1. The document provides multiple choice questions related to software testing concepts and terms. It covers topics like test case design, test levels, defect management, risk analysis, test techniques and tools. 2. Several questions test knowledge of terms related to test coverage, test types, integration testing techniques, defect prioritization and analysis. Other topics assessed include test planning, test metrics, compatibility testing and quality perspectives. 3. The document contains 75 multiple choice questions to evaluate understanding of key software testing concepts and best practices. The breadth of topics covered provides a comprehensive skills assessment.

1. 1) Test Case Coverage can be measured by ____________________.
a. Global data coverage
b. Statement Coverage
c. All of the listed options
d. User specified data coverage
e. Traceability
2) Functional testing that verifies the application functions in accordance with user-specified requirements is called
__________________.
a. User Acceptance testing
b. Regression testing
c. Ease of Use
d. Correctness
3) Test technique to simulate system disaster to verify manual procedures are adequate is called __________.
a. Volume testing
b. Disaster testing
c. Stress
d. Security testing
4) When we talk about analysis performed by executing the program code, we are talking about ______________.
a. Force field analysis
b. Dynamic analysis
c. None of the listed options
d. Formal analysis
5) The following entrance criteria are prerequisites to test plan EXCEPT:
a. People Issues
b. Constraints
c. Test Objectives
d. KT document
6) Which of the following are the important elements of the control environment?
a. Both integrity & ethical values
b. Integrity
c. Integrity only
d. Ethical values
7) A white box testing technique that executes possible combinations of condition outcomes in each decision is
_____________.
a. Condition Coverage
b. Decision/condition coverage
c. Decision coverage
d. Statement coverage
8) The testing technique that is used to verify multiple authorization procedures to perform properly is called
________________.
a. Error handling
b. Recovery
c. Security
d. Control

2. 9) The process of verifying the consistency, completeness and correctness of software at each stage of the development
lifecycle is ______________.
a. Lifecycle testing
b. Leadership
c. Management
d. All of the listed options
10) Which of the following is an Informal Analysis of the program source code yielding computer software ready for
testing?
a. Functional Review
b. Code Inspection
c. Code Verification
d. Code Walkthrough
11) Which among the following is a primary cause of delays in acknowledging a defect?
a. Inability to reproduce the defect
b. Defect caused by user error or misunderstanding
c. Defect is not valid
d. No one else has reported a defect like that
12) Which one of the following statement is true about defects?
a. All of the listed options
b. A single defect can cause millions of failures
c. A defect has greater impact even if it does not affect customer and the operation of the system
d. Defects cannot be found in the supporting documentation
13) Computer systems are interconnected into cycles of chains such that problems in one can cascade into and affect
others. Identify this technological development from the following options, which impacts testing approach?
a. System Chains
b. Integration
c. Cascade effect
d. Domino effect
14) Walter Shewhart is known for his work on _______________.
a. Scatter Plot Diagrams
b. Run chart
c. Control chart
d. Histogram
15) Test objectives do not include which of the following?
a. Supplemental deliverables, such as application documentation.
b. Enabling the tester and project managers to gauge testing progress and success.
c. Guide to the development of test cases, procedures, and test data.
d. Enhancing of communication both within and outside of the project team by helping to define the scope of the
testing effort.
16) An operator verifies that all production jobs are run. This is ________________.
a. Production Planning
b. Disaster recovery
c. Quality Assurance
d. Quality Control
17) Which among the following is the most effective method to solve dispute regarding a defect?
a. Arbitration by software owner and arbitration by software development management

3. b. All of the listed options
c. Arbitration by software owner and arbitration by test manager
d. Arbitration by software development management
18) _________ is used to verify processing of a single transaction can be reconstructed and examine review trail to verify
the appropriate information.
a. Audit trail
b. Review trail
c. Authorization
d. Correctness
19) High priority activity in any defect management program should be __________.
a. to prevent defects
b. All of the listed options
c. to improve the process
d. to identify the best prevention techniques and implement them
20) Which among the following is the correct sequence to test execution?
a. All of the listed options
b. Identify test cases and test cycles, assign test scripts, set up test environments, review test cases
c. Set up test environment, identify test case, review test result, assign test scripts
d. Set up test environments, identify test cases and test cycles, assign test scripts, review test results
21) Which among the following techniques is used to create test data?
a. Test beds
b. Production data
c. All of the listed options
d. Scripting
22) With thorough testing it is possible to remove defects from a program prior to delivery to customer. State True or
False.
23) When does Test Design begin in SDLC?
a. Testing Phase
b. Low Level Design Phase
c. High Level Design Phase
d. Requirements Phase
24) The test schedule section does not include which of the following?
a. The types of tests that must be conducted.
b. Initial estimates for each activity.
c. Major test activities.
d. Sequence of tests.
e. Dependence on other project activities
25) Pareto voting is used in conjunction with _____________.
a. Statistical process control
b. Vital Few
c. 80-20
d. Cause and effect (Fishbone)
26) The result expected from entering the action is _____________.
a. Think time
b. Arrival rate

4. c. Sequence
d. Expected Result
27) The concept of defensive code involves ____________________.
a. adding throw() and catch()
b. None of the listed options
c. adding code to a program so that two parts of program must fail before a major
d. adding a syntax checker in middle of code
28) Which among the following is the most effective method for validating successful integration?
a. Test server components
b. Test client components
c. Test network
d. All of the listed options
e. Integrate client, server, network
29) Which of the following validates that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design?
a. Unit Testing
b. User Acceptance Testing
c. Integration Testing
d. System Testing
30) A document that describes an input, action or event and an expected response to determine if a feature of an
application is working correctly is called as ______________.
a. Flowchart
b. All of the listed options
c. Test case
d. Entrance criteria
31) ALE estimation stands for _____________.
a. Annual Loss estimation
b. Annual loss expectation
c. Actual loss expectation
d. Actual Loss estimation
32) Which technique is used in test case designing?
a. Boundary Value Analysis
b. Cause Effect Diagram
c. Equivalence Class Partitioning
d. All of the listed options
33) Testing defect correction includes ____________.
a. regression testing
b. All of the listed options
c. verification
d. validation
34) Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of Assessment?
a. Assessment is the thoughtful analysis of testing results, and then taking corrective action on the identified
weaknesses
b. Assessment is taking useful actions on the identified strengths
c. Assessment is the process of taking actions on the identified weaknesses
d. Assessment is the summarization of testing results, and then taking preventive action on the identified
weaknesses

5. 35) Compatibility testing for products involves all the following EXCEPT:
a. Certified and Supported client environments
b. High and low level sanity testing
c. Functional and non-functional compatibility
d. Client and Server side compatibility
36) Performing risk analysis during test planning include all EXCEPT:
a. Evaluate risks
b. Form the risk analysis team
c. Select testing priorities
d. Identify risks
37) Which among the following techniques is NOT used for negative testing?
a. Error Guessing
b. Equivalence Partitioning
c. State Transition
d. Boundary Value Analysis
38) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
a. Policies defines the areas in which processes will be developed
b. Policies are required in all the areas
c. Policies set directions
d. Policies are developed by senior managers
39) Verification methods include EXCEPT:
a. Test Execution
b. Static analyzers
c. Review
d. Walkthroughs
40) Risk analysis is a process which includes evaluating the following EXCEPT:
a. Risk
b. threat
c. control
d. Complexity
41) Which of the following lead to inability to translate user needs into technical requirements?
a. Miscommunication
b. Limited testing
c. Users inability to specify requirements in sufficient details
d. Failure to scan output documents
42) Which of the following statement about different risks type is correct?
a. It is not difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks.
b. Tactical risks are subsets at a higher level of the strategic risks.
c. Strategic risks are the high - level business risks faced by the software system.
43) Bottom-up integration testing has as its major advantage(s) so that _______________.
a. regression testing is not required
b. no stubs need to be written
c. no drivers need to be written
d. major decision points are tested early

6. 44) Which of the following Software Factors correctly reflects-? "Response time in an online system is within the time span
tolerance. Application workload can be completed in accordance with the application schedule. Changes to the system
can be incorporated within the agreed upon schedule."
a. Service Levels
b. Authorization
c. Continuity of Process
d. Audit Trail
e. File Integrity
45) Regression test level best suited for which type of transaction?
a. Multiple transaction multiple terminal
b. Single transaction single terminal
c. Single transaction multiple terminal
d. Multiple transaction single terminal
46) How do you track requirements in test case?
a. Requirements Document
b. None of the listed options
c. Traceability Matrix
d. Test Plan
47) Which of the following is not a perspective of quality?
a. Product - based
b. Transcendent
c. User - Based
d. Translucent
48) All are the risk associated with software development EXCEPT:
a. Repetition of errors
b. concentration of data
c. Inability to control technology
d. Skill of resources
49) Test tool to conduct a recovery test to determine that it can be performed within required time frame is called
_____________.
a. Recovery testing
b. Tracing
c. Disaster test
d. Confirmation or Examination
50) Following lead to cascading of errors EXCEPT:
a. Inadequate testing
b. Change of scope
c. Miscommunication
d. Limited testing
51) The primary goal of defect management is __________________.
a. to prevent defects
b. to minimize the impact of defects
c. to find defect as quickly as possible
d. All of the listed options
52) Testing that attempts to find the level of processing at which, system can no longer function effectively is called
_______________.

7. a. Spike testing
b. Performance testing
c. Load testing
d. Stress testing
53) In designing a test strategy, _________ becomes the objective of testing.
a. to present a test process that can reduce cost and time
b. to reduce the risk in the system
c. to identify the phase of System Development Life Cycle in which testing will occur
54) Priority of defects should be given to one that causes data corruption, system crash and security violations. State True
or False. False
55) To develop a software test matrix, follow these steps EXCEPT:
a. Define tests as required
b. Definite test plan
c. Define verification tests
d. Prepare the software test matrix
56) Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of good test case?
a. A good test case should be repeatable but not traceable to the requirements
b. It should be repeatable
c. It is not traceable to the requirements
d. Clear to execute
57) When should you stop testing?
a. When you run out of time
b. When all test cases are done
c. When quality goals established in the beginning of the projects are met
d. None of the listed options
58) Synchronization is not one of the considerations to incorporate into script execution. State True or False.
59) Cost of conformance includes ______________.
a. Studies
b. Survey
c. Training Survey etc, Studies and Survey
d. Rework
60) ___________ in a test phase verifies the application being tested could correctly communicate with interrelated
application system.
a. Regression testing
b. Unit testing
c. Coupling
d. Functional testing
61) Which among the following does NOT form the part of acquisition activities for informal procurement?
a. Score candidates
b. Acquisition plan
c. RFP generation(only for formal procurement) applying selection criteria(informal)
d. Select tool
62) Defect is anything that causes customer dissatisfaction and this view is called __________.
a. usability

8. b. fit for use
c. ease of use
63) Fixing defect involves _________________.
a. removing defects from system
b. correcting and verifying one or more deliverables
c. All of the listed options
d. reviewing test data, checklist
64) The largest cost of quality is from production failure. State True or False. True
65) Which of the following testing demonstrates key functional capabilities by testing a string of units that accomplish a
specific function in the application?
a. Thread testing
b. Black box testing
c. Unit testing
d. Integration testing
66) Following are the key concepts of the process engineering program EXCEPT:
a. Program is driven by management policies
b. Process is driven by testing projects
c. Management provides an organizational structure for the workers to develop their own standards and
procedures
d. Absolute compliance to standard and procedures is required
67) CBOK is prepared and presented by ________________.
a. ISO
b. QAI
c. IEEE
d. ANSI
68) Following are the guidelines adhered to tool usage to be more effective and efficient EXCEPT:
a. Testers should not be permitted to use tools for which they have not received formal training
b. Tester should work together to build open source testing tools
c. The use of test tools should be incorporated into test processes so that the use of tools is mandatory, not
optional
d. Testers should have access to an individual in their organization, or the organization that developed the tool
69) Without preparation of a test plan, at an earlier testing phase, tests may be _______________.
a. economical
b. effective
c. None of the listed options
d. uneconomical and ineffective
70) Developing scripts to test when there are two or more users accessing the same file at the same time is
___________________.
a. Regression scripting
b. Integration scripting
c. Stress/performance scripting
d. Pseudo concurrency scripting
71) The magnitude of a risk can be determined by any of the following means EXCEPT:
a. consensus
b. hit and trial

9. c. intuition
d. risk formula
72) _____________________ is used to record data as it is gathered.
a. Check sheet
b. All of the listed options
c. Certification
d. Checkpoint
73) Steps involved in defect discovery are ________, _________ and __________.
a. Acknowledge, Find, Report
b. Find, Acknowledge, Report
c. Find, Report, Acknowledge
74) These document test prerequisites. This may include skill level of test resources, budget, and state of the application,
tools available and or entrance or exit criteria. Which one of the following is this document?
a. Assumptions
b. Test design
c. Test data management
d. Communication approach
75) Which of the following is a correct definition of threat?
a. Threat is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application.
Threat includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws.
b. Threat an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining
organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or
combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in
dollars or other assets.
c. Threat is a design, implementation, or operations flaw that may be exploited by a threat; the flaw causes the
computer system or application to operate in a fashion different from its published specifications and to result
in destruction or misuse of equipment or data.
d. Threat is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its
computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information
resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk
analysis.
76) To log ‘incidents’ which of the following is used?
a. Test log
b. User Report
c. Defect tracking system
d. Test script
77) Which one of the following is the correct definition for Policy?
a. Managerial desires and intents concerning either process (intended objectives) or products (desired
attributes)
b. The measure used to evaluate products and identify nonconformance. The basis upon which adherence to
policies is measured
c. The step-by-step method that ensures that standards are met
d. Policies provide direction, standards are the rules or measures

10. 78) Test efficiency is always directly proportional to ______________.
a. Functional Coverage
b. Product Delivery
c. Product Cost
d. Product Reliability
79) _________________ is a process that follows the flow of computer logic at execution time.
a. Test scripts
b. Test data
c. None of the listed options (tracing)
d. Test tools
80) A change has been done to the design of an application. Which of the following is required after this change is
implemented?
a. Subsystem retesting
b. All of the listed options
c. Design re-verification
d. None of the listed options
e. Unit retesting
81) “Post Mortems Review" is In Process Review, True or False
82) Complexity can be measured by the following EXCEPT:
a. Business Complexity
b. Documentation complexity
c. Logic complexity
d. Size of module / unit
83) Which among the following is the best way to identify critical risks?
a. Identify type of defects most likely to occur and to identify defects that have greatest impact on system
b. Identify type of defects most likely to occur and identify flaws in process
c. Identify defects that have greatest impact on system
d. All of the listed options
84) During software acceptance, the testing technique that is relied upon for more accurate results (than any other testing
techniques listed below) is ___________.
a. Incremental
b. Thread
c. Black Box
d. White Box
85) Which among the following does NOT form the part of acquisition activities for formal procurement?
a. RFP Generations
b. Solicitation of Proposals
c. User review of candidates
d. Source Selection
86) Which among process of analyzing and correcting syntactic, logic, and other errors identified during testing?
a. Desk Checking
b. Dynamic Analysis
c. Error guessing

11. d. Debugging
87) Following are examples of satisfaction metrics EXCEPT:
a. Ease of use
b. Customer subjective assessment
c. Acceptance criteria met
d. Customer satisfaction
88) The following tasks are provided to help understand what is necessary to develop a good test plan EXCEPT:
a. Analyze the test plan
b. Write the test plan
c. Build the test plan
d. Understand the characteristics of the software being developed
89) Joe is performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a certain field be populated by using a
dropdown box containing a list of values.
From the above what kind of testing is Joe performing?
a. White-box testing
b. Black-box testing
c. Alpha testing
d. Regression testing
90) Due to a change in design, the requirements for an already coded critical software component got modified in its
entirety. The developer had to modify the code based on the new requirements. Testing team is to choose the
appropriate type of regression test to minimize the impact to the project schedule. Which type of regression test
would you choose?
a. System Testing
b. Regional Regression Test
c. Full Regression Test
d. Unit Regression Test
91) The Table of Contents of a test plan might contain the following EXCEPT:
a. Test Matrix
b. Assumptions
c. Test Scope
d. Test Objective
92) When evaluating the paybacks received from various test techniques, _____ testing produces a higher defect yield
than other techniques when planned and executed correctly.
a. Black Box
b. Incremental
c. Thread
d. White Box
93) Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management?
a. Create constancy of purpose
b. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work force
c. Mobility of management
d. Adopt a new philosophy
94) Given the following costs: User documentation - $ 1000 Rework - $ 1500 Design - $ 400 Review of User Documents - $
800, Code review - $ 1200, The cost of Quality is ______________.
a. $2,400

12. b. $5,000
c. $3,500
d. $4,000
95) Which among the following are the techniques to prevent defects?
a. Quality Assurance, Quality Control, defensive design and code and finally Methodology and Standards
b. Quality Assurance, Training and Education, Quality Control and Methodology & Standards
c. Quality Assurance, Training and Education, defensive design and code and finally Methodology and
Standards
d. Training and Education and Methodology and Standards
96) Risk involves everything EXCEPT:
a. test planning
b. unauthorized disclosure
c. incorrect use of computer
d. loss of information
97) Regression analysis is used for the following EXCEPT:
a. Projecting performance based on multiple variables
b. Cause and effect relationship of two variables
c. Probing to determine the cause of some unfavorable event
d. Find the regression candidates
98) Which among the following is a suggested prioritization method to follow?
a. Major, Minor, High
b. Critical, Major, Minor
c. Critical, Major, Minor, High
d. Critical, Major, Low
99) The functional testing that verifies the procedures to balance file function properly is called ______________.
a. Compatibility testing
b. Compliance testing
c. File Integrity
d. Integration testing
100)Which among the following are major concerns testers have on entering the test execution?
a. All of the listed options
b. Software not in a testable mode
c. Significant problems will not be uncovered during testing
d. Inadequate time or resources
101)Which of the following is a correct definition of risk?
a. None of the listed options
b. Risk is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application. Risks
include both hazards and events that can trigger flaws.
c. Risk is an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining
organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or
combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in
dollars or other assets.
d. Risk is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its
computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information
resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing
risk analysis.
102)Following are important to perform the analysis of the test process EXCEPT:

13. a. Effectiveness and efficiency of the test process
b. Test program meets the test objective
c. Maturity of the test processes
d. test methodology is used correctly
103)Decision rules used to determine whether a software item or feature passes or fails a test is Pass/Fail criteria. State
True or False. True
104)Which among the following is a parse program looking for violations of company standards?
a. compliance checkers
b. Affinity diagram
c. Checkpoint review
d. Benchmarking
105)Which among the following is a way to leverage a dynamic analyzer during system testing?
a. Determine testing levels
b. All of the listed options
c. Spend time to do a complete test plan
d. Generate test cases based on black box test techniques
106)__________ testing involves continuous testing of the solution even after software plans are complete and the tested
system is implemented.
a. Life Cycle Testing
b. System Testing
c. Maintenance Testing
d. End-to-End Testing
107)Which of the following testing techniques are used in the Acceptance Testing stage?
a. Thread Testing
b. Black Box Testing
c. Both White box and Black box testing
d. Incremental Testing
e. White Box Testing
108)………………………………. is an independent appraisal activity within an organization for the review of operations, and is a
service to management.
a. Regression Testing
b. Quality Assurance
c. All of the listed options
d. Internal Auditing
e. Adhoc Testing
109)The process of generating test sets for structural testing based on use of complexity or coverage metrics is called
_________________.
a. Metric based test data generation
b. Quality function deployment
c. Cyclomatic complexity
d. Regression testing
110)Testers insert additional code into a program to collect information about program behavior during program
execution. This is called as ____________.
a. Instrumentation

14. b. Integration Testing
c. Dynamic assertion
d. Inspection
111)Activities associated with risk management are ___________.
a. Risk Mitigation
b. Risk Reduction Methods
c. Risk Analysis
d. Risk elimination
e. Contingency planning
112)Defects generally occur due to following EXCEPT:
a. Unspecified requirement
b. Immature process
c. Incorrectly implemented specification
d. Specified requirement not built
e. None of the listed options
113)Attitude that has shaped a negative view of testing and testers is that ______________.
a. letting testers find the problems is not the only way to debug
b. testers should not be blamed for the defects found in production
c. giving testers less time to test will reduce the chance that they will find defects
d. testers need training
1. Testers hold up implementation.
2. Giving testers less time to test will reduce the chance that they will find defects.
3. Letting the testers find problems is an appropriate way to debug.
4. Defects found in production are the fault of the testers.
5. Testers do not need training; only programmers need training.
114)_________________ permits the testing of programs without data.
a. Flow chart
b. Training
c. Symbolic Execution
d. Checklist
115)Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in successful software testing process?
a. Specify requirements in a quantifiable manner
b. Consider using independent test terms
c. All of the listed options
d. Conduct formal technical review prior to testing
116)Amount of resources allocated to each test condition is determined by ______________.
a. Ranking
b. Global data coverage
c. Both global data coverage and ranking
d. Battlemap
117)Testers get involved with the project only when testing steps are about to begin. State True or False.
118)Techniques for Reporting a defect may include _______________.
a. All of the listed options
b. Computer forums, Electronic mails, help desk
c. Static
d. Operational

15. 119)Which among the following are the key elements in the defect management process?
a. Management Reporting
b. Defect Prevention
c. Deliverable base lining
d. All of the listed options
e. Process Improvement
120)Which among the following is the quantitative measure of the current level of performance?
a. Benchmarking
b. Pareto analysis
c. Affinity diagram
d. Baseline
121)The test technique to enter erroneous data to determine it cannot affect the integrity of the files is called
_____________.
a. Error handling
b. File integrity
c. Functional
d. Security
122)Risk analysis is a process which includes evaluating the following EXCEPT:
a. Complexity
b. control
c. threat
d. Risk
123)Regression testing mainly helps in ___________.
a. checking for side-effects of fixes
b. ensuring high level sanity
c. retesting fixed defects
d. checking the core gaps
124)Process Engineering Manager includes the following EXCEPT:
a. Ensure involved parties are adequately trained
b. Promote the concept of Process engineering
c. Be the driving force behind the process
d. Be highly certified and qualified in process areas
125)To define test objectives testers need not to do following EXCEPT:
a. Validation process for incoming external data
b. Data bridges and filters
c. Define each objective so that you can reference it by a number.
d. Development of a model showing the internal and external dependency links among core business areas,
processes, and information systems
126)Review falls under which category of Cost of Quality?
a. Preventive Costs
b. Failure Costs
c. None of the listed options
d. Appraisal Costs
127)Purpose of software reviews is to uncover errors and defects in work products so they can be removed before moving
on to the next phase. State True or False. True

16. 128)Testing that simulates problem in original environment so that an alternative processing environment can be tested is
_____________.
a. Recovery testing
b. Disaster testing
c. Performance testing
d. Compliance testing
129)Objective of integration testing is to _________________.
a. validate the application design and phase and prove application components can be successfully integrated
b. integrate all components
c. application integrated correctly into its environment
d. All of the listed options
130)A defect can be defined in ____________.
a. Producer’s viewpoint and tester’s viewpoint
b. All of the listed options
c. Producer’s viewpoint and customer’s viewpoint
d. Customer’s viewpoint
131)___________ is identifying defects in the stage in which they were created, rather than in later testing stages.
a. Defect Validation
b. Down stream
c. Stage Containment
d. Risk Strategy
132)QAI has identified the following six tests that each measure and metric should be subjected to, EXCEPT:
a. Consistency
b. Validity
c. Reliability
d. Calibration
e. Ease of Use and Simplicity
f. Timeliness
133)Following are the main advantages of using work processes EXCEPT:
a. Improves communication
b. Enable knowledge transfer
c. Improves interpersonal skills
d. Improves Productivity
134)When conducting risk analysis, the following major components are taken into consideration EXCEPT:
a. The probability of losing a customer.
b. The probability that the negative event will occur.
c. The potential loss or impact associated with the event.
135)Testing on, above and below the edges of classes is called _____________.
a. Boundary Value Analysis
b. Equivalence Class Partitioning
c. Test Combinations
d. Cause Effect Diagram
136)The development of an effective test plan involves the following tasks EXCEPT:
a. Develop the test matrix
b. Define test administration

17. c. Collect test metrics
d. Set test objectives
137)The risk team can use which one of the following methods of risk identification?
a. Risk Template
b. Risk Control chart
c. Risk analysis plan
d. Risk analysis scenario and risk checklist
138)At a minimum, the developer should always execute Unit Regression testing when a change is made. True
139)Unit testing is conducted in the development environment. True
140)Following are examples of Intentional act EXCEPT:
a. Communication protocol may fail to positively identify the transmitter or receiver of a message.
b. Messages may be recorded and replayed into the system.
c. If encryption (i.e., use of codes) is used, keys may be stolen.
d. False messages may be inserted into the system.
141)One of the most effective methods for estimating expected impact of risk is _____________.
a. Annual loss Expectation formula
b. None of the listed options
c. Pareto Analysis
d. Risk analysis
142)Defect Density is calculated by ______________.
a. Total no. of Defects/ Effort
b. Valid Defects/ Total no. of Defect
c. Invalid Defects/ Valid Defects
d. Valid Defects/ Effort
143)Following are the valid Defect Severity EXCEPT:
a. Major
b. Showstopper
c. Minor
d. Critical
144)The best reason for using Independent software testing teams is that ___________________.
a. testers do not get involved with the project until testing begins
b. strangers will test the software mercilessly
c. quality of software is given as much consideration as the project budget and timeline
d. software developers do not need to do any testing
145)Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. Policies are set by Test managers
b. Policies are guidelines
c. Policies help in defining products
d. Policies are set by senior management
146)Which one of the following is NOT the part of the test process improvement model?
a. Analyze assessment output
b. Conduct Assessment
c. Derive new processes
d. Initiate process improvement

18. 147)Test steps are grouped into manageable and schedulable units called ________________.
a. Structural Testing
b. Test Scenario
c. Test design specification
d. Test procedure specification: (specifying a sequence of actions for the execution of a test)
148)The purpose of software testing is to ___________.
a. validate the logical design
b. demonstrate that the application works properly
c. All of the listed options
d. detect the existence of defects
149) Test planning should begin ____p251___________.
a. after Design
b. before Requirement collection
c. at the time of Requirement definition
d. after Requirement collection
150) Infeasible path is a sequence of program statements that can be executed. False
151)The objective of _________________ is to assure that the requirements are covered for application in test design
document.
a. Operation and maintenance
b. Test Coverage
c. Management Directive
d. None of the listed options
152)________________ is a record of relevant details about execution of tests.
a. None of the listed options
b. Test log
c. Defect tracking sheet (incidence)
d. Test data
153)_________________ is responsible for conducting Test Readiness Review prior to start of testing.
a. Developer
b. Test Manager
c. None of the listed options
d. Development Manager
154)Requirement Checklist is an example for which of the following testing technique?
a. White Box testing
b. Black Box Testing
c. Requirement Study
d. Static Analysis
155) Integration testing should begin once unit testing for the components to be integrated is complete. State True
156)Minimizing expected impact of defect involves _______________.
a. reducing probability of risk becoming a problem
b. All of the listed options
c. eliminating the risk
d. reduce impact if there is a problem

19. 157)The inability of a system or component to perform its required functions within specified requirements is called
_______________.
a. error
b. Failure
c. defect
d. bug
158)A catchall term for all software defects or errors __________________.
a. Bug
b. Fault
c. Error
159)The types of conditions that cause erroneous or falsified input data include _____________.
a. Records in one format may be interpreted according to a different format
b. The evidence from intermediate processing is not retained
c. Early use of new software technology
d. Detailed analysis of the technology
160)Following are important factors in selecting the members of Process engineering committee EXCEPT:
a. Make long term assignment to Process engineering committee
b. Ensure that appropriate areas of interest are involved
c. Select the highest level manager who accepts the position
d. Select a tester who lot of experience in audits
161)_____________ testing verifies all the performance criteria have been achieved when the system is placed into
production.
a. Security testing
b. Compliance testing
c. System testing
d. User acceptance testing
162)One of the most commonly identified weaknesses in software testing is ________________.
a. lack of metrics
b. lack of skilled resources
c. lack of defects count
d. lack of time
163)Regression testing is _________________.
a. verify authorization rules have been properly implemented
b. ensuring functions are performed correctly
c. verification of changes to make sure older programs still works with new changes
164)The tool used to verify the operational system results are in compliance with organizations policies and procedure is
called _________________.
a. Tracing
b. Confirmation or Examination
c. Fact finding
d. Checklists and inspections
165)Run chart doesn’t help to ___________.
a. monitor a process
b. Track changes or trends
c. tracking observations in sequence or time order

20. d. find the problem areas
166)A set of Boolean conditions such that complete test sets for the conditions uncover the same errors is ___________.
a. Consistency
b. Consistent condition set
c. Complete test set: A test set containing data that causes each element of pre-specified set of Boolean
conditions to be true. In addition, each element of the test set causes at least one condition to be true.
d. Correctness
167)Deliverable base lining involves _____________.
a. risks and identify key deliverables
b. identify key deliverables and define standards for each deliverable
c. All of the listed options
d. risks and define standards for each deliverable
168)Performing risk analysis during test planning includes all EXCEPT:
a. Select testing priorities
b. Evaluate risks
c. Form the risk analysis team
d. Identify risks
169)Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things. False
170)Defects are measured in relation to ___________.
a. lines of code
b. total number of defects
c. development team size
d. project efforts
171)A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of decision outcomes covered by the test
cases designed is called ______________.
a. Decision Coverage
b. Basis path coverage
c. Modified decision coverage
d. condition coverage
172)The objective in Test design is to _____________.
a. minimize test maintenance costs
b. detect as many defects as possible
c. All of the listed options
d. minimize test execution cost
173)Testing for the existence or effectiveness of programmed controls requires using ___________.
a. Complex data
b. Valid data
c. Redundant data
d. Invalid data
174)Work Processes constitute the following EXCEPT:
a. Standard
b. Process
c. Procedure
d. Policy

21. 175)Guidelines to Writing the Test Plans are EXCEPT:
a. Finish early
b. Calculate the planning effort
c. Start Early
176)Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
a. 90 percent of all defects are caused by process problems
b. Reviews are generally greater than 65 percent efficient in finding defects
c. 60 percent of software defects originate in the requirements phase of the project
d. Over 50 percent of life cycle of software system is spent on requirements
e. Over 50% of the life cycle costs of a software system are spent on maintenance
177)Which among the following is an important attribute for test case?
a. Test Description & Expected Result
b. Test Description & Actual Result
c. Test Case ID & Expected Result
d. Expected Result and Actual Result
178)______________ is the method of testing the maintainability of the application system.
a. Inspections
b. Code Walkthroughs
c. Reviews
d. Functional testing
Compliance testing
179)Which among the following is a technique designed to ensure the process employed are adequate to produce the
desired result and process is being followed?
a. Quality Control
b. Testing Methodology
c. Quality Assurance
d. Testing Strategy
180)The effective Control environment strives for everything EXCEPT:
a. Attitude of integrity
b. Control consciousness and positive “tone at the top”
c. Competent people
d. Defect free product
181)Following are the guidelines to establish an organizational structure EXCEPT:
a. Establish a Process engineering committee
b. Let the standard Ad Hoc committees develop the technical standard
c. Process engineering committee
d. Process reengineering committee
1. Establish a Process Engineering Committee compromised of the most senior IT managers possible.
2. Represent all IT organizational areas on the Process Engineering Committee.
3. Appoint an individual as the Process Engineering Manager. (Note that this can be a part-time assignment.)
4. Appoint Ad Hoc Committees (i.e., special task forces) to develop individual standards and procedures.
5. Let the Standards Ad Hoc Committees develop the technical standard.
182)Which of the following Software quality Factors correctly reflects - "Employee gross pay can be substantiated by
supporting documentation. Sales tax paid to a specific state can be substantiated by the supporting invoices.
Payments made to vendors can be substantiated should the vendor disavow receiving the payment."

22. a. File Integrity
b. Audit Trail
c. Authorization
d. Continuity of Process
e. Service Levels
183)Removing or reducing which of the following can help in diminishing the undesirable behavior?
a. Promotion & Training
b. Incentive & Temptations
c. Training & Promotion
d. Incentive & Promotion
184)Which of the following is a correct definition of risk analysis?
a. Risk analysis is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or
application. Risk analysis includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws.
b. Risk analysis is an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining
organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or
combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in
dollars or other assets.
c. Risk analysis is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its
computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information
resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk
analysis.
d. None of the listed options
185)Some organizations divide people into four categories when attempting to identify issues EXCEPT:
a. People who will help the software system happen
b. People who will attempt to make the software system not happen
c. People who will hope the software system happens
d. People who will make the software system happen
e. People who will let the software system happen.
186)Check for defects in process for the primary aim of correcting or establishing new process. This is
a. Quality Control
b. Quality Assurance
c. Both Quality Control and Quality Assurance
d. None of the listed options
187)The following should be used to estimate ALE EXCEPT:
a. Calculate an ALE using the loss and frequency tables
b. Understanding of information services concepts and systems design
c. Make a preliminary assessment of the loss
d. Document the decision reached
188)Decision to stop test execution should be based upon ____________________.
a. successful use of specific test case design methodologies
b. All of the listed options
c. a percentage of coverage for each coverage category
d. rate of error detection falls below a specified threshold
189)Following lead to improper use of technology EXCEPT:
a. Early use of new hardware technology
b. Detailed analysis of the technology
c. Early use of new software technology

23. d. Improper skill
1. ƒ Systems analysts and systems programmers improperly skilled in the use of technology
2. ƒ Early user of new hardware technology
3. ƒ Early user of new software technology
4. ƒ Minimal planning for the installation of new hardware and software technology
190)Which of the following factor assures that data is processed in accordance with the intents of management for
processing of transactions?
a. Authorization
b. Maintainability
c. Access Control
d. Service Levels
191)When a defect is fixed in production rather than in requirement, how many times can this be expensive?
a. 1000 times
b. 10 times
c. 1 times
d. 100 times
192)Which among the following is the correct order in which Defect Resolution process should follow?
a. Schedule fix, Prioritize fix, fix defect, Report resolution
b. Prioritize fix, fix defect, Report Resolution, Schedule fix
c. Prioritize fix, Schedule fix, fix defect, Report resolution
193)Entering alphabetic characters when numeric characters are expected is not an example of test using valid data.
False
194)What is incremental testing?
a. Testing a string of units that accomplish a specific function in the application
b. Testing the interfaces between the unit - tested programs as well as between components
c. All of the listed options
d. Testing transaction flow, input validation and functional completeness in incremental order
195)Most common cause of defect is ________________.
a. failure to estimate
b. failure to assess risks
c. ambiguous or incomplete requirements
d. weak communication
196)Following are the most effective way of communicating moral guidance EXCEPT:
a. Verbal communication
b. Lead by examples
c. Written code of conduct
d. CMM and ISO standards
197)Inability to Substantiate Processing includes the following EXCEPT:
a. The cost of substantiating processing exceeds the benefits derived from the process
b. The evidence from intermediate processing is not retained
c. Users inability to specify requirements in sufficient details
d. Evidence is not retained long enough

24. 198)Test team should investigate the following characteristics in order to evaluate the potential magnitude of the risk
EXCEPT:
a. Assess the severity of potential failures
b. Identify the components for the system
c. Evaluate contingency plans for this system and activities
d. Build the test plan
199)A _______________ is a software item that is an object of testing.
a. Both proof of correctness and test item
b. Proof of correctness
c. Test item
200)Which among the following is an example of functional testing?
a. Condition coverage
b. Branch Coverage
c. Decision coverage
d. Cause-Effect Graphing (orange)
201)Difficulties surrounding the introduction of tools can arise in the following areas EXCEPT:
a. Testers skills
b. Obstacles in the computer environment
c. Organizational obstacles
d. Problems arising from the tools
202)Which among the following are common items to focus on during Integration testing?
a. All of the listed options
b. Performance and load lists on individual application components
c. Output interface file accuracy
d. Validation of links between the client and server
203)The reason for decomposing the strategic risks into tactical risks is to create test scenarios. True
204)Which of the following is not a category under tactical risks?
a. Size Risks
b. Resource Risks
c. Structural Risks
d. Technical Risks
205)A deliverable is subject to _________________ once it is base lined.
a. All of the listed options
b. Risk management
c. Defect Management
d. Configuration Management
e. Process Management
206)Most common reason for existence of large number of bugs in a software product is ___________.
a. error in code
b. incomplete testing
c. wrong use of tools and techniques
d. inadequate requirement analysis
207)Following are valid defect types EXCEPT:
a. Wrong
b. Extra
c. Change Request

25. d. Missing
208)System test should begin as soon as a minimal set of components has been integrated. (and successfully completed
integration testing . add this sentence then it’s right )State True or False
209)Which one of the following is not a valid step to collect Benchmark data?
a. Analysis Phase
b. Integration Phase
c. Planning Phase
d. Construction Phase
Action phase
210)Software testing activities should start _____________.
a. during the design stage
b. when the requirements have been formally documented
c. as soon as possible in development life cycle
d. as soon as the code is written
211)Which of the following statement is true about Functional Testing?
a. Testing where one wouldn’t think of
b. Testing of software’s structure logic
c. Possibility of redundant testing
d. Does not mimic real world situations
1. Potential of missing logical errors in software.
2. Possibility of redundant testing.
212)Severity is one which determines the order in which defects should be fixed. False
213)A testing method in which the test data are derived solely from the program structure is ______________.
a. white box testing
b. All of the listed options
c. Structural testing
d. Glass box testing
214)Examples of assumptions include EXCEPT:
a. Tools available.
b. Availability of test equipment.
c. Implementation of new test automation tools.
d. Skill level of test resources.
1. Skill level of test resources.
2. Test budget
3. State of the application at the start of testing.
4. Tools available.
5. Availability of test equipment.
215)These document test prerequisites. This may include skill level of test resources, budget, and state of the application,
tools available and or entrance or exit criteria. Which one of the following is this document?
a. Communication approach
b. Assumptions
c. Test data management
d. Test design

26. 216)Which among the following options specifies the details of the test approach and identifies the associated tests?
a. Test data
b. Test Design specification
c. Test procedure specification
217)Which among the following are the key elements in the defect management process?
a. Deliverable base lining
b. Defect Prevention
c. Process Improvement
d. Management Reporting
e. All of the listed options
218)An operator verifies that all production jobs are run. This is
a. Production Planning
b. Disaster recovery
c. Quality Assurance
d. Quality Control
219)Which among the following techniques are used to find defects?
a. All of the listed options
b. Dynamic techniques, operational techniques and functional techniques
c. Static techniques and dynamic techniques
d. Static techniques, dynamic techniques and operational techniques
e. Static techniques, operational techniques and functional techniques
220)Which of the following is NOT a test factor?
a. Portability
b. None of the listed options
c. Continuity of Processing
d. Compliance
e. Functionality
1. correctness,
2. Authorization
3. File integrity
4. Audit trail
5. Continuity of processing
6. service levels
7. access control
8. compliance
9. reliability
10. ease of use
11. maintainable
12. Portable
13. coupling
14. performance
15. ease of operations
221) Synchronization is not one of the considerations to incorporate into script execution. False
222)Test Plan is not a living document. False
223)Some of the primary testing risks include EXCEPT:
a. Lack of management support

27. b. Lack of Test Tools
c. Lack of Customer and User Involvement
d. Not Enough Training/Lack of Test Competency
e. None
Not Enough Training/Lack of Test Competency
Us versus Them Mentality
Lack of Test Tools
Lack of Management Understanding and Support of Testing
Lack of Customer and User Involvement
Not Enough Schedule or Budget for Testing
Over Reliance on Independent Testers
Rapid Change
Testers are in A Lose-Lose Situation and Having to Say “No”
Test Environment
New technology and new developmental processes
224)In general the earlier a software defect is discovered and corrected the less costly to the overall project budget. True
225)Testers get involved with the project only when testing steps are about to begin. State True or False. False
226)Which of the following does not represent the general of defect management philosophy?
a. Capture and Analysis of defect information should be automated
b. Defect management process should be risk driven
c. none of the listed options
d. Primary goal is to prevent defects
227)Which among the following is NOT a way to define and measure test coverage?
a. Modified Decision coverage
b. Global data coverage
c. User specified data coverage
d. Stable/control coverage
228)Which one of the following is the correct definition for Standards?
a. The measure used to evaluate products and identify nonconformance The basis upon which adherence to
policies is measured
b. Policies provide direction, standards are the rules or measures
c. Managerial desires and intents concerning either process (intended objectives) or products (desired attributes)
d. The step-by-step method that ensures that standards are met
229)_________________ provide direction, _______________ are the rules or measures by which the implemented
policies are measured, and the _________________ are the means used to meet or comply with the standards.
a. Standards, Policies, Procedures
b. Policies, Procedures, Standards
c. Policies, standards, procedures
230)Temptations cause employees to engage in the following improper acts EXCEPT:
a. Weak Internal Audit function
b. High Decentralization
c. Nonexistent or ineffective control
d. High Centralization
231) Which of the following is a correct definition of risk analysis?
a. None of the listed options

28. b. Risk analysis is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or
application. Risk analysis includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws.
c. Risk analysis is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its
computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information
resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk
analysis.
d. Risk analysis is an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining
organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or
combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in
dollars or other assets.
232)Risk involves everything EXCEPT:
a. test planning
b. loss of information
c. unauthorized disclosure
d. incorrect use of computer
233)Test tool used to verify the application limits have been tested is called _______________.
a. Load testing
b. Volume testing
c. Spike testing
d. Disaster testing
234)Which of the following statement is correct about monitoring performance?
a. All of the listed options
b. Management should review the process improvement program regularly
c. Careful analysis of results of testing should be performed
d. The risks to the organization and its products from using the process should be monitored
235)Test in Test plan should be following EXCEPT:
a. Reusable
b. Controllable
c. Coverage
d. Repeatable
236) Which among the following is the best strategy to reduce impact if there is a problem?
a. Contingency plans
b. Disaster recovery plans, contingency plans and
c. Disaster recovery plans and contingency plans
d. All of the listed options
e. Reduce Scope of the system and also do not use latest unproven technology
237) _________ are important element of test objectives.
a. Feasible and simple
b. Reasonable and understandable
c. Affordable and Flexible
d. Reasonable and Adequate (feasible, reasonable, affordable and adequate)
238)________________ is a record of relevant details about execution of tests.
a. Test data
b. None of the listed options

29. c. Test log
d. Defect tracking sheet
239)Distribution of responsibilities reduces the chances of selecting a tool that __________________.
a. can be available with all the plug-ins
b. can be used to automate all the applications
c. lacks training
d. does not meet the recognized needs of the organization
240)A branch is
a. An unconditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in the component except the
next statement
b. A conditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in a component
c. When a component has more than one entry point, a transfer of control to any entry point of the component
d. All of the above
241)A metric is:
a. A mathematical number that shows a relationship between two variables.
b. Metrics is quantitative measure of the degree to which a system /component or process possesses a given
attribute.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above.
242)Data collected during testing should include:
a. Test Factors.
b. Functions/subroutines
c. Platforms
d. All of the above
243)Which of the following does not represents ways to define and measure test coverage?
a. Statement coverage
b. Point to point coverage
c. Branch coverage.
d. Basic path coverage.
244)For building a test plan following tasks are required. Choose the correct sequence.

30. a. Understand Project Risks, Form Test Team, Build Test Plan
b. Build Test Plan, Form Test Team, Understand Project Risks.
c. Form Test Team, Understand Project Risks, Build Test Plan
d. None of the above represents the tasks involved in building test plan
245)Choose the correct from those given below.
a. Compliance Testing – Business rules.
b. Black Box Testing – Path Coverage.
c. Regression Testing – End users.
d. File Integrity – Control Totals
e. None of the above.
246)To know with adequate confidence, “when is testing over”, which of the following is the best approach?
a. Declare that it is over when Time is out.
b. Use test appropriate Metrics
c. Declare that it is over when budget is consumed
d. Let the management decide that
247)Which of the following is not a component of “software fit” for acceptance?
a. Data
b. Structure and People
c. Rules
d. Models
248)Which of the following statements are not correct?
a. Structural testing evaluates all aspects of the structure to verify that the structures is sound
b. Functional testing technique help ensure that the requirement/specifications are properly satisfied by the
software system
c. Functional testing not concerned with how processing occurs, but with the results of process.
d. Functional testing techniques help to establish the roles and responsibilities of users during acceptance testing.

31. 249)Which of the following is not one of the techniques to find defects?
a. Operational Techniques
b. Dynamics Techniques
c. Functional Techniques
d. Static Techniques
250)Quality Assurance methods are usually considered
a. Preventive
b. Corrective
c. Protective
251)Who has the primary responsibility of setting the quality culture in the organization
a. The Training Dept.
b. The Quality Dept.
c. Senior Management
d. None
252)In statistics, the mean and median are called
a. Variance
b. Standard deviation
c. Control Chart Values.
d. Measure of Central tendency
253)Quality principle dictate that the strategic quality plan should
a. Be incorporated by the quality assurance function
b. Be written for quality assurance function
c. Identify individual quality programs
d. Define the size of the quality assurance department.
254)Pareto analysis will tell us
a. Which problems occur most often

32. b. Why problem occur
c. Relative value of walkthrough and inspections
d. All of the above
255)Total quality management is a common term applied to a quality management system. Total quality management is
a. A process to produce zero defects
b. Another way of expressing statistical process control
c. A strategy built around control charts
d. A management philosophy
256)Quality Function Deployment
a. helps an organization to decide how the Quality function is deployed
b. is testing of previously verified program of application
c. is another approach to implementing balance score card method
d. is a systematic method to translate customer wants or needs into product or service
257)Which of the following are categories of acceptance requirement from user’s point of view
a. Overall software quality requirements
b. Functionality requirements
c. Performance requirements
d. Interface quality requirements
e. All the above
258)Risk is defined as
a. Frequency * Occurrence
b. Occurrence * Risk Factor
c. Risk Factor * Risk Response Number

33. d. Probability * Influence
259)Key elements of a defect management process are:
a. Defect Prevention
b. Defect discovery/defect naming
c. Defect resolution
d. All of the above
260)which of the following does not represent the general of defect management philosophy
a. All of the below are the general principles
b. The primary goal is to prevent defects
c. Defect management process should be risk driven
d. Capture and analysis of the defect information should be automated
e. Defect information should be used towards process improvement.
261)‘Requirement’ is a formal statement of
a. An attribute to be possessed by the product/function to be performed by the product
b. The performance standard for the attribute or a function
c. The measuring process to be used in verifying that the standard has been met
d. All the above
262)Dynamic assertion is
a. All the below
b. a way of empowering people in the organization
c. the analysis performed by executing the program code
d. a powerful way of expressing yourself to make your presence felt
263)Condition coverage is
a. A black box testing technique
b. The property of logical coherence among constituent modules of a system

34. c. The number of decision statements covered in cyclomatic complexity analysis
d. None of the above
264)A Test Log
a. is a worksheet/spreadsheet to record test activities
b. helps to record incidents into the defect tracking system
c. is responsible for conducting the test readiness review
d. should contain the procedure environment and tools for test execution
e. only(a) and (b) above
265)Which of the following is the correct sequence to test execution?
a. Set up Test environment, Identify test cases and test cycles, Review test results, Assign test scripts
b. Identify test cases and test cycles, Assign test scripts, Set up Test environment, Review test results
c. Set up Test environment, Identify test cases and test cycles, Assign test scripts, Review test results
d. Any of the above is a right sequence
266)Which of the following does not represent major concerns in the mind of testers during test execution step?
a. Software not in a testable mode
b. Inadequate time/resources
c. Significant problem will not be uncovered during testing
d. Developer will not appreciate testing
e. None of the above
267)Which of the following is/are factors used by Test Manager to determine whether the application is ready for
production
a. MTBF Mean time between failures (MTBF) is the predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system
during operation.
b. Failure or % coverage achieve by the executed test
c. Severity level-wise number of open defects
d. Risk associated with moving the application into production
e. All of the above

35. 268)During the recording of test results, deviations must be documented. Which of the following attributes should be
documented?
a. All of the following
b. Activities involved
c. Users/Customer served
d. Deficiencies noted
e. Procedure used to perform work
269)The ‘cause’ is the underlying reason for the ‘condition’. The determination of the cause requires a scientific approach.
Which of the following represents the correct sequences?
a. Define the problem
b. Identify workflow
c. Identify procedures
d. Identify people involved
e. Recreate the circumstances
i. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
ii. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
iii. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
iv. 3, 5, 2, 4 ,1
270)What technique is most effective in encouraging participation of attendees at meetings?
a. Having the moderator play the devil’s advocate
b. Tell people that participation will be one of the appraisal factors
c. Role playing and requesting suggestions
d. Requiring participation
271)Risk management involves identifying risk and ___________
a. Eliminating risks
b. Avoiding risks
c. Risk analysis
d. Developing strategies to address risk

36. 272)How could root cause analysis be applied to software?
a. It can help identify error-prone parts of the process
b. It cannot be applied; there is no normal variation in software
c. It cannot be used to identify similar types of failures
d. It cannot be applied; software failure expose the root cause directly
273)One of the primary objective of process control is to:
a. Increase competition
b. Improve metrics
c. Find root causes
d. Reduce Variability
274)Quality has been defined as:
a. Meeting requirements
b. Customer satisfaction
c. Zero defects
d. (a) and (b)
275)Three part of the PDCA cycles are act, plan and do. The fourth part of the PDCA cycle is:
a. Calibrate
b. Control
c. Coordinate
d. Create
e. Check
276)The primary purpose of quality control is to:
a. Prevent defect from occurring
b. Assign quality responsibilities
c. Conducting testing
d. Find and correct defects

37. e. Writing work processes
277)The overall goal of software testing is to:
a. Identify error not removed previously
b. Find who cause the error
c. Keep re-work costs as low as possible
d. None of the above
278)With the acquisition of a testing tool, the test engineer’s first priority is to:
a. Decide how much to pay
b. Check with end-user first
c. Identify the goal for the tool usage
d. Make sure your management agrees to use the tool
279)The objectives of _________Control are to prevent, detect or correct or incorrect processing.
a. Transaction processing system
b. External
c. Internal
d. Environmental
280)Testing to determine that current changes have NOT adversely affected previous functionality is called:
a. Regression Testing
b. System Testing
c. Unit Testing
d. Acceptance Testing
281)White box testing is primarily:
a. Data driven
b. Logic driven
c. Bottom up driven
d. Top down driven

38. 282)The most effective test approach is to begin testing when:
a. After requirements
b. After external design
c. After coding
d. A new project begins
283)Verification is an approach to testing that can occur during:
a. Requirements
b. External design
c. Internal design
d. Coding
e. All of the above
284)Quality is often referred to as being free. This is because:
a. The payback is greater than its cost over time
b. It’s difficult to quantify consumer satisfaction
c. There is a never ending goal to be achieved
d. Of continuous improvement
285)The characteristic of an effective meeting for testing related issues include:
a. Develop an agenda
b. Define the role of the people attending the meeting
c. Encourages attendees to contribute fully
d. Clearly define the test objective
e. All the above
286)Which of the following is NOT part of a process workbench?
a. Input
b. Do Procedure

39. c. Check Procedure
d. Defect Management
e. Output
287)Quality function deployment is most associated with:
a. Total Quality Management
b. Problem Analysis
c. Regression Testing
d. Tracing requirements
e. Continuous Process Improvement
288)Which among the following is not a defect?
a. An extra function provided in the system
b. None of the listed options
c. A requirement implemented incorrectly
d. A requirement not implemented in the system
289)----------- is a statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during a testing activity.
a. Test objective
b. Test design
c. None of the listed options
d. Risk analysis
290)Which is the test method satisfying the coverage criteria that each logical path through the program be tested?
a. Integration testing
b. Performance testing
c. Interface testing
d. Usability testing
e. Path testing
291)----------- is a statement of the overall approach to testing, identifying what levels of testing are to be applied and the
method, techniques and tool to be used.
a. Risk analysis
b. Defect Report
c. Requirement review
d. Test Strategy

40. 292) ---------------------is a test technique that changes a data element in a single file, which is redundant in several files.
This technique also verifies that other files will be changed accordingly.
a. Requirements
b. Control
c. Security
d. File integrity
293) Which among the following are techniques that facilitate the recording of the defect at each stage or test process?
a. All of the listed options
b. Acknowledge defect
c. Report Defect
d. Defect naming
294) Which among the following is a set of predefined action items used by tester for a process to be complete and
acceptable?
a. Exit Criteria
b. Error guessing
c. Force field analysis
d. Formal analysis
295)Testing cost that exceeds the cost of defect uncovered isn’t a indicator of ‘over-testing” state true or false
296)Cost of non-conformance includes --------------------------------
a. survey
b. training survey, etc
c. training survey etc, studies and survey
d. studies
e. rework
297)Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage(S) so that low level modules never need testing. State true
or false
298)Creating representative processing conditions using test transactions is the concept of ---------------------
a. all of the listed options
b. requirement trace ability matrix
c. test data preparation
d. test plan preparation
299)Most of the problems associated with the testing process occur from one of the following causes EXCEPT:
a. failure to define testing objectives
b. testing at the wrong phase in the life cycle

41. c. use of ineffective test techniques
d. defects present in production environment
300)Following are the valid testing certifications EXCEPT: BSTE
The defect management process is based on the following general principles:
1. The primary goal is to prevent defects. Where this is not possible or practical, the goals are to both find the
defect as quickly as possible and minimize the impact of the defect.
2. The defect management process should be risk driven -- i.e., strategies, priorities, and resources should be based
on the extent to which risk can be reduced.
3. Defect measurement should be integrated into the software development process and be used by the project
team to improve the process. In other words, the project staff, by doing their job, should capture information on
defects at the source. It should not be done after-the-fact by people unrelated to the project or system
4. As much as possible, the capture and analysis of the information should be automated.
5. Defect information should be used to improve the process. This, in fact, is the primary reason for gathering
defect information.
6. Most defects are caused by imperfect or flawed processes. Thus to prevent defects, the process must be altered.