SCIENCE-QUIZ-BEE.pptx
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The document is a science quiz bee containing multiple choice questions about various topics in biology, chemistry, and genetics. The questions cover human anatomy like the respiratory system and heart, cellular processes like cellular respiration and DNA, genetics concepts like inheritance of traits, chemical bonding like ionic compounds, and more. The quiz tests fundamental knowledge across several science disciplines.
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BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docx
BIOL 101 EXAM
The following general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 125 points. Multiple choice questions #1-50 are worth 1 point each. Multiple choice questions #51-57 are worth 2 points each. Choose 6 of 7 essay questions #58-64, which are worth 10 points each. Please provide answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam, answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder
GOOD LUCK! Thanks for taking the course,
********************************************************************** MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 50 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory
D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) atom B) cell C) organism D) ecosystem
3. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) ions D) isotopes
4. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of
chlorine isA) 8 B) 17 C) 35 D) 52
5. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutralC) a base
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic ...
Lehninger principles of biochemistry 7th edition nelson test bank
Lehninger principles of biochemistry 7th edition nelson test bank
Biological science Comprehensive LET Reviewer
Compiled across different sources
note: I do not own this file
Human Biology 15th Edition Mader Test Bank
Full download : https://goo.gl/e2Srdr Human Biology 15th Edition Mader Test Bank
Recommended
BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docx
BIOL 101 EXAM
The following general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 125 points. Multiple choice questions #1-50 are worth 1 point each. Multiple choice questions #51-57 are worth 2 points each. Choose 6 of 7 essay questions #58-64, which are worth 10 points each. Please provide answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam, answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder
GOOD LUCK! Thanks for taking the course,
********************************************************************** MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 50 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory
D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) atom B) cell C) organism D) ecosystem
3. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) ions D) isotopes
4. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of
chlorine isA) 8 B) 17 C) 35 D) 52
5. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutralC) a base
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic ...
Lehninger principles of biochemistry 7th edition nelson test bank
Lehninger principles of biochemistry 7th edition nelson test bank
Biological science Comprehensive LET Reviewer
Compiled across different sources
note: I do not own this file
Human Biology 15th Edition Mader Test Bank
Full download : https://goo.gl/e2Srdr Human Biology 15th Edition Mader Test Bank
Paleontologists have found fossils dating back 3.6 billion years. .docx
Paleontologists have found fossils dating back 3.6 billion years. These closely resemble
A.
small invertebrate animals.
B.
nothing alive today.
C.
fungi.
D.
today’s simplest plants.
E.
blue-green algae present today.
5 points
QUESTION 2
When taxonomists classify organisms using a phylogenetic approach, they are most concerned with
A.
outgroups.
B.
cladists.
C.
ingroups.
D.
ancestral traits.
E.
derived traits.
5 points
QUESTION 3
In bacteria, the cell wall is composed mainly of
A.
various polysaccharides.
B.
peptidoglycans.
C.
proteins.
D.
glycoproteins.
E.
lipids.
5 points
QUESTION 4
Which form of bacterial cells is rod shaped?
A.
cocci
B.
vibrios
C.
spirilla
D.
rhodius
E.
Bacilli
5 points
QUESTION 5
The endosymbiont hypothesis suggests that the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells are descended from captured
A.
cyanobacteria.
B.
eukaryotic algae.
C.
chemoautotrophic bacteria.
D.
archaebacteria.
E.
aerobic bacteria.
5 points
QUESTION 6
Eukaryotic cells are thought to have
A.
evolved before prokaryotic cells.
B.
appeared about 2.1 billion years ago.
C.
first appeared with tough cell walls.
D.
first appeared as parts of multicellular organisms.
E.
developed when mitochondria grew much larger in size that they had been previously.
5 points
QUESTION 7
What term is used to indicate a characteristic that is shared and inherited from a common ancestor?
A.
analogous trait
B.
homologous trait
C.
cladistic trait
D.
outgroups
E.
derived trait
5 points
QUESTION 8
Prions are composed of
A.
DNA, RNA, and protein.
B.
protein.
C.
DNA and protein.
D.
DNA.
E.
RNA.
5 points
QUESTION 9
Of the following, which kingdom contains the most diversity in terms of DNA sequences?
A.
All of these are approximately equivalently diverse.
B.
Protista
C.
Fungi
D.
Plantae
E.
Animalia
5 points
QUESTION 10
Atmospheric chemists think that Earth’s first atmosphere
A.
contained no oxygen atoms.
B.
consisted of carbon in the form of carbon dioxide.
C.
was very similar to today’s atmosphere.
D.
consisted of carbon in the form of carbon monoxide.
E.
contained nitrogen in the form of ammonia and nitrogen gas.
5 points
QUESTION 11
Rickettsias belong to which major group of bacteria?
A.
Archaea
B.
cyanobacteria
C.
spirochetes
D.
viruses
E.
Proteobacteria
5 points
QUESTION 12
The Cambrian Explosion provided a wealth of fossil remains for scientists to uncover. Many of the animals from this time period had tough skins or shells. This would
A.
make these animals more desirable to predators.
B.
be a disadvantage for these organisms and lead to their death and fossil formation.
C.
allow the animals to move into different environments easily.
D.
protect the animal from osmotic pressure.
E.
protect the animal from predators.
5 points
QUESTION 13
What is the mai.
QUESTION 1Which ecological niche described below possesses the gre.pdf
QUESTION 1
Which ecological niche described below possesses the greatest number of prokaryotic cells
(select one)?
A.
Oceanic and Terrestrial sub-surfaces
B.
In or on non-prokaryotic organisms (humans, animals and plants)
C.
Dry land
D.
Lakes, rivers and oceans
E.
Earth stratosphere
1 points Saved
QUESTION 2
Which organism was primarily responsible for oxygenation of the earth approximately 2 billion
years ago (select one)?
A.
cyanobacteria
B.
Wooly mammoths
C.
Green sulfur bacteria
D.
Thermophilic archaea
E.
algae
1 points Saved
QUESTION 3
The earliest microorganisms were likely restricted to deep ocean and sub-surface ecological
niches until which of the following (select one)?
A.
Ozone layer developed
B.
Aquatic life carried them to land
C.
Phototrophy evolved
D.
Chemolithotrophy developed
E.
The development of chemoorganotrophy
1 points Saved
QUESTION 4
Two tubes are inoculated from one test tube of a bacterial culture. The cultures are then
transferred every day for 2 months. All of the media and growth conditions are the same in every
tube. After 2 months of cultivation, the fitness and genotype frequencies of the populations in the
two tubes are compared. The fitness of the two cultures is the same, but the genotype frequencies
are very different in the two cultures. How is this possible?
A.
This result is not possible because different genotype frequencies would result in different
fitness levels under the same growth conditions.
B.
Genetic drift within the small populations in the test tubes resulted in different genotype
frequencies.
C.
It is highly unlikely that any bacterial culture could be maintained for 2 months
D.
Natural selection caused the evolution of different genotype frequencies within the separate test
tubes.
E.
Two months is not long enough for different fitness levels to evolve even if the genotype
frequencies change.
1 points Saved
QUESTION 5
If you allowed 20 identical parallel Listeria cultures to evolve for 20,000 generations under new
growth conditions with very little nitrogen, the parallel cultures would do which of the following
(select one)?
A.
Direct mutations to occur in nitrogen utilization and uptake genes in order to adapt rapidly to the
culture conditions
B.
Each parallel culture would accumulate different random mutations resulting in different
adaptations to use the nitrogen in the media.
C.
Evolve identical adaptations to use the nitrogen source provided in the media
D.
Not change or adapt significantly over this small number of generations
E.
Each culture would evolve to use arsenic in place of nitrogen
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements are correct about the early formation of life on earth (select all
that apply)?
A.
Lateral gene transfer is one plausible explanation as to why organisms in Archaea, Bacteria, and
Eukarya still share so many genes among such distinct domains.
B.
The domains of life arose as barriers between gene exchange evolved between organisms
C.
W.
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014TEST MName.docx
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014
TEST M
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) include only the autosomes
B) separate during interphase
C) include only the sex chromosomes
D) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
E) carry the same genes
1)
2) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example,
the sperm are changing ______.
A) kinetic energy into chemical energy
B) chemical energy into potential energy
C) kinetic energy into potential energy
D) chemical energy into kinetic energy
E) none of the above
2)
3) Examine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______. 3)
1
A) serine
B) alanine
C) glycine
D) threonine
E) arginine
4) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait.
The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross
between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?
A) Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
B) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
C) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
D) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
E) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
4)
Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).
Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was
shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took
her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a
karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific
cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she
received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.
5) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment of chromosomes
C) cytokinesis
D) nondisjunction
E) crossing over
5)
6) Speciation requires ______.
A) long periods of time
B) geographic isolation
C) periods of rapid evolutionary change
D) a mass extinction so that new environmental opportunities will be available to the
survivors
E) genetic isolation
6)
7) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.
A) Native Americans
B) East Asian populations
C) populations that live in cold climates
D) cultures that keep dairy herds
E) populations that live in wet climates
7)
2
8) Which of the foll ...
MULTIPLE CHOICE1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a kno.docx
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In science, a hypothesis must be
A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) population B) cell C) organism D) atom
3. A sodium atom has 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons. The atomic number of
sodium isA) 11 B) 12 C) 23 D) 34
4. If you place the probe of a pH meter in an unknown liquid and it reads
pH 10, the liquid is A) an acid B) neutral C) a base
5. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) isotopes D) ions
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) phospholipids C) proteins
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to
A) extract energy from glucose B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria
A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of
A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is
A) active transport B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by
A) greenhouse effect B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic eruptions
15. Yeast cells break down glucose anaerobically into
A) ethanol and CO2 B) lactic acid and CO2
C) lactic acid and H2O D) ethanol and H2O
16. The net energy gain from complete cellular respiration is
A) 2 ATP B) 4 ATP C) 8 ATP D) 36-38 ATP
17. Carbon dioxide is released in A) the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis
B) the Krebs cycle C) glycolysis D) the Calvin cycle
18. If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the
concentration inside,
A) water will tend to enter the cell by osmosisB) water will tend to leave the cell by osmosis C) glucose will tend to enter the cell by osmosis D) glucose will tend to leave the cell by osmosis
19. What happens if a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?
A) the cel.
BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 6 1 Chapter 6 Cel.docx
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
1
Chapter 6: Cell Energy, Transport and Enzymes
1) Many of the enzymes that control a deep-sea firefly squid's ability to produce light energy from chemical energy are located
A) in membranes.
B) in the nucleus.
C) within chloroplasts.
D) outside of cells.
E) within mitochondria.
2) The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as consisting of
A) a phospholipid bilayer with embedded carbohydrates.
B) two layers of phospholipids with protein sandwiched between them.
C) a protein bilayer with embedded phospholipids.
D) carbohydrates, proteins, and phospholipids that can drift in the membrane.
E) individual proteins and phospholipids that can drift in a phospholipid bilayer.
3) Membrane phospholipids
A) have hydrophobic heads that face the center of the membrane and are shielded from water.
B) have hydrophilic tails that face outward and are exposed to water.
C) often have "kinks" in their tails caused by the presence of a double bond between carbons.
D) remain fluid because they are tightly packed against one another.
E) form impermeable layers for cells.
4) The cholesterol associated with animal cell membranes
A) is attached to membrane proteins and extends into the watery environment surrounding the cell.
B) helps to stabilize the cell membrane at body temperature.
C) makes the cell membrane fluid at room temperature.
D) is an abnormality resulting from a diet high in cholesterol.
E) helps solidify the membranes when the room temperature is below freezing.
5) A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the cell membrane is to
A) glue cells together to form tissues.
B) allow the cells of an embryo to sort themselves into tissues and organs.
C) attach the cell membrane to the cytoskeleton.
D) help the cell resist swelling.
E) help the cell retain its shape.
6) When physicians perform an organ transplant, they choose a donor whose tissues match those of the recipient as closely as
possible. Which of the following cell components are being matched?
A) plasma membrane phospholipids
B) plasma membrane proteins
C) cell-surface carbohydrates
D) plasma membrane cholesterols
E) cytoskeletal elements
7) Most of the functions of a cell membrane are performed by
A) glycolipids.
B) proteins.
C) phospholipids.
D) cholesterol.
E) nucleotides.
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
2
9) Relaying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called
A) signal transduction.
B) inhibition.
C) competition.
D) self-recognition.
E) selective permeability.
10) Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that
A) anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the membrane is intact and the cell is healthy.
B) the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others.
C) glucose cannot ...
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21- What are arbuscles- a- sexual structures of basidiomycetes b- sexu.pdf
21. What are arbuscles? a. sexual structures of basidiomycetes b. sexual structures of
ascomycetes c. symbiotic structures found in many lichens d. parasitic structures e. none of the
above 22. In which group would you expect budding cells? a. Ascomycota b. Basidiomycota c.
Zygomycota d. Glomeromucata e. all of the above 23. What is one of the main differences
between mosses and ferns? a. In mosses, the gametophyte dominates. b. In mosses, the
sporophyte dominates. c. In ferns, the two generations remain fused together. d. Ferns have a
protonema stage. e. Moss sperms from the male gametophyte have to swim to the female
gametophyte. 24. What do conifers have? a. pollen, but no seeds b. embryos but no microspores
c. seeds but no fruits d. cones but no ovules e. none of the above 25. Which of the following is
not correct for mosses? a. They have an alternation of generations. b. They are vascular plants. c.
The gametophyte is the dominant generation. d. The gametophyte develops from a protonema. e.
Female gametophytes produce archegonia. 26. Anthers are found in which of the following
groups? a. monocots b. mosses c. ferns d. Svcadaphyta e. all of the above 27. Which of the
following groups have vascular tissue? a. monocots b. horsetails c. ferns d. Gveadaphyta e. all of
the above 28. Which of the following would you expect to find in an octopus? a. The mouth
forms after the blastopore develops into the anus. b. radial cleavage c. There is no mesoderm d.
determinate cleavage e. an incomplete digestive system 29. In which group would you expect to
find a medusa stage? a. Polychaeta b. Cnidaria c. centipedes d. Gastropoda e. tapeworms 30.
Which characters are shared by echinoderms and corals? a. no excretory system b. radial
symmetry c. no respiratory system d. no head e. all of the above 31. Most animals are a. both
triploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. b. both triploblastic and with radial symmetry. c. both
diploblastic and with radial symmetry. d. both diploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. e. none
of the above 32. Protostomes have both a. radial and spiral cleavage. b. determinate and spiral
cleavage. c. determinate and radial cleavage. d. indeterminate and spiral cleavage. e. triploblastic
and radial cleavage. 33. Which of the following would you not find in insects? a. Malpighian
tubules b. two pairs of antennae c. compound eyes d. a tracheal system e. an open circulatory
system 34. Spiders differ from insects by having a. segmentation b. an open circulatory system c.
an abdomen d. an exoskeleton e. book lungs 35. What is the gas exchange system in insects
called? a. Malpighian tubules b. book lungs c. external gills d. tracheal system e. complete
metamorphosis 36. Insects have the same number of antennae as a. spiders b. millipedes c.
centipedes d. crustaceans e. both b and c 37. Which arthropod groups have more legs than
insects? a. spiders b. crustaceans c. centipedes d. millipedes e. all of the above 38. In order to
become fully .
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29- Which of the following is not considered a microorganism A- mosqui.docx
29. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism A. mosquito B. protozoa C. bacteria D. viruses 30. The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called A. flagella B. cilia C. fimbriae D. pili 31. Rod shaped bacteria arranged in a chain are known as A. spirochetes B. spirilla C. streptobacilli D. coccus 32. Which of the following statements about protozoans is false? a) They are unicellular eukaryotes that demonstrate animal-like characteristics in both food consumption and motility. b) They only enter into parasitic relationships with a host. c) They have cellular features like flagella, cilia and pseudopodia that help attain food and aid movement. d) They may have complex life cycles alternating between cyst and trophozoite stages. 33. Which description(s) is(are) true of algae? a) They are all singled celled organisms. b) They are found in only saltwater habitats. c) The oxygen gas produced and exported by these photosynthetic microbes makes life possible for all organisms using aerobic respiration. d) Numerous pathogens are classified as algae. 34. Which of the following is a tenet of the Cell Theory? 1) All organisms are composed of one or more cells. 2) The cell is the structural unit of life. 3) Cells can arise only by division from a preexisting cell. 4) Cells divide only by fission. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 1,2 and 3 35. The structure of the plasma membrane is most appropriately described as a) a thick peptidoglycan layer with lipoteichoic acid b) a phospholipid bilayer with proteins c) a semi-permeable monolayer with phosphate groups d) a thin murien layer with high amino acid content
.
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Operation “Blue Star” is the only event in the history of Independent India where the state went into war with its own people. Even after about 40 years it is not clear if it was culmination of states anger over people of the region, a political game of power or start of dictatorial chapter in the democratic setup.
The people of Punjab felt alienated from main stream due to denial of their just demands during a long democratic struggle since independence. As it happen all over the word, it led to militant struggle with great loss of lives of military, police and civilian personnel. Killing of Indira Gandhi and massacre of innocent Sikhs in Delhi and other India cities was also associated with this movement.
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A.
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nothing alive today.
C.
fungi.
D.
today’s simplest plants.
E.
blue-green algae present today.
5 points
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When taxonomists classify organisms using a phylogenetic approach, they are most concerned with
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various polysaccharides.
B.
peptidoglycans.
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D.
glycoproteins.
E.
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5 points
QUESTION 4
Which form of bacterial cells is rod shaped?
A.
cocci
B.
vibrios
C.
spirilla
D.
rhodius
E.
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QUESTION 5
The endosymbiont hypothesis suggests that the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells are descended from captured
A.
cyanobacteria.
B.
eukaryotic algae.
C.
chemoautotrophic bacteria.
D.
archaebacteria.
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QUESTION 6
Eukaryotic cells are thought to have
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evolved before prokaryotic cells.
B.
appeared about 2.1 billion years ago.
C.
first appeared with tough cell walls.
D.
first appeared as parts of multicellular organisms.
E.
developed when mitochondria grew much larger in size that they had been previously.
5 points
QUESTION 7
What term is used to indicate a characteristic that is shared and inherited from a common ancestor?
A.
analogous trait
B.
homologous trait
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cladistic trait
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outgroups
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derived trait
5 points
QUESTION 8
Prions are composed of
A.
DNA, RNA, and protein.
B.
protein.
C.
DNA and protein.
D.
DNA.
E.
RNA.
5 points
QUESTION 9
Of the following, which kingdom contains the most diversity in terms of DNA sequences?
A.
All of these are approximately equivalently diverse.
B.
Protista
C.
Fungi
D.
Plantae
E.
Animalia
5 points
QUESTION 10
Atmospheric chemists think that Earth’s first atmosphere
A.
contained no oxygen atoms.
B.
consisted of carbon in the form of carbon dioxide.
C.
was very similar to today’s atmosphere.
D.
consisted of carbon in the form of carbon monoxide.
E.
contained nitrogen in the form of ammonia and nitrogen gas.
5 points
QUESTION 11
Rickettsias belong to which major group of bacteria?
A.
Archaea
B.
cyanobacteria
C.
spirochetes
D.
viruses
E.
Proteobacteria
5 points
QUESTION 12
The Cambrian Explosion provided a wealth of fossil remains for scientists to uncover. Many of the animals from this time period had tough skins or shells. This would
A.
make these animals more desirable to predators.
B.
be a disadvantage for these organisms and lead to their death and fossil formation.
C.
allow the animals to move into different environments easily.
D.
protect the animal from osmotic pressure.
E.
protect the animal from predators.
5 points
QUESTION 13
What is the mai.
QUESTION 1Which ecological niche described below possesses the gre.pdf
QUESTION 1
Which ecological niche described below possesses the greatest number of prokaryotic cells
(select one)?
A.
Oceanic and Terrestrial sub-surfaces
B.
In or on non-prokaryotic organisms (humans, animals and plants)
C.
Dry land
D.
Lakes, rivers and oceans
E.
Earth stratosphere
1 points Saved
QUESTION 2
Which organism was primarily responsible for oxygenation of the earth approximately 2 billion
years ago (select one)?
A.
cyanobacteria
B.
Wooly mammoths
C.
Green sulfur bacteria
D.
Thermophilic archaea
E.
algae
1 points Saved
QUESTION 3
The earliest microorganisms were likely restricted to deep ocean and sub-surface ecological
niches until which of the following (select one)?
A.
Ozone layer developed
B.
Aquatic life carried them to land
C.
Phototrophy evolved
D.
Chemolithotrophy developed
E.
The development of chemoorganotrophy
1 points Saved
QUESTION 4
Two tubes are inoculated from one test tube of a bacterial culture. The cultures are then
transferred every day for 2 months. All of the media and growth conditions are the same in every
tube. After 2 months of cultivation, the fitness and genotype frequencies of the populations in the
two tubes are compared. The fitness of the two cultures is the same, but the genotype frequencies
are very different in the two cultures. How is this possible?
A.
This result is not possible because different genotype frequencies would result in different
fitness levels under the same growth conditions.
B.
Genetic drift within the small populations in the test tubes resulted in different genotype
frequencies.
C.
It is highly unlikely that any bacterial culture could be maintained for 2 months
D.
Natural selection caused the evolution of different genotype frequencies within the separate test
tubes.
E.
Two months is not long enough for different fitness levels to evolve even if the genotype
frequencies change.
1 points Saved
QUESTION 5
If you allowed 20 identical parallel Listeria cultures to evolve for 20,000 generations under new
growth conditions with very little nitrogen, the parallel cultures would do which of the following
(select one)?
A.
Direct mutations to occur in nitrogen utilization and uptake genes in order to adapt rapidly to the
culture conditions
B.
Each parallel culture would accumulate different random mutations resulting in different
adaptations to use the nitrogen in the media.
C.
Evolve identical adaptations to use the nitrogen source provided in the media
D.
Not change or adapt significantly over this small number of generations
E.
Each culture would evolve to use arsenic in place of nitrogen
1 points Save Answer
QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements are correct about the early formation of life on earth (select all
that apply)?
A.
Lateral gene transfer is one plausible explanation as to why organisms in Archaea, Bacteria, and
Eukarya still share so many genes among such distinct domains.
B.
The domains of life arose as barriers between gene exchange evolved between organisms
C.
W.
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014TEST MName.docx
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014
TEST M
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) include only the autosomes
B) separate during interphase
C) include only the sex chromosomes
D) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
E) carry the same genes
1)
2) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example,
the sperm are changing ______.
A) kinetic energy into chemical energy
B) chemical energy into potential energy
C) kinetic energy into potential energy
D) chemical energy into kinetic energy
E) none of the above
2)
3) Examine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______. 3)
1
A) serine
B) alanine
C) glycine
D) threonine
E) arginine
4) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait.
The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross
between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?
A) Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
B) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
C) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
D) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
E) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
4)
Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).
Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was
shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took
her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a
karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific
cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she
received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.
5) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment of chromosomes
C) cytokinesis
D) nondisjunction
E) crossing over
5)
6) Speciation requires ______.
A) long periods of time
B) geographic isolation
C) periods of rapid evolutionary change
D) a mass extinction so that new environmental opportunities will be available to the
survivors
E) genetic isolation
6)
7) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.
A) Native Americans
B) East Asian populations
C) populations that live in cold climates
D) cultures that keep dairy herds
E) populations that live in wet climates
7)
2
8) Which of the foll ...
MULTIPLE CHOICE1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a kno.docx
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In science, a hypothesis must be
A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) population B) cell C) organism D) atom
3. A sodium atom has 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 11 electrons. The atomic number of
sodium isA) 11 B) 12 C) 23 D) 34
4. If you place the probe of a pH meter in an unknown liquid and it reads
pH 10, the liquid is A) an acid B) neutral C) a base
5. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) isotopes D) ions
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) phospholipids C) proteins
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to
A) extract energy from glucose B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria
A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of
A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is
A) active transport B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by
A) greenhouse effect B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic eruptions
15. Yeast cells break down glucose anaerobically into
A) ethanol and CO2 B) lactic acid and CO2
C) lactic acid and H2O D) ethanol and H2O
16. The net energy gain from complete cellular respiration is
A) 2 ATP B) 4 ATP C) 8 ATP D) 36-38 ATP
17. Carbon dioxide is released in A) the light-dependent phase of photosynthesis
B) the Krebs cycle C) glycolysis D) the Calvin cycle
18. If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the
concentration inside,
A) water will tend to enter the cell by osmosisB) water will tend to leave the cell by osmosis C) glucose will tend to enter the cell by osmosis D) glucose will tend to leave the cell by osmosis
19. What happens if a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?
A) the cel.
BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 6 1 Chapter 6 Cel.docx
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
1
Chapter 6: Cell Energy, Transport and Enzymes
1) Many of the enzymes that control a deep-sea firefly squid's ability to produce light energy from chemical energy are located
A) in membranes.
B) in the nucleus.
C) within chloroplasts.
D) outside of cells.
E) within mitochondria.
2) The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as consisting of
A) a phospholipid bilayer with embedded carbohydrates.
B) two layers of phospholipids with protein sandwiched between them.
C) a protein bilayer with embedded phospholipids.
D) carbohydrates, proteins, and phospholipids that can drift in the membrane.
E) individual proteins and phospholipids that can drift in a phospholipid bilayer.
3) Membrane phospholipids
A) have hydrophobic heads that face the center of the membrane and are shielded from water.
B) have hydrophilic tails that face outward and are exposed to water.
C) often have "kinks" in their tails caused by the presence of a double bond between carbons.
D) remain fluid because they are tightly packed against one another.
E) form impermeable layers for cells.
4) The cholesterol associated with animal cell membranes
A) is attached to membrane proteins and extends into the watery environment surrounding the cell.
B) helps to stabilize the cell membrane at body temperature.
C) makes the cell membrane fluid at room temperature.
D) is an abnormality resulting from a diet high in cholesterol.
E) helps solidify the membranes when the room temperature is below freezing.
5) A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the cell membrane is to
A) glue cells together to form tissues.
B) allow the cells of an embryo to sort themselves into tissues and organs.
C) attach the cell membrane to the cytoskeleton.
D) help the cell resist swelling.
E) help the cell retain its shape.
6) When physicians perform an organ transplant, they choose a donor whose tissues match those of the recipient as closely as
possible. Which of the following cell components are being matched?
A) plasma membrane phospholipids
B) plasma membrane proteins
C) cell-surface carbohydrates
D) plasma membrane cholesterols
E) cytoskeletal elements
7) Most of the functions of a cell membrane are performed by
A) glycolipids.
B) proteins.
C) phospholipids.
D) cholesterol.
E) nucleotides.
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
2
9) Relaying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called
A) signal transduction.
B) inhibition.
C) competition.
D) self-recognition.
E) selective permeability.
10) Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that
A) anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the membrane is intact and the cell is healthy.
B) the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others.
C) glucose cannot ...
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21- What are arbuscles- a- sexual structures of basidiomycetes b- sexu.pdf
21. What are arbuscles? a. sexual structures of basidiomycetes b. sexual structures of
ascomycetes c. symbiotic structures found in many lichens d. parasitic structures e. none of the
above 22. In which group would you expect budding cells? a. Ascomycota b. Basidiomycota c.
Zygomycota d. Glomeromucata e. all of the above 23. What is one of the main differences
between mosses and ferns? a. In mosses, the gametophyte dominates. b. In mosses, the
sporophyte dominates. c. In ferns, the two generations remain fused together. d. Ferns have a
protonema stage. e. Moss sperms from the male gametophyte have to swim to the female
gametophyte. 24. What do conifers have? a. pollen, but no seeds b. embryos but no microspores
c. seeds but no fruits d. cones but no ovules e. none of the above 25. Which of the following is
not correct for mosses? a. They have an alternation of generations. b. They are vascular plants. c.
The gametophyte is the dominant generation. d. The gametophyte develops from a protonema. e.
Female gametophytes produce archegonia. 26. Anthers are found in which of the following
groups? a. monocots b. mosses c. ferns d. Svcadaphyta e. all of the above 27. Which of the
following groups have vascular tissue? a. monocots b. horsetails c. ferns d. Gveadaphyta e. all of
the above 28. Which of the following would you expect to find in an octopus? a. The mouth
forms after the blastopore develops into the anus. b. radial cleavage c. There is no mesoderm d.
determinate cleavage e. an incomplete digestive system 29. In which group would you expect to
find a medusa stage? a. Polychaeta b. Cnidaria c. centipedes d. Gastropoda e. tapeworms 30.
Which characters are shared by echinoderms and corals? a. no excretory system b. radial
symmetry c. no respiratory system d. no head e. all of the above 31. Most animals are a. both
triploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. b. both triploblastic and with radial symmetry. c. both
diploblastic and with radial symmetry. d. both diploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. e. none
of the above 32. Protostomes have both a. radial and spiral cleavage. b. determinate and spiral
cleavage. c. determinate and radial cleavage. d. indeterminate and spiral cleavage. e. triploblastic
and radial cleavage. 33. Which of the following would you not find in insects? a. Malpighian
tubules b. two pairs of antennae c. compound eyes d. a tracheal system e. an open circulatory
system 34. Spiders differ from insects by having a. segmentation b. an open circulatory system c.
an abdomen d. an exoskeleton e. book lungs 35. What is the gas exchange system in insects
called? a. Malpighian tubules b. book lungs c. external gills d. tracheal system e. complete
metamorphosis 36. Insects have the same number of antennae as a. spiders b. millipedes c.
centipedes d. crustaceans e. both b and c 37. Which arthropod groups have more legs than
insects? a. spiders b. crustaceans c. centipedes d. millipedes e. all of the above 38. In order to
become fully .
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29- Which of the following is not considered a microorganism A- mosqui.docx
29. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism A. mosquito B. protozoa C. bacteria D. viruses 30. The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called A. flagella B. cilia C. fimbriae D. pili 31. Rod shaped bacteria arranged in a chain are known as A. spirochetes B. spirilla C. streptobacilli D. coccus 32. Which of the following statements about protozoans is false? a) They are unicellular eukaryotes that demonstrate animal-like characteristics in both food consumption and motility. b) They only enter into parasitic relationships with a host. c) They have cellular features like flagella, cilia and pseudopodia that help attain food and aid movement. d) They may have complex life cycles alternating between cyst and trophozoite stages. 33. Which description(s) is(are) true of algae? a) They are all singled celled organisms. b) They are found in only saltwater habitats. c) The oxygen gas produced and exported by these photosynthetic microbes makes life possible for all organisms using aerobic respiration. d) Numerous pathogens are classified as algae. 34. Which of the following is a tenet of the Cell Theory? 1) All organisms are composed of one or more cells. 2) The cell is the structural unit of life. 3) Cells can arise only by division from a preexisting cell. 4) Cells divide only by fission. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 1,2 and 3 35. The structure of the plasma membrane is most appropriately described as a) a thick peptidoglycan layer with lipoteichoic acid b) a phospholipid bilayer with proteins c) a semi-permeable monolayer with phosphate groups d) a thin murien layer with high amino acid content
.
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SCIENCE-QUIZ-BEE.pptx
- 2. 1st Round
- 3. Which statement best describes the human respiratory system? A. It is composed of a network of moist passageways that permit air to flow from the external environment to the lungs. B. Each cell of the human body is in direct contact with the external environment, and gas exchange occurs by diffusion C. The external body surface is kept moist to allow for gas exchange. D. Gases diffuse across membranes on both the external and internal surfaces of the body.
- 4. The human trachea is prevented from collapsing by the presence of A. mucous membranes B. cartilaginous rings C. muscle fibers D. bony networks
- 5. Deposits from cigarette smoke are most likely to interfere with the ciliated mucous membranes locatedinboththe A.trachea and esophagus B. alveoli and liver C. nasal cavity and trachea D. epiglottis and esophagus
- 6. Scientists call an organism that has two different alleles for a trait a A. Hybrid B. Trait C. Purebred D. Factor
- 7. Which organic compounds are needed for the synthesis of the plasma membrane, contain a large amount of stored energy, and have been linked to cardiovascular diseases? A.Complex carbohydrates B. saturated fats C. simple sugars D. polyunsaturated fats
- 8. The failure to regulate the pH of the blood can affect the activity of A.enzymes that clot blood B. red blood cells that make antibodies C. chlorophyll that carries oxygen in the blood D. DNA that controls starch digestion in the blood
- 9. Which is the largest chamber in the heart?
- 10. These contain the good and bad characteristics of an individual.
- 11. It describes how traits are passed on from parents to children.
- 12. It is the process involving in the union of a sperm and an egg.
- 13. What is the advantage of sexual reproduction? a.can reproduce by bringing specialized gametes together b.can reproduce without bringing specialized gametes together c.provides a large degree of variation d.produces a limited number of offspring
- 14. If a heterozygous tall plant (Tt) is crossed with a homozygous short plant (tt), how many percent of the offspring are heterozygous tall? a.25% c. 75% b.50% d. 100%
- 15. If a plant that has round seeds has a parent that has wrinkled seeds, what is its genotype? (Assume that round is dominant.) a.RR c. Rr b.rr d. RrWw
- 16. The number of electrons in the highest energy level of 20Ca is A. 2 C. 4 B. 5 D. 6
- 17. Which of the following statements best describes a metal and a nonmetal during ionic bond? a.Both metals and nonmetals lose electrons during bond formation. b.Both metals and nonmetals gain electrons during bond formation. c.Metals are electron donors while nonmetals are electron acceptors. d.Metals are electron acceptors while nonmetals are electron donors.
- 18. Potassium (19K) reacts with chlorine (17Cl). What is the correct formula for the compound? a.KCl c. KCl2 b. K2Cl d. KCl3
- 19. The element oxygen has 6 valence electrons and needs to add _____ electrons to complete its octet. a. 2 electrons c. 6 electrons b.4 electrons d. 5 electrons
- 20. When Na atom loses one electron, it gets a charge of ______________ __. a.-1 c. 0 b.+1 d. it has no charge
- 21. Which of the following lists contain no ionic compound? a.HCN, NO, Ca(NO3) c. NaH, CaF2, NaNH2 b. KOH, CCl4, SF6 d. CH2O, H2S, NH3
- 22. Ion X has a charge of 3+, and ion Y has a charge of 2-. What is the correct formula of the compound formed? a. X3Y2 c. (XY)3 b. X2Y3 d. X2Y2