Test bank essentials of anatomy physiology 6th edition by scanlon sanders

Test Bank Essentials of Anatomy & Physiology
6th Edition by Scanlon Sanders
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Chapter 2 (MC): Some Basic Chemistry
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which element is NOT paired with its correct symbol?
a. carbon – C c. nitrogen – N
b. potassium – P d. cobalt – Co
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1
a. sodium – S c. magnesium – Mg
b. oxygen – O d. chlorine – Cl

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1
a. hydrogen – H c. calcium – Ca
b. sulfur – S d. iron – I
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 1
4. For sodium, sulfur, zinc, and chlorine, the correct chemical symbols, in order,
are:
a. S, Su, Z, Cl c. No, Su, Z, C
b. Na, S, Zn, Cl d. Na, S, Z, Cl
5. For iron, iodine, potassium, and phosphorus, the correct chemical symbols, in
order, are:
a. I, Io, P, Ph c. I, Io, K, P
b. Fe, I, P, Ph d. Fe, I, K, P

6. For cobalt, copper, calcium, and carbon, the correct chemical symbols, in order,
are:
a. Cb, Co, Ca, C c. Cb, Cu, Cm, C
b. Co, Cp, Ca, Cr d. Co, Cu, Ca, C
7. An ionic bond is formed when:
a. an atom of sodium loses an electron to another atom of sodium
b. an atom of sodium shares two electrons with two atoms of chlorine
c. an atom of sodium gains an electron from an atom of chlorine
d. an atom of sodium loses an electron to an atom of chlorine
8. Which statement is NOT true of ions?
a. An ion has either a positive or negative charge.
b. Atoms become ions by gaining or losing protons.
c. Ions with unlike charges are attracted to one another and form ionic bonds.
d. An atom that loses an electron will have a charge of +1.
9. An atom that has gained an electron is now called:
a. an ion that is neutral c. an ion with a charge of –1
b. an ion with a charge of +1 d. an atom with a charge of +1

ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Rev Ques 2
10. A cation has a:
a. positive charge
b. negative charge
c. neutral charge
d. none of these, because the charge may vary
11. An anion has a:
a. positive charge
b. negative charge
c. neutral charge
d. none of these, because the charge may vary
12. A cation has a:
a. positive charge, and an example is a chloride ion
b. negative charge, and an example is a potassium ion
c. positive charge, and an example is a calcium ion
d. negative charge, and an example is an iron ion

13. An anion has a:
a. positive charge, and an example is a hydrogen ion
b. negative charge, and an example is a bicarbonate ion
c. positive charge, and an example is a chloride ion
d. negative charge, and an example is a sodium ion
14. Which statement is NOT true of ionic bonds?
a. They form salts. c. In water, many ionic bonds weaken.
b.
In the solid state they are very
strong.
d.
They involve the sharing of
electrons.
15. The term dissociation refers to:
a. ionic bonds
b. the breaking of bonds in a water solution
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and covalent bonds
16. A synonym for dissociation is:
a. decomposition c. synthesis
b. ionization d. reformulation

17. Dissociation of salts is important to:
a. free ions to take part in other reactions
b. produce energy
c. keep salt molecules stable in water
d. keep salt molecules stable as solids
18. Ionization of salts such as sodium chloride takes place:
a. when the temperature rises c. in the solid state
b. when the temperature falls d. in water
19. A covalent bond is formed when:
a. two or more atoms share electrons
b. two atoms form ions and are attracted to each other
c. one atom loses two electrons that are gained by another atom
d. a carbon atom loses all of its electrons to other atoms

20. A bond in which electrons are shared between atoms is:
a. ionic c. covalent
b. reciprocal d. di-electron
21. An atom of carbon has ___ electrons to share to form ___ bonds.
a. 2/ionic c. 2/covalent
b. 4/covalent d. 4/ionic
22. Which statement is NOT true of covalent bonds?
a. These bonds are not weakened when in water.
b. A molecule of water is formed by covalent bonds.
c. These bonds involve the sharing of electrons.
d. The atoms of most inorganic molecules are bonded by covalent bonds.
23. The bonds that help maintain the three-dimensional shape of proteins and
nucleic acids are:
a. covalent bonds c. ionic bonds
b. hydrogen bonds d. water bonds

24. The bonds that make water cohesive are:
a. disulfide bonds c. ionic bonds
b. hydrogen bonds d. water bonds
25. The bonds that hold the two chains of an insulin molecule together are:
a. disulfide bonds c. ionic bonds
b. peptide bonds d. protein bonds
26. Disulfide bonds may be part of:
a. some starches c. DNA and RNA
b. some proteins d. true fats
27. Large molecules of glycogen are made of the smaller subunits called:
a. glucose c. amino acids
b. fatty acids and glycerol d. nucleotides

28. Glucose molecules are the subunits of:
a. starch c. both A and B
b. glycogen d. both A and B, and cellulose
29. Glycogen and starch are ___ that are made of ___.
a. disaccharides/sucrose c. disaccharides/glucose
b. polysaccharides/glucose d. polysaccharides/sucrose
30. Glucose is a molecule that is a:
a. hexose sugar c. both A and B
b. monosaccharide d. both A and B, and inorganic
31. Glucose is a molecule that is a:
a. double sugar c. pentose sugar

b. hexose sugar d. triple sugar
32. The chemical formula for glucose is:
a. C12H6O12 c. C6H6O6
b. C12H6O6 d. C6H12O6
33. Glucose, fructose, and galactose are:
a. hexose sugars
b. monosaccharides
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and all have the same chemical formula
34. Large molecules of true fats are made of the smaller subunits called:
a. fatty acids and glucose c. amino acids

35. Fatty acids and glycerol are the subunits of:
a. phospholipids c. both A and B
b. true fats d. both A and B, and cholesterol
36. Large molecules of protein are made of the smaller subunits called:
37. Which statement is NOT true of amino acids?
a. They all contain the elements C, H, O, and N.
b. They are the subunits of proteins.
c. A chain of amino acids is linked by ionic bonds.
d. There are about 20 different amino acids in human proteins.
38. Large molecules of DNA and RNA are made of the smaller subunits called:

39. Which statement is NOT true of the subunits of organic molecules?
a. Glycogen is made of glucose.
b. Glycerol is found in true fats and in diglycerides.
c. DNA subunits are called deoxyprecursors.
d. The subunits of enzymes are amino acids.
40. Which statement is NOT true of saturated fats?
a. Most are plant oils.
b. They have the maximum number of hydrogens.
c. They have single bonds between carbons.
d. They have been implicated in heart disease.
41. Which statement is NOT true of unsaturated fats?
a. They have one or more double bonds between carbons.
b. They have the maximum number of hydrogens.
c. Most are plant oils.
d. They are made of fatty acids and glycerol.

42. The fluid found within lymph vessels is called:
a. lymph c. intracellular fluid
b. plasma d. tissue fluid
43. Lymph is a fluid that is found:
a. in lymph vessels c. both A and B
b. in tissue spaces d. both A and B, and between cells
44. The fluid found within veins is called:
45. Plasma is a fluid that is found:
a. in veins c. both A and B
b. in arteries d. both A and B, and in capillaries

46. The fluid found within cells is called:
a. intercellular fluid c. intracellular fluid
b. plasma d. extracellular fluid
47. Intracellular fluid is found:
a. within cells c. both A and B
b. between cells d. both A and B, and in tissue spaces
48. The fluid found in spaces between cells is called:
49. The fluid found in spaces between cells is called:
a. tissue fluid c. both A and B
b. intercellular fluid d. both A and B, and lymph

50. Intercellular fluid is found:
a. within cells c. both A and B
b. between cells d. both A and B, and around cells
51. The fact that water changes temperature slowly is important for:
a. digestion of food
b. pumping of the heart
c. keeping a fairly constant body temperature
d. nerve impulse transmission
52. Water can absorb a great deal of heat, and this is important for:
a. sweating to lose excess body heat c. nerve impulse transmission
b. digestion of very large meals d. production of RBCs
53. The process of sweating depends upon water as a:
a. solvent c. transporter

b. lubricant d. heat absorber
54. The sense of taste depends upon water as a:
a. solvent c. transporter
55. The excretion of waste products in urine depends upon water as a:
a. solvent c. cushion
56. Which of these is NOT an example of the importance of water as a solvent?
a. the senses of smell and taste c. transport of nutrients in the blood
b. synovial fluid in joints d. excretion of waste products in urine

57. Swallowing depends upon water as a:
a. solvent c. cushion
58. Which of these is an example of the lubricant function of water?
a. the senses of smell and taste c. transport of nutrients in the blood
b. synovial fluid in joints d. excretion of waste products in urine
59. The storage form for glucose in the liver is:
a. glycogen c. pentose sugars
b. true fats d. oligosaccharides
60. The storage form for energy in adipose tissue is:
a. glycogen c. pentose sugars
b. true fats d. oligosaccharides

61. The carbohydrates that are part of DNA and RNA are:
a. glucose c. pentose sugars
b. starch d. oligosaccharides
62. The pentose sugars are part of:
a. starches c. specialized enzymes
b. DNA and RNA d. cell membranes
63. The self antigens on cell membranes are:
a. starch c. glucose
b. pentose sugars d. oligosaccharides
64. The oligosaccharides are attached to:
a. DNA and RNA as part of the genetic code
b. certain enzymes as part of the active site
c. structural proteins to provide stability
d. cell membranes as self antigens

65. The disaccharides are sugars that:
a. will be digested and used for energy, such as sucrose
b. will become part of DNA and RNA
c. will be digested for energy, such as fructose
d. are part of specialized enzymes
66. Which of these is NOT a disaccharide?
a. sucrose c. maltose
b. galactose d. lactose
67. Disaccharides in the diet are digested and used for:
a. energy c. proteins
b. amino acids d. cell membranes
68. Sucrose and lactose are:
a. monosaccharides c. oligosaccharides

b. disaccharides d. polysaccharides
69. The precursor molecule for steroid hormones is:
a. cholesterol c. phospholipids
b. cellulose d. enzymes
70. Cholesterol is important for the:
a. synthesis of steroid hormones
b. production of vitamin D
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and as part of cell membranes
71. Vitamin D may be synthesized in the body from:
a. amino acids c. cholesterol
b. phospholipids d. disaccharides

72. The undigested part of food that promotes peristalsis is:
a. cholesterol c. true fats
b. cellulose d. proteins
73. For people, the function of cellulose is to promote:
a. energy production between meals c. loss of heat in hot weather
b. peristalsis d. retention of heat in cold weather
74. The genetic material (genetic code) within cells is:
a. enzymes c. DNA
b. RNA d. phospholipids
75. The function of DNA is to:
a. be the genetic code within cells
b. serve as the site of protein synthesis
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and form chromosomes

76. The function of RNA is:
a. protein synthesis c. to help synthesize DNA
b. cell respiration d. to help synthesize ATP
77. RNA is different from DNA in that:
a. RNA is a single strand of amino acids
b. RNA has the base uracil where DNA has thymine
c. both A and B
d. neither A nor B
78. The catalysts of cellular reactions are:
a. phospholipids c. hexose sugars
b. nucleic acids d. enzymes
79. Within the body, proteins may be:
a. enzymes c. structural components of tissues

b. hormones d. all of these
80. Which organic molecule is NOT part of cell membranes?
a. glucose c. phospholipid
b. protein d. cholesterol
81. Which of the following are energy-storage molecules?
a. glucose and proteins c. proteins and glycogen
b. glycogen and true fats d. true fats and amino acids
82. Which statement is NOT true of organic molecules?
a. DNA is the genetic code in chromosomes.
b. Hormones may be steroids or proteins.
c. Phospholipids are part of cell membranes.
d. Oligosaccharides are energy-storage molecules.

83. Which statement is NOT true of organic molecules?
a. RNA is important for protein synthesis.
b. Cholesterol is part of cell membranes.
c. Glucose is the most important pentose sugar.
d. All enzymes are proteins.
84. The raw materials, or reactants, of cell respiration are:
a. glucose and oxygen c. oxygen and carbon dioxide
b. water and glucose d. carbon dioxide and glucose
85. Which of these is NOT a product of cell respiration?
a. water c. ATP
b. carbon dioxide d. oxygen
86. The purpose of cell respiration is to produce:
a. ATP from water c. carbon dioxide from ATP
b. ATP from glucose d. water from ATP

87. The waste product of cell respiration is:
a. carbon dioxide c. ATP
b. water d. heat
88. Biologically useful energy is released in cell respiration in the form of:
a. light c. ATP
b. heat d. movement
89. Cell respiration enables our cells to release the potential energy found in
molecules of:
a. water c. oxygen
b. glucose d. minerals
90. In cell respiration, the breakdown of glucose to form ATP must take place in the
presence of:
a. carbon dioxide c. hydrogen

b. water d. oxygen
91. If too much carbon dioxide accumulates in cells and tissues:
a. the pH will decrease c. the pH will increase
b. cell membranes will rupture d. cell membranes will shrivel
92. Which statement is NOT true of cell respiration?
a. It is the link between eating and breathing.
b. The water produced must be excreted or the cell will burst.
c. One of the energy products is heat.
d. ATP is biologically useful energy.
93. The element that carries oxygen in red blood cells is:
a. iron c. iodine
b. calcium d. cobalt

94. The element that provides strength in bones and teeth is:
a. iron c. zinc
b. calcium d. iodine
95. Two elements that provide strength in bones and teeth are:
a. iron and calcium c. sodium and phosphorus
b. calcium and potassium d. calcium and phosphorus
96. The element that is part of the hormone thyroxine is:
a. calcium c. iodine
b. cobalt d. sodium
97. The element iodine is an essential part of the hormone:
a. insulin c. estrogen
b. thyroxine d. growth hormone

98. The element that is part of vitamin B12 is:
a. sodium c. calcium
b. copper d. cobalt
99. The element cobalt is an essential part of vitamin:
a. C c. B6
b. D d. B12
100. Two elements that are necessary for nerve impulse transmission are:
a. sodium and potassium c. calcium and phosphorus
b. iron and copper d. sulfur and cobalt
101. The element that is necessary for blood clotting is:
a. sulfur c. copper
b. calcium d. potassium

102. The element that is part of some amino acids and forms bonds in proteins
is:
a. sulfur c. copper
b. calcium d. potassium
103. Two elements that are necessary for cell respiration are:
a. sodium and potassium c. iodine and sulfur
b. calcium and phosphorus d. iron and copper
104. All organic molecules contain the elements:
a. C, H, and N c. C, O, and N
b. C, H, and O d. H, O, and N
105. A large organic molecule made of the elements C, H, O, N, and P would
most likely be a:
a. nucleic acid c. protein

b. polysaccharide d. true fat
106. A large organic molecule made of the elements C, H, O, N, and S would
most likely be a:
a. nucleic acid c. protein
b. polysaccharide d. true fat
107. Which statement is NOT true of the elements in the human body?
a. Iron is part of hemoglobin.
b. The hormone thyroxine contains copper.
c. Sodium is needed for nerve-impulse transmission.
d. Phosphorus is part of bones and teeth.
108. Which statement is NOT true of the elements in the human body?
a. Calcium is necessary for blood clotting.
b. Potassium is needed for nerve-impulse transmission.
c. Sulfur is part of some carbohydrates.
d. Vitamin B12 contains cobalt.

109. A solution that has more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions is:
a. a base c. neutral
b. an acid d. none of these
110. An acid solution has:
a. more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions
b. more hydroxyl ions than water ions
c. more hydrogen ions than water ions
d. more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions
111. A solution that has more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions is:
a. neutral c. an acid
b. a base d. none of these
112. An alkaline (basic) solution has:
a. more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions
b. more hydroxyl ions than water ions
c. more hydrogen ions than water ions

d. more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions
113. A solution that has equal numbers of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions is:
a. neutral c. an acid
b. a base d. none of these
114. On the pH scale, acids are indicated by numbers:
a. above 10 c. above 7
b. below 10 d. below 7
115. On the pH scale, bases are indicated by numbers:
a. below 4 c. above 4
b. below 7 d. above 7

116. A solution with a pH of 7.5 would be:
a. slightly acidic c. slightly alkaline
b. strongly acidic d. strongly alkaline
117. A solution with a pH of 2.5 would be:
a. slightly acidic c. slightly alkaline
b. strongly acidic d. strongly alkaline
118. Which statement is NOT true of the pH scale?
a. It ranges from 0 through 14.
b. It is a measure of the hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in a solution.
c. The more hydrogen ions present, the higher the pH.
d. A pH of 7 is considered neutral.
119. Which statement is NOT true of pH and human body fluids?
a. Blood has a very narrow normal pH range.
b. Gastric juice may have a pH of 2.
c. The pH of urine may be acidic or alkaline and still be in the normal range.
d. The normal pH range of intestinal secretions is acidic.

120. The normal pH range of blood is ________, which is __________.
a. 6.75–6.95/slightly acidic c. 7.10–7.20/slightly alkaline
b. 7.35–7.45/slightly alkaline d. 6.90–7.15/neutral
121. Which pH would NOT be in the normal range for human blood?
a. 7.30
b. 7.39
c. 7.40
d. All of these are within the normal range.
122. A blood pH of 7.36 is:
a. slightly alkaline and in the normal range
b. slightly acidic and in the normal range
c. slightly alkaline and too high for the normal range
d. slightly acidic and too low for the normal range

123. A blood pH of 7.44 is:
a. slightly alkaline and in the normal range
b. slightly acidic and in the normal range
c. slightly alkaline and too high for the normal range
d. slightly acidic and too low for the normal range
124. The purpose of a buffer system is to:
a. maintain a normal growth rate c. prevent drastic changes in pH
b. ensure proper digestion d. speed up nerve impulses
125. When the bicarbonate buffer system buffers the strong acid HCl:
a. carbonic acid is formed, which only slightly lowers pH
b. sodium chloride is formed, which raises pH
c. water is formed, which lowers pH
d. sodium chloride is formed, which lowers pH
126. Salts are molecules that when in solution will:
a. have no effect on pH
b. only slightly lower pH
c. only slightly raise pH
d. all of these, depending on the particular salt

127. When a buffer system forms a weak acid from a strong acid:
a. the pH is lowered only slightly, instead of greatly
b. the pH is raised only slightly, instead of greatly
c. the pH is raised only slightly, because more hydrogen ions are produced
d. all of these are possible, depending on the particular reaction
128. If body fluids are becoming too acidic, this means that there are excess
___ ions in the fluid.
a. sodium c. hydroxyl
b. potassium d. hydrogen
129. If the body fluids are becoming too alkaline, this means that there are not
enough _________ ions in the fluid.
a. sodium c. hydroxyl
b. potassium d. hydrogen

130. The product of cell respiration that will cause acidosis if present in excess
is:
a. water c. oxygen
b. carbon dioxide d. ATP
131. All enzymes are:
a. carbohydrates c. proteins
b. lipids d. steroids
132. The active site of an enzyme:
a. is the part where the substrate molecules fit
b. has a particular and specific shape
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and it changes when other reactions are needed
133. Which statement is NOT true of the active site theory of enzyme
functioning?
a. An enzyme may catalyze many different kinds of reactions.
b. It depends on the shapes of the enzyme and the substrate molecules.
c. An enzyme remains unchanged when the reaction is complete.

d. An enzyme catalyzes only one type of reaction.
134. The purpose of enzyme catalysts is to:
a. slow down reactions
b. transmit electrical nerve impulses
c. speed up reactions by adding heat
d. speed up reactions without the addition of heat
135. Heat may disrupt the functioning of an enzyme because:
a. human enzymes function only at 98.6°F
b. heat can break peptide bonds
c. water molecules are attracted to the enzyme, and denature it
d. heat can break hydrogen bonds and denature the enzyme
136. A heavy-metal ion may disrupt the functioning of an enzyme because:
a. substrates bond to the metal ion
b. a metal ion may change the shape of the active site
c. metal ions raise the pH of cellular fluid
d. metal ions displace enzymes in intracellular fluid

137. A decrease in pH may disrupt the functioning of an enzyme because:
a. the enzyme must help out the bicarbonate buffer system
b. the active site becomes clogged with excess water
c. the substrate fits into the active site but cannot get out
d. excess hydrogen ions may block the active site
138. A synthesis reaction involves:
a. the formation of bonds c. the release of energy
b. the breaking of bonds d. the creation of smaller molecules
139. A decomposition reaction involves:
a. the creation of large molecules c. the need for energy to create bonds
b. the formation of bonds d. the breaking of bonds
140. A reaction in which the bonds of a large molecule are broken is called a:
a. synthesis reaction c. decomposition reaction

b. catalytic reaction d. debonding reaction
141. A reaction in which smaller molecules are bonded to form larger ones is
called a:
a. composition reaction c. thesis reaction
b. synthesis reaction d. decomposition reaction
142. The type of reaction more likely to release energy is a:
a. decomposition reaction c. synthesis reaction
b. composition reaction d. thesis reaction
143. With respect to the glucose molecule involved, cell respiration is a(n):
a. synthesis reaction c. thesis reaction
b. decomposition reaction d. antithesis reaction

Chapter 22 (MC): An Introduction to Microbiology and Human Disease
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Our resident colon flora is important to us because it produces:
a. vitamins c. carbohydrates
b. minerals d. all of the above
2. The part of the small intestine with the largest resident flora is the:
a. duodenum c. ileum
b. jejunum d. cecum
3. The bacterial population of the urinary bladder is:
a. virtually nonexistent
b. medium sized
c. large
d. very large, but urination keeps removing the bacteria

4. In women, the vagina has:
a. a small bacterial flora
b. a medium-sized bacterial flora of no significance
c. a medium-sized bacterial flora that creates an alkaline pH
d. a large bacterial flora that creates an acidic pH
5. With respect to the skin, the largest resident flora would be found in the:
a. cervical area c. frontal area
b. axillary area d. deltoid area
6. With respect to the skin, the largest resident flora would be found in the:
a. femoral area c. iliac area
b. patellar area d. plantar area
7. The sweeping of ciliated epithelium normally prevents pathogens from reaching
the:
a. stomach c. skin
b. liver d. lungs

8. Hydrochloric acid destroys most pathogens that get to the:
a. intestines c. lungs
b. stomach d. mouth
9. The flaking of the stratum corneum continuously removes pathogens from the:
a. mouth c. skin
b. lining of the trachea d. stomach
10. A microorganism that is usually harmless but may become a pathogen in specific
circumstances is called:
a. a facultative anaerobe c. antigenic
b. an opportunist d. self-limiting
11. Which statement is NOT true of the normal flora of a person?
a. The urinary bladder is virtually free of bacteria.
b.
The skin has a small bacterial and fungal population, especially where the
skin is dry.
c. The blood should be free of microorganisms.

d. The mouth has fungi and protozoa as well as bacteria.
12. Which statement is NOT true of the normal flora of a person?
a.
The bacteria in the vagina create an alkaline pH that inhibits the growth of
pathogens.
b. The colon has bacteria that produce vitamins, especially vitamin K.
c. The cilia of the nasal cavities sweep inhaled microorganisms to the pharynx.
d.
The part of the small intestine with the smallest bacterial population is the
duodenum.
13. Bacteria that require oxygen in order to reproduce are called:
a. deoxygenated c. aerobic
b. oxygenated d. anaerobic
14. Bacteria that cannot reproduce in the presence of oxygen are called:
a. deoxygenated c. facultatively anaerobic
b. aerobic d. anaerobic

15. Bacteria that can reproduce in the presence or absence of oxygen are called:
a. easy to please c. facultatively anaerobic
b. multi-aerobic d. pseudo-anaerobic
16. An inapparent infection is one in which the person has no:
a. cough c. fever
b. rash d. symptoms at all
17. A subclinical infection is one in which the person:
a. has no symptoms
b. does not have to see a doctor because the symptoms are mild
c. can be sure of recovery by drinking lots of fluids to lower the fever
d. should see a doctor if the fever is over 100°F
18. An infection in which the person has no symptoms is called:
a. subclinical c. inapparent
b. asymptomatic d. all of these

19. An infection in which the person has symptoms is called:
a. symptomatic c. clinical
b. apparent d. all of these
20. A zoonosis is a disease that:
a. people give to their pets
b. people get from visiting zoos
c. people acquire from animals, the natural hosts
d. people acquire, but without symptoms
21. Which of these is a zoonosis?
a. measles c. mumps
b. encephalitis d. whooping cough

22. Which of these is NOT a zoonosis?
a. chickenpox c. plague
b. rabies d. Lyme disease
23. Rod-shaped bacteria are called ___, and spiral bacteria are called ___.
a. bacilli/cocci c. spirilla/bacilli
b. spirilla/cocci d. bacilli/spirilla
24. Spherical bacteria that grow in chains are called:
a. staphylococci c. diplococci
b. streptococci d. none of these
25. Rod-shaped bacteria that grow in chains are called:
a. staphylobacilli c. streptobacilli
b. diplobacilli d. palisade bacilli

26. A secondary infection is possible if a person:
a. is fatigued c.
has an infection that lowers
resistance
b. is malnourished d. does not take vitamin pills
27. When more than the usual number of cases of a disease occurs in a population,
the disease is said to be:
a. endemic c. pandemic
b. epidemic d. epidemiologic
28. A disease that is normally present in a population, with an expected number of
cases, is said to be:
a. endemic c. pandemic
b. epidemic d. epidemiologic
29. An endemic disease is one that:
a. has gotten out of control
b. is spreading very rapidly
c. must be contained by quarantine measures
d. is expected in a population

30. Septicemia is the presence of bacteria in the:
a. blood c. cerebrospinal fluid
b. lungs d. intestines
31. The presence of bacteria in the blood is called:
a. septicemia c. both A and B
b. bacteremia d.
both A and B, and a chronic
infection
32. Which statement is NOT true of disease terminology?
a. An acute infection often has a rapid onset.
b. A self-limiting infection lasts a predictable period of time.
c. A chronic infection is often long lasting.
d. An endogenous infection is one that is acquired from food.

33. A systemic infection is one that:
a. has spread from its initial site c. may be spread by the lymph
b. may be spread by the blood d. all of these
34. Flagella enable bacteria to:
a. survive without oxygen c. divide and reproduce
b. form spores d. move
35. Bacteria capable of self-locomotion have:
a. cilia c. false feet, like amoebas
b. flagella d. microvilli
36. The part of a bacterial cell that makes it gram positive or gram negative is the:
a. cell wall c. spore
b. cell membrane d. capsule

37. The cell walls of bacteria:
a. prevent rupture of the bacterial cell
b. are often either gram positive or gram negative
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and are the site of ATP production
38. The part of a bacterial cell that enables it to resist phagocytosis by WBCs is the:
a. cell wall c. spore
b. capsule d. cell membrane
39. Bacterial cells that have capsules are:
a. able to resist phagocytosis by the host’s WBCs
b. able to move by sliding
c. likely to be stuck in the host’s respiratory mucus
d. able to resist boiling
40. Bacteria that might normally be killed by heat may survive if they are able to
form:
a. capsules c. spores
b. proteins d. toxins

41. Most bacteria that are able to form spores are found in:
a. freshwater c. the soil
b. saltwater d. the bodies of warm-blooded hosts
42. A bacterial spore is a form that is:
a. resistant to heat c. both A and B
b. dormant, that is, inactive d. both A and B, and resistant to cold
43. Bacterial chemicals that are harmful to host cells are called:
a. antibodies c. toxins
b. antigens d. minerals
44. If part of a bacterial cell is antigenic, that means it stimulates the formation of:
a. antibodies c. toxins

b. other antigens that are related d. other bacteria
45. Most bacteria stimulate antibody production because they:
a. are antigenic, recognized as foreign
b. have receptor sites for antibodies
c. inhibit other aspects of the immune system
d. cannot be phagocytized
46. Bacteria usually reproduce by a process called:
a. binary fusion c. spore formation
b. meiosis d. binary fission
47. Binary fission is the process by which:
a. viruses reproduce c. viruses cause disease
b. bacteria get into host cells d. bacteria reproduce

48. Which statement is NOT true of bacterial cell structure?
a. The cell membrane is either gram positive or gram negative.
b. Bacteria with flagella are able to move.
c. Spores enable bacteria to survive drying.
d. Capsules inhibit phagocytosis by host WBCs.
49. A nosocomial infection is one that is acquired:
a. at home c. by way of the nose
b. at work d. in a hospital
50. An infection that is acquired in a hospital or other healthcare facility is called:
a. institutional c. nosocomial
b. neonasal d. exoendogenous
51. An antibiotic that is effective against just a few kinds of bacteria is called:
a. broad spectrum c. single spectrum
b. narrow spectrum d. wide spectrum

52. An antibiotic that is effective against many kinds of bacteria is called:
a. broad spectrum c. multispectrum
b. narrow spectrum d. polyspectrum
53. A hospital patient whose urinary bladder infection is caused by the person’s own
colon flora is said to have an infection that is:
a. endogenous and localized c. endogenous and systemic
b. exogenous and systemic d. exogenous and localized
54. Which of these is LEAST important for preventing nosocomial infections?
a. proper disposal of a patient’s urine and feces
b. healthcare personnel washing their hands thoroughly between patient visits
c. proper disposal of syringes
d. closing the door of the patient’s room
55. Which of these is MOST important for preventing nosocomial infections?

a. proper disposal of a patient’s urine and feces
b. healthcare personnel washing their hands thoroughly between patient visits
c. proper disposal of syringes
d. closing the door of the patient’ s room
56. The way a pathogen gets into a host is called the:
a. access site c. portal of entry
b. transfer site d. portal of exit
57. Mucous membrane tracts may be colonized by bacteria because they:
a. have openings to the environment
b. have openings that are portals of entry
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and they have no defenses
58. Intestinal pathogens are usually spread by the:
a. oral–oral route c. oral–fecal route
b. fecal–oral route d. fecal–fecal route

59. The time between the entry of a pathogen and the beginning of symptoms is
called the:
a. dormant stage c. incubation period
b. noncommunicable stage d. outcubation period
60. The incubation period of diseases:
a. varies with each disease
b. usually has a normal range for each disease
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and is always measured in weeks
61. Potential sources of infectious disease include:
a. animals c. objects people have touched
b. food and water d. all of these
62. A potential source of infection for some diseases is:
a. an animal reservoir
b. a human carrier

c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and a person with a subclinical infection
63. A portal of entry may be:
a. permanent, such as the mouth
b. temporary, such as a break in the skin
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and constant, such as the nose
64. The way a pathogen leaves a host is called the:
a. portal of exit c. portal of embarkation
b. transfer site d. deaccess site
65. Respiratory pathogens are most often spread by:
a. saliva on eating utensils c. cutaneous contact
b. droplets from nasal secretions d. vectors

66. A portal of exit may be:
a. the nose c. skin punctured by a mosquito
b. the mouth d. all of these
67. A person who recovers from a disease but continues to shed the pathogen is
called:
a. an alternate host c. a carrier
b. a zoonotic host d. a transmitter
68. A disease that may be spread directly or indirectly from host to host is called:
a. communicable c. noncommunicable
b. contagious d. none of these
69. A disease such as tetanus, which is acquired by soil contamination of a wound, is
called:
b. contagious d. none of these

70. A disease such as salmonella, which is acquired from contaminated food, is
called:
b. contagious d. gustatory
71. A disease such as cholera, which is spread by contaminated water, is called:
b. contagious d. aquatic
72. A disease such as malaria, which is spread by a vector, is called:
b. contagious d. insectivorous
73. Which statement about the spread of disease is true?
a. A contagious disease is always communicable.
b. A noncommunicable disease is contagious.

c. A communicable disease is always contagious.
d. A noncommunicable disease does not affect people.
74. A chemical that is used to destroy bacteria on the skin is called:
a. a cleansing agent c. a disinfectant
b. an antiseptic d. a sterilizing agent
75. Pasteurization of milk involves:
a. moderate heat c. freezing
b. boiling d. low heat
76. Drinking water is often ___ to make it safe to drink.
a. pasteurized c. autoclaved
b. sterilized d. chlorinated

77. A bacteriostatic chemical is one that:
a. kills all bacteria c. may not be used on the skin
b. kills viruses d. slows the growth of bacteria
78. Which of these is NOT ever part of a virus?
a. DNA c. a protein shell
b. RNA d. a cell membrane
79. The pathogens that are made of DNA or RNA and a protein shell are the:
a. viruses c. fungi
b. bacteria d. protozoa
80. Viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites, which means:
a. they must be in the blood to reproduce
b. they reproduce by binary fission
c. they must be inside living cells to reproduce
d. they cannot reproduce inside living cells

81. Viruses cause disease by:
a. reproducing within cells c. secreting toxins in cells
b. reproducing in blood plasma d. secreting toxins in the blood
82. The pathogens that always cause disease by reproducing within cells are the:
a. viruses c. fungi
b. bacteria d. protozoa
83. Most fungi live on dead organic matter, and are therefore called:
a. parasites c. normal flora
b. saprophytes d. deadbeats
84. A saprophyte is a microorganism that:
a. lives on living organic matter c. may also be called an autophyte
b. lives only in people as hosts d. lives on dead organic matter

85. Small numbers of yeasts may be part of the resident flora of all of these sites
except the:
a. mouth c. urinary bladder
b. vagina d. skin
86. An important trigger for some mucosal yeast infections is often the use of:
a. harsh soaps c. mouthwashes
b. vitamin pills d. antibiotics
87. A superficial mycosis affects the:
a. skin c. both of these
b. mucous membranes d. neither of these
88. Ringworm is a ___ infection of the ___.
a. fungus/skin c. worm/skin
b. worm/intestine d. fungus/intestine

89. A systemic mycosis might involve each of these except the:
a. endocardium c. lungs
b. oral mucosa d. meninges
90. The term for a parasite that lives on the body surface is:
a. ectoparasite c. cutaneous parasite
b. endoparasite d. external parasite
91. The term for a parasite that lives within the body is:
a. ectoparasite c. systemic parasite
b. endoparasite d. internal parasite
92. The vector of malaria is a:
a. mosquito c. tick

b. flea d. louse
93. The vector of Lyme disease is a:
a. mosquito c. tick
b. flea d. louse
94. The vector of plague is a:
a. mosquito c. tick
b. flea d. louse
95. The vector of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a:
a. mosquito c. tick
b. flea d. louse

96. The vector of yellow fever is a:
a. mosquito c. tick
b. flea d. louse
97. The vector of West Nile virus is a:
a. mosquito c. flea
b. tick d. louse
98. The vector of epidemic typhus is a:
a. mosquito c. flea
b. tick d. louse
99. Mosquitoes are the vectors of:
a. malaria c. plague
b. Lyme disease d. epidemic typhus

100. Mosquitoes are the vectors of:
a. malaria c. both A and B
b. yellow fever d. both A and B, and encephalitis
101. Ticks are the vectors of:
a. Rocky Mountain spotted fever c. both A and B
b. Lyme disease d. both A and B, and encephalitis
102. Fleas are the vectors of:
a. plague c. both A and B
b. yellow fever d. both A and B, and Lyme disease
103. The human body louse is the vector of:
a. scabies c. both A and B
b. epidemic typhus d. both A and B, and rabbit fever

104. The tsetse fly is the vector of:
a. African sleeping sickness c. both A and B
b. African malaria d.
both A and B, and African
encephalitis

Test bank essentials of anatomy physiology 6th edition by scanlon sanders

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Test bank essentials of anatomy physiology 6th edition by scanlon sanders