about science, society, history of science, introduction to soaps and detergents, environment around us

1. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
1
SOUNDARYA INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND SCIENCE
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
SUBJECT: SCIENCE AND SOCIETY
Unit I - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
MCQ – The underlined options are considered to be the opt answers
1. The word science comes from the
a) Latin b) Greek c) Sanskrit d) English
2. The word science comes from the Latin “scientia”, meaning.
a) Natural Phenomena b) Knowledge c) Physical evidence d) Experimentation
3. Science refers to –
a) A system of acquiring knowledge b) A system of natural phenomena
c) a system of physical evidence d) A system of experimentation
4. ----- is a systematic and logical approach in discovering how things in the universe work.
a) History b) Astrology c) Science d) Mathematics
5. The purpose of science is the systematic study of –
a) Make a system of natural phenomena b) Produce useful models of reality
c) Make a system of physical evidence d) Make a system of experimentation
6. A social science is the systematic study of ---
a) The natural world b) Models of reality
c) Human behavior and society d) Experimentation
7. Anatomy is the study of –
a) Structure of an animal or plant
b) Life on earth and in space
c) Structure and interactions of the complex organic molecules found in living systems
8. Evolutionary biology is the study of –
a) Structure of an animal or plant
b) Life on earth and space
c) dealing with plant life
d) Evolutionary processes that produced the diversity of life on earth

2. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
2
9. Genetics is the study of ---
a) Human evolution, variation and classification b) Cell structure and function
c) Heredity d) Dealing with plant life
10. Immunology is the study of ---
a) All aspects of the immune system
b) Human evolution, variation and classification
c) Heredity
d) Dealing with plant life
11. Neuroscience is the study of ---
a) Structure or function of the nervous system and brain
b) Structure and function of the macromolecules
c) Human evolution, variation and classification
d) Microorganisms – bacteria, protozoan parasites, viruses and fungi
12. Toxicology is the study of ---
a) The structure of an animal or plant
b) The nature, effects and detection of poisons
c) All aspects of the immune system
d) Microorganisms – Bacteria, protozoan parasites, viruses and fungi
13. The English word scientist was first coined by
a) Landsteiner b) Oldham c) Einstein d) William Whewell
14. Empirical investigation of the natural world has been described since classical antiquity by
a) Haber b) Oldham c) Einstein d) Aristotle
15. Scientific methods have been employed since the middle ages by ---
a) Haber b) Ibn al-Haytham c) Oldham d) Einstein
16. Which stage scientists do not always possess exquisite technical skills?
a) 2nd
stage b) 3rd
stage c) 4th
stage d) 1st
stage
17. In 1543 --- proposed to switch the places of the Earth and the Sun.
a) Nicholas Copernicus b) Galieo c) Oldham d) Einstein
18. Who hoped that “my labors contribute somewhat even to the Commonwealth of the Church”?
a) Oldham b) Nicholas Copernicus c) Galileo d) Einstein

3. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
3
19. The surface of the Moon is not smooth, uniform, and precisely spherical as a great number of
philosophers believe it to be, but is uneven, rough, and full of cavities and prominences, being not
unlike the face of the Earth, relieved by chains of mountains and deep valleys.
a) Nicholas Copernicus b) Galileo c) Oldham d) Einstein
20. Who laid down the first accurate laws of motion for masses?
a) Nicholas Copernicus b) Galieo c) Oldham d) Einstein
21. Who introduced telescope?
a) Nicholas Copernicus b) Galieo c) Oldham d) Haber
22. The Renaissance was a time of great --- change in Europe.
a) Social b) Cultural c) Both d) None of these
23. The Renaissance spanned from the
a) 13th
to the 16th
centuries
b) 14th
to the 16th
centuries
c) 14h
to the 15th
centuries
d) 15th
to the 16th
centuries
24. The Renaissance birthplace
a) Italy b) America c) India d) Australia
25. The European renaissance began in Northern Italy in
a) 1th
century b) 12th
century c) 13th
century d) 14th
century
26. The _____ city is considered the birth place of renaissance.
a) London b) Delhi c) Paris d) Tuscan
27. New way of thinking, sparked by a philosophy known as
a) Humanism b) socialism c) behaviorism d) Politics
28. Pioneering renaissance scientists and inventor include
a) Galileo Galilei b) Leonardo da Vinci c) Both d) none of these
29. In 1507 an Italian writer named ______ published a famous book called ‘The Courtier’.
a) Nicholas Copernicus
b) Oldham
c) Count Baldassare Castiglione
d) Haber

4. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
4
30. Rediscovery of rational civilization exemplified by
a) Greece b) Rome c) Both d) None
31. Representation of property owners’ interest is called
a) Politics & the state
b) Ideology
c) Agricultural development
d) Infrastructure
32. Property right as central to conception of right is called
a) Politics & the state
b) Ideology
c) Agricultural development
d) Infrastructure
33. The creation of agricultural surplus is called
a) Politics & the state
b) ideology
c) Agricultural development
d) Infrastructure
34. Road and canal systems, port and ships called
a) Politics & the state
b) ideology
c) Agricultural development
d) Infrastructure
35. The first stage of the industrial revolution:
a) Consumable goods production
b) Capital goods production
c) Standardization
d) Productivity
36. Second stage of the industrial revolution:
a) Consumable goods production
b) Capital goods production
c) Standardization
d) Productivity
37. Who did the first moonwalk in 1969?
a) American buzz Aldin b) Landsteiner c) Oldham d) Einstein

5. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
5
38. The first moonwalk in the year-
a) 1968 b) 1969 c) 1967 d) 1970
39. The first airplane was flown in ---
a) 1902 b) 1901 c) 1903 d) 1904
40. The structure of DNA was determined ---
a) 1963 b) 1953 c) 1967 d) 1970
41. Who discovered penicillin?
a) James Watson b) Alexandar Fleming c) Oldham d) Einstein
42. The structure of DNA was determined in 1953 by ---
a) James Watson b) Landsteiner c)Oldham d) Einstein
43. Quantum theory was proposed by ---
a) Planck b) Landsteiner c) Oldham d) Einstein
44. Who discovered human blood groups?
a) Planck b) Landsteiner c) Oldham d) Einstein
45. Establishment of the scientific study of animal behavior
a) Cornell b) Meitner c) Lorenz d) Heisenberg
46. Birth of radio astronomy
a) Jansky b) Cornell c) Meitner d) Heisenberg
47. First electron microscope-
a) Tatum b) Mayor c) Krebs d) Ruska
48. Discovery of the neutron
a) Wieman b) Chadwick c) McCarty d) Borlaug
49. Discovery of the positron, first antimatter particle
a) Wieman b) McCarty c) Anderson d) ornell
50. Magnitude scale for earthquakes
a) Cornell b) Meitner c) Richter d) Heisenberg
51. Theory of nuclear force
a) Yukawa b) McCarty c) Borlaug d) Kapitza

6. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
6
52. Discovery of the citric acid cycle
a) Krebs b) Wieman c) Mccarty d) Cornell
53. Nuclear reactions in stars were found out by
a) Wieman b) McCarty c) Bethe d) Cornell
54. Evidence in bacteria that DNA is the genetic material
a) MacLeod b) McCarty c) Borlaug d) Kapitza
55. The Start of the Mexican wheat improvement program, leading to the “green revolution”
a) McCarty b) Borlaug c) Kapitza d) Ornell
56. Formulation of the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis
a) Cornell b) Meitner c) Heisenberg d) Beadle & Tatum
57. Radiocarbon dating
a) Libby b) McCarty c) Borlaug d) Kapitza
58. Initial elucidation of the reactions involved in photosynthesis
a) Wieman b) Calvin c) Mccarty d) Borlaug
59. Invention of the transistor
a) Shockley b) McCarty c) Borlaug d) Kapitza
60. Production of amino acids in early Earth” conditions
a) Miller & Urey b) Cornell c) Meitner d) Heisenberg
61. First complete DNA sequence of an organism
a) Sanger b) Wieman c) McCarty d) Borlaug
62. First extra solar planet identified by
a) Mayor b) Bednorz c) Tatum d) Meitner
63. The definition of Modern Science is defined as an attitude of observation and experimentation
quite often with the inclusion of mathematics to explain those
a) Observations b) Experimentation c) Mathematics d) None of these
64. Modern science is typically subdivided into the natural sciences which study the
a) Material world
b) People and Societies
c) Mathematics
d) Experimentation

7. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
7
65. The social sciences which study --
a) Material world b) People and Societies c) Mathematics d) Experimentation
66. The formal science like
a) Material world b) People and Societies c) Mathematics d)
Experimentation
67. The result of a process of inductive reasoning –
a) Scientific Method b) Mathematical Method c) Hypothesis d) None of these
68. The process of Hypothesis Testing has –
a) 6 Step b) 7 Step c) 5 step d) 8 Step
69. Allows extra time for everything that can and will go wrong
a) Murphy’s law b) Newton law c) Ohms law d) None of these
70. The history of science is the study of the development of science and scientific knowledge,
including-
a) Natural sciences b) Social sciences c) None of these d) Both a and b
71. The history of the arts and humanities is termed as ---
a) Natural sciences b) Social sciences
c) History of scholarship d) None of these
72. Proto-Mathematics from-
a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE
b) 2000 BCE up to 800 BCE
c) 800 BCE to 1500 CE
d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE
73. Ancient Mathematics from—
a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE b) 2000 BCE up to 800
c) 800 BCE to 1500 CE d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE
74. Mercantile Mathematics from
a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE b) 2000 BCE up to 800 BCE
c) 800 BCE to 1500 CE d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE
75. Classical Mathematics from-
a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE b) 2000 BCE up to 800 BCE c) 800 BCE
to 1500 CE d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE

8. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
8
76. Pre-Modern Mathematics from
a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE b) 1500 CE up to 1700 CE c) 800 BCE
to 1500 CE d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE
77. Modern Mathematics from ---
a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE
b) 2000 BCE up to 800 BCE
c) 1700 CE to 1950 CE
d) 1400 CE to 1500 CE
78. Post-Modern Mathematics from
a) 30000 BCE, up to 2000 BCE b) 2000 BCE up to 800 BCE
c) 800 BCE to 1500 CE d) 1950 CE to present
79. Yukti means
a) Skill b) Human intervention c) Both d) None of these
80. Daiva means
a) Divine b) Skill c) Human intervention d) None of these
81. In India the field of Ayurveda, depended heavily on the use of
a) Herbs b) Plants c) Animals d) None of these
82. Traditional Indian herbal remedies are
a) Neem b) Turmeric c) Both a and b d) None of these
83. The plants were first used for medical purposes
a) Vaccination b) Rhinoplasty c) Herbalism d) None of these
84. Atharvaveda dating from the early
a) Iron Age b) Bronze Age c) Aluminium Age d) None of these
85. Ayurveda, meaning
a) Complete knowledge for long life b) Complete knowledge
c) Long life d) None of these
86. Ayurveda famous texts belong to the schools of
a) Charaka b) Sushruta c) Both a and b d) None of these
87. Which medicine got deep roots and royal patronage during medieval times.
a) Unani b) Ayurveda c) Both a and b d) None of these

9. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
9
88. The wootz steels were discovered in
a) India b) Japan c) England d) Iran
89. The first basic step in metallurgy is
a) Identifying and discovering its usefulness b) Locating metals in quantity
c) Mining the ores d) Melting the metal
90. The second basic step in metallurgy is
a) Identifying and discovering its usefulness b) Locating metals in quantity
c) Mining the ores d) Smelting the metal
91. The third basic step in metallurgy is
a) Identifying and discovering its usefulness b) Locating metals in quantity
c) Mining the ores d) Smelting the metal
92. Basic ages of metals in the ancient world
a) Copper Age b) Bronze Age c) Iron Age d) All the above
93. Copper Age
a) 4000 – 3000 BCE b) 3000-1000 BC
c) 1000 BCE to the present d) None of these
94. The Bronze Age
a) 4000 – 3000 BCE b) 3000-1000 BC
c) 1000 BCE to the present d) None of these
95. The Iron Age
a) 4000 – 3000 BCE b) 3000-1000 BC
c) 1000 BCE to the present d) None of these

10. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
10
Unit II - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
MCQ – The underlined options are considered to be the opt answers
1. Darwinism is a theory of ---
a) Biological evolution b) Physical evolution c) Geometric evolution d) None of these
2. Darwinism is a theory developed by –
a) Charles Darwin b) Weismann c) Bhaskaran d) None of these
3. Genetic drift is change of
a) Gene frequency in same generation b) Appearance of recessive genes
c) Gene frequency from one generation to next d) None of these
4. Which one of the following changes involved in irrelevant, in the evolution of man?
a) Perfection of hand for toll making
b) Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food
c) Loss of tail
d) Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behavior
5. The first domesticated animal by primitive man was
a) Cat b) Cow c) Dog d) Horse
6. Which of the following is a living fossil?
a) Mirabilis Jalapa b) Ginkgo Biloba c) Pinus Longifolia d) Dalbergia Sissoo
7. Reason of diversity in living being is
a) Mutation b) Long term evolutionary change
c) Gradual change d) Short term evolutionary change
8. 1st
life on earth was
a) Cyanobacteria b) Chemohetrotrophs c) Autotrophs d) Photoautotrophs
9. There is no life on the moon due to the absence of
a) O2 b) Water c) Light d) Temperature
10. Darwin in his “Natural selection Theory” did not believe in any role of which one of the following
in organic evolution?
a) Parasites and predators as natural enemies b) Survival of the fittest
c) Struggle for existence d) Discontinuous variations

11. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
11
11. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic
evolution?
a) Development of transgenic animals
b) Production of ‘Dolly’, the sheep by cloning
c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
d) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation
12. Two nucleotide sequences found in two different species are almost exactly the same. This
suggest that these species
a) Are evolving into the same species b) Contain identical DNA
c) May have similar evolutionary histories d) Have the same number of mutations
13. The theory that evolutionary change is slow and continuous is known as
a) Punctuated equilibrium b) Geographic isolation c) Speciation d) Gradualism
14. The concept that species have changed over long periods of time is known as
a) Ecology b) Embryology c) Spontaneous generation d) Organic evolution
15. Which group of organisms is believed to be among the earliest to evolve on Earth?
a) Arthropods b) Coelenterates c) Protozoans d) Reptiles
16. Which concept was not included in Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
a) Survival of the fittest b) Struggle for existence
c) Overproduction of offspring d) Punctuated equilibrium
17. Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on the concept of
a) Use and disuse b) Mutations c) Natural selection d) Hybridization
18. Antibiotic resistance can
a) Inherent b) Acquired c) Either be inherent nor be acquired d) Both
19. Acquired resistance occurs when a bacterium that was originally sensitive to an antibiotic
develops
a) Resistance b) Attraction c) Both d) None of these
20. Which of the following inhibits DNA gyrase?
a) Pencillin b) Trimethoprim c) Chloramphenicol d) Ciprofloxacin

12. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
12
21. Regarding the “azole” group of antifungals
a) Fluconazole has low water solubility
b) Ketoconazole may be given IV/PO
c)Intraconazole undergoes renal elimination
d) They work by reduction of ergosterol synthesis by inhibition of fungal cytochrome P450 enzymes
22. Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin?
a) Ceftazidime b) Cephalothin c) Cefotaxime d)Cefaclor
23. The cephalosporin with the highest activity against gram positive cocci is
a) Cefaclor b) Cephalothin c) Cefuroxime d) Cefaclor
24. Which of the following is considered to be bacteriostatic?
a) Pencillin b) Chloramphenicol c) Ciprofloxacin d) Cefoxitin
25. Half-life of amphotericin B is
a) 2 seconds b) 20 minutes c) 2 hours d) 2 weeks
26. Soap and detergents are the source of organic pollutants like;
a) A glycerol b) Polyphosphates c) Sulphonated hydrocarbons d) None of these
27. Soap is a salt of a
a) Fatty acid b) Amino acid c) Citric acid d) None of these
28. Soaps are mainly used as surfactants for
a) Washing b) Bathing c) Cleaning d) All the above
29. Soap in used in
a) Textile spinning b) Lubricants c) Both d) None of these
30. Fats and oils are composed of
a) Triglycerides b) Glycosides c) Both a and b d) None of these
31. Term “lye soap” refers almost exclusively to soaps made with
a) Sodium carbonate b) Sodium hydroxide c) Sodium peroxide d) None of these
32. The soap has history going back as far as --- thousand years
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 3
33. The earliest known soap recipe is credited to the ancient Babylonians
a) 3800 B.C b) 2400 B.C c) 2500 B.C. d) 2800 B.C.

13. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
13
34. Throughout history soap was medically used for treatment of
a) Skin diseases b) Liver diseases c) Heart diseases d) Eye diseases
35. Common soap bars were invented in the
a) 16th
Century b) 17th
century c) 19th
century d) 18th
century
36. The first soap was discovered almost --- years ago.
a) 4000 b) 5000 c) 2000 d) 3000
37. The first soap was discovered in ancient
a) Babylonia b) Greece c) Rome d) All the above
38. The first soap was discovered by mixing
a) Animal fats b) Wood ash c) Water d) All the above
39. The first soaps were used in the
a) Textile industry b) Skin diseases c) Both a and b d) None of these
40. Liquid soaps are formulated for cleaning the
a) Body b) Feature skin conditioners c) Both a and b d) None of these
41. Heavy duty hand cleaners are available as
a) Bars b) Liquids c) Powers d) all the above
42. Bluing absorbs the --- part of the light spectrum
a) Yellow b) Red c) Green d) None of these
43. Boosters enhance the
a) Soil and stain removal b) Brightening c) Buffering d) All the above
44. Enzyme presoaks are used for soaking items before washing to
a) Difficult stains b) soils c) Both d) None of these
45. Fabric softeners impact a
a) Pleasing fragrance b) Make ironing easier c) both a and b d) None of these
46. Dishwashing products include detergents for
a) Hand b) Machine dishwashing c) Specialty products d) All the above
47. Glass cleaners – oily soils found on glass, and dry quickly without streaking.
a) Loosen b) Dissolve c) Both a and b d) None of these

14. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
14
48. Drain openers --- kitchen and bathroom drains.
a) Unclog b) Clog c) Block d) None of these
49. Creation of automatic dishwasher powders, fabric softeners
a) 1950s b) 1960s c) 1970s d) 1980s
50. Prewash stain removers, enzyme presoaks
a) 1950s b) 1960s c) 1970s d) 1980s
51. Multifunctional products (detergent + softener), liquid soaps
a) 1950s b) 1960s c) 1970s d) 1980s
52. Polymers are large molecules composed of --- chemical units.
a) Repeated b) Enhanced c) Less d) None of these
53. The smallest repeating unit is called a
a) Mer b)MM c)CM d) None of these
54. The term polymer is derived from the --- words
a) Greek b) Latin c) American d) None of these
55. Mers meaning ---
a) Many parts b) Less parts c) Small parts d) None of these
56. Who announced in 1907 the synthesis of the first truly synthetic polymeric material?
a) Leo Baekeland b) Goodyear c) Darwin d) None of these
57. First truly synthetic polymeric material
a) Bakelite b) Neoprene c) Nylon d) PVC
58. Who found that acetylene could be made to add to itself forming dimers and trimers.
a) Julius A. Nieuwland b) Goodyear c) Darwin d) None of these
59. Neoprene was found by
a) Goodyear b) Amold Collins c) Darwin d) None of these
60. Nylon was found by
a) Dupont b) Goodyear c) Darwin d) None
61. PVC was initially formed by German chemist --- in 1872,
a) Eugen Baumann b) Goodyear c) Darwin d) None of these

15. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
15
62. Polystyrene was probably first formed by German apothecary
a) B. F. Goodrich b) Goodyear c) Eduard Simon d) None of these
63. Polystyrere was probably first formed by German apothecary in
a) 1829 b) 1849 c) 1839 d)1859
64. Various uses of polymers are:
a) Elastomers b) Plastics c) Fibers d) all the above
65. Rubber is the most important of all elastomers.
a) Elastomers b) Plastics c) Fibers d) all the above
66. – is used to extract metals like thorium, vanadium and zirconium from their compounds by
displacement reactions, a deoxidizers
a) Calcium b) Calcium Carbonate c) Alcohols d) Alkenes
67. Is a synthetic narcotic used legally to treat addiction to narcotics and relieve severe pain?
a) Methadone b) Crack cocaine c) Powdered cocaine d) none of these
68. Atomic energy carried by
a) Atoms b) Protons c) Electrons d) None of these
69. The term atom was popularized by
a) Ernest Rutherford b) H. G Wells c) Darwin d) None of these
70. One of the well-known elements used in nuclear fission is
a) 235U b) 245U c) 225U d) 135U
71. The main design is the pressurized water reactor (PWR) which has water at over
a) 300O
C b) 200O
C c) 400O
C d) 500O
C
72. Which statement best describes the structure of an atom?
a) A positive core surrounded by electrons packed tightly around it
b) A particle comprised of a mixture of protons, electrons and neutrons
c) A tiny nucleus of protons and neutrons with electrons orbiting around it
d) A large core of protons and electrons surrounded by neutrons
73. Thermal neutrons have energy around
a) 100ev b) 10ev c) 1ev d) all the above

16. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
16
74. Moderators are used in the nuclear reactors to
a) Generate neutrons b) Absorb neutrons
c) To slow down the neutrons d) Produce neutrons
75. Cadmium rods are used in a nuclear reactor to
a) Generate neutrons b) Absorb neutrons
c) To slow down neutrons d) Produce neutrons
76. In the nuclear reactor at Trombay which of the following is used as moderator
a) Ordinary water b) Cadmium c) Copper d) Heavy water
77. Which of the following is the best nuclear fuel?
a) Neptunium 293 b) Plutonium 239 c) Uranium 236 d) Thorium 236

17. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
17
Unit III - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Agriculture, along with the fisheries and forestry, account for _____ of the nation’s GDP and is
its single largest contributors.
a) One third b) two third c) half d) one
2. Agricultural export constitutes a ________ of the total export of the country.
a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 5th
d) 4th
3. NDDB means
a) National daily development board
b) National dairy development board
c) National dairy developing board
d) National development dairy board
4. With an annual output of 130 MT, _____ is the largest producer of the milk in the world.
a) India b) China c) Japan d) None
5. In 2013-14 India achieved a record food grain production of
a) 254 MT b) 264 MT c) 269 MT d) 274 MT
6. DES means
a) Directorate of economics and statistics b) Directorate of ecology and statistics
c) Directorate of ergonomics and statistics d) None
7. Which sector is the backbone of Indian economy?
a) Service sector b) Financial sector c) Tourism sector d) Agricultural sector
8. Who announced the introduction of National Food Security act?
a) Pranab Mukherjee b) Manmohan Singh c) P. Chidambaram d) Arun jaitley
9. When NFSM launched?
a) Mid of 9th
five year plan b) End of 10th
five year plan
c) mid of 11th
five year plan d) End of 11th
five year plan
10. Who announced the launched of rashtriya krishi vikas yojana ?
a) Narendra Modi b) Dr. Manmohan Singh c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee d) I.K Gujral
11. Which among the following does not belong to welfare schemes for the farmers?
a) Kisan credit card scheme b) SHG Bank Linkage Programme
c) National Agricultural Insurance Scheme d) Employee Referral Scheme

18. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
18
12. When did the government present Kisan credit card scheme?
a) April 1853 b) August 1998 c) July 1991 d) November 1995
13. When was ‘On Farm Management Scheme’ launched?
a) July 2000 b) March 2002 c) March 2004 d) January 2004
14. When was ‘Micro Irrigation’ launched?
a) March 2002 b) March 2004 c) January 2004 d) January 2006
15. The Blue Revolution is related with?
a) Fish production b) Food grain production
c) Oilseed production d)Milk production
16. Indian agriculture is typically characterized as …
a) Land surplus, labor scare economy b) Land surplus, labor surplus economy
c) Land scare, labor surplus economy d) Land scare, labor scare economy
17. Dr. M. S Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which of the following fields?
a) Nuclear physics b) Agriculture c) Astrophysics d) Medicine
18. The Green Revolution in India was the outcome of the efforts of who amongst the following?
a) M. S. Swaminathan b) C. Rangarajan c) K.V Kamath d) Rakesh Mohan
19. The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established in the
year…
a) 1970 b) 1975 c) 1977 d) 1982
20. The head office of the NABARD is located in?
a) Lucknow b) Hyderabad c) New Delhi d) Mumbai
21. Where is the central rice research institute located?
a) Bangalore b) Kanpur c) Coimbatore d) Cuttack
22. NABARD was established in the …
a) Fourth Five year plan b) Fifth Five year plan
c) Sixth Five year plan d) Eighth Five year plan
23. Who is known as Father of White Revolution in India?
a) M. S. Swaminathan b) V. Kurien c) K.N Bahal d) B.P. Pal
24. Which is the highest food grain producing Indian state, as per 2013-2014?
a) Madhya Pradesh b) Punjab c) Uttar Pradesh d) Maharastra

19. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
19
25. Which is the highest coarse cereal producing Indian state, as per 2013-2014?
a) Karnataka b) Maharastra c) Rajasthan d) Uttar Pradesh
26. Which Indian state has the largest area irrigated by water tanks, as 2013-14?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Karnataka c) Tamilnadu d) Uttar Pradesh
27. Which is the biggest milk plant in India?
a) Verka milk plant b) Mother Diary c) Burnett Diary d) Lorenae Diary
28. Which of the following is a human made input of agriculture?
a) Relief of the land b) Irrigation Facilities c) Earthworms d) Crops
29. Which is also known as the golden fiber?
a) Cotton b) Wheat c) Silk d) Jute
30. The two most important staple food crops of the world are – and ---
a) Ragi & Bajra b) Tea & Coffee c) Rice & wheat d) Milets & Maize
31. It is also known as “Monoculture”, i.e. single crop grown over a large area.
a) Commercial Grain Farming b) Plantation farming c) Multiple Farming d) Mixed farming
32. In Assam, West Bengal and Orissa, three crops of --- are grown in a year known as “Aus, Aman
and Boro”.
a) Paddy b) wheat c) Pulses d) Maize
33. Which one is not a millet crop?
a) Jowar b) Ragi c) Wheat d) Bajra
34. The word ‘Agriculture’ has been derived from two … words
a) German b) American c) Latin d) Arabic
35. Cultivation of the grapes is also known as ….
a) Viticulture b) Horticulture c) Sericulture d) Pisciculture
36. The term white revolution refers to the
a) Increased production of food grains b) Increased production of Milk
c) Increased production of eggs d) Increased production of Fish
37. Who was the father of Operation Flood?
a) Dr. Norman Borlaug b) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
c) Dr. Verghese Kurien d) Dr. William Gande

20. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
20
38. Which state is the biggest tea producer in the country?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Sikkim c) Assam d) West Bengal
39. Which is not a Kharif Crop?
a) Jowar b) Maize c) Groundnut d) Wheat
40. When a community development program (CDP) started?
a) 1952 b) 1953 c) 1954 d) 1955
41. Green revolution started in
a) 1964-65 b) 1965-66 c) 1966-67 d) 1967-68
42. White revolution is associated with
a) Milk b) Milk products c) Both d) None
43. The gene revolution is the application of --- in food production.
a) Bio-technology b) Technology c) Both d) None
44. The information revolution began with the invention of the...
a) Integrated circuit b) Computers c) both d) none
45. The information revolution started around
a) 1000 BC b) 2000 BC c) 3000 BC d) 4000 BC
46. The information revolution started around 3000 BC with the --- pictographs.
a) Sumerian b) American c) Indian d) Chinese
47. The WWW means that
a) World Wide Web b) World Work Web c) Both d) None
48. Internet works on
a) Packet switching b) Circuit switching c) Both d) None
49. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol used in internet?
a) Remote procedure call b) Internet relay chat
c) Resource reservation protocol d) None of these
50. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the internet?
a) DHCP b) IP c) RPC d) None

21. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
21
51. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?
a) Ethernet b) Digital subscriber line c) Fiber distributed data interface d) none
52. TCP/IP is a:
a) Network hardware b) Network software c) Protocol d) None
53. OSI stands for:
a) Open system Interface b) Out System Interface
c) Open System Interconnection d) Out System Interconnection
54. TCP/IP mainly used for:
a) File Transfer b) Email c) Remote Login Service d)All the above
55. IPX/SPX used for:
a) Linux b) Unix c) Novel Net ware d) Windows
56. NetBIOS is developed by:
a) Microsoft d) IBM c) Sun d) None
57. Which network architecture is developed by IBM?
a) System Network Architecture b) Digital Network Architecture
c) Boroughs Network Architecture d) Distributed Network Architecture
58. Which is the lowest layer of TCP/IP model?
a) Host to Host Layer b) Network Access Layers
c) Internet Layer d) application Layer
59. The most common method for gaining access to the Internet is through a ---
a) Dump terminal b) Virtual provider or computer
c) Point-to-point computer d) Provider or host computer
60. The term ISP refers to
a) Internal software protocol b) International Shareware pool
c) Internet service provider d) Interface standard protocol
61. The extensions .gov, .edu, .mil and .net are called
a) DNAs b) E-mail targets c) Domain codes d) Mail to address
62. URL is an acronym for ---
a) Uniform Resource Locator b) Uniform Resource Link
c) Universal Reference Locator d) Unlimited Real-time Language

22. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
22
63. When surfing the web, the browser interprets the HTML command found in a document file, and
displays it as a(n)
a) Applet page b) Java page c) Web page d) Domain page
64. HTML is an acronym for –
a) Hyperlink Markup Language b) Hypertext markup Language
c) Hypertext Markup Link d) Hypertext Modern Language
65. Connections to other documents or to other locations within a website are
a) Filters b) hyperlinks c) plug-ins d) bots
66. Hyperlinks in a Web document typically appear as
a) Bolded and underlined b) Italicized and underlined
c) Underlined and colored d) Bolded and italicized
67. Applets are typically written in a programming language called
a) XML b) Basic c) Pascal d) Java
68. Which of the following are not required in order to send and receive e-mail?
a) Email account b) Web page c) Access to the Internet d) E-mail program
69. Which of the following is not one of basic elements of an e-mail message?
a) Header b) Footer c) Message d) Signature
70. An internet standard for transferring files is known as
a) IRC b) Telnet c) FTP d) WAIS
71. A(n) --- can be used to block access to specific sites.
a) Filter b) Hardware block c) Censor d) Rubicon
72. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
a) Coal b) Forests c) Water d) Wildlife
73. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?
a) Solar Energy b) Biomass energy c) Hydro-power d) Geothermal energy
74. Identify the non-renewable energy resource from the following…
a) Coal b) Fuel cells c) Wind power d) Wave power
75. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources?
a) Highly polluting b) High waste disposal cost c) Unreliable supply d) High running cost

23. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
23
76. Photovoltaic energy is the conversion of sunlight into:
a) Chemical energy b) Biogas c) Electricity d) geothermal energy
77. Which among the following is not an adverse environmental impact of tidal power generation?
a) Interference with spawning and migration of fish
b) Pollution and health hazard in the estuary due to blockage of flow of polluted water into the sea
c) Navigational hazard
d) None
78. A fuel cell, in order to produce electricity, burns:
a) Helium b) Nitrogen c) Hydrogen d) None
79. Fuel cells are;
a) Carbon cell b) Hydrogen battery c) Nuclear cell d) Chromium cell
80. A module is a:
a) Series-arrangement of solar cells b) Parallel arrangement of solar cells
c) Series-parallel arrangement of solar cells d) None
81. The efficiency of solar cells is about:
a) 25% b) 15% c) 40 d) 60%
82. Which of the following area is preferred for solar power plants?
a) Coastal areas b) Hot, arid zones c) Mountain tops d) High rainfall zones
83. Which power plant is free from environmental pollution problems?
a) Thermal power plant b) Nuclear power plant
c) Hydro-power plant d) Geothermal energy power plant
84. Climate change is primarily caused by the building up of --- in the atmosphere.
a) Greenhouse gases b) CO2 c) Nitrogen d) None
85. The global increase of methane and nitrous oxide are primarily due to
a) Agriculture b) Industries c) Soil erosion d) None
86. Global warming is a specific example of the broader term
a) Climate change b) environment change c) Health change d) None
87. The observed increase in the average temperature of the air near earth’s surface and oceans in recent decades
a) Environment change b) Global warming c) Health change d) None
88. The first known use of wind power was in
a) 6000 BC b) 4000 BC c) 5000 BC d) 3000BC

24. CHETHAN.S
DEPARTMENT OF MANAGEMENT
24