t. p.trot engine compressive ^ o) 1:80 C) l:i A) r:22 e; c) dual : t'tt iv) piesel cycle engine is also called as D ^^-olonr pressure B) constant nraea.rc cycle a) corrsiarrt vohime ' D) all of ' C) dual ,,, E*piaiiJrJittr u,r.ut figure 4 stroke petrol ) stroke Differentiatl u.t*..;4 stroke and over four stroke engine' uoru*:ii;;';;,;";,-k. cYcle b. c. d. cir. cycle engine. engine. i) iD iii) ir) ": (08 Marks) (04 Marks) (04 Marks) :':: ' : (04 Marks) ,': B) flammable DJ non-toxic A) high boiling Point ci row thermai.;nAn ti'itv Unit of refrigeration ii'' C) Ampere of rJfrigeration' Ammonia refiigerant is used i' I , "ttgi". ---^ c^-+L^ 4.^ll^.r,ino Choose the corr€e1'answers for the following Good refrigerant should be a. these ' ' None of these '' '"1 D) in;,*,* ieti8elltol' . r D)airconditioner ^., , valvetn a refrigetator is to C) vapourcompression Function of theihrottle A) reduce the PressurQ' B) increase the Pressure i', C) converts vapgur'iefrigerant into D) liquid refrigerant into vapour converslon vapour.absorption'refrigerator' (08 Marks) Describe with a neal,Sketch, the working of exptain its worlringprinciple. (08 Marks) , liquid b. "ffih;;;k;ril;i;.""r" ;: 5 a. "ir_."ndit[ner, PART _ B Choqse the correct answers for the following Function of the lathe is i) "' , ii) ii, ," " :: : A) Produce cYlindrical Parts C) Produce slots SPeed lathe is examPle for A) geared head lathe B) simple lathe Reaming oPeration is B) produce keY holes D) all of these C) universal lathe a A) drill operation C) milling operation ,- B) (04 Marks) ""! D) caption lathe i ,l operatton lathe D) grinding operation Radial drilling machine is used for B) medium works A) small *ork, ) all of these i) medium and heavy works operation of radial drilling machine' With a neat sketch, L*pi"i"."nstruction and slide swiveling method' Explain with figure iai., trtttittg with compound iv) '/ b. c. 2 of3 (08 Marks) (08 Marks)
  • 14. t0EN,.Et4l24 6a. Choose the correct answers for the following : Milling machine removes the metal using (04 Marks) i) A) multi point cutting tool B) single point cutting tool C) abrasive wheel D) drill bit ii) Work piece and cutting tool moves in the same direction called as A) up milling B) down milling C) combination of up and down milling D) all of these iii) Emery is an example for _ abrasive. D) clay A) natural B) synthetic C) artificial iu) Center less grinding is used for A) long work piece B) short work piece C) both long and short work piece D) internalgrinding With the help of a neat sketch, explain the working of a universal milling machine.(08 Marks) (06 Marks) Explain with figure working principle of center less grinding machine. (02 Marks) Explain any': milling operation. ' b. c. d. 7a. .t,. Choose the correct answers for the following (04 Marks) : D Fusion welding is an example for A) resistance welding ,B) arc welding C) forge welding D) Thermit pressure welding ii) Copper base filler metal is used for A) soft soldering B) hard soldering C) brazing D) welding iii) Grease is an example lor _ lubrication. A) solid B) C) semi D) all of these iv) Collar bearing is also kno'ryn as A) journal bearing B) tlrust bearing C) foot step bearing D) radial bearing Explain the principle of arc welding with a figuie. (06 Marks) Name the three types of oxy-aCetylene flame. Expiain the application of each of them. (06 Marks) Describe the drop feed oil lubrication with neat sketches. (04 Marks) liquid:,, b. c. d. 8a. liquid ,,, Choose the correct answers for the following Jockey pulley is used for A) inorease arc of contact C)'deCrease arc of contact (04 Marks) : D B) increase spee4,, D) decrease in speod,,.: ii).-V/henabe1tmoVeSforwardwithoutcarryingpul1eyscalled B) creep ,.. A) slip C) both slip and creep D) all of these iii) Chain drive is used in A) center distance less than 8m B) high power rrunr-irrioNfug C) positive power transmission D) all ofthese ----iv) Spur gear is example for A) parallel axis B) non-parallel axis C) co-axial D) non-intersecting With a neat sketch, explain past and loose pulley. (06 Marks) Explain following gears: i) Spur gear ii) Helical gear iii) Bevel gear iv) Rack and pinion (06 Marks) In a compound train of wheels, the wheels A, B, C and D have 15, 30, 20 and 40 teeth respectively. The wheels B and C are keyed to the same spindle. If the wheel A runs at 400 rpm, find the speed of the wheel D. Sketch the arrangements. (04 Marks) ,,, 67' b. c. d. *{<*{<{< 3 of3
  • 15. l0ELE15i25 USN First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Dec.2013 lJan.2014 Basic Electrical Engineering Time: 3 hrs. (J (f cg o. C) Note: l. Answer uny FIW full questions, choosing at least twofrom euch purt. 2. Answer ali objectiie typi questions only ti Omn sheet page 5 of tie ilnswer booklet. 3. Answer to objective Stpe questions on sheets other than OMR will not be valuecl. I a. PART _ A Choose the correct answers for the following : The polarity of voltage drop across a resistor is determined by oX de 50 =€ gil -O 3z o: b. c. A) the value of resistor B) the value of current C) direction of current in resistor D) the polarity of source ii) Three resistors of 4 f), 6 f) and 9 Q are connected in parallel in a network. Maximum power will be consumed by_. A) 4 f, resistor B) 6 O resistor C) 9 O resistor D) all resistors iii) The magnitude of statically induced e.m.f, depends on A) the coil resistance B) the flux magnitude C) the rate of change of flux D) all of these iv) The direction of induced e.m.f,in a conductor (or coil) can be determined by _. A) Work law B) Ampere's law C) Fleming's right hand rule D) Fleming's left hand rule Derive equation for energy stored in magnetic field. (04 Marks) Find the value of resistance 'R' as shown in Fig.Ql(c), so that current drawn from the source is 250 mA. All the resistor values are in ohm. (06 Marks) -f -ao 6 .!r sv_ t ,, e$?€'fl$t*Lt* ^X oE: o: ho Fig.Qi(c) o= AE, d. LO 5.v >.: bo- i .-c olJ 6= o[i => :o VL o- (r< :a.) o '7 (04 Marks) D = C) oc) Max. Marks:100 2 a. t t;}n&{ilv G)l .<l Coils A and B in a magnetic circuit have 600 and 500 turns respectively. A coil A produces a flux of 0.04 Wb. If coeflicient of coupling is 0.2, calculate: i) Self inductance of coil A, with B open circuited. ii) Flux linkage with coil B. iii) The average emf induced in coil B when the flux with it changes from zero to full value in 0.02 second. iv) Mutual inductance. (06 Marks) Choose the correct answers for the following : (04 Marks) D A coil is rotating in the uniform magnetic field of an 8 pole generator. In one o ii) revolution of the coil, the number of cycles generated by the voltage is A) one B) two C) four D) eight The average value of sin 0 over complete cycle is D)% A) +l C) zero B) -1 1^QA
  • 16. 10ELE15/25 2 a. iii) In the circuit shown in Fig.Q2(a)(iii), the potential difference across the various elements are shown. What is the source voltage, V? t-;:ff;";"";il Fig.Q2(aXiii) A) sOv B) 100 v iv) If two phasors A: 60FU, B : A) 360EE b. c. d. C) zero (6 + j0), then D) 150 V A/B c) B) 6080" 10E0" D) 10[ -40" Derive r.m.s. value of sinusoidal voltage in terms its maximum value. (04 Marks) An inductor coil is connected to supply of 250 V at 50 Hz and takes a eurrent of 5.{. The coil dissipates 750 W. Calculate power factor, resistance and inductance of the coil. (06 Marks) A capacitor of 50 ;-rF shunted across a non inductive resistance of 100 f) is connected in series with a resislor of 50 f) to a 200 V, 50 Hz supply. Find circuit current and power (06 Marks) 3 a. b. c. d. 4 a. Choose the correct answers fbr the following : The advantage of star-connected supply system is that A) line-current is equal to phase current i) (04 Marks) B) line voltage is equal to "6 phase voltage C) two voltage can be used D) it is simple arrangement ii) The phase sequence R Y B denotes that A) the e.m.f of R leads Y by 120" B) the e.m.f of Y lags R by 120" C) the e.m.f of Y leads B by 120" D) all of these iii) In a three-phase power measurement by two Wattmeter method, both Wattmeters reads the same value. The power flactor of the load must be A) unity B) 0.707lag C) 0.707lead D) zero iv) Three phase apparent power is equal to A) .Ev.tr B) ..EVr-Ir cos O C) ..6v.t. rio6 D) VLIL With the aid of a phasor diagram obtain the relationship between the line and phase values of voltages in a three phase star connected system. (06 Marks) State advantages of three-phase system over a single-phase system. (04 Marks) Three identical coils, each having a resistance of 10 f) and a reactance of 10 f) are oonnected in delta, across 400 V, 3-phase supply. Find the line current and the readings on the two Wattmeters connected to measure the power. (06 Marks) Choose the correct answers for the following : Dynamometer type instrument-s can be used for i) A) ii) iii) iv) (04 Marks) A.C. only B) D.C. only C) both A.C and D.C D) none of these The most commonly used induction type instrument is A) Voltmeter B) Ammeter C) Watt-hour meter D) Wattmeter Most modern wiring system for domestic and commercial installation is A) Cleat wiring B) Wooden-Batten wiring C) Wooden-casing wiring D) Conduit wiring The fuse wire for smaller current rating (up to 10 A) are made of A) Lead-tin alloy B) Copper C) Lead D) Aluminium 2of4
  • 17. 1OELE15/25 4 b. c. d. 5 a. Explain with a neat sketch, single phase induction type energy meter. Explain staircase wiring. With a neat sketch, explain plate earthing. (06 Marks) (04 Marks) (06 Marks) PART _ B Choose the correct answers for the following i) ii) : (04 Marks) The number of parallel paths in the armature winding of a four pole, wave connected dc machine having 28 coil-sides is B) A) 28 c)4 14 D)2 The e.m.f generated by a given dc generator depends upon A) the flux only B) the speed only C) bothflux and speed D) the terminal voltage iii) The back e.m.f in a dc motor is given as A) V+IaRa D) I^R" B) C) V iv) The speed of the d.c. motor is A) directly proportional to both its back emf and flux B) inversely proporlionalto both its back emf and flux C) directly proportional to flux but inversely proportional to its back emf D) directly proportional to its back emf but inversely proportional to flux Explain working of d.c. motor and hence derive an equation lor torque. (08 Marks) An 8-pole generator has 500 armature conductors and has a useful flux per pole of 0.065 Wb. What will be the e.m.f. generated if it is lap connected and runs at 1000 rpm? What must be the speed at which it is to be driven to produce the same emf if it is wave (08 Marks) wound? V-r"& b. c. 6 a. : Choose the correct answers for the following The core of a transformer is assembled with laminated sheets so as to A) reduce hysteresis loss i) ii) B) reduce Eddy current loss C) both hysterisis and Eddy current loss D) copper loss A single phase, 5 kVA, 200 Vi100 V, transformer has rated primary and secondary currents at rated voltage A)25Aand50A iii) iu) b. c. d. (04 Marks) B)50Aand25A C) 12.5 A and 62.5 A D) 62.5 A and 12.5 A If the fuel load core loss of a transformer is 100 W. its core loss at half load wj{ffi}o A) 200 B) 1oo D)Zs c) 50 q A transformer operates at maximum efficiency, when ,t - ? CEt,EYgT&L A) core losses minimum g'ffi{{,ilt},Y r" B) copper loss minimum w w w yr6ffio.) C) core loss : copper loss D) none of these Derive expressions for the r.m.s values of induced voltages in the (05 Marks) phase transformer connected to a sinusoidal supply. Deduce the condition tbr maximum efficiency in a single-phase transformer. (05 Marks) A transformer is rated at 100 kVA. At full load its copper loss is i200 W and its iron loss is 960 W. Calculate: i) The efficiency at full load, OPF. ii) The efficiency at half load, 0.8 pf. (06 Marks) iii) The load kVA at which maximum efficiency will occur.
  • 18. 10ELE1s/25 7 a. : Choose the correct answers for the following (04 Marks) In synchronous generators A) the field poles are stationary and the armature conductors rotate B) the armature conductors are stationary and the field poles rotate C) field and armature both are stationary D) none of these A 4-pole, 1200 rpm alternater will generate an emf at a frequency of B) 50 Hz C) 40Hz D) 25 Hz A) 60 Hz Full pitch windings have coil span of B) goo 270' D) 360" A) 180" The current from an alternator is taken out to external load circuit through B) slip-rings A) commutator segments D) solid connectiofl C) carbon brushes By means of a neat diagram, describe the main parts of an alternator with their functions. i) ii) iii) c) iv) b. A 3-phase, 6-pole, star-connected alternator revolves at 1000 rp*. rn. stator nu. ,[o3r]rl'ut) and 8 conductors per slot. The flux per pole is 0.05 Wb (sinusoidally distributed). Calculate the voltage generated by the machine if the winding factor is 0.96 line and phase value. (08 Marks) 8 a. Choose the correct answers for the following : ln a three phase induction motor A) rotor conductors are open circuited B) rotor conductor are short circuited C) stator winding is open D) none of these The relation between N,. Fand P of three-phase inductor is il ii) A) N.= iii) iv) b. c. d. (04 Marks) r20 f B)N,=ry c) r=# D)f=+ When speed ofthe induction motor is zero, its slip is A) zero B) 0.s C) one D) infinity The number of slip rings in a three phase wound rotor induction motor is A)3 c)e B)4 D)2 Explain the, principle of operation of a three phase induction motor. (05 Marks) With the help of neat circuit diagram, explain star-delta stafter. (06 Marks) A 3-phase, 6-pole, 50 Hz induction motor has a slip of lo/o at no load. and 3Yo at fuIl load. Determine: i)synchronous speed ; ii) no-load speed ; iii) full-load speed : iv) frequency of rotor current at stand still ; v) fiequency of rotor current at full load. (05 Marks) **{<{<* 4of4
  • 19. 06crv18/28 Question Paper Version USN : D I I ll Semester B.E Degree Examination, Dec.2013 I Jan.20l4 ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (coMMoN TO ALL BRANCHES) Time: 2 hrs.l [Max. Marks: 50 INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES 1. , 3. "..............". Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark. Use only:Btack ball point pen for writing / darkening the circleS: For each qrrestion, after selecting your answer, darkcu the appropriate circle corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet. 4. Darkening two circles lor the same question malg1the answer invalid. 5. Damaging/overwriting, ,trsing whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly prohibited. 1. ,:::,,:::' Population growth in developing countries creates environmental and socio problems such as a) Poverty b) Natural resource depletion c) Food problems d) All of these - economic Climate and Global air c'irculations are mainly affected by the properties of a) Water and Air , -.'" b) Temperature c) Precipitation d) None of these 3. 40, C#F.{Tf;':r,!.. Reduction of'green house gases can be achieved by a) Improving the efficiency of electricity generation b) Switching to less polluting fossil fuels c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these Ozone layer present in . a) Troposphere b) Mesosphere c) Stratosphere t$li3ftdr'it,f . d) ...: Thermosphofe 5. To achieve the goal of clean environment, important strategies required are a) Effective laws b) Active participation of the publics c) Active participation of NGO's d) Both (a) & (b) 6. Least controllable man made source of pollution a) Thermal power plants b) Exhausts of automobiles c) Chemical and industrial effluents d) Domestic cooking -D1 -
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  • 21. 06cIV18/28 21. Which of the conceptual sphere of the environment is having the less storage capacity for matter a) Bio sphere b) Hydrosphere c) Lithosphere d) Atmosphere 22. Ecology is defined as the study of a) relation between organisms to their environment. b) relation between groups of organisms to their environment c) both (a) and (b) d) None of these : ::" 23. Which of the following is the terrestrial system? a) Forest b) Grassland c) Desert d) of the United Food and Agricultural organizatron (FAO) All of these Nations providing the informatisn on a) c) ,( Each cou,rrtries total food supplies Quality of food produced b) Dietary differenoeB.of the countries d) None ofthese-,, ,, Social security is one of the most impofiant programmes providing benefits to Families of deceased d) All of these a) Worker / Employee b) Un - employee c) 26. The first United Nationaicooference on Human environment was held at a) New York b) Stockholm c) Montreal d) Basal 27. 28. World Environmental day is celebrated on a) June 5 b) August tr5' I ,' . l:,. c) December d) 5 September 5 d) 1974 i The Environmental (protection) Act oflrrdia was enacted in the year a) 1986 b) l99Z'',,,,,,," 1984 c) 29. The objectives of wild Ufe 6roiection) Act lg72i; a) To preserve the bio - diversity b) To maintain essenlial ecologicaland life supporting system c) Protection and conservation of wild Iife d) All of these 30. The study of,environmental system and their interaction is fall under a) Environhental Science b) Environmental Engineering c) Eqlironmental Management d) Both (a) & (c) 31. Norrnal sound level of a quiet speech is a) 120dB b) 90dB ?, J]'. 34. Disposal of bio - medical waste is by a) Autoclaving and landfilling c) Both (a) & (b) Activated sludge process is a) Anaerobic method b) Aerobic c) d) 140dB s0dB b) Incineration d) Land filling method c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these The major cause for the global population increase in the 19th century was due to a) Decrease in birth rate b) Industrial revolution c) Decrease in death rate d) Green revolution -D3-
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  • 23. 10crP18/28 Question Paper Version USN : A I I ll Semester B.E Degree Examination, Dec.2013/Jan.20l4 CONSTITUTION OF INDIA AND PROFESSIONAL ETHICS (coMMoN TO ALL BRANCHES) Time: 2 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50 TNSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES 1. 2. 3. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet. 4. 5. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly prohibited. 1. The basic feature of the Indian constitution is found in : a) Fundamental duties b) Fundamental rights c) Preamble d) Directive principles of state policy Original constitution classified fundamental rights, into seven categories but now there are, Eight a) c) Regrouped into social, economic and a) Polling c) Announcement of results 4. b) Six political d) Five b) Counting of votes d) None of these The Indian Federal system is based on the Federal system of, b) usA c) France d) Newzealand a) Canada Engineers must: a) Recognize the value of a code of Ethics b) Support a code of ethics c) Look upon a code of ethics as a sabred writ d) Both (a) and (b). The President of India takes the Oath of office before the: a) Vice President b) Prime minister c) Chiefjustice of supreme court d) Speaker oflok sabha 7. 'Judicial Review' means: a) Reviewing the lower court judgement b) Revieving the laws passed by the legislature c) Examining the actions of executives d) Advising the president of India. -A1-
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  • 25. 10cIP18/28 The other names for Rajya Sabha are: a) Upper house c) A Federal house b) Council of states d) All the above The term'Ethics' is derived from: a) Ethical in English c) Custom b) 'Ethic' in Latin d) Ethics in Greek. The Governor of a state acts as: a) Real executive of a state c) Secretary of president b) Agent of President d) Advisor to central government Jobs are reserved for SCs and STs, a) For promotions c) For appointments and promotions b) For appointments d) On the basis of their annual income 26. How many subjects are there in the central, state and concurrent list: a) 97, 66 and 41 b;) 47,66 and 98 cl 97.47 and 65 d) 47.96 and 55 27. Village Panchayats (Article government. a) Republican 28. The fundamental a) 1952 - form of 40) are the best examples for India's c) b) Secular d) Democratic Sovereign duties of Indian citizens were incorporated in the constitution in: b) 1976 c) 1980 d) 198s ; 29, The aim of the Directive principles of state policy is to establish: a) Capitalist state in our country:,, b) Communist state in our country c) Wellare state in the country d) Atlofthese 30. Sexual harassment of working women in working places is violation of, a) Right to profession b) Right to reputation c) Right to personal liberty dt Right to life 31. ' ..'t,, The chief minister of a state is appointed by the: a) Speaker b) Chiefjustice of high court c) Prime minister d; Governor 32, Exclusion of Creamy layer makes a backward class: a) Socially backward b) Truly backward c) More backward d) Economically backward 33. Special majority means more than, a) 50% majority c) 75% majority , "", b) Two-third majority d) 60oh majority 34. One of the ways of misusing the truth is: a) Exaggerating the truth c) Making confused statement 35. b) Making wrong statement d) Failure to seekout the truth The constitution empowers state government to make special law for: a) Workers b) Teachers c) Women and Children -A3- d) Farmers