When observation employs standardized procedures, trained observers, schedules for recording, and other devices that reflect the scientific procedures of other primary data methods, it is said to be _____ observation. Choose one answer. a. simple b. systematic c. organized d. structured e. semistructured Question 2 Which of the following is a condition in which observation is an appropriate method for data collection? Choose one answer. a. Anonymity is desired b. Respondents are widely dispersed c. Attitudinal information is needed d. Natural setting is imperative e. Extensive amount of information is needed Question 3 Which of the following is a type of behavioral observation? Choose one answer. a. Nonverbal behavior b. Linguistic behavior c. Activity observation d. Extralinguistic behavior e. Spatial behavior Question 4 The most prevalent category of observation study is _____ observation. Choose one answer. a. linguistic b. extralinguistic c. spatial d. nonverbal e. digital The recording of how humans physically relate to one another is called _____ observation. Choose one answer. a. nonverbal b. linguistic c. spatial d. mechanical/ digital e. temporal All of the following are advantages of observation as a data collection method except _____. Choose one answer. a. optimizing the naturalness of the setting b. reducing obtrusiveness c. avoiding participant filtering d. quantifying data e. securing contextual information Which of the following is a limitation of observation as a data collection method? Choose one answer. a. Avoidance of participant filtering and forgetting b. Use of a natural setting c. Securing physical, trace evidence d. Required time and expense e. Ability to disguise or conceal observation equipment Question 8 A condition called the _____ creates errors when prior observations influence perceptions of current observations. Choose one answer. a. observer drift b. groupthink c. devil's advocate d. halo effect e. self-serving bias Jane took on a second-shift as observer in the observation study of restaurant patrons. As she becomes fatigued, _____ is more likely to occur. Choose one answer. a. observer drift b. groupthink c. devil's advocate d. halo effect e. self-serving bias Question 10 What type of sampling is used to select certain behavioral acts or conditions to record that answer the investigative questions? Choose one answer. a. Time sampling b. Quota sampling c. Convenience sampling d. Event sampling e. Snowball sampling Question 11 The error that occurs when participants alter their true behavior due to the presence of the observer is known as _____. Choose one answer. a. observer drift b. halo effect c. social desirability responding d. self-serving bias e. reactivity response Question 12 At the close of business on Black Friday, Mac.

1. When observation employs standardized procedures, trained
observers, schedules for recording, and other devices that
reflect the scientific procedures of other primary data methods,
it is said to be _____ observation.
Choose one answer.
a. simple
b. systematic
c. organized
d. structured
e. semistructured
Question 2
Which of the following is a condition in which observation is an
appropriate method for data collection?
Choose one answer.
a. Anonymity is desired
b. Respondents are widely dispersed
c. Attitudinal information is needed

2. d. Natural setting is imperative
e. Extensive amount of information is needed
Question 3
Which of the following is a type of behavioral observation?
Choose one answer.
a. Nonverbal behavior
b. Linguistic behavior
c. Activity observation
d. Extralinguistic behavior
e. Spatial behavior
Question 4
The most prevalent category of observation study is _____
observation.
Choose one answer.
a. linguistic
b. extralinguistic
c. spatial

3. d. nonverbal
e. digital
The recording of how humans physically relate to one another is
called _____ observation.
Choose one answer.
a. nonverbal
b. linguistic
c. spatial
d. mechanical/ digital
e. temporal
All of the following are advantages of observation as a data
collection method except _____.
Choose one answer.
a. optimizing the naturalness of the setting
b. reducing obtrusiveness
c. avoiding participant filtering

4. d. quantifying data
e. securing contextual information
Which of the following is a limitation of observation as a data
collection method?
Choose one answer.
a. Avoidance of participant filtering and forgetting
b. Use of a natural setting
c. Securing physical, trace evidence
d. Required time and expense
e. Ability to disguise or conceal observation equipment
Question 8
A condition called the _____ creates errors when prior
observations influence perceptions of current observations.
Choose one answer.
a. observer drift
b. groupthink
c. devil's advocate

5. d. halo effect
e. self-serving bias
Jane took on a second-shift as observer in the observation study
of restaurant patrons. As she becomes fatigued, _____ is more
likely to occur.
Choose one answer.
a. observer drift
b. groupthink
c. devil's advocate
d. halo effect
e. self-serving bias
Question 10
What type of sampling is used to select certain behavioral acts
or conditions to record that answer the investigative questions?
Choose one answer.
a. Time sampling
b. Quota sampling

6. c. Convenience sampling
d. Event sampling
e. Snowball sampling
Question 11
The error that occurs when participants alter their true behavior
due to the presence of the observer is known as _____.
Choose one answer.
a. observer drift
b. halo effect
c. social desirability responding
d. self-serving bias
e. reactivity response
Question 12
At the close of business on Black Friday, Macy's store
employees examined product displays throughout the store
looking for disrupted displays and displays that remained
undisturbed. The information is used to determine what items to
put on sale early in the holiday shopping season. This is an
example of using _____.
Choose one answer.

7. a. nonverbal observation
b. physical condition analysis
c. activity analysis
d. record analysis
e. data mining
Question 13
An interesting application of _____ compared self-reported beer
consumption with the amount of discarded beer containers in
the trash.
Choose one answer.
a. process analysis
b. data mining
c. erosion measures
d. record analysis
e. accretion measures
Question 14

8. A communication approach to data collection involves _____.
Choose one answer.
a. observing behavior
b. recording trace evidence
c. surveying people
d. data mining
e. linguistic behavior analysis
Question 15
All of the following are sources of error in communication
research except _____.
Choose one answer.
a. measurement questions
b. observers
c. survey instruments
d. interviewers
e. participants

9. The failure to secure full participant cooperation for a study can
result in _____ error.
Choose one answer.
a. measurement
b. instrumentation
c. data entry
d. sampling
e. nonresponse
Question 17
Interviewer error may be caused by _____.
Choose one answer.
a. an unwillingness to participate
b. participant faulty recall
c. the falsification of answers
d. social desirability responding
e. all of the above

10. Question 18
Which type of error occurs when the interviewer summarizes or
interprets participant answers?
Choose one answer.
a. Measurement
b. Instrumentation
c. Data entry
d. Sampling
e. Nonresponse
Question 19
A study reported in the Journal of Management Research
concluded that individuals are more motivated to respond to
surveys when _____.
Choose one answer.
a. the topic is salient
b. incentives are offered
c. respondents have a strong social network
d. they can respond at work

11. e. they know others like themselves have already responded
Question 20
A telephone survey asks participants whether they have donated
money to the Tsunami Relief Fund. This type of question is
subject to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. nonresponse bias
b. acquiescence
c. social desirability bias
d. satisficing
e. sampling error
The tendency for respondents to be agreeable is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. social desirability responding
b. acquiescence
c. elaboration likelihood

12. d. agreeableness
e. conscientiousness
Question 22
Which type of communication data collection is typically the
lowest-cost option?
Choose one answer.
a. Self-administered
b. Telephone interview
c. Personal interview
d. Record analysis
e. Observation
Which of the following is not a reason for the growth in web-
based surveys?
Choose one answer.
a. Participant perceptions of anonymity
b. Ability to use visual stimuli
c. Speed of response

13. d. Cost efficiencies
e. Internet penetration rates
Question 24
Sample accessibility is generally maximized by the use of
_____ surveys.
Choose one answer.
a. telephone
b. mobile phone
c. mail
d. Internet
e. fax
Question 25
Which type of incentive has been shown to consistently improve
response rates to surveys?
Choose one answer.
a. Free product samples
b. Money

14. c. Gift certificates
d. Prize draw chance
e. Receipt of post-study results
In considering the use of a Web survey for conducting polls of
the general population, the greatest disadvantage of the mode is
_____.
Choose one answer.
a. cost
b. time constraints
c. Internet coverage
d. dial-up modems
e. inability to use monetary incentives
Question 27
When a participant does not know the answer to a survey
question, but there isn't a "Don't Know" response option
offered, _____ will occur.
Choose one answer.
a. response bias

15. b. measurement error
c. sampling error
d. nonresponse bias
e. unit nonresponse
Which type of data collection mode is most appropriate for a
survey requiring 45 minutes to complete?
Choose one answer.
a. Telephone
b. Computer-administered telephone
c. Mail
d. Online
e. Intercept
A _____ is a scheme for assigning numbers of symbols to
represent aspects of the event being measured.
Choose one answer.
a. measurement tool

16. b. mapping rule
c. ruler
d. scale
e. property
Question 30
Which of the following is not an example of an object?
Choose one answer.
a. Attitude
b. Furniture
c. Dog
d. Class affiliation
e. Weight
31
Weight, height, and temperature are all types of _____.
Choose one answer.
a. objects

17. b. physical properties
c. psychological properties
d. constructs
e. mapping rules
Question 32
Socioeconomic class affiliation is a type of _____.
Choose one answer.
a. object
b. physical property
c. psychological property
d. social property
e. mapping rule
Question 33
Which characteristic of mapping rules refers to ordered numbers
in which one number is greater than, less than, or equal to
another number?
Choose one answer.
a. Classification

18. b. Order
c. Distance
d. Origin
e. Exclusivity
Question 34
Distance, one of the four characteristics of mapping rules, refers
to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. the use of ordered numbers such that two is less than three
but greater than one
b. the use of numbers used to group or sort responses when no
order to the numbers exists
c. the use of a series of numbers in which each number is an
equal distance from the next
d. the use of a series of numbers with a unique origin indicated
by the number zero
e. the use of a number that is not used again

19. Origin, one of the four characteristics of mapping rules, refers
to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. the use of ordered numbers such that two is less than three
but greater than one
b. the use of numbers used to group or sort responses when no
order to the numbers exists
c. the use of a series of numbers in which each number is an
equal distance from the next
d. the use of a series of numbers with a unique origin indicated
by the number zero
e. the use of a number that is not used again
Which characteristics of data are exhibited by the variable,
gender?
Choose one answer.
a. Classification only
b. Classification and order
c. Classification, order, and distance
d. Classification, order, distance, and origin

20. e. Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity
Question 37
Attendance at raceways most recent two races have hit
attendance records with 60,000 present at one and 65,000
present at another. Which of the following characteristics are
exhibited by these attendance measures?
Choose one answer.
a. Classification only
b. Classification and order
c. Classification, order, and distance
d. Classification, order, distance, and origin
e. Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity
Question 38
The New York Times Dining Section rates the restaurants it
reviews using a system such that one star means good, two stars
means very good, three stars means excellent, and four stars
means extraordinary. Which of the following characteristics are
exhibited by this rating scheme?
Choose one answer.
a. Classification only

21. b. Classification and order
c. Classification, order, and distance
d. Classification, order, distance, and origin
e. Classification, order, distance, origin, and exclusivity
Question 39
In a survey of football fans, each respondent is asked to indicate
whether they have ever attended an NFL game. This question
can be categorized as a(n) _____ scale.
Choose one answer.
a. ratio
b. interval
c. ordinal
d. nominal
e. semantic differential
Question 40
_____ describes how scores cluster or scatter in a distribution.
Choose one answer.
a. Mode

22. b. Mean
c. Median
d. Dispersion
e. Range
The _____ is the midpoint of a distribution.
Choose one answer.
a. mode
b. median
c. mean
d. range
e. dispersion
For questions 42, 43, and 44
In the results of the most recent exam taken in the business
research class, the average score was a 74.4. More students
earned a 78 than any other score and half the grades were above
72 and half the grades were below 72.
Question 43

23. What is the mode for the business research exam scores?
Choose one answer.
a. 74.4
b. 78
c. 72
d. 50
e. Between 50 and 100
Question 44
What is the median for the business research exam scores?
Choose one answer.
a. 74.4
b. 78
c. 72
d. 50
e. Between 50 and 100
Question 45

24. Marks: 1
What is the arithmetic mean for the business research exam
scores?
Choose one answer.
a. 74.4
b. 78
c. 72
d. 50
e. Between 50 and 100
Question 46
Marks: 1
The population of a city is an example of _____ data.
Choose one answer.
a. ratio
b. interval
c. nominal
d. ordinal

25. e. dispersed
Question 47
Marks: 1
Random error in measurement is the error that occurs _____.
Choose one answer.
a. erratically
b. due to bias
c. systematically
d. due to sampling
e. none of the above
Question 48
Marks: 1
Differences in respondent responses associated with where the
interview took place, such as at the mall, in a home, or over the
telephone are errors originating from the _____ associated with
the study.
Choose one answer.
a. situational factors
b. respondent
c. interviewer

26. d. instrument
e. sample
Question 49
Marks: 1
_____ is the extent to which a measurement tool actually
measures what we wish to measure.
Choose one answer.
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Practicality
d. Significance
e. Standardization
Question 50
Marks: 1
An attitude scale that correctly forecasts the outcome of a
purchase decision has _____ validity.
Choose one answer.
a. discriminant

27. b. content
c. face
d. concurrent
e. predictive
51
Marks: 1
The U.S. News and World Report is assessing the reliability of
its measure of academic reputation used in its annual ranking of
colleges and universities. To do so, it administers the same
questions on academic reputation to its sample of academic
administrators in March and again in June.Which statistical
technique listed below would be used to compare the results of
the March survey to the results of the June survey in the U.S.
News and World Report's assessment of reliability?
Choose one answer.
a. Mean
b. Dispersion
c. Correlation
d. Regression
e. ANOVA

28. Welcome to WritePoint, the automated review system that
recognizes errors most commonly made by university students
in academic essays. The system embeds comments into your
paper and suggests possible changes in grammar and style.
Please evaluate each comment carefully to ensure that the
suggested change is appropriate for your paper, but remember
that your instructor's preferences for style and format prevail.
You will also need to review your own citations and references
since WritePoint capability in this area is limited. Thank you
for using WritePoint.
While many parents think fast-food is harmless to a typical
teen’s diet, it can cause weight problems as well as health
problems that can follow them through adulthood.
How would you like your teen to be like my cousin? [Writing
suggestion: Unless in a quote or a title, avoid rhetorical
questions in academic writing. A good idea is to provide
answers, not questions] I have a cousin who weights almost
500lbs [Avoid using abbreviations in academic writing, write
them out (and in any case, do not attach an abbreviation to the
number)] and [Grammar: A run-on sentence requires a comma
before "and" (or other conjunction) linking main clauses] she is
in her early twenties. Her parents found it easier to feed her
fast-food for her meals because of their busy schedules while
she was growing up. She has a lot of [Only commercial
shipments and real estate are measured in lots. To use "a lot of"
to mean "many," "much," or "a large amount" is a colloquialism
(not universally clear). Use another term.] health issues now
and fights to live every day. She has problems breathing,
walking and has Type 2 diabetes. If she had been taught at a
young age about eating healthy, she would not have these issues
today. The statistics show that teens that eat fast-food more

29. than twice per week are over weight and end up [Phrasal verb--
these two words mean something different from the two words
separately (looking up each word in the dictionary would not
produce the meaning), which could cause misinterpretation in a
business communication if the reader is not from your region
(or country). Try different wording, such as "end," "finish," or
"result"] with health issues. My cousin is a good example that
this is true.
Parents today do not watch what their children eat on a daily
basis [Wordiness: "on a daily basis" is not different from
writing simply "daily"] . Parents are working long hours or just
in a rush to get teen’s to soccer practice or gymnastics. The fast
way to feed their family and make their schedules is to stop at a
fast-food restaurant on the way. The children eat in the car
while the parent is eating and driving them where they need to
be. This lifestyle is part of the problem. When teens are use to
this they tend to snack on unhealthy food as well. Parents tend
to purchase unhealthy snacks that are [Writing suggestion:
rewrite the sentence to remove "that are"] fast and available.
When teens go to the cabinet for a snack it is not fruit and
vegetables that they see. It is snack cakes, and candy. Teens
that grow up from childhood eating this way will continue as
teens and young adults. It is said that children with two working
parents eat fast-food two to three days a week compared to a
child who has only one parent working. This is why teens with
two working parents are more at risk to become obese.
Obesity in teens has increased over the years. One reason is due
to [Check word usage: This phrase is most accurate in referring
to something owed ($5 due) or an arrival time (due at 6:00)--try
"because" or "because of"] the consumption of fast-food more
than twice per week. More teens are left to themselves to find
something to eat when at friends homes or out on the town. The
easy thing for a teen that has not been taught differently is to
have fast-food to curb their hunger. Teens with a fast-food

30. restaurant with in walking distance from their school are also at
higher risk of obesity. This gives them access to eat lunch there
every day. One meal at a fast food restaurant is the equivalent
of a full day’s calorie intake. This means that a normal teen that
eats fast food more than twice per week compared to once per
week will gain an average of 10 pounds. “Among children and
teens ages six to 19, 15 percent are overweight according to the
1999-2000 data, or triple what the proportion was in 1980”
(Palo Alto Medical Foundation). This means almost 9 million
teens have weight problems and will have health issues in the
future [Redundancy: "in the future" is repetitive--"will have"
means in the future] if they are not taught what is healthy and
good for them to eat. Teens that are [Writing suggestion:
rewrite the sentence to remove "that are"] close to these
restaurants are at high risk for obesity. The risk factors for
health issues in over weight teens increases with every extra
pound they put on.
Teens with weight issues are at risk for a number of health
problems including heart disease, type 2 diabetes, high blood
pressure, stroke, and some forms of cancer (Palo Alto Medical
Foundation). These health issues will follow teens into their
adulthood. Being [Doctoral rule (but good advice for any
academic writer)--If not a noun (as in "human being"), the word
"Being" is hard to imagine; it means "existing." Try to rewrite
this without using "being"--with action words like "attending,"
"working," "living," "experiencing," simply "as"--or even
removing "being" completely] overweight can also affect a
person's joints, breathing, sleep, mood, and energy levels. The
numbers of health issues that can arise for a teen overweight are
great. [Writing suggestion: "great" is an overworked word, too
frequently seen, and too vague. It has too many meanings: huge,
superior, numerous, etc. Use a more specific adjective] They
all start out with the weight issue and end in health concerns
that a teen should not have to deal with at such a young age.
Some teen’s health issues can also be [This is smoother as "also

31. can be"] a large factor in their weight issue. It is shone that if
teens are unhappy for any reason (class mates, parents, and lack
of boyfriend or girlfriend) they eat. No teen ever takes the time
to fix something healthy they go for what is fast and available.
These health issues are very serious and could end with death.
Teens should be made aware by both their doctors and parents
to these health issues and what the teens can expect in the
future. Most teens are very smart, and when health issues are
explained in detail they will make the correct choice to get
healthy and well again. Teens have proven over the years that
when well informed about a subject they can and will
[Wordiness and redundant: if something "will," surely it "can"]
make the right choice. Teens should be taught the health issues
that can arise from certain fast-food ingredient’s, to assist them
when they are looking for something to eat or snack.
Teens do not have a clue what ingredients are put into their
food when eating at fast food restaurants. For starters
McDonalds [Misspelling: according to their website, the
spelling of the fast-food company is "McDonald's"] eggs are
made with the following ingredients; Sodium acid
pyrophosphate, citric acid, and monosodium for starters. These
ingredients are not only bad for your weight but [For parallel
construction, "not only" must be followed by "but also" later in
the sentence] [Grammar: A run-on sentence requires a comma
before "but" (or other conjunction) linking main clauses] some
are not even allowed to be used in the making of cat food as
they have not been proven safe for animals. Some ingredients in
fast foods can not be found in local grocery stores because they
are not food. They can be found at your local hardware store,
low tox antifreeze for one example. This item and others like it
are consumed on a daily basis [Wordiness: "on a daily basis" is
not different from writing simply "daily"] by teens today.
These ingredients are some of the reasons teens have weight
issues, which causes health problems in the future. A Big MAC
has 540 calories. Teens that eat at their local McDondonald’s

32. consumes one of these a day. Add fries and a large soft drink
and there went the day’s calorie allowance and possibly half of
tomorrows. All fast-food restaurants use the same ingredients to
preserve their food. The food is pre-made and shipped to each
restaurant and needs to be preserved for the shipping.
Teens that are [Writing suggestion: rewrite the sentence to
remove "that are"] not properly taught how to eat healthy have
weight and health issues that can follow them into adulthood.
Studies show eating fast-food more than twice a week causes
weight issues in teens that will follow with health issues. A teen
can become a type 2 diabetic, develop heart problems, as well
as emotional and self-confidence issues. For parents interested
in keeping their teens healthy, they need to make sure their
children are taught how to eat healthy as children so these good
habits are practiced into the teen years.
Peer Review Checklist
COM/150 Version 6
2
Associate Program Material
Peer Review Checklist*
What is the main point of this essay?
The main point of the essay is about teens eating a lot of fast
food. Having these habits can cause risk factors and health
issues.
What is the greatest strength of this essay?
I feel the greatest strengths of this essay is when the student
states the risk factors and health issues that can occur if they
continue to just eat fast food.
Does the introduction grab your interest and make you want to
read on? Explain your answer.

33. No, I don’t feel it grabs my attention because the thesis: “While
many parents think fast-food is harmless to a typical teen’s
diet,(it starts out like a comparison using the word “while”) it
can cause weight problems as well as health problems that can
follow them through adulthood” I was hoping for an
comparison, maybe the student can use a different word for the
thesis sentence.
What material does not seem to fit the main point of the essay
or does not seem to be appropriate for the audience?
The material I felt didn’t fit the main point and was
inappropriate for the audience was when the student talks about
why teens are unhappy for many reasons. I think it can be left
out.
Where should the author add more details or examples? Explain
your answer.
I like that the student talks about how fast food is a bad habit
and how unhealthy it is, however the student should list
healthier alternatives where the fast food can be replaced.
Maybe suggest for the parents to pack the teen a lunch, with
health snacks, eating last night leftovers. Parent and teen also
can sit down and make a schedule by planning means together.
Where is the writing unclear or vague?
The writing is somewhat unclear where the student is stressing
the point of fast food being a unhealthy food choice. With some
of the repeated information, it hard to understand where the
student is trying to go with this.
What is your favorite part of this piece of writing?
My favorite part of this piece of writing is when the student
uses the example of their cousin. When you have that type of
person in your life, it makes you want to change because you
don’t want to go through the same thing they are going through.

34. It also makes you want to help them but it does start with them
wanting to help themselves first. Support is the main thing to
have when a person is having this type of issue. Try to be there
as much as possible physically, mentally, and emotionally.
What other comments might you provide for the author?
I like the topic that was chosen, however the student should do
a spell check. Some of the words are not spelled right. Also, a
lot of the material is repeated. I recommend doing a
compare/contrast with the alternative food.
Good Essay!
*Adapted from Reinking, J. A., Hart, A. W., & Von der Osten,
R. (2001). Strategies for successful writing: A rhetoric, research
guide, reader, and handbook (6th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ:
Prentice-Hall.
You scored 28/40 on this assignment. See my comments below
in “Blue.”
Week 7: Introduction and Conclusion
Points
Possible
Points
Earned
Comments
- The paper consists of an introduction and a conclusion for the
expository essay that is added to the body paragraphs from
Week 6.
- The paper is also submitted to the Center for Writing
Excellence and the Plagiarism Checker.

35. 5
5
Yes. Thank you for completing the assignment in full and
according to the instructions.
The introduction provides sufficient background on the topic,
includes the thesis statement, and previews major points.
15
5
The main problem with the intro is the tone. It is based almost
entirely on personal experience Remember, this is a research
paper. Your job is to present facts, not comment on those facts.
You must prove your argument with facts alone.
As I have mentioned several times before, when you are
constructing a piece of academic writing, you should always
avoid referring to yourself or to your audience. That means no
"you" "your" "my" "I" or "we". Please eliminate these from your
paper.
In addition, your own personal experience should not appear
anywhere in your writing. Statements that refer to yourself or to
people you know are not appropriate here.
The conclusion is logical, flows from the body of the paper, and
reviews the major points.
15
15
I like the way you constructed this section. It does a nice job of
providing closure to your topic Remember, now that you have
this completed; it is your job to ensure that all of the main
points in your paper can be connected back to the ideas
presented in the conclusion.
The tone is appropriate for the intended audience. Both sections
are written in third-person point of view.
5
3
(See Comments Above)

36. Total Points Earned: 28/40
I would like to see some revision for these sections in your final
draft. Once you the basic framework for the “bookends” of your
paper, along with the rough draft you completed last week, you
are nearing the final stages of the writing process. Moving
forward, continue using the feedback you have received thus far
to improve the organization and clarity of your writing for the
final draft. Good luck!
While many parents think fast-food is harmless to a typical
teen’s diet, it can cause weight problems as well as health
problems that can follow them through adulthood.
How would you like your teen to be like my cousin? I have a
cousin who weights almost 500lbs and she is in her early
twenties. Her parents found it easier to feed her fast-food for
her meals because of their busy schedules while she was
growing up. She has a lot of health issues now and fights to live
every day. She has problems breathing, walking and has Type 2
diabetes. If she had been taught at a young age about eating
healthy, she would not have these issues today. The statistics
show that teens that eat fast-food more than twice per week are
over weight and end up with health issues. My cousin is a good
example that this is true.
Parents today do not watch what their children eat on a daily
basis. Parents are working long hours or just in a rush to get
teen’s to soccer practice or gymnastics. The fast way to feed
their family and make their schedules is to stop at a fast-food
restaurant on the way. The children eat in the car while the
parent is eating and driving them where they need to be. This
lifestyle is part of the problem. When teens are use to this they
tend to snack on unhealthy food as well. Parents tend to
purchase unhealthy snacks that are fast and available. When
teens go to the cabinet for a snack it is not fruit and vegetables
that they see. It is snack cakes, and candy. Teens that grow up

37. from childhood eating this way will continue as teens and young
adults. It is said that children with two working parents eat fast-
food two to three days a week compared to a child who has only
one parent working. This is why teens with two working parents
are more at risk to become obese.
Obesity in teens has increased over the years. One reason is due
to the consumption of fast-food more than twice per week. More
teens are left to themselves to find something to eat when at
friends homes or out on the town. The easy thing for a teen that
has not been taught differently is to have fast-food to curb their
hunger. Teens with a fast-food restaurant with in walking
distance from their school are also at higher risk of obesity.
This gives them access to eat lunch there every day. One meal
at a fast food restaurant is the equivalent of a full day’s calorie
intake. This means that a normal teen that eats fast food more
than twice per week compared to once per week will gain an
average of 10 pounds. “Among children and teens ages six to
19, 15 percent are overweight according to the 1999-2000 data,
or triple what the proportion was in 1980” (Palo Alto Medical
Foundation). This means almost 9 million teens have weight
problems and will have health issues in the future if they are not
taught what is healthy and good for them to eat. Teens that are
close to these restaurants are at high risk for obesity. The risk
factors for health issues in over weight teens increases with
every extra pound they put on.
Teens with weight issues are at risk for a number of health
problems including heart disease, type 2 diabetes, high blood
pressure, stroke, and some forms of cancer (Palo Alto Medical
Foundation). These health issues will follow teens into their
adulthood. Being overweight can also affect a person's joints,
breathing, sleep, mood, and energy levels. The numbers of
health issues that can arise for a teen overweight are great. They
all start out with the weight issue and end in health concerns
that a teen should not have to deal with at such a young age.

38. Some teen’s health issues can also be a large factor in their
weight issue. It is shone that if teens are unhappy for any reason
(class mates, parents, and lack of boyfriend or girlfriend) they
eat. No teen ever takes the time to fix something healthy they
go for what is fast and available. These health issues are very
serious and could end with death. Teens should be made aware
by both their doctors and parents to these health issues and what
the teens can expect in the future. Most teens are very smart,
and when health issues are explained in detail they will make
the correct choice to get healthy and well again. Teens have
proven over the years that when well informed about a subject
they can and will make the right choice. Teens should be taught
the health issues that can arise from certain fast-food
ingredient’s, to assist them when they are looking for something
to eat or snack.
Teens do not have a clue what ingredients are put into their
food when eating at fast food restaurants. For starters
McDonalds eggs are made with the following ingredients;
Sodium acid pyrophosphate, citric acid, and monosodium for
starters. These ingredients are not only bad for your weight but
some are not even allowed to be used in the making of cat food
as they have not been proven safe for animals. Some ingredients
in fast foods can not be found in local grocery stores because
they are not food. They can be found at your local hardware
store, low tox antifreeze for one example. This item and others
like it are consumed on a daily basis by teens today. These
ingredients are some of the reasons teens have weight issues,
which causes health problems in the future. A Big MAC has 540
calories. Teens that eat at their local McDondonald’s consumes
one of these a day. Add fries and a large soft drink and there
went the day’s calorie allowance and possibly half of
tomorrows. All fast-food restaurants use the same ingredients to
preserve their food. The food is pre-made and shipped to each
restaurant and needs to be preserved for the shipping.

39. Teens that are not properly taught how to eat healthy have
weight and health issues that can follow them into adulthood.
Studies show eating fast-food more than twice a week causes
weight issues in teens that will follow with health issues. A teen
can become a type 2 diabetic, develop heart problems, as well
as emotional and self-confidence issues. For parents interested
in keeping their teens healthy, they need to make sure their
children are taught how to eat healthy as children so these good
habits are practiced into the teen years.
_____ are original works of research or raw data without
interpretation that represent an official opinion or position.
Choose one answer.
a. Secondary sources
b. Primary sources
c. Statistical sources
d. Bibliographies
e. Indexes
Question 2
Which of the following is an example of a primary source of
information?
Choose one answer.
a. Census data

40. b. Newspaper articles
c. Encyclopedias
d. Google searches
e. Internal sales reports
Question 3
Which information source may be interpretations of a secondary
source but is generally represented by indexes, bibliographies,
and Internet search engines?
Choose one answer.
a. Secondary
b. Primary
c. Tertiary
d. Statistical
e. External
Question 4
When researchers consider the explicit or hidden agenda of an
information source, the source's _____ is under evaluation.
Choose one answer.

41. a. purpose
b. scope
c. authority
d. audience
e. format
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT a good reason for using
secondary data?
Choose one answer.
a. Data on the past cannot be collected today.
b. Even if the definitions of variables being studied are not the
same, research can be modified according to secondary data
available.
c. The time involved in primary data collection may render the
study obsolete.
d. Authentic data required may already have been collected by
other agencies.
One of the disadvantages of computerized searches is
Choose one answer.

42. a. A computer search can combine subject items in different
ways than is possible using a manual search.
b. Computerized databases do not contain references to the most
recent published periodicals.
c. Computers are hard for most people to use.
d. Computerized searches will find sources that contain the key
words but each source may not be related to the subject of
interest.
Question 7
Which of the following is the first step in an exploratory study?
Choose one answer.
a. Identifying the target population
b. Choosing a sample
c. Interviewing experts
d. Conducting a literature search
e. Writing interview questions
Question 8
An analysis of past sales data shows that the average household

43. purchases a new vacuum cleaner approximately every seven
years. The extraction of this type of information is known as
_____.
Choose one answer.
a. process analysis
b. data mining
c. obtrusive measures
d. record analysis
e. trace evidence
Which of the following is a concern with data mining?
Choose one answer.
a. The database was created for a reason that may not be
compatible with the management question
b. It is secondary data
c. It provides the potential for extracting meaningful
information
d. It is a starting point for decision-based research

44. e. It offers readily-available data
Question 10
The process of stating the basic dilemma and then developing
other questions by progressively breaking down the original
question into more specific ones is called the _____.
Choose one answer.
a. research question
b. management-research-question hierarchy
c. management dilemma
d. management question
e. investigative question
Which of the following questions is considered when discussing
the management dilemma?
Choose one answer.
a. How can management eliminate negative symptoms?
b. What does the manager need to know to choose the best
alternative from the available sources of action?
c. What is the recommended course of action?

45. d. What symptoms cause management concern?
e. What should be asked or observed to obtain the information
the manager needs?
Question 12
Which of the following questions is considered when
determining investigative questions?
Choose one answer.
a. How can management eliminate negative symptoms?
b. What does the manager need to know to choose the best
alternative from the available sources of action?
c. What is the recommended course of action?
d. What symptoms cause management concern?
e. What should be asked or observed to obtain the information
the manager needs?
Question 13
Which of the following questions is considered when
developing measurement questions?
Choose one answer.
a. How can management eliminate negative symptoms?
b. What does the manager need to know to choose the best

46. alternative from the available sources of action?
c. What is the recommended course of action?
d. What symptoms cause management concern?
e. What should be asked or observed to obtain the information
the manager needs?
Measurement questions are questions posed to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. managers
b. researchers
c. field workers
d. study participants
e. pollsters
Question 15
Research design strategy encompasses all of the components
below except _____.
Choose one answer.
a. data collection design

47. b. sampling design
c. instrument development
d. data analysis
e. all of the above are part of the design strategy
The goal of a formal study is to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. discover future research tasks
b. expand understanding of a topic
c. test hypotheses
d. provide insight
e. develop hypotheses
Question 17
A causal study is one that _____.
Choose one answer.
a. attempts to capture a population's characteristics by making
inferences from a sample's characteristics and testing resulting
hypotheses

48. b. emphasizes a full contextual analysis of a few events or
conditions and their interrelations
c. discovers answers to the questions who, what, when, where,
or how much
d. attempts to reveal why or how one variable produces changes
in another
e. provides repeated measures over an extended period of time
Question 18
A(n) _____ study explains what happened to a measured
variable after-the-fact.
Choose one answer.
a. ex post facto
b. exploratory
c. experimental
d. statistical
e. causal
Question 19

49. A(n) _____ study involves manipulation of one or more
variables to determine the effect on another variable.
Choose one answer.
a. ex post facto
b. exploratory
c. experimental
d. statistical
e. causal
Question 20
Which of the following is a type of monitoring study?
Choose one answer.
a. Telephone interview
b. Counting cars in a parking lot
c. Mall-intercept interview
d. E-mail survey
e. All of the above

50. Longitudinal studies of cohort groups _____.
Choose one answer.
a. study the same people over time
b. use panel members as participants
c. study attitudes at a single point in time
d. use different participants for each sequenced measurement
e. occur under actual environmental conditions
Question 22
Which of the following exploratory techniques is used most
often in business research?
Choose one answer.
a. Proxemics
b. Empathic research
c. Focus groups
d. Street ethnography
e. Surveys

51. Which of the following is not an objective of exploratory
research?
Choose one answer.
a. Expand understanding of management dilemma
b. Gather background information
c. Identify information necessary for formulating investigative
questions
d. Identify sources of measurement questions
e. All of the above
Question 24
Discussions with those who are knowledgeable about the
problem or its possible solutions are called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. brainstorming
b. experience surveys
c. focus groups
d. experiments

52. e. projection techniques
Question 25
A correlation refers to the _____.
Choose one answer.
a. estimates of frequency with which a characteristic appears
b. establishing of the direction of causality between two
variables
c. described characteristics associated with a subject population
d. relationship by which two or more variables covary
e. estimation of the proportion of a population with certain
characteristics
26
Which of the following is not a type of evidence used to test
causal hypotheses?
Choose one answer.
a. Covariation between variables A and B
b. Time order of events
c. Alternative causes

53. d. Disposition of variable B
e. All of the above can be used to test causal hypotheses
Question 27
Research designs may be viewed as being
Choose one answer.
a. Exploratory or experimental
b. Laboratory or ex post facto
c. Cross-sectional or case
d. Descriptive or causal
e. Longitudinal or statistical
Question 28
The interactions between two sets of variables may reflect
relationships that are
Choose one answer.
a. Symmetrical
b. Reciprocal
c. Asymmetrical

54. d. All of the above
The major relationships of interest to the research analyst are
those which are
Choose one answer.
a. Asymmetrical
b. Exclusive
c. Independent
d. Reciprocal
e. Symmetrical
Question 30
Which type of research includes an array of interpretative
techniques which seek to describe, decode, translate, and
otherwise come to terms with the meaning of certain
phenomena?
Choose one answer.
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. Statistical

55. d. Descriptive
e. Causal
Which type of research attempts a precise measurement of some
behavior, knowledge, opinion, or attitude?
Choose one answer.
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. Exploratory
d. Cross-sectional
e. Longitudinal
Question 32
Qualitative research seeks to _____ theory while quantitative
research _____ it.
Choose one answer.
a. examine, interprets
b. build, tests
c. test, understands

56. d. apply, builds
e. justify, applies
Question 33
Which of the following is true of quantitative research?
Choose one answer.
a. It uses a nonprobability sampling method
b. Results are generalizable
c. Data analysis is ongoing during the project
d. Sample sizes are generally small
e. It uses multiple data collection methods
Which type of sampling technique involves selecting research
participants with no attempt at generating a statistically
representative sample?
Choose one answer.
a. Probability
b. Nonprobability

57. c. Random
d. Systematic
e. Cluster
Question 35
Which type of nonprobability sampling technique involves
choosing participants arbitrarily for their unique characteristics,
experiences, attitudes, or perceptions?
Choose one answer.
a. Random sampling
b. Purposive sampling
c. Convenience sampling
d. Snowball sampling
e. Quota sampling
Snowball sampling is a nonprobability sampling technique in
which _____.
Choose one answer.
a. participants are chosen arbitrarily for their unique
characteristics, experiences, or attitudes

58. b. participants are chosen and then refer others with similar or
different characteristics
c. researchers select any readily available individuals as
participants
d. researchers systematically select participants from a sampling
frame
e. researchers chose readily available individuals as participants
but seek to ensure a good mix of demographic characteristics
Question 37
Which type of nonprobability sampling technique is most useful
when individuals with the desired characteristics, experiences,
or attitudes are difficult to identify or reach?
Choose one answer.
a. Random sampling
b. Purposive sampling
c. Convenience sampling
d. Snowball sampling
e. Quota sampling
Question 38

59. Jane is conducting interviews in order to develop a customer
profile for her client. She customizes each interview to each
participant and does not ask specific questions. What type of
interview format is Jane using?
Choose one answer.
a. Structured
b. Semistructured
c. Unstructured
d. Closed-ended
e. Direct interviewing
Question 39
Which of the following is true of structured interviews?
Choose one answer.
a. Permits direct comparability of responses
b. Encourages variation in questions
c. Interviewer probes may bias answers
d. Responses are closed-ended

60. e. All of the above
Which type of interview requires the least amount of skill and
creativity on the part of the interviewer?
Choose one answer.
a. Unstructured
b. Structured
c. Semistructured
d. Exploratory
e. Briefing
Which of the following channels of communication would not
be used when conducting interviews?
Choose one answer.
a. Face-to-face
b. Telephone
c. Chat room
d. Mail

61. e. Instant messaging
When using the _____ projective technique, participants are
asked to write the dialog for a cartoon picture.
Choose one answer.
a. word association
b. picture association
c. thematic apperception test
d. empty balloons
e. laddering
Question 43
When using _____, participants are asked to relate the
properties of one thing or person or brand to another.
Choose one answer.
a. imagination exercises
b. picture association
c. the thematic apperception test
d. empty balloons

62. e. laddering
Question 44
In a study of attitudes toward buying fake goods, participants
are asked to complete this sentence: "People who buy fake
Louis Vuitton handbags are..." This is an example of a(n) _____
projective technique.
Choose one answer.
a. picture association
b. empty balloons
c. sentence completion
d. imagination exercise
e. personification
Question 45
How many participants are typically in a mini-group interview?
Choose one answer.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 2 to 6

63. d. 6 to 10
e. Up to 20
Which statement below best reflects the general rule regarding
how many group interviews should be conducted for a given
research project?
Choose one answer.
a. Conduct interviews until no new insight is gained
b. Use at least 3 groups for every geographic region involved
c. Include groups of men only, women only, and men and
women combined
d. The more homogeneous the groups, the more groups are
needed
e. All of the above are true
Question 47
Focus groups should not be used when _____.
Choose one answer.
a. facing a high-risk decision
b. stimulating new ideas for products

64. c. obtaining general background about a topic
d. uncovering perceptions about a brand
e. diagnosing problems
Question 48
The objective of a(n) _____ is to obtain multiple perspectives of
a single organization, situation, event, or process at a point in
time or over a period of time.
Choose one answer.
a. life history
b. oral history
c. case history
d. cultural history
e. semantic map
Question 49
Which type of research is designed to address complex,
practical problems using brainstorming, followed by sequential
trial-and-error attempts until the desired results are achieved?
Choose one answer.
a. Case history

65. b. Action research
c. Causal research
d. Grounded theory
e. Ethnography
Question 50
Which term below is used to describe the combining of several
qualitative methods or combining qualitative with quantitative
methods?
Choose one answer.
a. Triangulation
b. Dyadic support
c. Inter-rater reliability
d. Projection
e. Component sorts
The problem or opportunity that requires a business decision on

66. the part of the decision maker is called a _____.
Choose one answer.
a. management dilemma
b. research problem
c. challenge
d. measurement approach
e. return on business investment
Question 2
Intuitive decision makers tend to base business decisions on
_____.
Choose one answer.
a. business research
b. secondary data
c. primary data
d. proprietary research
e. all of the above

67. Question 3
Visionary decision makers tend to base business decisions on
_____.
Choose one answer.
a. proprietary business research
b. instinct
c. secondary data
d. past experience
e. all of the above
Question 4
Some organizations make decisions based on past experience,
instincts, or secondary data searches. These organizations are
operating at the _____ tier of the hierarchy of business decision
makers.
Choose one answer.
a. top
b. middle
c. base
d. pinnacle

68. e. information
Question 5
Business research may be considered unnecessary when _____.
Choose one answer.
a. management has insufficient resources to conduct an
appropriate study
b. the risk associated with the decision at hand is low
c. the information is applicable to the critical decision
d. both a and b
e. both a and c
6
Which of the following is not a required characteristic of good
research?
Choose one answer.
a. Clearly defined purpose
b. Detailed research process
c. Focused on theory

69. d. Thorough research design
e. Recognition of limitations
Question 7
For the limitations of a study to be revealed appropriately, the
researcher should _____.
Choose one answer.
a. compare the desired procedure with the actual procedure
b. compare the desired sample with the actual sample
c. ensure that the recommendations do not exceed the scope of
the study
d. address the time restraints imposed on the study
e. both a and b
Question 8
Which characteristic of good research involves distinguishing
between the organization's symptoms, its problems, the
manager's perception of the problems, and the research
problem?
Choose one answer.
a. Clearly defined purpose

70. b. Detailed research process
c. Thorough research design
d. High ethical standards
e. Justifiable conclusions
Question 9
Which of the following is not included in the statement of the
decision problem?
Choose one answer.
a. Scope
b. Limitations
c. Precise meaning of all terms
d. Desired procedures
e. Organizational symptoms
Question 10
The goal of the research design is to maximize the _____ of the
results.
Choose one answer.
a. objectivity

71. b. subjectivity
c. profitability
d. morality
e. reportability
11
Are any of the following not a good reason for managers to be
well grounded in basic research?
Choose one answer.
a. Do research for themselves.
b. Make competent decisions on whether to make or 'buy'
research from researchers outside the firm.
c. Define their own needs and form researchable questions for
the specialist.
d. Judge the logic of a research approach.
e. All are good reasons.
Question 12
Which of the following is pure rather than applied research?

72. Choose one answer.
a. Sleep duration, as impacting work efficiency.
b. Disruption of cognitive ability under stress.
c. The relationship between leadership traits and corporate
success.
d. Work towards the discovery of a possible new element.
e. Comparing brand logos after a change.
Question 13
Direct observation of phenomena, empirically testable
hypotheses, and the ability to rule out rival hypotheses are all
essential tenets of the _____.
Choose one answer.
a. experiential method
b. scientific method
c. intuitive process
d. strategic management process
e. account planning philosophy

73. Question 14
Which form of argument presents a conclusion based on reasons
or proof?
Choose one answer.
a. Induction
b. Deduction
c. Logic
d. Philosophy
e. Exposition
Question 15
_____ is a form of reasoning that draws a conclusion from one
or more particular facts or pieces of evidence.
Choose one answer.
a. Induction
b. Deduction
c. Empiricism
d. Logic

74. e. Association
16
_____ occurs when we observe a fact and ask, "Why is this?"
Choose one answer.
a. Deduction
b. Induction
c. Exposition
d. Empiricism
e. Curiosity
Question 17
_____ is the process by which we test whether a hypothesis is
capable of explaining the fact.
Choose one answer.
a. Deduction
b. Induction
c. Exposition
d. Empiricism

75. e. Curiosity
Question 18
Concepts are more _____, while constructs are more _____.
Choose one answer.
a. concrete, abstract
b. abstract, concrete
c. intangible, tangible
d. conceptual, factual
e. intuitive, logical
Question 19
Which term below refers to a construct that is presumed to
exist, but can only be inferred from data?
Choose one answer.
a. Conceptual scheme
b. Hypothetical construct
c. Operational definition

76. d. Confounding variable
e. Extraneous variable
Question 20
Which term below refers to an event, act, characteristic, trait, or
attribute that can be measured and to which we assign
categorical values?
Choose one answer.
a. Construct
b. Concept
c. Variable
d. Schema
e. Model
21
Jason is using the demographic variables of highest level of
educational attainment (high school graduate, some college,
college graduate, graduate school) and ethnicity (Asian,
African-American, Caucasian, Hispanic, other) to describe
survey respondents. Both are examples of _____ variables.
Choose one answer.
a. dichotomous

77. b. discrete
c. continuous
d. dependent
e. mediating
Question 22
Which variable listed below is the variable measured, predicted,
or otherwise monitored and expected to be affected by
manipulation of another variable?
Choose one answer.
a. Criterion
b. Moderator
c. Independent
d. Predictor
e. Extraneous
Question 23
An increase in hours of television viewing leads to increases in
the sales of snack foods. This is an example of a_____.
Choose one answer.

78. a. research question
b. descriptive hypothesis
c. correlational hypothesis
d. causal hypothesis
e. dichotomous hypothesis
Question 24
Which of the following is an explanatory hypothesis?
Choose one answer.
a. Young women purchase fewer meats than women who are 35
years of age or older.
b. Sales of vegetarian foods vary by season.
c. An increase in family income leads to an increase in the
percentage of income spent on housing.
d. Real estate investment trusts (REITs) experienced a record
level of profitability in 2004.
e. People in the South tend to rate the President more favorably
than do people in the North.

79. Question 25
Which of the following is not one of the conditions necessary
for a hypothesis to be considered strong?
Choose one answer.
a. Adequate for its purpose
b. Addresses the presence of extraneous variables
c. Testable
d. Better than rival hypotheses
e. All of the following are necessary conditions
26
The role of a model is to _____ while a theory's role is to
_____.
Choose one answer.
a. represent, explain
b. explain, represent
c. propose, prove
d. describe, predict

80. e. examine, experiment
Question 27
Which type of model allows the researcher to visualize
numerous variables and relationships?
Choose one answer.
a. Descriptive
b. Predictive
c. Normative
d. Correlational
e. Planning
Question 28
The process of stating the basic dilemma and then developing
other questions by progressively breaking down the original
question into more specific ones is called the _____.
Choose one answer.
a. research question
b. management-research-question hierarchy
c. management dilemma

81. d. management question
e. investigative question
Question 29
Who answers measurement questions?
Choose one answer.
a. Management decision makers
b. Researchers
c. Field workers
d. Participants
e. Statisticians
Question 30
Who answers investigative questions?
Choose one answer.
a. Management decision makers
b. Researchers
c. Field workers

82. d. Participants
e. Statisticians
31
To satisfactorily answer a research question, researchers must
first answer _____ questions.
Choose one answer.
a. management
b. investigative
c. measurement
d. dilemma
e. deductive
Question 32
The quantifiable characteristic, attribute, or outcome on which a
choice decision will be made is called a _____.
Choose one answer.
a. decision theory
b. decision rule

83. c. ex post facto evaluation
d. decision variable
e. success probability
Question 33
Which of the following statements is false regarding the
evaluation of alternatives?
Choose one answer.
a. The selection of alternatives is determined by the decision
variable chosen and the decision rule used
b. Each alternative must be explicitly stated
c. A decision variable is defined by an outcome that may be
measured
d. A decision rule is determined by which outcomes may be
compared
e. all of the above are true
Question 34
Which of the following terms fails to capture the meaning of a
research design?
Choose one answer.
a. Map

84. b. Blueprint
c. Manual
d. Dictionary
e. Guidebook
Question 35
A _____ is a trial collection of data to detect weaknesses in the
design or instrument.
Choose one answer.
a. test market
b. census
c. sample
d. pilot test
e. sampling frame
36
All of the following are benefits of pilot tests except _____.
Choose one answer.

85. a. provision of proxy data for probability sampling
b. identification of measurement errors
c. detection of weaknesses in research design
d. sensitization of respondents to the purpose of the study
e. all of the above are benefits
Question 37
Information collected from participants, by observation, or from
secondary sources is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. response
b. data
c. knowledge
d. fact
e. perceptual content
Question 38
Which type of sample provides a group of participants who are
most representative of the target population?

86. Choose one answer.
a. Census
b. Judgment
c. Probability
d. Nonprobability
e. Primary
Question 39
During the _____ stage, the analyst will look for patterns of
responses to the survey questions.
Choose one answer.
a. data editing
b. data collection
c. data analysis
d. sampling
e. reporting
Question 40

87. Ensuring consistency among respondents, locating omissions,
and reducing errors in recording are all benefits of _____.
Choose one answer.
a. data collection
b. data editing
c. sampling
d. coding
e. data analysis
41
Reducing data to a manageable size, developing summaries, and
applying statistical techniques are all aspects of _____.
Choose one answer.
a. sampling
b. data collection
c. pilot testing
d. data analysis
e. data transformation

88. Question 42
A synopsis of the problem, findings, and recommendations are
provided in the ____ section of a research report.
Choose one answer.
a. executive summary
b. abstract
c. overview
d. implementation
e. technical appendix
Question 43
A researcher who is method-bound is likely to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. be responsible for data analysis
b. utilize a probability sample
c. prefer one research approach over all others
d. mine a client's database

89. e. all of the above
Question 44
Which of the following is not a common research process
problem?
Choose one answer.
a. Politically motivated research
b. Database strip-mining
c. Unresearchable questions
d. Ill-defined management problems
e. Pilot testing
Question 45
Ill-defined problems are those that _____.
Choose one answer.
a. cannot be expressed completely or easily
b. cannot be answered
c. can be answered through data mining
d. cannot be addressed with secondary data

90. e. develop in method-bound research projects
46
Planning the research design involves decisions regarding
_____.
Choose one answer.
a. data collection mode
b. type of study
c. measurement
d. sampling plans
e. all of the above
Question 47
Which of the following questions is considered when discussing
the management dilemma?
Choose one answer.
a. How can management eliminate negative symptoms?
b. What does the manager need to know to choose the best
alternative from the available sources of action?
c. What is the recommended course of action?

91. d. What symptoms cause management concern?
e. What should be asked or observed to obtain the information
the manager needs?
Question 48
Which type of management question asks "What do we want to
achieve?"
Choose one answer.
a. Choice of purpose
b. Evaluation of solutions
c. Troubleshooting
d. Control
e. Concern
Question 49
The fundamental weakness in the research process is _____.
Choose one answer.
a. incorrectly defining the research question
b. identifying a flawed sampling frame

92. c. misdefining the target population
d. failing to identify all relevant secondary information
e. skipping the exploratory phase
Question 50
Questions that the researcher must answer to satisfactorily
arrive at a conclusion about the research question are called
_____ questions.
Choose one answer.
a. management
b. research
c. investigative
d. measurement
e. hypothetical