BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
1
Chapter 6: Cell Energy, Transport and Enzymes
1) Many of the enzymes that control a deep-sea firefly squid's ability to produce light energy from chemical energy are located
A) in membranes.
B) in the nucleus.
C) within chloroplasts.
D) outside of cells.
E) within mitochondria.
2) The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as consisting of
A) a phospholipid bilayer with embedded carbohydrates.
B) two layers of phospholipids with protein sandwiched between them.
C) a protein bilayer with embedded phospholipids.
D) carbohydrates, proteins, and phospholipids that can drift in the membrane.
E) individual proteins and phospholipids that can drift in a phospholipid bilayer.
3) Membrane phospholipids
A) have hydrophobic heads that face the center of the membrane and are shielded from water.
B) have hydrophilic tails that face outward and are exposed to water.
C) often have "kinks" in their tails caused by the presence of a double bond between carbons.
D) remain fluid because they are tightly packed against one another.
E) form impermeable layers for cells.
4) The cholesterol associated with animal cell membranes
A) is attached to membrane proteins and extends into the watery environment surrounding the cell.
B) helps to stabilize the cell membrane at body temperature.
C) makes the cell membrane fluid at room temperature.
D) is an abnormality resulting from a diet high in cholesterol.
E) helps solidify the membranes when the room temperature is below freezing.
5) A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the cell membrane is to
A) glue cells together to form tissues.
B) allow the cells of an embryo to sort themselves into tissues and organs.
C) attach the cell membrane to the cytoskeleton.
D) help the cell resist swelling.
E) help the cell retain its shape.
6) When physicians perform an organ transplant, they choose a donor whose tissues match those of the recipient as closely as
possible. Which of the following cell components are being matched?
A) plasma membrane phospholipids
B) plasma membrane proteins
C) cell-surface carbohydrates
D) plasma membrane cholesterols
E) cytoskeletal elements
7) Most of the functions of a cell membrane are performed by
A) glycolipids.
B) proteins.
C) phospholipids.
D) cholesterol.
E) nucleotides.
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
2
9) Relaying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called
A) signal transduction.
B) inhibition.
C) competition.
D) self-recognition.
E) selective permeability.
10) Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that
A) anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the membrane is intact and the cell is healthy.
B) the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others.
C) glucose cannot ...
Cell Physiology Spring 2016 Name Page 1 This test is .docxtidwellveronique
Cell Physiology Spring 2016 Name:
Page 1
This test is to be completed on your own, the essay sections should not be the same as anyone else’s
(word for word) If that is what I find you both will receive 0 for this test.
Structure/Function Cell Part
1) Stores material within the cell (General)
2) The sites of protein synthesis
3) Transports materials within the cell
4) Organelle that manages or controls all the cell functions in a
eukaryotic cell
5) Digests excess or worn-out cell parts, food particles and invading
viruses or bacteria
6) Small bumps located on portions of the endoplasmic reticulum
7) Provides temporary storage of food, enzymes and waste products
8) Produces a usable form of energy for the cell
9) Packages proteins for transport out of the cell
10) The membrane surrounding the cell
11) Name for the collection of DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells
12) Consist of hollow tubes which provide support for the cell
13) Small hair-like structures used for movement or sensing things
Cell Physiology Spring 2016 Name:
Page 2
1) In what organelle does cellular respiration take place?
2) Name two storage organelles?
3) What is the list of organelles that take part in protein synthesis?
4) How is the nucleus involved in protein synthesis?
5) What is the difference between rough ER and smooth ER? What is the ER doing that is
different in each case?
6) What are lysosomes? What types of molecules would be found inside a lysosome?
7) Why might a lysosome fuse with or link up with a food vacuole?
8) In what organelle do molecules move from the ER to the Golgi bodies?
Cell Physiology Spring 2016 Name:
Page 3
9) The pH of lysosomes is lower than that of the cytosol because of the action of
A. Na+ and OH− transport proteins in the lysosomal membrane
B. H+ and Cl− transport proteins in the plasma membrane
C. acid-producing enzymes in the lysosomal lumen
D. H+ and Cl− transport proteins in the lysosomal membrane
10) The phenomenon in which a chemical absorbs light at one wavelength and emits it at a specific
and longer wavelength is called
A. Differential interference contrast.
B. fluorescence.
C. deconvolution.
D. shadowing.
11) Which of the following could be used to visualize subcellular structure in living cells?
A. transmission electron microscopy
B. scanning electron microscopy
C. bright field microscopy
D. differential Fluorescence interference light microscopy
12) If a cellular homogenate were subjected to differential centrifugation, which of the following
would be expected to pellet first?
A. the endoplasmic reticulum
B. mitochondria
C. the cytosol
D. nuclei
Cell Physiology Spring 2016 Name:
Page 4
13) The disruption of a cell is necessary to release its organelles and contents for subsequent
isolation. One method, called _________________________________, uses ultrahigh-
...
Cell Physiology Spring 2016 Name Page 1 This test is .docxtidwellveronique
Cell Physiology Spring 2016 Name:
Page 1
This test is to be completed on your own, the essay sections should not be the same as anyone else’s
(word for word) If that is what I find you both will receive 0 for this test.
Structure/Function Cell Part
1) Stores material within the cell (General)
2) The sites of protein synthesis
3) Transports materials within the cell
4) Organelle that manages or controls all the cell functions in a
eukaryotic cell
5) Digests excess or worn-out cell parts, food particles and invading
viruses or bacteria
6) Small bumps located on portions of the endoplasmic reticulum
7) Provides temporary storage of food, enzymes and waste products
8) Produces a usable form of energy for the cell
9) Packages proteins for transport out of the cell
10) The membrane surrounding the cell
11) Name for the collection of DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells
12) Consist of hollow tubes which provide support for the cell
13) Small hair-like structures used for movement or sensing things
Cell Physiology Spring 2016 Name:
Page 2
1) In what organelle does cellular respiration take place?
2) Name two storage organelles?
3) What is the list of organelles that take part in protein synthesis?
4) How is the nucleus involved in protein synthesis?
5) What is the difference between rough ER and smooth ER? What is the ER doing that is
different in each case?
6) What are lysosomes? What types of molecules would be found inside a lysosome?
7) Why might a lysosome fuse with or link up with a food vacuole?
8) In what organelle do molecules move from the ER to the Golgi bodies?
Cell Physiology Spring 2016 Name:
Page 3
9) The pH of lysosomes is lower than that of the cytosol because of the action of
A. Na+ and OH− transport proteins in the lysosomal membrane
B. H+ and Cl− transport proteins in the plasma membrane
C. acid-producing enzymes in the lysosomal lumen
D. H+ and Cl− transport proteins in the lysosomal membrane
10) The phenomenon in which a chemical absorbs light at one wavelength and emits it at a specific
and longer wavelength is called
A. Differential interference contrast.
B. fluorescence.
C. deconvolution.
D. shadowing.
11) Which of the following could be used to visualize subcellular structure in living cells?
A. transmission electron microscopy
B. scanning electron microscopy
C. bright field microscopy
D. differential Fluorescence interference light microscopy
12) If a cellular homogenate were subjected to differential centrifugation, which of the following
would be expected to pellet first?
A. the endoplasmic reticulum
B. mitochondria
C. the cytosol
D. nuclei
Cell Physiology Spring 2016 Name:
Page 4
13) The disruption of a cell is necessary to release its organelles and contents for subsequent
isolation. One method, called _________________________________, uses ultrahigh-
...
BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docxhartrobert670
BIOL 101 EXAM
The following general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 125 points. Multiple choice questions #1-50 are worth 1 point each. Multiple choice questions #51-57 are worth 2 points each. Choose 6 of 7 essay questions #58-64, which are worth 10 points each. Please provide answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam, answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder
GOOD LUCK! Thanks for taking the course,
********************************************************************** MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 50 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory
D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) atom B) cell C) organism D) ecosystem
3. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) ions D) isotopes
4. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of
chlorine isA) 8 B) 17 C) 35 D) 52
5. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutralC) a base
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic ...
2) In order to act as a barrier against unregulated exchange between t.docxChristopherKNjAbraha
2) In order to act as a barrier against unregulated exchange between the interior of the cell and the immediate external environment of that cell, the cell membrane has evolved with the following properties: Answer a) a lipid bi-layer is arranged so that it has a hydrophilic exterior and a hydrophobic interior that limits the passage of polar molecules but not lipids. b) a lipid bi-layer is arranged so that it has a hydrophobic exterior and a hydrophilic interior that limits the passage of polar molecules but not lipids. c) a lipid bi-layer is hydrophobic and is covered in hydrophilic proteins which limit the passage of polar molecules but not lipids. d) a lipid bi-layer is completely impermeable except in the regions where protein channels exist. 3) Passive diffusion follows the laws of thermodynamics. It occurs because Answer a) the movement of molecules down its electrical gradient will decrease entropy. b) molecules will naturally move up their concentration gradients as described by th thermodynamic law of entropy. c) molecules move with their electro-chemical gradients toward greater entropy. d) molecules move with their electro-chemical gradients toward reduced entropy. NAME 4) While the laws of physics govern passive diffusion, there are still obstacles that restrict the passive movement of molecules. Which of the following restricts passive diffusion? a) particle concentration, particle size and particle location. b) particle charge, particle size and particle location. c) particle size, particle concentration and particle gradient. d) particle size, particle concentration and particle charge. 5) Facilitated diffusion can Answet a) increase the rate at which particles accumulate with in a cell until the particle concentration is at equilibrium between the inside and outside of the cell. b) increase the rate at which particles accumulate with in a cell until the particle concentration is increased within the cell. c) requires an energy source to allow entry of particles into the cell. d) requires a lipid based intermediate to act as the carrier. 6) Active transport Answer. a) requires that a concentration gradient must be formed because it is using energy derived from the cleavage of ATP. b) can produce a concentration gradient but only if there is co-transported molecule. c) requires a concentration gradient and the cleavage of ATP to reverse the process. d) can create a concentration gradient with the cleavage of ATP.
.
Test Bank for Applied Pathophysiology A Conceptual Approach to theMechanisms ...nursing premium
A Test bank is a ready-made electronic Q&A testing resource that is tailored to the contents of an individual textbook. Feedback is often provided on answers given by students, containing page references to the book.
29- Which of the following is not considered a microorganism A- mosqui.docxStephenSR9Ramplingv
29. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism A. mosquito B. protozoa C. bacteria D. viruses 30. The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called A. flagella B. cilia C. fimbriae D. pili 31. Rod shaped bacteria arranged in a chain are known as A. spirochetes B. spirilla C. streptobacilli D. coccus 32. Which of the following statements about protozoans is false? a) They are unicellular eukaryotes that demonstrate animal-like characteristics in both food consumption and motility. b) They only enter into parasitic relationships with a host. c) They have cellular features like flagella, cilia and pseudopodia that help attain food and aid movement. d) They may have complex life cycles alternating between cyst and trophozoite stages. 33. Which description(s) is(are) true of algae? a) They are all singled celled organisms. b) They are found in only saltwater habitats. c) The oxygen gas produced and exported by these photosynthetic microbes makes life possible for all organisms using aerobic respiration. d) Numerous pathogens are classified as algae. 34. Which of the following is a tenet of the Cell Theory? 1) All organisms are composed of one or more cells. 2) The cell is the structural unit of life. 3) Cells can arise only by division from a preexisting cell. 4) Cells divide only by fission. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 1,2 and 3 35. The structure of the plasma membrane is most appropriately described as a) a thick peptidoglycan layer with lipoteichoic acid b) a phospholipid bilayer with proteins c) a semi-permeable monolayer with phosphate groups d) a thin murien layer with high amino acid content
.
Its all about the movement of substances across the plasma membrane. students may get the information about the passive and active transport in detail..
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014TEST MName.docxhartrobert670
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014
TEST M
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) include only the autosomes
B) separate during interphase
C) include only the sex chromosomes
D) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
E) carry the same genes
1)
2) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example,
the sperm are changing ______.
A) kinetic energy into chemical energy
B) chemical energy into potential energy
C) kinetic energy into potential energy
D) chemical energy into kinetic energy
E) none of the above
2)
3) Examine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______. 3)
1
A) serine
B) alanine
C) glycine
D) threonine
E) arginine
4) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait.
The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross
between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?
A) Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
B) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
C) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
D) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
E) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
4)
Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).
Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was
shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took
her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a
karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific
cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she
received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.
5) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment of chromosomes
C) cytokinesis
D) nondisjunction
E) crossing over
5)
6) Speciation requires ______.
A) long periods of time
B) geographic isolation
C) periods of rapid evolutionary change
D) a mass extinction so that new environmental opportunities will be available to the
survivors
E) genetic isolation
6)
7) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.
A) Native Americans
B) East Asian populations
C) populations that live in cold climates
D) cultures that keep dairy herds
E) populations that live in wet climates
7)
2
8) Which of the foll ...
(APA 6th Edition Formatting and Style Guide)
Office of Graduate Studies
Alcorn State University
Engaging Possibilities, Pursuing Excellence
REVISED May 23, 2018
THESIS MANUAL
Graduates
2
COPYRIGHT PRIVILEGES
BELONG TO
OFFICE OF GRADUATE STUDIES
ALCORN STATE UNIVERSITY, LORMAN, MS
Reproduction for distribution of this THESIS MANUAL requires the written permission of the
Provost and Executive Vice President for Academic Affairs or Graduate Studies Administrator.
FOREWORD
Alcorn State University Office of Graduate Studies requires that all students comply with the
specifications given in this document in the publication of a thesis or non-thesis research project.
Graduate students, under faculty guidance, are expected to produce scholarly work either in the
form of a thesis or a scholarly research project.
The thesis (master or specialist) should document the student's research study and maintain a
degree of intensity.
The purpose of this manual is to assist the graduate student and the graduate thesis advisory
committee in each department with the instructions contained herein. This is the official
approved manual by the Graduate Division.
Formatting questions not addressed in these guidelines should be directed to the Graduate School
staff in the Walter Washington Administration Building, Suite 519 or by phone at
601.877.6122 or via email: [email protected] or in person.
The Graduate Studies
Thesis Advisory Committee
(Revised Spring 2018)
mailto:[email protected]
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Page
INTRODUCTION ............................................................................................................................ 3
SELECTION AND APPOINTMENT OF THESIS ADVISORY COMMITTEE ......................... 4
1. Early Topic Selection ......................................................................................................... 4
2. Selection of Thesis Chair ......................................................................................................... 4
3. Selection of Thesis Committee Members .......................................................................... 4
4. Appointment of Thesis Advisory Committee Form .......................................................... 4
5. Invitation to Prospective Committee Members ................................................................. 5
6. TAC Committee Selection ................................................................................................. 5
CHOICE OF SUBJECT .................................................................................................................... 5
PROPOSAL DEFENSE AND SUBMISSION OF PROPOSAL TO IRB ..................................... 5
PARTS OF THE MANUSCRIPT: PRELIMINARY PAGES ..................................................... 8
1. Title Page .
(a) Thrasymachus’ (the sophist’s) definition of Justice or Right o.docxAASTHA76
(a) Thrasymachus’ (the sophist’s) definition of Justice or Right or Right Doing/Living is “The Interest of the Stronger (Might makes Right).” How does Socrates refute this definition? (cite just
one
of his arguments) [cf:
The Republic
, 30-40, Unit 1 Lecture Video]
(b) According to Socrates, what is the true definition of Justice or Right? [cf:
The Republic
, 141-42, Unit 2 Lecture Video]
(c) And why therefore is the Just life far preferable to the Unjust life (142-43)?
(a) The Allegory of the CAVE (the main metaphor of western philosophy) is an illustration of the Divided LINE.
Characterize
the Two Worlds, and the move/ascent from one to the other (exiting the CAVE, crossing the Divided LINE)—which is alone the true meaning of Education and the only way to become Just, Right, and Immortal. [cf:
The Republic
, 227-232, Unit 3 Lecture Video]
(b) How do the philosophical Studies of
Arithmetic
(number) and
Dialectic
take you above the Divided Line and out of the changing sense-world of illusion (the CAVE) into Reality and make you use your Reason (pure thought) instead of your senses? [cf:
The Republic
, 235-37, 240-42, 250-55. Unit 4 Lecture Video (transcript)]
Give a summary of the
Proof of the Force
(Why there is the “Universe,” “Man,” “God,” “History,” etc)? Start with, “Can there be
nothing
?” [cf: TJH 78-95, Unit 2 Lecture Video]
NIETZSCHE is the crucial Jedi philosopher who provides the “bridge” between negative and positive Postmodernity by focusing on a certain “Problem” and the “
Solution
” to it.
(a) Discuss
2
of the following items (
1
pertaining to the Problem,
1
pertaining to the
.
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BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docxhartrobert670
BIOL 101 EXAM
The following general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 125 points. Multiple choice questions #1-50 are worth 1 point each. Multiple choice questions #51-57 are worth 2 points each. Choose 6 of 7 essay questions #58-64, which are worth 10 points each. Please provide answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam, answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder
GOOD LUCK! Thanks for taking the course,
********************************************************************** MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 50 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory
D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) atom B) cell C) organism D) ecosystem
3. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) ions D) isotopes
4. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of
chlorine isA) 8 B) 17 C) 35 D) 52
5. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutralC) a base
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic ...
2) In order to act as a barrier against unregulated exchange between t.docxChristopherKNjAbraha
2) In order to act as a barrier against unregulated exchange between the interior of the cell and the immediate external environment of that cell, the cell membrane has evolved with the following properties: Answer a) a lipid bi-layer is arranged so that it has a hydrophilic exterior and a hydrophobic interior that limits the passage of polar molecules but not lipids. b) a lipid bi-layer is arranged so that it has a hydrophobic exterior and a hydrophilic interior that limits the passage of polar molecules but not lipids. c) a lipid bi-layer is hydrophobic and is covered in hydrophilic proteins which limit the passage of polar molecules but not lipids. d) a lipid bi-layer is completely impermeable except in the regions where protein channels exist. 3) Passive diffusion follows the laws of thermodynamics. It occurs because Answer a) the movement of molecules down its electrical gradient will decrease entropy. b) molecules will naturally move up their concentration gradients as described by th thermodynamic law of entropy. c) molecules move with their electro-chemical gradients toward greater entropy. d) molecules move with their electro-chemical gradients toward reduced entropy. NAME 4) While the laws of physics govern passive diffusion, there are still obstacles that restrict the passive movement of molecules. Which of the following restricts passive diffusion? a) particle concentration, particle size and particle location. b) particle charge, particle size and particle location. c) particle size, particle concentration and particle gradient. d) particle size, particle concentration and particle charge. 5) Facilitated diffusion can Answet a) increase the rate at which particles accumulate with in a cell until the particle concentration is at equilibrium between the inside and outside of the cell. b) increase the rate at which particles accumulate with in a cell until the particle concentration is increased within the cell. c) requires an energy source to allow entry of particles into the cell. d) requires a lipid based intermediate to act as the carrier. 6) Active transport Answer. a) requires that a concentration gradient must be formed because it is using energy derived from the cleavage of ATP. b) can produce a concentration gradient but only if there is co-transported molecule. c) requires a concentration gradient and the cleavage of ATP to reverse the process. d) can create a concentration gradient with the cleavage of ATP.
.
Test Bank for Applied Pathophysiology A Conceptual Approach to theMechanisms ...nursing premium
A Test bank is a ready-made electronic Q&A testing resource that is tailored to the contents of an individual textbook. Feedback is often provided on answers given by students, containing page references to the book.
29- Which of the following is not considered a microorganism A- mosqui.docxStephenSR9Ramplingv
29. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism A. mosquito B. protozoa C. bacteria D. viruses 30. The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called A. flagella B. cilia C. fimbriae D. pili 31. Rod shaped bacteria arranged in a chain are known as A. spirochetes B. spirilla C. streptobacilli D. coccus 32. Which of the following statements about protozoans is false? a) They are unicellular eukaryotes that demonstrate animal-like characteristics in both food consumption and motility. b) They only enter into parasitic relationships with a host. c) They have cellular features like flagella, cilia and pseudopodia that help attain food and aid movement. d) They may have complex life cycles alternating between cyst and trophozoite stages. 33. Which description(s) is(are) true of algae? a) They are all singled celled organisms. b) They are found in only saltwater habitats. c) The oxygen gas produced and exported by these photosynthetic microbes makes life possible for all organisms using aerobic respiration. d) Numerous pathogens are classified as algae. 34. Which of the following is a tenet of the Cell Theory? 1) All organisms are composed of one or more cells. 2) The cell is the structural unit of life. 3) Cells can arise only by division from a preexisting cell. 4) Cells divide only by fission. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 1,2 and 3 35. The structure of the plasma membrane is most appropriately described as a) a thick peptidoglycan layer with lipoteichoic acid b) a phospholipid bilayer with proteins c) a semi-permeable monolayer with phosphate groups d) a thin murien layer with high amino acid content
.
Its all about the movement of substances across the plasma membrane. students may get the information about the passive and active transport in detail..
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014TEST MName.docxhartrobert670
BIO101 Midterm - Sacramento Valley Campus- June 2014
TEST M
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) include only the autosomes
B) separate during interphase
C) include only the sex chromosomes
D) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
E) carry the same genes
1)
2) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example,
the sperm are changing ______.
A) kinetic energy into chemical energy
B) chemical energy into potential energy
C) kinetic energy into potential energy
D) chemical energy into kinetic energy
E) none of the above
2)
3) Examine the genetic code table, shown below. The codon AGC codes for the amino acid ______. 3)
1
A) serine
B) alanine
C) glycine
D) threonine
E) arginine
4) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is inherited as an sex-linked dominant trait.
The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross
between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?
A) Seventy-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
B) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
C) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
D) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
E) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
4)
Please read the following paragraph and answer the following question(s).
Amanda's parents realized that her body was not developing properly about the time she was 12 years old. She was
shorter than most of her friends and was not going through changes normally associated with female puberty. They took
her to a doctor who initially diagnosed Amanda with Turner Syndrome because of her physical features. He ordered a
karyotype that confirmed his diagnosis. Amanda was born with only one X chromosome. Although there is no specific
cure, the doctor was able to treat her and correct some of the problems associated with the condition. For example, she
received growth hormone to improve her growth and estrogen to help her develop the physical changes of puberty.
5) Amanda's abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment of chromosomes
C) cytokinesis
D) nondisjunction
E) crossing over
5)
6) Speciation requires ______.
A) long periods of time
B) geographic isolation
C) periods of rapid evolutionary change
D) a mass extinction so that new environmental opportunities will be available to the
survivors
E) genetic isolation
6)
7) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life is most likely to be seen in ______.
A) Native Americans
B) East Asian populations
C) populations that live in cold climates
D) cultures that keep dairy herds
E) populations that live in wet climates
7)
2
8) Which of the foll ...
(APA 6th Edition Formatting and Style Guide)
Office of Graduate Studies
Alcorn State University
Engaging Possibilities, Pursuing Excellence
REVISED May 23, 2018
THESIS MANUAL
Graduates
2
COPYRIGHT PRIVILEGES
BELONG TO
OFFICE OF GRADUATE STUDIES
ALCORN STATE UNIVERSITY, LORMAN, MS
Reproduction for distribution of this THESIS MANUAL requires the written permission of the
Provost and Executive Vice President for Academic Affairs or Graduate Studies Administrator.
FOREWORD
Alcorn State University Office of Graduate Studies requires that all students comply with the
specifications given in this document in the publication of a thesis or non-thesis research project.
Graduate students, under faculty guidance, are expected to produce scholarly work either in the
form of a thesis or a scholarly research project.
The thesis (master or specialist) should document the student's research study and maintain a
degree of intensity.
The purpose of this manual is to assist the graduate student and the graduate thesis advisory
committee in each department with the instructions contained herein. This is the official
approved manual by the Graduate Division.
Formatting questions not addressed in these guidelines should be directed to the Graduate School
staff in the Walter Washington Administration Building, Suite 519 or by phone at
601.877.6122 or via email: [email protected] or in person.
The Graduate Studies
Thesis Advisory Committee
(Revised Spring 2018)
mailto:[email protected]
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Page
INTRODUCTION ............................................................................................................................ 3
SELECTION AND APPOINTMENT OF THESIS ADVISORY COMMITTEE ......................... 4
1. Early Topic Selection ......................................................................................................... 4
2. Selection of Thesis Chair ......................................................................................................... 4
3. Selection of Thesis Committee Members .......................................................................... 4
4. Appointment of Thesis Advisory Committee Form .......................................................... 4
5. Invitation to Prospective Committee Members ................................................................. 5
6. TAC Committee Selection ................................................................................................. 5
CHOICE OF SUBJECT .................................................................................................................... 5
PROPOSAL DEFENSE AND SUBMISSION OF PROPOSAL TO IRB ..................................... 5
PARTS OF THE MANUSCRIPT: PRELIMINARY PAGES ..................................................... 8
1. Title Page .
(a) Thrasymachus’ (the sophist’s) definition of Justice or Right o.docxAASTHA76
(a) Thrasymachus’ (the sophist’s) definition of Justice or Right or Right Doing/Living is “The Interest of the Stronger (Might makes Right).” How does Socrates refute this definition? (cite just
one
of his arguments) [cf:
The Republic
, 30-40, Unit 1 Lecture Video]
(b) According to Socrates, what is the true definition of Justice or Right? [cf:
The Republic
, 141-42, Unit 2 Lecture Video]
(c) And why therefore is the Just life far preferable to the Unjust life (142-43)?
(a) The Allegory of the CAVE (the main metaphor of western philosophy) is an illustration of the Divided LINE.
Characterize
the Two Worlds, and the move/ascent from one to the other (exiting the CAVE, crossing the Divided LINE)—which is alone the true meaning of Education and the only way to become Just, Right, and Immortal. [cf:
The Republic
, 227-232, Unit 3 Lecture Video]
(b) How do the philosophical Studies of
Arithmetic
(number) and
Dialectic
take you above the Divided Line and out of the changing sense-world of illusion (the CAVE) into Reality and make you use your Reason (pure thought) instead of your senses? [cf:
The Republic
, 235-37, 240-42, 250-55. Unit 4 Lecture Video (transcript)]
Give a summary of the
Proof of the Force
(Why there is the “Universe,” “Man,” “God,” “History,” etc)? Start with, “Can there be
nothing
?” [cf: TJH 78-95, Unit 2 Lecture Video]
NIETZSCHE is the crucial Jedi philosopher who provides the “bridge” between negative and positive Postmodernity by focusing on a certain “Problem” and the “
Solution
” to it.
(a) Discuss
2
of the following items (
1
pertaining to the Problem,
1
pertaining to the
.
(Glossary of Telemedicine and eHealth)· Teleconsultation Cons.docxAASTHA76
(Glossary of Telemedicine and eHealth)
· Teleconsultation: Consultation between a provider and specialist at distance using either store and forward telemedicine or real time videoconferencing.
· Telehealth and Telemedicine: Telemedicine is the use of medical information exchanged from one site to another via electronic communications to improve patients' health status. Closely associated with telemedicine is the term "telehealth," which is often used to encompass a broader definition of remote healthcare that does not always involve clinical services. Videoconferencing, transmission of still images, e-health including patient portals, remote monitoring of vital signs, continuing medical education and nursing call centers are all considered part of telemedicine and telehealth. Telemedicine is not a separate medical specialty. Products and services related to telemedicine are often part of a larger investment by health care institutions in either information technology or the delivery of clinical care. Even in the reimbursement fee structure, there is usually no distinction made between services provided on site and those provided through telemedicine and often no separate coding required for billing of remote services. Telemedicine encompasses different types of programs and services provided for the patient. Each component involves different providers and consumers.
· TeleICU: TeleICU is a collaborative, interprofessional model focusing on the care of critically ill patients using telehealth technologies.
· Telemonitoring: The process of using audio, video, and other telecommunications and electronic information processing technologies to monitor the health status of a patient from a distance.
· Telemonitoring: The process of using audio, video, and other telecommunications and electronic information processing technologies to monitor the health status of a patient from a distance.
· Clinical Decision Support System (CCDS): Systems (usually electronically based and interactive) that provide clinicians, staff, patients, and other individuals with knowledge and person-specific information, intelligently filtered and presented at appropriate times, to enhance health and health care. (http://healthit.ahrq.gov/images/jun09cdsreview/09_0069_ef.html)
· e-Prescribing: The electronic generation, transmission and filling of a medical prescription, as opposed to traditional paper and faxed prescriptions. E-prescribing allows for qualified healthcare personnel to transmit a new prescription or renewal authorization to a community or mail-order pharmacy.
· Home Health Care and Remote Monitoring Systems: Care provided to individuals and families in their place of residence for promoting, maintaining, or restoring health or for minimizing the effects of disability and illness, including terminal illness. In the Medicare Current Beneficiary Survey and Medicare claims and enrollment data, home health care refers to home visits by professionals including nu.
(Assmt 1; Week 3 paper) Using ecree Doing the paper and s.docxAASTHA76
(Assmt 1; Week 3 paper): Using ecree Doing the paper and submitting it (two pages here)
Have this sheet handy as well as the sheet called FORMAT SAMPLE PAPER for Assignment 1.
1. Go to the Week 3 unit and find the blue link ASSIGNMENT 1: DEALING WITH DIVERSITY…. Click on it.
2. You will see instructions on the screen and at the top “Assignment 1: ecree”. Click on that to enter ecree.
3. You will see some summary of the assignment instructions at the top of the screen—scroll down to see the three long, blank, rectangular boxes. You will be typing into those. Remember—do not worry about a title page or double spacing. Start composing your paragraphs. It will start as a rough draft.
4. As you start typing your introduction—notice on the right that comments start developing and also video links. Also on the right you will it say “Saved a Few seconds ago”. It is saving as you go. At first the comments are red (unfavorable). The more you do, usually the more green (favorable) comments start to appear. You can also keep revising.
5. When you hit the enter key it takes you to the next paragraph box—and sometimes it creates a new paragraph box for you.
6. Doing your Sources list in ecree—Your sources do have to be listed at the end. The FORMAT SAMPLE paper illustrates what they might look like. But, putting them in ecree gracefully can be a challenge.
a. Perhaps the best way is this: Have the last regular paragraph of your essay (Part 4) be in the box labeled “Conclusion”. Once that paragraph is written—in whole or in part, do this: Click on the word “Conclusion” to form a following paragraph box marked by three dots. Keep doing that and put each source in its own “three-dot” box. In other words, after your Conclusion paragraph—the heading “Sources” gets its own paragraph box at the end, followed by separate paragraph boxes for each source entry.
b. If the approach labeled “a” above is not working out, don’t worry about the external labels of those last paragraph boxes---just be sure to have a concluding paragraph (your Part 4) followed by paragraphs for the Sources header and each source entry. In grading, I will be able to figure it out. I will be lenient on how you organize that last part, as long as you have that last paragraph and a clear Sources list.
------------------------------------
UPLOAD OPTION: You can type your paper or a good rough draft of it into MS-Word as a file. Have it organized and laid out like the FORMAT SAMPLE paper. Then Upload it to ecree. Once you upload, take a little time and edit what uploaded so that it looks like what you intended and fits the 4-part organization of the assignment.
-----------------------
7. Click “Submit” on lower right only when absolutely ready. Once you submit, it will get graded.
Have fun! (see next page for a few notes and comments on ecree)
---------.
(Image retrieved at httpswww.google.comsearchhl=en&biw=122.docxAASTHA76
(Image retrieved at https://www.google.com/search?hl=en&biw=1229&bih=568&tbm=isch&sa=1&ei=fmYIW9W3G6jH5gLn7IHYAQ&q=analysis&oq=analysis&gs_l=img.3..0i67k1l2j0l5j0i67k1l2j0.967865.968569.0.969181.7.4.0.0.0.0.457.682.1j1j4-1.3.0....0...1c.1.64.img..5.2.622...0i7i30k1.0.rL9KcsvXM1U#imgrc=LU1vXlB6e2doDM: / )
ESOL 052 (Essay #__)
Steps:
1. Discuss the readings, videos, and photographs in the Truth and Lies module on Bb.
2. Select a significant/controversial photograph to analyze. (The photograph does not have to be from Bb.)
3. Choose one of the following essay questions:
a. What truth does this photograph reveal?
b. What lie does this photograph promote?
c. Why/How did people deliberately misuse this photograph and distort its true meaning?
d. Why was this photograph misinterpreted by so many people?
e. Why do so many people have different reactions to this photograph?
f. ___________________________________________________________________________?
(Students may create their own visual analysis essay question as long as it is pre-approved by the instructor.)
4. Use the OPTIC chart to brainstorm and take notes on your photograph.
5. Use a pre-writing strategy (outline, graphic organizer, etc.) to organize your ideas.
6. Using correct MLA format, write a 3-5 page essay.
7. Type a Works Cited page. (Use citationmachine.net, easybib.com, etc. to format your info.)
8. Peer and self-edit during the writing process (Bb Wiki, in/outside class).
9. Get feedback from your peers and an instructor during the writing process.
(Note: Students who visit the Writing Center and show me proof get 2 additional days to work on the assignment.)
10. Proofread/edit/revise during the writing process.
11. Put your pre-writing, essay, and Works Cited page in 1 Word document and upload it on Bb by midnight on ______. (If a student submits an essay without pre-writing or without a Works Cited page, he/she will receive a zero. If a student submits an assignment late, he/she will receive a zero. If a student plagiarizes, he/she will receive a zero.)
Purpose: Students will be able to use their reading, writing, critical thinking, and research skills to conduct a visual analysis that explores the theme of Truth and Lies.
Tone: The tone of this assignment should be formal and academic.
Language: The diction and syntax of this assignment should be formal and academic. Students should not use second person pronouns (you/your), contractions, abbreviations, slang, or any type of casual language. Students should refer to the diction and syntax guidelines in the writing packet.
Audience: The audience of this assignment is the student’s peers and instructor.
Format: MLA style (double spaced, 1 in. margins, Times New Roman 12 font, pagination, heading, title, tab for each paragraph, in-text citations, Works Cited page, hanging indents, etc.)
Requirements:
In order for a student to earn a minimum passing grade of 70% on this assignment, h.
(Dis) Placing Culture and Cultural Space Chapter 4.docxAASTHA76
(Dis) Placing Culture and Cultural Space
Chapter 4
+
Chapter Objectives
Describe the relationships among culture, place, cultural space, and identity in the context of globalization.
Explain how people use communicative practices to construct, maintain, negotiate, and hybridize cultural spaces.
Explain how cultures are simultaneously placed and displaced in the global context leading to segregated, contested and hybrid cultural spaces.
Describe the practice of bifocal vision to highlight the linkages between “here” and “there” as well as the connections between present and past.
+
Introduction
Explore the cultural and intercultural communication dimensions of place, space and location. We will examine:
The dynamic process of placing and displacing cultural space in the context of globalization.
How people use communicative practices to construct, maintain, negotiate, and hybridize cultural spaces
How segregated, contested, and hybrid cultural spaces are both shaped by the legacy of colonialism and the context of globalization.
How Hip hop culture illustrates the cultural and intercultural dimensions of place, space, and location in the context of globalization
+
Placing Culture and Cultural Space
Culture, by definition, is rooted in place with a reciprocal relationship between people and place
Culture:
“Place tilled” in Middle English
Colere : “to inhabit, care for, till, worship” in Latin
In the context of globalization, what is the relationship between culture and place?
Culture is both placed and displaced
+
Cultural Space
The communicative practices that construct meanings in, through and about particular places
Cultural space shapes verbal and nonverbal communicative practices
i.e. Classrooms, dance club, library.
Cultural spaces are constructed through the communicative practices developed and lived by people in particular places
Communicative practices include:
The languages, accents, slang, dress, artifacts, architectural design, the behaviors and patterns of interaction, the stories, the discourses and histories
How is the cultural space of your home, neighborhood, city, and state constructed through communicative practices?
+
Place, Cultural Space and Identity
Place, Culture, Identity and Difference
What’s the relationship between place and identity?
Avowed identity:
The way we see, label and make meaning about ourselves and
Ascribed identity:
The way others view, name and describe us and our group
Examples of how avowed and ascribed identities may conflict?
How is place related to standpoint and power?
Locations of enunciation:
Sites or positions from which to speak.
A platform from which to voice a perspective and be heard and/or silenced.
+
Displacing Culture and Cultural Space
(Dis) placed culture and cultural space:
A notion that captures the complex, contradictory and contested nature of cultural space and the relationship between culture and place that has emerged in the context o.
(1) Define the time value of money. Do you believe that the ave.docxAASTHA76
(1) Define the time value of money. Do you believe that the average person considers the time value of money when they make investment decisions? Please explain.
(2) Distinguish between ordinary annuities and annuities due. Also, distinguish between the future value of an annuity and the present value of an annuity.
.
(chapter taken from Learning Power)From Social Class and t.docxAASTHA76
(chapter taken from Learning Power)
From Social Class and the Hidden Curriculum of Work
JEAN ANYON
It's no surprise that schools in wealthy communities are better than those in poor communities, or that they better prepare their students for
desirable jobs. It may be shocking, however, to learn how vast the differences in schools are - not so much in resources as in teaching methods
and philosophies of education. Jean Anyon observed five elementary schools over the course of a full school year and concluded that fifth-
graders of different economic backgrounds are already being prepared to occupy particular rungs on the social ladder. In a sense, some whole
schools are on the vocational education track, while others are geared to produce future doctors, lawyers, and business leaders. Anyon's main
audience is professional educators, so you may find her style and vocabulary challenging, but, once you've read her descriptions of specific
classroom activities, the more analytic parts of the essay should prove easier to understand. Anyon is chairperson of the Department of
Education at Rutgers University, Newark; This essay first appeared in Journal of Education in 1980.
Scholars in political economy and the sociology of knowledge have recently argued that public schools in complex industrial societies like our
own make available different types of educational experience and curriculum knowledge to students in different social classes. Bowles and
Gintis1 for example, have argued that students in different social-class backgrounds are rewarded for classroom behaviors that correspond to
personality traits allegedly rewarded in the different occupational strata--the working classes for docility and obedience, the managerial classes
for initiative and personal assertiveness. Basil Bernstein, Pierre Bourdieu, and Michael W. Apple focusing on school knowledge, have argued
that knowledge and skills leading to social power and regard (medical, legal, managerial) are made available to the advantaged social groups but
are withheld from the working classes to whom a more "practical" curriculum is offered (manual skills, clerical knowledge). While there has
been considerable argumentation of these points regarding education in England, France, and North America, there has been little or no attempt
to investigate these ideas empirically in elementary or secondary schools and classrooms in this country.3
This article offers tentative empirical support (and qualification) of the above arguments by providing illustrative examples of differences in
student work in classrooms in contrasting social class communities. The examples were gathered as part of an ethnographical4 study of
curricular, pedagogical, and pupil evaluation practices in five elementary schools. The article attempts a theoretical contribution as well and
assesses student work in the light of a theoretical approach to social-class analysis.. . It will be suggested that there is a "hidden.
(Accessible at httpswww.hatchforgood.orgexplore102nonpro.docxAASTHA76
(Accessible at https://www.hatchforgood.org/explore/102/nonprofit-photography-ethics-and-approaches)
Nonprofit Photography: Ethics
and Approaches
Best practices and tips on ethics and approaches in
humanitarian photography for social impact.
The first moon landing. The Vietnamese ‘napalm girl’, running naked and in agony. The World
Trade Centers falling.
As we know, photography carries the power to inspire, educate, horrify and compel its viewers to
take action. Images evoke strong and often public emotions, as people frequently formulate their
opinions, judgments and behaviors in response to visual stimuli. Because of this, photography
can wield substantial control over public perception and discourse.
Moreover, photography in our digital age permits us to deliver complex information about
remote conditions which can be rapidly distributed and effortlessly processed by the viewer.
Recently, we’ve witnessed the profound impact of photography coupled with social media:
together, they have fueled political movements and brought down a corrupt government.
Photography can - and has - changed the course of history.
Ethical Considerations
Those who commission and create photography of marginalized populations to further an
organizations’ mission possess a tremendous responsibility. Careful ethical consideration should
be given to all aspects of the photography supply chain: its planning, creation, and distribution.
When planning a photography campaign, it is important to examine the motives for creating
particular images and their potential impact. Not only must a faithful, comprehensive visual
depiction of the subjects be created to avoid causing misconception, but more importantly, the
subjects’ dignity must be preserved. Words and images that elicit an emotional response by their
sheer shock value (e.g. starving, skeletal children covered in flies) are harmful because they
exploit the subjects’ condition in order to generate sympathy for increasing charitable donations
or support for a given cause. In addition to violating privacy and human rights, this so-called
'poverty porn’ is harmful to those it is trying to aid because it evokes the idea that the
marginalized are helpless and incapable of helping themselves, thereby cultivating a culture of
paternalism. Poverty porn is also detrimental because it is degrading, dishonoring and robs
people of their dignity. While it is important to illustrate the challenges of a population, one must
always strive to tell stories in a way that honors the subjects’ circumstances, and (ideally)
illustrates hope for their plight.
Legal issues
Legal issues are more clear cut when images are created or used in stable countries where legal
precedent for photography use has been established. Image use and creation becomes far more
murky and problematic in countries in which law and order is vague or even nonexistent.
Even though images created for no.
(a) The current ratio of a company is 61 and its acid-test ratio .docxAASTHA76
(a) The current ratio of a company is 6:1 and its acid-test ratio is 1:1. If the inventories and prepaid items amount to $445,500, what is the amount of current liabilities?
Current Liabilities
$
89100
(b) A company had an average inventory last year of $113,000 and its inventory turnover was 6. If sales volume and unit cost remain the same this year as last and inventory turnover is 7 this year, what will average inventory have to be during the current year? (Round answer to 0 decimal places, e.g. 125.)
Average Inventory
$
96857
(c) A company has current assets of $88,800 (of which $35,960 is inventory and prepaid items) and current liabilities of $35,960. What is the current ratio? What is the acid-test ratio? If the company borrows $12,970 cash from a bank on a 120-day loan, what will its current ratio be? What will the acid-test ratio be? (Round answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 2.50.)
Current Ratio
2.47
:1
Acid Test Ratio
:1
New Current Ratio
:1
New Acid Test Ratio
:1
(d) A company has current assets of $586,700 and current liabilities of $200,100. The board of directors declares a cash dividend of $173,700. What is the current ratio after the declaration but before payment? What is the current ratio after the payment of the dividend? (Round answers to 2 decimal places, e.g. 2.50.)
Current ratio after the declaration but before payment
:1
Current ratio after the payment of the dividend
:1
The following data is given:
December 31,
2015
2014
Cash
$66,000
$52,000
Accounts receivable (net)
90,000
60,000
Inventories
90,000
105,000
Plant assets (net)
380,500
320,000
Accounts payable
54,500
41,500
Salaries and wages payable
11,500
5,000
Bonds payable
70,500
70,000
8% Preferred stock, $40 par
100,000
100,000
Common stock, $10 par
120,000
90,000
Paid-in capital in excess of par
80,000
70,000
Retained earnings
190,000
160,500
Net credit sales
930,000
Cost of goods sold
735,000
Net income
81,000
Compute the following ratios: (Round answers to 2 decimal places e.g. 15.25.)
(a)
Acid-test ratio at 12/31/15
: 1
(b)
Accounts receivable turnover in 2015
times
(c)
Inventory turnover in 2015
times
(d)
Profit margin on sales in 2015
%
(e)
Return on common stock equity in 2015
%
(f)
Book value per share of common stock at 12/31/15
$
Exercise 24-4
As loan analyst for Utrillo Bank, you have been presented the following information.
Toulouse Co.
Lautrec Co.
Assets
Cash
$113,900
$311,200
Receivables
227,200
302,700
Inventories
571,200
510,700
Total current assets
912,300
1,124,600
Other assets
506,000
619,800
Total assets
$1,418,300
$1,744,400
Liabilities and Stockholders’ Equity
Current liabilities
$291,300
$350,400
Long-term liabilities
390,800
506,000
Capital stock and retained earnings
736,200
888,000
Total liabilities and stockholders’ equity
$1.
(1) How does quantum cryptography eliminate the problem of eaves.docxAASTHA76
(1) How does quantum cryptography eliminate the problem of eavesdropping in traditional cryptography?
(2) What are the limitations or problems associated with quantum cryptography?
(3) What features or activities will affect both the current and future developments of cryptography?
Use of proper APA formatting and citations. If supporting evidence from outside resources is used those must be properly cited.
References
.
#transformation
10
Event
Trends
for 2019
10 Event Trends for 2019
C O P Y R I G H T
All rights reserved. No part of this report may be
reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any
means whatsoever (including presentations, short
summaries, blog posts, printed magazines, use
of images in social media posts) without express
written permission from the author, except in the
case of brief quotations (50 words maximum and
for a maximum of 2 quotations) embodied in critical
articles and reviews, and with clear reference to
the original source, including a link to the original
source at https://www.eventmanagerblog.com/10-
event-trends/. Please refer all pertinent questions
to the publisher.
page 2
https://www.eventmanagerblog.com/10-event-trends/
https://www.eventmanagerblog.com/10-event-trends/
10 Event Trends for 2019
CONTENTS
INTRODUCTION page 5
TRANSFORMATION 8
10. PASSIVE ENGAGEMENT 10
9. CONTENT DESIGN 13
8. SEATING MATTERS 16
7. JOMO - THE JOY OF MISSING OUT 19
6. BETTER SAFE THAN SORRY 21
5. CAT SPONSORSHIP 23
4. SLOW TICKETING 25
3. READY TO BLOCKCHAIN 27
2. MARKETING BUDGETS SHIFTING MORE TO EVENTS 28
1. MORE THAN PLANNERS 30
ABOUT THE AUTHOR 31
CMP CREDITS 32
CREDITS AND THANKS 32
DISCLAIMER 32
page 3
INTERACTIVITY
AT THE HEART OF YOUR MEETINGS
Liven up your presentations!
EVENIUM
ConnexMe
San Francisco/Paris [email protected]
AD
https://eventmb.com/2PvIw1f
10 Event Trends for 2019
I am very glad to welcome you to the 8th edition of our annual
event trends. This is going to be a different one.
One element that made our event trends stand out from
the thousands of reports and articles on the topic is that we
don’t care about pleasing companies, pundits, suppliers, star
planners and the likes. Our only focus is you, the reader, to
help you navigate through very uncertain times.
This is why I decided to bring back this report, by far the most
popular in the industry, to its roots. 10 trends that will actually
materialize between now and November 2019, when we will
publish edition number nine.
I feel you have a lot going on, with your events I mean.
F&B, room blocks, sponsorship, marketing security, technology.
I think I failed you in previous editions. I think I gave you too
much. This report will be the most concise and strategic piece
of content you will need for next year.
If you don’t read anything else this year, it’s fine. As long as you
read the next few words.
INTRODUCTION
INTRODUCTION -
Julius Solaris
EventMB Editor
page 5
https://www.eventmanagerblog.com
10 Event Trends for 2019
How did I come up with these trends?
~ As part of this report, we reviewed 350 events. Some of the most successful
worldwide.
~ Last year we started a community with a year-long trend watch. That helped
us to constantly research new things happening in the industry.
~ We have reviewed north of 300 event technology solutions for our repor.
$10 now and $10 when complete Use resources from the required .docxAASTHA76
$10 now and $10 when complete
Use resources from the required readings or the GCU Library to create a 10‐15 slide digital presentation to be shown to your colleagues informing them of specific cultural norms and sociocultural influences affecting student learning at your school.
Choose a culture to research. State the country or countries of origin of your chosen culture and your reason for selecting it.
Include sociocultural influences on learning such as:
Religion
Dress
Cultural Norms
Food
Socialization
Gender Differences
Home Discipline
Education
Native Language
Include presenter’s notes, a title slide, in‐text citations, and a reference slide that contains three to five sources from the required readings or the GCU Library.
.
#include <string.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
#include <sys/types.h>
#include <sys/wait.h>
#include <stdio.h>
#include <unistd.h>
#include <string.h>
// Function: void parse(char *line, char **argv)
// Purpose : This function takes in a null terminated string pointed to by
// <line>. It also takes in an array of pointers to char <argv>.
// When the function returns, the string pointed to by the
// pointer <line> has ALL of its whitespace characters (space,
// tab, and newline) turned into null characters ('\0'). The
// array of pointers to chars will be modified so that the zeroth
// slot will point to the first non-null character in the string
// pointed to by <line>, the oneth slot will point to the second
// non-null character in the string pointed to by <line>, and so
// on. In other words, each subsequent pointer in argv will point
// to each subsequent "token" (characters separated by white space)
// IN the block of memory stored at the pointer <line>. Since all
// the white space is replaced by '\0', every one of these "tokens"
// pointed to by subsequent entires of argv will be a valid string
// The "last" entry in the argv array will be set to NULL. This
// will mark the end of the tokens in the string.
//
void parse(char *line, char **argv)
{
// We will assume that the input string is NULL terminated. If it
// is not, this code WILL break. The rewriting of whitespace characters
// and the updating of pointers in argv are interleaved. Basically
// we do a while loop that will go until we run out of characters in
// the string (the outer while loop that goes until '\0'). Inside
// that loop, we interleave between rewriting white space (space, tab,
// and newline) with nulls ('\0') AND just skipping over non-whitespace.
// Note that whenever we encounter a non-whitespace character, we record
// that address in the array of address at argv and increment it. When
// we run out of tokens in the string, we make the last entry in the array
// at argv NULL. This marks the end of pointers to tokens. Easy, right?
while (*line != '\0') // outer loop. keep going until the whole string is read
{ // keep moving forward the pointer into the input string until
// we encounter a non-whitespace character. While we're at it,
// turn all those whitespace characters we're seeing into null chars.
while (*line == ' ' || *line == '\t' || *line == '\n' || *line == '\r')
{ *line = '\0';
line++;
}
// If I got this far, I MUST be looking at a non-whitespace character,
// or, the beginning of a token. So, let's record the address of this
// beginning of token to the address I'm pointing at now. (Put it in *argv)
.
$ stated in thousands)Net Assets, Controlling Interest.docxAASTHA76
$ stated in thousands)
Net Assets, Controlling Interest
–
–
Net Assets, Noncontrolling Interest
AUDIT COMMITTEE
of the
Executive Board of the Boy Scouts of America
Francis R. McAllister, Chairman
David Biegler Ronald K. Migita
Dennis H. Chookaszian David Moody
Report of Independent Auditors
To the Executive Board of the National Council of the Boy Scouts of America
We have audited the accompanying consolidated financial statements of the National Council of the Boy Scouts
of America and its affiliates (the National Council), which comprise the consolidated statement of financial position
as of December 31, 2016, and the related consolidated statements of revenues, expenses, and other changes in net
assets, of functional expenses and of cash flows for the year then ended.
Management’s Responsibility for the Consolidated Financial Statements
Management is responsible for the preparation and fair presentation of the consolidated financial statements
in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America; this includes the
design, implementation and maintenance of internal control relevant to the preparation and fair presentation of
consolidated financial statements that are free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error.
Auditors’ Responsibility
Our responsibility is to express an opinion on the consolidated financial statements based on our audit. We
conducted our audit in accordance with auditing standards generally accepted in the United States of America.
Those standards require that we plan and perform the audit to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the
consolidated financial statements are free from material misstatement.
An audit involves performing procedures to obtain audit evidence about the amounts and disclosures in the
consolidated financial statements. The procedures selected depend on our judgment, including the assessment of
the risks of material misstatement of the consolidated financial statements, whether due to fraud or error. In making
those risk assessments, we consider internal control relevant to the National Council’s preparation and fair
presentation of the consolidated financial statements in order to design audit procedures that are appropriate in the
circumstances, but not for the purpose of expressing an opinion on the effectiveness of the National Council’s
internal control. Accordingly, we express no such opinion. An audit also includes evaluating the appropriateness of
accounting policies used and the reasonableness of significant accounting estimates made by management, as well as
evaluating the overall presentation of the consolidated financial sta.
#include <stdio.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
#include <pthread.h>
#include <time.h>
#include <unistd.h>
// Change the constant below to change the number of philosophers
// coming to lunch...
// This is a known GOOD solution based on the Arbitrator
// solution
#define PHILOSOPHER_COUNT 20
// Each philosopher is represented by one thread. Each thread independenly
// runs the same "think/start eating/finish eating" program.
pthread_t philosopher[PHILOSOPHER_COUNT];
// Each chopstick gets one mutex. If there are N philosophers, there are
// N chopsticks. That's the whole problem. There's not enough chopsticks
// for all of them to be eating at the same time. If they all cooperate,
// everyone can eat. If they don't... or don't know how.... well....
// philosophers are going to starve.
pthread_mutex_t chopstick[PHILOSOPHER_COUNT];
// The arbitrator solution adds a "waiter" that ensures that only pairs of
// chopsticks are grabbed. Here is the mutex for the waiter ;)
pthread_mutex_t waiter;
void *philosopher_program(int philosopher_number)
{ // In this version of the "philosopher program", the philosopher
// will think and eat forever.
while (1)
{ // Philosophers always think before they eat. They need to
// build up a bit of hunger....
//printf ("Philosopher %d is thinking\n", philosopher_number);
usleep(1);
// That was a lot of thinking.... now hungry... this
// philosopher (who knows his own number) grabs the chopsticks
// to her/his right and left. The chopstick to the left of
// philosopher N is chopstick N. The chopstick to the right
// of philosopher N is chopstick N+1
//printf ("Philosopher %d wants chopsticks\n",philosopher_number);
pthread_mutex_lock(&waiter);
pthread_mutex_lock(&chopstick[philosopher_number]);
pthread_mutex_lock(&chopstick[(philosopher_number+1)%PHILOSOPHER_COUNT]);
pthread_mutex_unlock(&waiter);
// Hurray, if I got this far I'm eating
printf ("Philosopher %d is eating\n",philosopher_number);
//usleep(1); // I spend twice as much time eating as thinking...
// typical....
// I'm done eating. Now put the chopsticks back on the table
//printf ("Philosopher %d finished eating\n",philosopher_number);
pthread_mutex_unlock(&chopstick[philosopher_number]);
pthread_mutex_unlock(&chopstick[(philosopher_number+1)%PHILOSOPHER_COUNT]);
//printf("Philosopher %d has placed chopsticks on the table\n", philosopher_number);
}
return(NULL);
}
int main()
{ int i;
srand(time(NULL));
for(i=0;i<PHILOSOPHER_COUNT;i++)
pthread_mutex_init(&chopstick[i],NULL);
pthread_mutex_init(&waiter,NULL);
for(i=0;i<PH.
#Assessment BriefDiploma of Business Eco.docxAASTHA76
#
Assessment BriefDiploma of Business Economics for Business
Credit points : 6 Prerequisites : None Co-requisites :
Subject Coordinator : Harriet Scott
Deadline : Sunday at the end of week 10 (Turnitin via CANVAS submission). Reflection due week 11 in tutorials.
ASSESSMENT TASK #3: FINAL CASE STUDY REPORT 25%
TASK DESCRIPTION
This assessment is a formal business report on a case study. Case studies will be assigned to students in the Academic and Business Communication subject. Readings on the case study are available on Canvas, in the Economics for Business subject. Students will also write a reflection on learning in tutorial classes in week 11.
LEARNING OUTCOMES
· Demonstrates understanding of microeconomic and macroeconomic concepts
· Applies economic concepts to contemporary issues and events
· Evaluates possible solutions for contemporary economic and business problems
· Communicates economic information in a business report format
INSEARCH CRICOS provider code: 00859D I UTS CRICOS provider code: 00099F INSEARCH Limited is a controlled entity of the University of Technology, Sydney (UTS), a registered non-self accrediting higher education institution and a pathway provider to UTS.
1. Refer to the case study you are working on for your presentation in Academic and Business Communication. Read the news stories for your case study, found on Canvas.
2. Individually, write a business report that includes the following information:
· Description of the main issue/problem and causes
· Description of the impact on stakeholders
· Analysis of economic concepts relevant to the case study (3-5 concepts)
· Recommendations for alternate solutions to the issue/problem
3. In your week 11 tutorial, write your responses to the reflection questions provided by your tutor, describing your learning experience in this assessment.
Other Requirements Format: Business Report
· Use the Business Report format as taught in BABC001 (refer to CANVAS Help for more information)
· Write TEEL paragraphs (refer to CANVAS Help for more information)
· All work submitted must be written in your own words, using paraphrasing techniques taught in BABC001
· Check Canvas — BECO — Assessments — Final Report page and ‘Writing a report' flyer for more information
Report Presentation: You need to include:
· Cover page as taught in BABC001
· Table of contents - list headings, subheadings and page numbers
· Reference list - all paraphrased/summarised/quoted evidence should include citations; all citations should be detailed in the Reference List
Please ensure your assignment is presented professionally. Suggested structure:
· Cover page
· Table of contents (bold, font size 18)
· Executive summary (bold, font size 18)
· 1.0 Introduction (bold, font size 16)
· 2.0 Main issue (bold, font size 16)
o 2.1 Causes (italics, font size 14)
· 3.0 Stakeholders (bold, font size 16)
o 3.1 Stakeholder 1 (italics, font size 14) o 3.2 Stakeholder 2 (italics, font size 14) o 3.3 Stakeholde.
#include <stdio.h>
#include <stdint.h>
#include <stdbool.h>
// Prototype of FOUR functions, each for a STATE.
// The func in State 1 performs addition of "unsigned numbers" x0 and x1.
int s1_add_uintN(int x0, int x1, bool *c_flg);
// The func in State 2 performs addition of "signed numbers" x0 and x1.
int s2_add_intN(int x0, int x1, bool *v_flg);
// The func in State 3 performs subtraction of "unsigned numbers" x0 and x1.
int s3_sub_uintN(int x0, int x1, bool *c_flg);
// The func in State 3 performs subtraction of "signed numbers" x0 and x1.
int s4_sub_intN(int x0, int x1, bool *v_flg);
// We define the number of bits and the related limits of unsigned and
// and signed numbers.
#define N 5 // number of bits
#define MIN_U 0 // minimum value of unsigned N-bit number
#define MAX_U ((1 << N) - 1) // maximum value of unsigned N-bit number
#define MIN_I (-(1 << (N-1)) ) // minimum value of signed N-bit number
#define MAX_I ((1 << (N-1)) - 1) // maximum value of signed N-bit number
// We use the following three pointers to access data, which can be changed
// when the program pauses. We need to make sure to have the RAM set up
// for these addresses.
int *pIn = (int *)0x20010000U; // the value of In should be -1, 0, or 1.
int *pX0 = (int *)0x20010004U; // X0 and X1 should be N-bit integers.
int *pX1 = (int *)0x20010008U;
int main(void) {
enum progState{State1 = 1, State2, State3, State4};
enum progState cState = State1; // Current State
bool dataReady = false;
bool cFlg, vFlg;
int result;
while (1) {
dataReady = false;
// Check if the data are legitimate
while (!dataReady) {
printf("Halt program here to provide correct update of data\n");
printf("In should be -1, 0, and 1 and ");
printf("X0 and X1 should be N-bit SIGNED integers\n");
if (((-1 <= *pIn) && (*pIn <= 1)) &&
((MIN_I <= *pX0) && (*pX0 <= MAX_I)) &&
((MIN_I <= *pX1) && (*pX1 <= MAX_I))) {
dataReady = true;
}
}
printf("Your input: In = %d, X0 = %d, X1 = %d \n", *pIn, *pX0, *pX1);
switch (cState) {
case State1:
result = s1_add_uintN(*pX0, *pX1, &cFlg);
printf("State = %d, rslt = %d, Cflg = %d\n", cState, result, cFlg);
cState += *pIn;
if (cState < State1) cState += State4;
break;
case State2:
result = s2_add_intN(*pX0, *pX1, &vFlg);
printf("State = %d, rslt = %d, Vflg = %d\n", cState, result, vFlg);
cState += *pIn;
break;
case State3:
case State4:
default:
printf("Error with the program state\n");
}
}
}
int s1_add_uintN(int x0, int x1, bool *c_flg) {
if (x0 < 0) x0 = x0 + MAX_U + 1;
if.
We all have good and bad thoughts from time to time and situation to situation. We are bombarded daily with spiraling thoughts(both negative and positive) creating all-consuming feel , making us difficult to manage with associated suffering. Good thoughts are like our Mob Signal (Positive thought) amidst noise(negative thought) in the atmosphere. Negative thoughts like noise outweigh positive thoughts. These thoughts often create unwanted confusion, trouble, stress and frustration in our mind as well as chaos in our physical world. Negative thoughts are also known as “distorted thinking”.
Students, digital devices and success - Andreas Schleicher - 27 May 2024..pptxEduSkills OECD
Andreas Schleicher presents at the OECD webinar ‘Digital devices in schools: detrimental distraction or secret to success?’ on 27 May 2024. The presentation was based on findings from PISA 2022 results and the webinar helped launch the PISA in Focus ‘Managing screen time: How to protect and equip students against distraction’ https://www.oecd-ilibrary.org/education/managing-screen-time_7c225af4-en and the OECD Education Policy Perspective ‘Students, digital devices and success’ can be found here - https://oe.cd/il/5yV
The Indian economy is classified into different sectors to simplify the analysis and understanding of economic activities. For Class 10, it's essential to grasp the sectors of the Indian economy, understand their characteristics, and recognize their importance. This guide will provide detailed notes on the Sectors of the Indian Economy Class 10, using specific long-tail keywords to enhance comprehension.
For more information, visit-www.vavaclasses.com
This is a presentation by Dada Robert in a Your Skill Boost masterclass organised by the Excellence Foundation for South Sudan (EFSS) on Saturday, the 25th and Sunday, the 26th of May 2024.
He discussed the concept of quality improvement, emphasizing its applicability to various aspects of life, including personal, project, and program improvements. He defined quality as doing the right thing at the right time in the right way to achieve the best possible results and discussed the concept of the "gap" between what we know and what we do, and how this gap represents the areas we need to improve. He explained the scientific approach to quality improvement, which involves systematic performance analysis, testing and learning, and implementing change ideas. He also highlighted the importance of client focus and a team approach to quality improvement.
Welcome to TechSoup New Member Orientation and Q&A (May 2024).pdfTechSoup
In this webinar you will learn how your organization can access TechSoup's wide variety of product discount and donation programs. From hardware to software, we'll give you a tour of the tools available to help your nonprofit with productivity, collaboration, financial management, donor tracking, security, and more.
2024.06.01 Introducing a competency framework for languag learning materials ...Sandy Millin
http://sandymillin.wordpress.com/iateflwebinar2024
Published classroom materials form the basis of syllabuses, drive teacher professional development, and have a potentially huge influence on learners, teachers and education systems. All teachers also create their own materials, whether a few sentences on a blackboard, a highly-structured fully-realised online course, or anything in between. Despite this, the knowledge and skills needed to create effective language learning materials are rarely part of teacher training, and are mostly learnt by trial and error.
Knowledge and skills frameworks, generally called competency frameworks, for ELT teachers, trainers and managers have existed for a few years now. However, until I created one for my MA dissertation, there wasn’t one drawing together what we need to know and do to be able to effectively produce language learning materials.
This webinar will introduce you to my framework, highlighting the key competencies I identified from my research. It will also show how anybody involved in language teaching (any language, not just English!), teacher training, managing schools or developing language learning materials can benefit from using the framework.
Palestine last event orientationfvgnh .pptxRaedMohamed3
An EFL lesson about the current events in Palestine. It is intended to be for intermediate students who wish to increase their listening skills through a short lesson in power point.
Unit 8 - Information and Communication Technology (Paper I).pdfThiyagu K
This slides describes the basic concepts of ICT, basics of Email, Emerging Technology and Digital Initiatives in Education. This presentations aligns with the UGC Paper I syllabus.
How to Make a Field invisible in Odoo 17Celine George
It is possible to hide or invisible some fields in odoo. Commonly using “invisible” attribute in the field definition to invisible the fields. This slide will show how to make a field invisible in odoo 17.
BSC1005 Biology General Chapter 6 1 Chapter 6 Cel.docx
1. BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
1
Chapter 6: Cell Energy, Transport and Enzymes
1) Many of the enzymes that control a deep-sea firefly squid's
ability to produce light energy from chemical energy are located
A) in membranes.
B) in the nucleus.
C) within chloroplasts.
D) outside of cells.
E) within mitochondria.
2) The fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as
consisting of
A) a phospholipid bilayer with embedded carbohydrates.
B) two layers of phospholipids with protein sandwiched
between them.
C) a protein bilayer with embedded phospholipids.
D) carbohydrates, proteins, and phospholipids that can drift in
the membrane.
E) individual proteins and phospholipids that can drift in a
phospholipid bilayer.
3) Membrane phospholipids
A) have hydrophobic heads that face the center of the membrane
and are shielded from water.
B) have hydrophilic tails that face outward and are exposed to
2. water.
C) often have "kinks" in their tails caused by the presence of a
double bond between carbons.
D) remain fluid because they are tightly packed against one
another.
E) form impermeable layers for cells.
4) The cholesterol associated with animal cell membranes
A) is attached to membrane proteins and extends into the watery
environment surrounding the cell.
B) helps to stabilize the cell membrane at body temperature.
C) makes the cell membrane fluid at room temperature.
D) is an abnormality resulting from a diet high in cholesterol.
E) helps solidify the membranes when the room temperature is
below freezing.
5) A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the cell
membrane is to
A) glue cells together to form tissues.
B) allow the cells of an embryo to sort themselves into tissues
and organs.
C) attach the cell membrane to the cytoskeleton.
D) help the cell resist swelling.
E) help the cell retain its shape.
6) When physicians perform an organ transplant, they choose a
donor whose tissues match those of the recipient as closely as
possible. Which of the following cell components are being
matched?
A) plasma membrane phospholipids
B) plasma membrane proteins
C) cell-surface carbohydrates
D) plasma membrane cholesterols
E) cytoskeletal elements
7) Most of the functions of a cell membrane are performed by
3. A) glycolipids.
B) proteins.
C) phospholipids.
D) cholesterol.
E) nucleotides.
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
2
9) Relaying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule
that performs a specific function within a cell is called
A) signal transduction.
B) inhibition.
C) competition.
D) self-recognition.
E) selective permeability.
10) Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means
that
A) anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the
membrane is intact and the cell is healthy.
B) the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or
leave a cell more easily than others.
C) glucose cannot enter the cell.
D) cholesterol cannot enter the cell.
E) plasma membranes must be very thick.
12) Small, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules such as fatty acids
4. A) easily pass through a membrane's lipid bilayer.
B) very slowly diffuse through a membrane's lipid bilayer.
C) require transport proteins to pass through a membrane's lipid
bilayer.
D) are actively transported across cell membranes.
E) usually enter the cell via endocytosis.
13) Which characteristic promoted the utilization of lipids as
the first cell membrane?
A) spontaneous degradation of the intracellular environment
B) self-assembly into a simple membrane
C) ability to form an impermeable membrane
D) formation of a semi-solid membrane
E) utilization of the hydrophilic nature of lipids
14) All cells are enclosed by a plasma membrane that is similar
in ________ and ________.
A) thickness . . . composition
B) permeability . . . content
C) proteins . . . lipids
D) lucidity . . . texture
E) structure . . . function
15) Which of the following substances would have the most
trouble crossing a biological membrane by diffusing through the
lipid
bilayer?
A) H2O
B) O2
C) CO2
D) Na+
E) a small, nonpolar molecule such as butane (C4H10)
16) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane by
A) osmosis.
B) phagocytosis.
5. C) active transport.
D) pinocytosis.
E) passive transport.
17) Which of the following statements regarding diffusion is
false?
A) Diffusion is a result of the kinetic energy of atoms and
molecules.
B) Diffusion is driven by concentration gradients.
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
3
C) Diffusion requires no input of energy into the system.
D) Diffusion occurs when particles spread from areas where
they are less concentrated to areas where they are more
concentrated.
E) Diffusion occurs even after equilibrium is reached and no net
change is apparent.
18) Diffusion does not require the cell to expend ATP.
Therefore, diffusion is considered a type of
A) exocytosis.
B) phagocytosis.
C) passive transport.
D) active transport.
E) endocytosis.
19) Osmosis can be defined as
A) the diffusion of water.
B) the diffusion of nonpolar molecules.
6. C) active transport.
D) the diffusion of a solute.
E) endocytosis.
20) When two aqueous solutions that differ in solute
concentration are placed on either side of a semipermeable
membrane and
osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will
A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water
concentration.
B) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water
concentration.
C) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute
concentration.
D) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the
membrane.
E) not cross the membrane.
22) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile
vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water from the cell.
The
presence of these organelles tells you that the environment
A) is isotonic to the protozoan.
B) is hypotonic to the protozoan.
C) is contaminated with pollutants.
D) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the
protozoan.
E) is hypertonic to the protozoan.
23) A cell that neither gains nor loses water when it is
immersed in a solution is
A) isotonic to its environment.
B) hypertonic to its environment.
C) hypotonic to its environment.
D) metabolically inactive.
E) dead.
7. 24) In a hypotonic solution, an animal cell will
A) lyse.
B) experience turgor.
C) neither gain nor lose water.
D) shrivel.
E) lose water.
26) In the lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to
water but not sucrose to make an "artificial cell." The balloon is
filled
with a solution of 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed
in a beaker containing a solution of 40% sucrose and 60%
water. The
solution in the balloon is ________ relative to the solution in
the beaker.
A) isotonic
B) hypotonic
C) hypertonic
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
4
D) hydrophobic
E) hydrophilic
28) A plant cell in a hypotonic solution
A) is turgid.
B) lyses.
C) shrivels.
D) wilts.
8. E) is flaccid.
30) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires
________ and moves a substance ________ its concentration
gradient.
A) energy and transport proteins . . . down
B) energy . . . down
C) transport proteins . . . down
D) energy and transport proteins . . . against
E) transport proteins . . . against
31) The molecules responsible for membrane transport are
A) steroids.
B) ATP.
C) phospholipids.
D) carbohydrates.
E) proteins.
33) Which of the following processes can move a solute against
its concentration gradient?
A) osmosis
B) passive transport
C) diffusion
D) facilitated diffusion
E) active transport
34) Which of the following processes could result in the net
movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more
concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?
A) active transport
B) facilitated diffusion
C) diffusion
D) osmosis
E) passive transport.
35) Which of the following is a typical feature of an ATP-
9. driven active transport mechanism?
A) The transport protein must cross to the correct side of the
membrane before the solute can bind to it.
B) The solute must be phosphorylated before it can bind to the
transport protein.
C) The transport protein is irreversibly phosphorylated as
transport takes place.
D) The transport protein catalyzes the conversion of ADP to
ATP.
E) The solute moves against the concentration gradient.
37) Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive
enzyme and secrete it into the stomach. This enzyme is a
protein.
Which of the following processes could be responsible for its
secretion?
A) endocytosis
B) exocytosis
C) diffusion
D) pinocytosis
E) passive transport
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
5
38) The process of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is
A) osmosis.
B) diffusion.
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
D) pinocytosis.
10. E) phagocytosis.
39) Phagocytosis is to eating as pinocytosis is to
A) osmosis.
B) drinking.
C) chewing.
D) hydrolysis.
E) lysis.
40) Cells acquire LDLs by
A) osmosis.
B) diffusion.
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
D) pinocytosis.
E) phagocytosis.
41) Kinetic energy differs from chemical energy in that
A) kinetic energy is stored energy that has the potential to do
work, and chemical energy is the energy of movement.
B) kinetic energy depends on the movement of atoms, whereas
chemical energy depends on the movement of molecules.
C) kinetic energy can be converted into various forms of
energy, whereas chemical energy can only be converted into
heat.
D) kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object, whereas
chemical energy is the potential energy of molecules.
E) chemical energy is a particular form of kinetic energy.
42) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming
motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing
A) chemical energy into kinetic energy.
B) chemical energy into potential energy.
C) kinetic energy into potential energy.
D) kinetic energy into chemical energy.
E) kinetic energy into thermal energy.
11. 43) In the reaction A → B + C + heat,
A) there is a net input of energy.
B) the potential energy of the products is greater than that of
the reactant.
C) the potential energy of the products is the same as that of the
reactant.
D) the potential energy of the products is less than that of the
reactant.
E) entropy has decreased.
45) According to ________, energy cannot be created or
destroyed.
A) Aristotle's first principle
B) the first law of thermodynamics
C) the second law of thermodynamics
D) the third law of thermodynamics
E) Einstein's law of relativity
47) Which of the following energy transfers is impossible in
living systems?
A) light energy to chemical energy
B) chemical energy to kinetic energy
C) potential energy to kinetic energy
D) light energy to potential energy
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
6
E) heat to light energy.
48) Living systems
12. A) violate the first law of thermodynamics.
B) violate the second law of thermodynamics.
C) decrease their entropy while increasing the entropy of the
universe.
D) are examples of a closed system.
E) are only compelled to follow the first law of
thermodynamics.
49) Which of the following processes is endergonic?
A) the burning of wood
B) the release of heat from the breakdown of glucose
C) the synthesis of glucose from carbon dioxide and water
D) the breakdown of glucose
E) cellular respiration
50) What is the basic difference between exergonic and
endergonic reactions?
A) Exergonic reactions involve ionic bonds; endergonic
reactions involve covalent bonds.
B) Exergonic reactions involve the breaking of bonds;
endergonic reactions involve the formation of bonds.
C) Exergonic reactions involve the formation of bonds;
endergonic reactions involve the breaking of bonds.
D) Exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions
absorb it.
E) In exergonic reactions, the reactants have less chemical
energy than the products; in endergonic reactions, the opposite
is true.
52) Which of the following examples is classified as a
metabolic pathway?
A) protein synthesis
B) osmosis
C) cell lysis
D) spontaneous combustions
E) passive diffusion
13. 53) When a cell uses chemical energy to perform work, it
couples a(n) ________ reaction with a(n) ________ reaction.
A) exergonic . . . endergonic
B) endergonic . . . exergonic
C) exergonic . . . spontaneous
D) spontaneous . . . exergonic
E) endergonic . . . spontaneous
55) The transfer of a phosphate group to a molecule or
compound is called
A) carboxylation.
B) ionization.
C) phosphorylation.
D) hydrogen bonding.
E) hydrogenation.
56) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely
A) result in cell death.
B) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy.
C) result in the conversion of kinetic energy to potential energy.
D) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy.
E) have no effect on the cell.
57) ATP can be used as the cell's energy exchange mechanism
because
A) endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with
the formation of ATP from ADP.
B) ATP is the most energy-rich small molecule in the cell.
C) endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the
hydrolysis of high-energy phosphate bonds in ATP.
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
14. 7
D) the regeneration of ATP from ADP can be fueled by
coupling it with endergonic reactions.
E) ATP is a disposable form of chemical energy, used once and
then discarded by the cell.
58) An energy barrier
A) is the amount of energy that must be produced by the
reactants to start a chemical reaction.
B) is higher than the energy of activation of a reaction.
C) is lower than the energy of activation of a reaction.
D) prevents the spontaneous decomposition of molecules in the
cell.
E) can only be overcome with the use of enzymes.
59) The energy required to initiate an exergonic reaction is
called
A) exergonic energy.
B) endergonic energy.
C) input energy.
D) hydrolytic energy.
E) the energy of activation.
60) Most of a cell's enzymes are
A) lipids.
B) proteins.
C) amino acids.
D) nucleic acids.
E) carbohydrates.
61) When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction,
A) it lowers the activation energy of the reaction.
B) it raises the activation energy of the reaction.
15. C) it becomes a product.
D) it acts as a reactant.
E) it is used once and discarded.
62) Substrates bind to an enzyme's ________ site.
A) reactant
B) allosteric
C) regulatory
D) phosphate
E) active
63) The active site of an enzyme is
A) the region of a substrate that is changed by an enzyme.
B) the highly changeable portion of an enzyme that adapts to fit
the substrates of various reactions.
C) the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate.
D) the region of a product that detaches from the enzyme.
E) the region of the enzyme composed of only a few specific
nucleic acids.
67) Heating inactivates enzymes by
A) breaking the covalent bonds that hold the molecule together.
B) removing phosphate groups from the enzyme.
C) causing enzyme molecules to stick together.
D) changing the enzyme's three-dimensional shape.
E) inducing the addition of amino acids.
68) Which of the following substances could be a cofactor?
A) a protein
B) a polypeptide
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 6
16. 8
C) a zinc atom
D) a ribosome
E) collagen
69) Which of the following is a coenzyme?
A) zinc
B) vitamin B6
C) iron
D) iodine
E) hydrogen ions
70) Which of the following will have no effect on the rate of an
enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
A) temperature
B) pH
C) competitive inhibitors
D) noncompetitive inhibitors
E) net change in energy
71) Inhibition of an enzyme is irreversible when
A) a competitive inhibitor is involved.
B) a noncompetitive inhibitor is involved.
C) the shape of the enzyme is changed.
D) covalent bonds form between inhibitor and enzyme.
E) weak interactions form between inhibitor and enzyme.
17. BSC 1005
Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
1
Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
1) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs _____.
A) in glycolysis
B) in the citric acid cycle
C) in both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
D) during oxidative phosphorylation
2) When electrons move closer to a more electronegative atom,
what happens? The more electronegative atom
is _____.
A) reduced, and energy is released
B) reduced, and energy is consumed
C) oxidized, and energy is consumed
D) oxidized, and energy is released
3) When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result
of an oxidation-reduction reaction, the
molecule becomes _____.
A) hydrolyzed
B) oxidized
C) reduced
D) an oxidizing agent
18. 4) Which of the following statements about NAD+ is true?
A) NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate
oxidation, and the citric acid cycle.
B) NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH.
C) NAD+ can donate electrons for use in oxidative
phosphorylation.
D) In the absence of NAD+, glycolysis can still function.
5) The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved
directly in which process or event?
A) glycolysis
B) accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain
C) the citric acid cycle
D) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
6) During which of the following steps is no ATP made–
A) Glycolysis
B) Electron transport chain
C) Pyruvate oxidation
D) Krebs cycle
E) ATP is made during all the steps
7) Starting with one molecule of glucose, the energy-containing
products of glycolysis are _____.
A) 2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP
B) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP
C) 2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP
D) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP
19. 8) In glycolysis, for each molecule of glucose oxidized to
pyruvate _____.
A) two molecules of ATP are used and two molecules of ATP
are produced.
B) two molecules of ATP are used and four molecules of ATP
are produced.
C) four molecules of ATP are used and two molecules of ATP
are produced.
BSC 1005
Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
2
D) two molecules of ATP are used and six molecules of ATP are
produced.
9) Following glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, but before the
electron transport chain and oxidative
phosphorylation, the carbon skeleton of glucose has been
broken down to CO2 with some net gain of ATP. Most
of the energy from the original glucose molecule at that point in
the process, however, is in the form of _____.
A) acetyl-CoA
B) glucose
C) pyruvate
D) NADH
20. 10) The 2 carbons in acetyl–CoA are eventually used to form —
A) Glucose
B) ATP
C) Pyruvate
D) Oxaloacetate
E) Carbon dioxide
11) Which electron carrier(s) function in the citric acid cycle?
A) NAD+ only
B) NADH and FADH2
C) the electron transport chain
D) ADP and ATP
12) All of the glycolysis reactions do not require oxygen and
can take place in an anaerobic environment.
A) This is true
B) This is false
13) What is the function of the coenzymes, NADH and FADH2
?
A) Charging electrons to power ATP synthase
B) Catalyzing the formation of acetyl-CoA
C) Providing electrons and H+ to the electron transport chain
D) Transporting CO2 into the mitochondria
E) Acting as a terminal electron acceptor
21. 14) The electron transport chain _____.
A) is a series of redox reactions
B) is a series of substitution reactions
C) is driven by ATP consumption
D) takes place in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells
15) The chemiosmotic hypothesis is an important concept in our
understanding of cellular metabolism in general
because it explains _____.
A) how ATP is synthesized by a proton motive force
B) how electron transport can fuel substrate-level
phosphorylation
C) the sequence of the electron transport chain molecules
D) the reduction of oxygen to water in the final steps of
oxidative metabolism
16) ATP synthase –
A) Is an H+ channel
B) Is embedded in the cristae
C) Spins due to the flow of H+
D) Uses rotational energy to form ATP
BSC 1005
Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
3
22. E) All of the above
17) How does substrate level phosphorylation differ from
oxidative phosphorylation ?
A) Oxidative makes ADP
B) Substrate level requires oxygen
C) Oxidative occurs during glycolysis only
D) Substrate level uses PO4 from a donor molecule only
E) All of the above are correct
18) Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain
located?
A) mitochondrial outer membrane
B) mitochondrial inner membrane
C) mitochondrial intermembrane space
D) mitochondrial matrix
19) Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to
pump H+ into which location in eukaryotic cells?
A) mitochondrial outer membrane
B) mitochondrial inner membrane
C) mitochondrial intermembrane space
D) mitochondrial matrix
20) When hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial
matrix across the inner membrane and into the
intermembrane space, the result is the _____.
A) formation of ATP
B) reduction of NAD+
23. C) creation of a proton-motive force
D) lowering of pH in the mitochondrial matrix
21) Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced
from the complete oxidation of one molecule of
glucose (C6H12O6) in aerobic cellular respiration?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 18-24
D) 30-32
22) Chemiosmotic ATP synthesis (oxidative phosphorylation)
occurs in _____.
A) all cells, but only in the presence of oxygen
B) only eukaryotic cells, in the presence of oxygen
C) only in mitochondria, using either oxygen or other electron
acceptors
D) all respiring cells, both prokaryotic and eukaryotic, using
either oxygen or other electron
acceptors
23) Alcohol fermentation is an anaerobic process?
A) This is true
B) This is false
24) Which of the following occurs in the cytosol of a eukaryotic
cell?
A) glycolysis and fermentation
24. B) fermentation and chemiosmosis
C) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
D) citric acid cycle
BSC 1005
Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
4
25) In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by
fermentation, resulting in the production of _____.
A) ATP, CO2, and ethanol (ethyl alcohol)
B) ATP, CO2, and lactate
C) ATP, NADH, and pyruvate
D) ATP, pyruvate, and acetyl CoA
26) What do NADH dehydrogenase and cytochrome oxidase
have in common?
A) Both pump H+ from the matrix
B) Both are powered by electrons
C) Both are embedded in the cristae
D) Both are transmembrane proteins
E) All of the above
27) One function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid
fermentation is to _____.
25. A) reduce NAD+ to NADH
B) reduce FAD+ to FADH2
C) oxidize NADH to NAD+
D) reduce FADH2 to FAD+
28) An organism is discovered that thrives in both the presence
and absence of oxygen in the air. Curiously, the
consumption of sugar increases as oxygen is removed from the
organism's environment, even though the
organism does not gain much weight. This organism _____.
A) is a normal eukaryotic organism
B) is photosynthetic
C) is an anaerobic organism
D) is a facultative anaerobe
29) Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase. Why is this lethal?
A) NAD+ can no longer be reduced to NADH
B) Electron transport chain is shut down
C) Glycolysis is inhibited
D) Krebs cycle cannot be initiated
E) Pyruvate is not converted to Acetyl-CoA
30) Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase. Why is this lethal?
A) NAD+ can no longer be reduced to NADH
B) Electron transport chain is shut down
C) Glycolysis is inhibited
D) Krebs cycle cannot be initiated
E) Pyruvate is not converted to Acetyl-CoA
26. 31) During a heart attack blood flow to the cardiac muscle is
restricted. How would this effect cellular respiration?
A) ATP production would be increased
B) ATP production would remain unchanged
C) ATP production would be decreased
D) The cell would switch to alcohol fermentation
32) In E. coli an enzyme, nitrate reductase, is found in the
electron transport chain. The enzyme transfers an
electron to nitrate (NO3) instead of oxygen. What type of
pathway is this?
A) Aerobic respiration
B) Anaerobic respiration
BSC 1005
Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
5
C) Fermentation
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 8 Photosynthesis
27. 1
Chapter 8 Photosynthesis
1) The summary equation for photosynthesis is
A) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + sunlight → C6H12O6 + 6 O2.
B) C5H12O6 + 6 O2 + sunlight → 5 CO2 + 6 H2O.
C) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + sunlight → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O.
D) the same as the equation for glycolysis written in reverse.
E) 6 CH2O + 5 O2 + sunlight → CO2 + 2 H2O.
2) Which of the following statements regarding photosynthesis
and carbon dioxide is false?
A) Plants require carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight to make
glucose.
B) Burning fossil fuels release carbon dioxide that was removed
from the atmosphere millions of years ago,
C) Because of their short growth period and self-regeneration,
willows are more viable as a source of potential power
than the trees in most natural forests.
D) Most of the food humans eat can be traced back to
photosynthetic plants.
E) Burning wood contributes more to acid rain than burning
fossil fuels.
3) What is the name given to organisms that can make their own
food and the food for the biosphere?
A) chemotrophs
B) heterotrophs
C) manufacturers
D) synthesizers
E) producers
28. 4) Photoautotrophs
A) make sugar by using organic raw materials.
B) produce organic molecules from inorganic molecules.
C) eat other organisms that use light energy to make food
molecules.
D) include only the green plants.
E) are only found on land.
5) Which of the following is an example of a photoautotroph?
A) cyanobacteria in freshwater and marine ecosystems
B) grizzly bears in Alaska
C) bacteria in our mouth
D) fungi growing in the refrigerator
E) mushrooms growing on the side of a dead tree
6) Autotrophs that utilize light as their energy source are
A) chemosynthetic autotrophs.
B) photoautotrophs.
C) consumers.
D) fungi.
E) heterotrophs.
7) What is the likely origin of chloroplasts?
A) mitochondria that had a mutation for photosynthesis
B) photosynthetic prokaryotes that lived inside eukaryotic cells
C) a combination of mitochondria and Golgi bodies
D) prokaryotes with photosynthetic mitochondria
E) eukaryotes that engulfed photosynthetic fungi
8) In most green plants, chloroplasts are
A) concentrated in a zone of leaf tissue called the mesophyll.
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 8 Photosynthesis
29. 2
B) concentrated in the stomata.
C) concentrated in a portion of the leaf called the stroma.
D) found throughout the leaf tissue.
E) found throughout the plant.
9) ________ cells in leaves are specialized for photosynthesis.
A) Companion
B) Mesophyll
C) Sclerenchyma
D) Tracheid
E) Collenchyma
10) CO2 enters and O2 escapes from a leaf via
A) stomata.
B) thylakoids.
C) grana.
D) stroma.
E) central vacuoles.
11) In the chloroplast, sugars are made in a compartment that is
filled with a thick fluid called the
A) stomata.
B) thylakoid.
C) matrix.
D) stroma.
E) mesophyll.
12) Chloroplasts contain disklike membranous sacs arranged in
stacks called
A) cristae.
B) thylakoids.
C) grana.
D) vacuoles.
30. E) stroma.
13) Where is chlorophyll found in a plant cell?
A) stroma
B) thylakoid membranes
C) matrix
D) cytoplasm
E) cristae
14) The oxygen released into the air as a product of
photosynthesis comes from
A) water.
B) glucose.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) chlorophyll.
E) mitochondria.
15) Which of the following molecules is both a reactant and a
product of photosynthesis?
A) H2O
B) glucose
C) O2
D) CO2
E) chlorophyll
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 8 Photosynthesis
3
16) If you expose a photosynthesizing plant to water that
contains both radioactive H and radioactive O, in which of the
31. products of
photosynthesis will the radioactive H and O show up?
A) H and O both in glucose
B) H in glucose; O in water
C) H in water; O in glucose
D) H in glucose and water; O in O2
E) H in glucose and water; O in water and O2
17) A redox reaction involves the transfer of
A) a hydrogen ion.
B) oxygen.
C) water.
D) an electron.
E) carbon dioxide.
18) Which of the following statements concerning the role of
redox reactions in photosynthesis and cellular respiration is
true?
A) Photosynthesis involves only reductions, while respiration
involves only oxidations.
B) Photosynthesis involves only oxidations, while respiration
involves only reductions.
C) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is oxidized to form sugar,
while in respiration, sugar is reduced to form carbon
dioxide.
D) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is reduced to form sugar,
while in respiration, sugar is oxidized to form carbon
dioxide.
E) Photosynthesis involves both reduction and oxidation, while
respiration involves only oxidation.
19) What is the source of energy that provides the boost for
electrons during photosynthesis?
A) light
B) electromagnetism
C) cellular respiration
32. D) ATP
E) glucose
20) Which of the following statements regarding photosynthesis
is false?
A) ATP is not produced during photosynthesis, but only during
respiration.
B) Photosynthesis is ultimately powered by light energy and
respiration by the chemical energy of fuel molecules.
C) Photosynthesis consumes CO2; respiration consumes O2.
D) Photosynthesis produces O2; respiration produces CO2.
E) The principal electron carrier in photosynthesis is NADPH;
the principal electron carrier in respiration is NADH.
21) The light reactions occur in the ________, while the Calvin
cycle occurs in the ________.
A) stroma . . . thylakoid membranes
B) stroma . . . nucleus
C) cytoplasm . . . stroma
D) cytoplasm . . . thylakoid membrane
E) thylakoid membranes . . . stroma
22) Which of the following are produced during the light
reactions of photosynthesis?
A) glucose, ADP, NADP+
B) glucose, ADP, NADP+, CO2
C) ADP, NADP+, O2
D) ATP, NADPH, O2
E) ATP, NADPH, CO2
23) Which of the following is part of the light reaction?
BSC1005 Biology General
33. Chapter 8 Photosynthesis
4
A) carbon fixation
B) reduction of carbon
C) addition of electrons and protons to carbon
D) regeneration of NADP+
E) formation of waste products in the form of O2
24) Which of the following are produced during the Calvin
cycle?
A) glucose, ADP, NADP+
B) glucose, ADP, NADP+, CO2
C) ADP, NADP+, O2
D) ATP, NADPH, O2
E) ATP, NADPH, CO2
25) Carbon fixation
A) occurs when carbon and oxygen from CO2 are incorporated
into an organic molecule.
B) powers the process of glucose synthesis by supplying the cell
with ATP.
C) occurs during the light reactions.
D) provides the cell with a supply of NADPH molecules.
E) uses noncyclic electron flow to capture energy in glucose.
26) Sunlight is a type of ________ energy.
A) electromagnetic
B) potential
C) stored
D) kinetic
E) nuclear
34. 27) The full range of electromagnetic energy is called the
________ spectrum.
A) wavelength
B) visible
C) electromagnetic
D) energy
E) ultraviolet
28) Why are most plants green?
A) Chlorophyll a reflects green light.
B) Chlorophyll a absorbs green light.
C) Chlorophyll b primarily uses green light as the source of
energy for photosynthesis.
D) Green helps plants blend into their environment as a sort of
camouflage.
E) All photosynthetic pigments are colored green.
29) Which of the following colors contributes the least energy
to photosynthesis?
A) blue
B) red
C) violet
D) orange
E) green
30) Of the following wavelengths of light, which would you
expect to be reflected or transmitted by chlorophyll a?
A) blue
B) green
C) yellow
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 8 Photosynthesis
35. 5
D) orange
E) red
31) Chlorophyll b and carotenoids
A) are best at absorbing the energy of green light.
B) are found at the reaction center.
C) are located on the inner membrane of the chloroplast.
D) pass absorbed energy to chlorophyll a.
E) catalyze the incorporation of carbon atoms into RuBP.
32) Plant cells are protected from the harmful effects of oxygen
radicals with
A) NADPH.
B) mitochondria.
C) chlorophyll.
D) carotenoids.
E) ATP.
33) A packet of light energy is called a
A) quantum.
B) pigment.
C) photon.
D) phaser.
E) wavelength.
34) Which of the following statements about the absorption of
photons by pigment molecules is true?
A) It takes several minutes for the pigment electrons to become
excited.
B) Photons raise electrons in pigments to the ground state.
C) Pigments only lose energy in the excitation process.
D) Excitation of the electrons is a very stable state.
36. E) The release of energy by the excited electron can be as heat,
light, or fluorescence.
35) Which of the following photosynthetic pigments can be
found at the photosystem reaction center?
A) chlorophyll b
B) chlorophyll a
C) a carotenoid
D) phycocyanin
E) eosinophyll
36) Which of the following is a normal process of
photosynthesis that could not occur if all reaction centers were
inactivated by a
toxin?
A) donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll a to a primary
electron acceptor
B) donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll b to a primary
electron acceptor
C) absorption of photons by chlorophyll b
D) reduction of chlorophyll b by a primary electron acceptor
E) absorption of photons by carotenoids
37) How do the reaction centers of photosystem I and II differ?
A) Chlorophyll a is found in photosystem I and chlorophyll b in
photosystem II.
B) Each preferentially absorbs slightly different wavelengths of
light.
C) Photosystem I functions first in the sequence of steps that
make up the light reactions.
D) Only photosystem I is found in the thylakoid membranes.
E) Photosystem II does not transfer electrons from photons.
38) Clusters of light-gathering pigments in a photosystem
A) pass energy to the reaction center.
37. BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 8 Photosynthesis
6
B) are found in the roots of plants.
C) absorb electrons.
D) do not absorb photons.
E) break down H2O.
39) In a photosystem, clusters of chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b,
and carotenoid pigments function most like
A) an electrical generator.
B) an antenna.
C) a propeller on a motorboat.
D) a windmill.
E) a spring.
40) The energy that excites P680 and P700 is supplied by
A) electrons passing down the electron transport chain.
B) the breaking of glucose bonds.
C) ATP.
D) photons.
E) NADPH.
41) The electron transport chains of the light reactions
A) are located in the stroma.
B) are very different from those of cellular respiration.
C) shuttle electrons along in a series of redox reactions.
D) provide energy for the Krebs cycle.
E) are found on the inner membrane of chloroplasts.
42) As a result of the cascade of electrons down the electron
38. transport chains of the light reactions,
A) NADPH is reduced to NADP+.
B) NADPH is oxidized to NADP+.
C) NADP+ is reduced to NADPH.
D) NADP+ is oxidized to NADPH.
E) water is formed.
43) The electrons lost from the reaction center of photosystem I
are replaced by electrons from
A) CO2.
B) ATP.
C) H2O.
D) the top of the electron transport chain.
E) the bottom of the electron transport chain.
44) The electrons lost from the reaction center of photosystem
II are replaced by electrons from
A) CO2.
B) ATP.
C) H2O.
D) NADPH.
E) photosystem I.
45) Photosystem II
A) has P700 at its reaction center.
B) is reduced by NADPH.
C) passes electrons to photosystem I.
D) does not have a reaction center.
E) releases CO2 as a by-product.
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 8 Photosynthesis
39. 7
46) Photophosphorylation differs from oxidative
phosphorylation in that
A) it involves an electron transport chain.
B) energy is stored in the form of a proton concentration
difference.
C) regeneration of ATP is driven by a flow of protons through
an ATP synthase.
D) the final electron acceptor is NADP+ and not oxygen.
E) its enzymes are membrane-bound.
47) In photophosphorylation, energy from electron flow is used
to transport ________ from the ________ to the thylakoid
compartment, generating a concentration gradient of ________.
A) electrons . . . grana . . . H+
B) H+ . . . grana . . . electrons
C) H+ . . . stroma . . . H+
D) electrons . . . stroma . . . H+
E) H+ . . . stroma . . . ATP
48) A concentration gradient is a form of
A) kinetic energy.
B) life.
C) an exergonic reaction.
D) potential energy.
E) entropy.
49) The chloroplast ATP synthase
A) is a nucleic acid complex.
B) transports H+ ions from the stroma to the thylakoid space.
C) couples the flow of H+ to the phosphorylation of NADP+.
40. D) is embedded in the inner membrane of the chloroplast.
E) helps transport H+ against the concentration gradient.
50) In photosynthesis, the chemiosmotic production of ATP
A) requires oxygen.
B) is analogous to the production of ATP in mitochondria.
C) is done by the Calvin cycle.
D) requires the input of NADPH.
E) is a result of the oxidation of glucose.
51) Mitochondria transfer ________ energy from ________ to
ATP; chloroplasts transform ________ energy into the chemical
energy of ATP.
A) chemical . . . food . . . light
B) food . . . light . . . chemical
C) light . . . food . . . kinetic
D) nuclear . . . light . . . food
E) food . . . light . . . nuclear
52) Photosynthetic organisms derive their carbon from
A) carbon monoxide.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) hydrocarbons.
D) methane.
E) ribose.
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 8 Photosynthesis
8
41. 53) ATP and NADPH
A) play a role in glucose synthesis by plants.
B) are products of the Calvin cycle.
C) are inputs to the photosystems.
D) production is associated with events taking place on the
inner mitochondrial membrane.
E) are used in the electron transport chain to pump H+ into the
thylakoid space.
54) To produce one glucose, the Calvin cycle needs to be run
through ________ time(s).
A) one
B) two
C) four
D) six
E) eight
55) The Calvin cycle constructs ________, an energy-rich
molecule that a plant cell can then use to make glucose or other
organic
molecules.
A) G3P
B) ATP
C) NADH
D) NADPH
E) carbon dioxide
56) The ultimate source of all the food we eat and the oxygen
we breathe is
A) cellular respiration.
B) chemiosmosis.
C) photosynthesis.
D) glycolysis.
E) anaerobic metabolism.
57) Plants use sugars as
42. A) a fuel for photophosphorylation.
B) a fuel for photosynthesis.
C) a starting material for the Calvin cycle.
D) a source of electrons for chemiosmosis.
E) a fuel for cellular respiration and a starting material for
making other organic molecules.
58) Plant cells
A) lack mitochondria and chloroplasts.
B) lack mitochondria but have chloroplasts.
C) have mitochondria but do not have chloroplasts.
D) have mitochondria and chloroplasts.
E) have chloroplasts and vestigial mitochondria.
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 8 Photosynthesis
9
59)
43. In this drawing of a chloroplast, which structure represents the
thylakoid membrane?
A) structure A
B) structure B
C) structure C
D) structure D
E) structure E
60)
According to this figure, how do H+ ions make their way from
the stroma to the thylakoid interior?
A) through photosystem I
B) through photosystem II
C) through an electron transport chain molecule
D) through the ATP synthase
E) directly through the phospholipids of the thylakoid
membrane
BSC1005 Biology General
Chapter 9 The Cellular Basis of Reproduction and Inheritance
1
Chapter 9: The Cellular Division, Mitosis and Meiosis
1) The creation of offspring carrying genetic information from a
single parent is called
A) asexual reproduction.
44. B) sexual reproduction.
C) a life cycle.
D) regeneration.
E) spontaneous generation.
2) Which of the following statements regarding sexual and
asexual reproduction is true?
A) Cell division only occurs after sexual reproduction.
B) Only offspring from asexual reproduction inherit traits from
two parents.
C) Sexual reproduction typically includes the development of
unfertilized eggs.
D) Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic
variation than is asexual reproduction.
E) Only asexual reproduction results from the union of a sperm
and an egg.
3) Strictly speaking, the phrase "like begets like" refers to
A) all forms of reproduction.
B) sexual reproduction only.
C) asexual reproduction only.
D) production of gametes from a premeiotic cell.
E) sexual reproduction between different species.
4) Asexual reproduction requires ________ individual(s).
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
5) With the exception of identical twins, siblings who have the
same two biological parents are likely to look similar, but not
identical, to each other because they have
A) identical chromosomes, but different genes.
B) identical genes but different chromosomes.
45. C) the same combination of traits, but different genes.
D) only a 20% chance of sharing the same combination of
genes.
E) a similar but not identical combination of genes.
6) Virchow's principle, stated formally in 1858, was that
A) animals must always reproduce.
B) photosynthesis is the center of all life.
C) animals must develop.
D) every cell comes from a cell.
E) all life evolves.
7) Which of the following statements regarding cell division is
false?
A) Cell division can reproduce an entire organism.
B) Cell division is necessary for development to occur.
C) Cell division ensures the continuity of life from generation
to generation.
D) Cell division is the basis of both sexual and asexual
reproduction.
E) Cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in
prokaryotes.
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8) Which of the following statements regarding prokaryotes is
false?
A) Prokaryotic chromosomes are more complex than those of
eukaryotes.
46. B) Most prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission.
C) Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller and simpler than
eukaryotic cells.
D) In prokaryotes, daughter chromosomes are separated by an
active movement away from each other and the growth of
a new plasma membrane between them.
E) Daughter prokaryotic chromosomes are separated by some
sort of active movement away from each other and the
growth of new plasma membrane between them.
9) Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic
chromosomes in that they
A) are simpler.
B) are circular in structure.
C) include fewer proteins.
D) are copied immediately after cell division.
E) are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus.
10) Which of the following helps maintain the structure of
chromosomes and control the activity of genes?
A) the nuclear membrane
B) proteins
C) centromeres
D) ribosomes
E) lipids
11) Sister chromatids are
A) found right after a cell divides.
B) tightly linked together at a centromere.
C) formed when chromatids separate during cell division.
D) made only of DNA.
E) unique to prokaryotes.
12) Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of a eukaryotic cell
consists of a pair of identical structures called
A) chromatin.
47. B) sister chromosomes.
C) DNA transcripts.
D) nucleoli.
E) sister chromatids.
13) Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which
phase?
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
E) telophase
14) Which of the following occurs during interphase?
A) a reduction in the size of the nuclear membrane
B) duplication of the chromosomes
C) cytokinesis
D) cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes
E) separation of newly formed DNA to opposite ends of the cell
15) The genetic material is duplicated during
A) the mitotic phase.
B) G1.
C) the S phase.
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D) G2.
E) mitosis.
48. 16) If the S phase were eliminated from the cell cycle, the
daughter cells would
A) have half the genetic material found in the parent cell.
B) be genetically identical to each other.
C) be genetically identical to the parent cell.
D) synthesize the missing genetic material on their own.
E) continue to function without the normal amount of DNA.
17) The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell
divides to produce two cells is called
A) mitosis.
B) cytokinesis.
C) binary fission.
D) telophase.
E) spindle formation.
18) Looking into your microscope, you spot an unusual cell.
Instead of the typical rounded cell shape, the cell has a very
narrow
middle separating two bulging ends. It sort of looks like the
number 8! Then you realize that this cell is
A) undergoing cytokinesis.
B) in the S phase of interphase.
C) in the G1 phase of interphase.
D) in the G2 phase of interphase.
E) about to undergo mitosis.
19) The phase of mitosis during which the nuclear envelope
fragments and the nucleoli disappear is called
A) interphase.
B) prophase.
C) metaphase.
D) anaphase.
E) telophase.
20) During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up
49. on a plane equidistant from the two spindle poles?
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
E) telophase
21) At the start of mitotic anaphase,
A) the centromeres of each chromosome come apart.
B) sister chromatids separate.
C) the chromatid DNA replicates.
D) daughter chromosomes begin to move toward opposite poles
of the cell.
E) equivalent and complete collections of chromosomes have
reached the two poles.
22) During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-
form and the nucleoli reappear?
A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) prophase
D) interphase
E) telophase
23) Which of the following is a feature of plant cell division
that distinguishes it from animal cell division?
A) formation of a cell plate
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50. B) formation of a cleavage furrow
C) lack of cytokinesis
D) production of four (rather than two) new cells per mitotic
division
E) disappearance and subsequent reappearance of the nucleolus
24) Which of the following features likely accounts for the
difference between plant and animal cell cytokinesis?
A) Animal cells lack the microfilaments required for forming a
cleavage furrow.
B) Animal cells lack chloroplasts.
C) Plant cell division must maintain the integrity of the cell
wall.
D) Plant cells have two sets of chromosomes; animal cells have
one set of chromosomes.
E) Plant and animal cells do not have a common ancestor.
25) Which of the following must occur for a plant or animal to
grow and develop normally?
A) The organism must receive a supply of the appropriate
hormones from its parents.
B) The organism must be able to control the timing and rate of
cell division in different parts of its body.
C) Sufficient light must be available to stimulate cell division.
D) Sufficient oxygen must be available to stimulate cell
division.
E) Dividing cells must be freed from attachment sites.
26) When animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically
stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on
the
bottom of the dish. This arrest of division is an example of
A) cancer.
B) cell constraint.
C) density-dependent inhibition.
D) cell division repression.
51. E) growth factor desensitization.
27) As a patch of scraped skin heals, the cells fill in the injured
area but do not grow beyond that. This is an example of
A) density-independent inhibition.
B) density-dependent inhibition.
C) anchorage independence.
D) growth factor inhibition.
E) anchorage-dependent inhibition.
28) Which of the following is probably the main factor
responsible for the phenomenon of density-dependent
inhibition?
A) a local accumulation of growth-inhibiting factors
B) availability of growth factors
C) cells' innate ability to "sense" when the organ of which they
are a part has no need for additional cells
D) a local deficiency of nutrients
E) physical contact of cell-surface proteins between adjacent
cells
29) Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells
A) remain undifferentiated unless an injury occurs.
B) become cancerous more easily than other cell types.
C) continue to divide throughout their lifetime.
D) are permanently in a state of nondivision.
E) cease dividing after a predetermined number of cell
generations.
30) Which of the following statements regarding the cell-cycle
control system is false?
A) The cell-cycle control system receives messages from
outside the cell that influence cell division.
B) The cell-cycle control system triggers and controls major
events in the cell cycle.
C) The cell-cycle control system is influenced by growth factors
52. that bind to cell receptors.
D) The cell-cycle control system includes three key checkpoints
to complete a cell cycle.
E) The cell-cycle control system operates independently of the
growth factors.
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31) The cell cycle control system is most like
A) a row of dominoes falling down, each one triggering the fall
of the next.
B) the control device of an automatic washing machine.
C) an orchestra directed by a conductor.
D) a light switch turning on a set of room lights.
E) a video game controller.
32) You are asked to culture an unidentified sample of animal
tissue. You notice that the cells seem to fail to exhibit density-
dependent inhibition. The source of this tissue sample is most
likely
A) a scar.
B) a cancer.
C) skin.
D) a fetal liver.
E) the sperm-producing tissue of the testis
33) A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a
benign tumor
A) is cancerous.
53. B) spreads from the original site.
C) does not metastasize.
D) never causes health problems.
E) can only arise in the brain, whereas a malignant tumor can
arise anywhere in the body.
34) Which of the following shows the greatest promise as a
cancer chemotherapy agent?
A) a drug that causes cells to divide at a right angle from their
usual orientation
B) a drug that interferes with cellular respiration
C) a drug that prevents sister chromatids from separating at
anaphase
D) a drug that prevents crossing over
E) a drug that prevents tetrad formation
35) Which of the following statements regarding the function of
mitosis is false?
A) Mitosis allows organisms to grow.
B) Mitosis allows organisms to generate genetic diversity.
C) Mitosis allows organisms to reproduce asexually.
D) Mitosis allows organisms to repair tissues.
E) Mitosis allows organisms to regenerate lost parts.
36) Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry loci for the same
traits in the same positions on the chromosome but specify
different
versions of some traits constitute a pair of
A) homologous chromosomes.
B) heterologous chromosomes.
C) complementary chromosomes.
D) polyploid chromosomes.
E) parallel chromosomes.
37) A pair of male human sex chromosomes is most like
A) a pair of blue jeans.
54. B) a bride and groom.
C) a knife, fork, and spoon.
D) identical twins.
E) the letters of the alphabet.
38) Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and
meiosis is false?
A) Meiosis only occurs in the ovaries and testes.
B) All sexual life cycles involve an alternation of diploid and
haploid stages.
C) Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of
chromosomes as the parent cell.
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D) A normal human zygote has 46 chromosomes.
E) A haploid cell has half the chromosomes of a diploid cell.
39) Which of the following statements is false?
A) A typical body cell is called a somatic cell.
B) Gametes are haploid cells.
C) Somatic cells are diploid.
D) Gametes are made by mitosis.
E) A zygote is a fertilized egg
40) During which stage of meiosis does synapsis and the
formation of tetrads occur?
A) interphase I
B) prophase I
C) interphase II
55. D) prophase II
E) metaphase I
41) Which of the following options correctly describes the
behavior of a tetrad during anaphase I of meiosis?
A) It goes intact to one pole of the dividing cell.
B) It splits into two pairs of sister chromatids, and one pair
goes to each pole of the dividing cell.
C) It splits into two pairs of homologous, nonsister chromatids,
and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.
D) It splits into four chromosomes, which distribute in random
pairs to the two poles of the dividing cell.
E) It splits into four chromosomes, which distribute in sister-
chromosome pairs to the two poles of the dividing cell.
42) Which of the following statements regarding the differences
between mitosis and meiosis is false?
A) In meiosis four daughter cells are produced, whereas in
mitosis two daughter cells are produced.
B) Cells produced by mitosis are diploid, whereas cells
produced by meiosis are haploid.
C) In mitosis cytokinesis occurs once, whereas in meiosis
cytokinesis occurs twice.
D) Crossing over is a phenomenon that creates genetic diversity
during mitosis.
E) Mitosis, but not meiosis, occurs in somatic cells.
43) Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and
meiosis is false?
A) Mitosis provides for growth and tissue repair.
B) Meiosis provides for asexual reproduction.
C) In mitosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the
preceding interphase.
D) In meiosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the
preceding interphase.
E) All the events unique to meiosis occur during meiosis I
56. 44) Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by
A) prometaphase.
B) interphase.
C) prophase.
D) telophase.
E) anaphase
45) Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I and
random fertilization are most like
A) shuffling cards and dealing out hands of poker.
B) cutting up a pie into eight even-sized slices.
C) alphabetizing files in a filing cabinet.
D) pairing up similar socks after washing your clothes.
E) stringing beads onto a string to make a necklace
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46) Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I
results in an increase in the number of
A) gametes.
B) homologous chromosomes.
C) possible combinations of characteristics.
D) sex chromosomes.
E) points of crossing over.
57. 48) Karyotyping
A) shows chromosomes as they appear in metaphase of meiosis
II.
B) can reveal alterations in chromosome number.
C) examines points of crossing over.
D) reveals the results of independent orientation of
chromosomes during meiosis I.
E) reveals the presence of cancerous genes.
49) A karyotype is most like
A) a map showing the hidden location of buried treasure.
B) a movie showing the stages of the reproductive cycle of a
beetle.
C) a necklace formed by stringing beads onto a string.
D) photographs of every couple at a high school prom.
E) the answer key to a multiple-choice exam.
50) Which of the following statements regarding Down
syndrome is false?
A) Trisomy 21 usually leads to Down syndrome.
B) A human embryo with an abnormal number of chromosomes
is usually spontaneously aborted.
C) Down syndrome is the most common serious birth defect in
the United States.
D) People with Down syndrome usually have a life span much
shorter than normal.
E) Women with Down syndrome cannot reproduce.
57) Cancer is not usually inherited because
A) the chromosomal changes in cancer are usually confined to
somatic cells.
B) people with cancer usually die before reproducing.
C) cancer typically causes disruptions of meiosis.
D) the causes of cancer are not usually genetic.
E) the cancerous cells usually interfere with the ability to
58. produce gametes.
Chapter 6 Cell Energy, Transport and Enzymes_TestQ
9.27.16Chapter 7 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation_TestQ
9.30.16Chapter 8 Photosynthesis_TestQ10.16.16Chapter 9
Cellular division Mitosis and Meiosis_TestQ10.25.16