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Previous year question on rabies based on neet pg, usmle, plab and fmge or mci screening exams
1. The use of hyperimmune sera such as hepatitis B immune globulin, rabies immunoglobulin,
and human tetanus immune globulin for prophylaxis or treatment is an example of what
process?
A: Active immunity
B: Passive immunity
C: Humoral immunity
D: Cellular immunity
Correct Ans:B
Explanation
The use of hyperimmune sera for treatment or prophylaxis is referred to as “passive
immunization”. This approach is used when allowing the development of a natural immune
response would take too long and directly threaten patient survival.
This type of immunity is of short duration and has no memory component.
Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 57. Immunity. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical
Microbiology & Immunology, 12e.
Sample Previous Year Question on Rabies based on previous Year Questions of
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Louis Pasteur is NOT associated with?
A: Vaccination of small pox
B:
Germ
theory
C: Vaccination of rabies
D: Pasteurization
Correct Ans:A
Explanation
Works of Louis Pasteur
Germ theory of fermentation
2. Sterilisation techniques: steam steriliser, hot air oven and
autoclaving
Vaccination against anthrax, rabies, cowpox and chickenpox.
Technique of pasteurization
Ref: Ananth Narayan 7/e, Page 5-7
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Which of the following vaccine is developed by Louis Pasteur?
A: Anthrax
B:
Rabie
s
C: Chicken cholera
D: All of the above
Correct Ans:D
Explanation
Pasteur’s contributions:
Pasteur proved that all forms of life, even microbes, arose only
from their like and not de novo.
Introduced techniques of sterilization and developed steam
sterilizer, hot-air oven and autoclave
Developed vaccines against anthrax, rabies, chicken cholera
Ref: Textbook of Microbiology By Ananthanarayan And Paniker, 7th edition,
Page 1.
Sample Previous Year Question on Rabies based on previous Year Questions of
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Which of the following findings can indicate a rabies infection?
3. A: Guarner bodies
B:
Negri
bodies
C: Cowdry A bodies
D: Cowdry B bodies
Correct Ans:B
Explanation
Rabies is confirmed by the presence of intracytoplasmic inclusion body (negri
body) especially in the neurons of the brain. Negri bodies can also be found in
corneal imprints, biopsies of face and neck. Negri bodies are composed of
fibrillar matrix and virus particles.
Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker, 7th Edition,
Chapter 49, Page 449; Pathology and Pathogenesis of Human Viral Disease, John
E. Craighead, Page 361; Zoonoses: Infectious Diseases Transmissible from
Animals to Humans, H. Krauss, 3rd Edition, Chapter 1, Page 116; Alcamo's
Fundamentals of Microbiology, Jeffrey C. Pommerville, 7th Edition, Chapter 12,
Page 223
Sample Previous Year Question on Rabies based on previous Year Questions of
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Which of the following statements is TRUE about Rabies Virus:
A: It is double stranded RNA virus
B: Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C: Negative sense RNA Genome
D: Affects motor neurons
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
The Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family, and is the prototypic
member of the genus lyssavirus. It has a single-stranded, non-segmented,
negative-sense RNA genome.
The helical nucleocapsid is composed of a single-stranded negative-sense RNA
genome and an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase enclosed in a matrix protein
covered by a lipid bilayer envelope containing knob-like glycoprotein.
4. Note - Negative-sense RNA virus replicates in the cytoplasm
Ref: Microbiology By Jawetz, 20th Edition, Page 482 ; Rabies By Alan C.
Jackson, William H. Wunner, 2007, Page 24
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All are true regarding Rabies virus, except?
A: Single Stranded RNA virus
B: Linear
C: Negative sense
D: Space vehicle shaped
Correct Ans:D
Explanation
It is a bullet shaped virus with a single serotype. It is detected by
immunofluoresence.
The rabies virus is a neurotropic virus. These viruses areenveloped and have a
single stranded RNA genome with negative-sense. All transcription and
replication events take place in the cytoplasm inside a specialized “virus factory“,
the Negri body.
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Which of the following statements is TRUE about rabies virus?
A: It is a double stranded RNA virus.
B: Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C: RNA has a negative polarity
5. D: It is a double stranded DNA virus.
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
Rabies virus:
It is enveloped RNA virus and is bullet-shaped. The helical nucleocapsid (N) is
composed of a single-stranded negative-sense RNA genome and an RNA-
dependent RNA polymerase enclosed in a matrix (M) protein covered by a lipid
bilayer envelope containing knob-like glycoprotein (G).
Since rabies virus is a negative-sense RNA virus, virion-associated RNA-
dependent RNA polymerase transcribes the genome to make several mRNAs in
the cytoplasm. These mRNAs are translated into various proteins, including
nucleocapsid, matrix, RNA polymerase, and G glycoproteins.
Also Know:
Replicates initially in muscle and then enters peripheral nervous system. It
spreads to CNS gray matter. Negri bodies are found in neurons.
The pathognomonic lesion is the Negri body, an eosinophilic cytoplasmic
inclusion distributed throughout the brain, particularly in the hippocampus,
cerebral cortex, cerebellum, and dorsal spinal ganglia.
Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 17. Rabies. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan
(Eds),Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e.
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Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
A: Ebola
B: Simian 40
C: Rabies
D: Vesicular stomatitis virus
Correct Ans:B
Explanation
6. Simian vacuolating virus (SV40) is a small nonenveloped, icosahedral DNA
tumour virus. Polyoma & SV40 produce malignant tumours when inoculated
into the newborn mice / hamsters. These viruses have been widely employed in
the study of viral oncogenesis.
Also Know:
Oncogenic. RNA viruses - Avian leukosis viruses, Murine leukosis viruses,
Human T cell leukaemia viruses, Leukosis - sarcoma virus.
Oncogenic DNA viruses - Polyomavirus, SV40, Molluscum contagiosum, Epstein-
Barr virus, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes simplex viruses type 1& 2.
Ref: Ananthanarayanan & Paniker’s textbook of microbiology 8th ed pg 549.
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Which of the following inclusion body is seen in a patient with Rabies?
A: Cowdry-B
B: Negri bodies
C: Guarneri bodies
D: Bollinger bodies
Correct Ans:B
Explanation
Negri bodies are eosinophilic intracellular lesions found within cerebral neurons
and are highly specific for Rabies. They are found in about 75% of proven cases
of animal rabies.
Guarneri bodies are inclusion bodies seen in the cytoplasm of
cells infected with small pox virus.
Bollinger bodies are found in the cytoplasm of a cell infected with
fowl pox virus.
In herpes infection giant cells are present, they contain a
conglomeration of several nuclei. Each nucleus contain a large
inclusion body surrounded by a clear halo.
7. HSV infection is associated with two types of viral
inclusions. Cowdry A inclusions are small, round and eosinophilic
and are separated from the nuclear material by a halo.Cowdry B
inclusions are large, ground glass, eosinophilic, centrally located
structures that push nuclear materials to the rim of the nucleus.
Ref: Weber D.J., Wohl D.A., Rutala W.A. (2011). Chapter 152. Rabies. In J.E.
Tintinalli, J.S. Stapczynski, D.M. Cline, O.J. Ma, R.K. Cydulka, G.D. Meckler
(Eds), Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine: A Comprehensive Study Guide,
7e. Microbiology:Application Based Approach By Pelczar page 427.
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A adolescent was bitten by a stray dog. To rule out rabies in the animal, brain
tissue sample was taken. Which of the part of brain tissue should be taken to see
the characteristic Negri bodies?
A:
Hippocampu
s
B: Hypothalamus
C: Medulla
D: Midbrain
Correct Ans:A
Explanation
Rapid diagnosis of rabies infection in the animal is usually made by examination of
brain tissue by using either PCR assay, fluorescent antibody to rabies virus or
histologic staining of Negri bodies in the cytoplasm of hippocampal neurons. Negri
bodies are sharply demarcated, more or less spherical, and 2–10 μm in diameter,
and they have a distinctive internal structure with basophilic granules in an
eosinophilic matrix. Negri bodies contain rabies virus antigens.
Ref: (2012). Chapter 39. RNA-Enveloped Viruses. In Levinson W (Eds), Review
of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e.
8. Sample Previous Year Question on Rabies based on previous Year Questions of
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Passive–active immunity is useful for the exposure of the following infection:
A: Rabies
B: Hepatitis B
C: Varicella-zoster
D: All of the above
Correct Ans:D
Explanation
Passive–active immunity is induced by giving both immunoglobulins to provide
immediate protection and a vaccine to provide long-term protection.
Rabies immune globulin (RIG) is used in the prevention of rabies in people who
may have been exposed to the virus.
Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) is used in the prevention of hepatitis B in
people who may have been exposed to the virus either by needle-stick or as a
neonate born of a mother who is a carrier of HBV.
Varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) is used in the prevention of
disseminated zoster in people who may have been exposed to the virus and who
are immunocompromised.
Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 36. Viral Vaccines. In W. Levinson
(Ed),Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e.
Sample Previous Year Question on Rabies based on previous Year Questions of
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Mili is suspected to have an infection on her second pre-natal visit. Her pet cat
could act as a reservoir for which of the following conditions?
A: Toxoplasma gondii
B: Rabies
9. C: Streptocerca infection
D: Plague
Correct Ans:A
Explanation
Toxoplasmosis is usually a self-limiting infection due to a parasite called
Toxoplasma gondii.
The toxoplasmosis parasitic disease is capable of infecting almost all species of
warm-blooded animals, including humans, but the primary host is the various
members of the cat family. They are the only hosts in which the oocyst-producing
sexual stage of Toxoplasma can develop.
A wide host range, comprising all the hot-blooded animals including birds and
rodents, can serve as a reservoir of rabies. Monkeys are reservoirs for
Streptocerca. Wild rodents such as field mice, gerbils, and skunks are the natural
reservoir of plague. In India, Tatera indica (wild rat) is considered the main
reservoir and not Ratus ratus (domestic rat).
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Which one of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A:
MM
R
B: Rabies
C: Hep B
D: None
Correct Ans:A
Explanation
MMR is a live vaccine prepared from live and generally attenuated organisms by
passing repeatedly in the laboratory in tissue culture and thus it has lost their
capacity to cause a full blown disease but retain their properties of
immunogenicity. Live vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy considering the
risk of teratogenic harm to the fetus.
10. Rabies and Hepatitis B vaccines are killed or inactivated vaccines and no such
contraindication exists to their use in pregnancy.
Ref: Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th
Edition, Pages 97-8; Side Effects of Drugs Annual By Jeffrey K. Aronson, Pages
581-582; Immunology for The Health Sciences By Nicholas J. Vardaxis, Pages
101-4
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Post exposure prophylaxis in health care professionals is indicated in infections
with all except?
A: HBV
B: Rabies
C: Diptheria
D: Measles
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
Post exposure prophylaxis is used in HIV, HBV, Measles, Rabies, Tetanus,
H.influenzae and Meningococcus.
Ref: Park, 20th Edition, Pages 139, 189, 240, 283.
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Which of the following is a “water scarce disease”?
A: Trachoma
B:
Lepros
y
C: Rabies
11. D: Tetanus
Correct Ans:A
Explanation
Many diseases are caused by scarcity of water in enough amount to be able to
maintain personal hygiene and cleanliness. These are called water scarce
disease or water washed disease. Examples include trachoma, conjunctivitis, lice
infestation, scabies, ascariasis etc.
Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 657.
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Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
A: Epidemic typhus vaccine
B:
Pertussis
vaccine
C: Rabies vaccine
D: KFD vaccine
Correct Ans:A
Explanation
Live attenuated vaccines:
BCG
Typhoral vaccine
OPV
Yellow fever
Measles
Rubella
Mumps
Note: Live vaccines should not be used in people with depressed immune responses and
pregnancy.
Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 91
12. Sample Previous Year Question on Rabies based on previous Year Questions of
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What is the recommended schedule for pre exposure prophylaxis for rabies?
A: 0, 3, 7 days
B: 0, 7, 14 days
C: 0, 7, 28 days
D: 0, 3, 7, 14, 21 days
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
Persons who have a high risk of exposure to rabies such as staff working with rabies virus,
veterinarians should be administered pre exposure prophylaxis against rabies. Such
immunization consists of cell culture vaccine administered on days 0, 7 and 28.
Ref: Park 21st edition, page 256.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of an epizootic?
A: Malaria
B: Brucellosis
C: Anthrax
D: Rabies
Correct Ans:A
Explanation
EPIZOOTIC: It is an epidemic of disease in an animal population (often with the implication
that it may also affect human populations). Only a few zoonotic agents cause major
epidemics. Examples are anthrax, brucellosis, rabies, influenza, Rift valley fever, Japanese
encephalitis and equine encephalitis.
Ref: Park 21st edition, page 89.
13. Sample Previous Year Question on Rabies based on previous Year Questions of
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Which of the following is not a route of transmission Rabies?
A:
Bit
e
B: Lick
C: Aerosol
D: Ingestion
Correct Ans:D
Explanation
The prinicple routes of transmission of rabies virus are animal bites, licks on abraded skin or mucosa,
through aerosols and through person to person contact. Rabies can also be transmitted through
corneal and organ transplants.
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A wild life officer comes to clinic for recieving prophylactic vaccine against rabies. How
many doses of HDCV is needed for pre exposure prophylaxis of Rabies?
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
Prophylaxis for rabies consist of administration of HDCV
vaccine in a dose of either 1ml i.m/ 0.1ml intradermally on
days 0, 7 and 28. One month after the third injection serum
titers of antibodies are checked and if the titre is less than
0.5 IU/ml booster doses should be administered until
antibodies becomes demonstratable.
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All the following are modes of transmission of rabies, EXCEPT:
A: Person to person transmission
B: Aerosol
C: Ingestion of products made from infected animals
D: Licks
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
Aerosol transmission may occur in caves harbouring rabies infected bats. Person to person
transmission is also on record. Eg – an infected child biting its parent. Ingestion of the virus
is not believed to transmit the disease as the virus would be destroyed by stomach
acid/enzymes.
Ref: Park, Edition 21, Page 252
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Which among the following country is a ‘Rabies free country’?
A: USA
B: Russia
C: Australia
D: France
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
A “Rabies-free” area has been defined as one in which no case of indigenously acquired
rabies has occurred in man or any animal species for 2 years. Australia, China (Taiwan),
Cyprus, Iceland, Ireland, Japan, Malta, New Zealand, the U.K. and the islands of Western
Pacific are all free of the disease. The Liberian Peninsula and Finland, Norway and Sweden
are also rabies free.
In India, Union Territory of Lakshadweep and Andaman and Nicobar islands are free of the
disease.
15. Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine by K Park, 19th edition, Page 226.
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Post exposure prophylaxis is given in A/E
A: Rabies
B: Measles
C: Pertussis
D: Hepatitis B
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
Active immunoprophylaxis after exposure to disease [Post exposure prophylaxis] is
recommended for;
Rabies
Tetanus
Hepatitis B
Measles (within three days of exposure)
Varicella
Measles vaccination is given to the unvaccinated contacts within 3 days of exposure to the
index case. If more than 3 days have elapsed since exposure, they are protected with
human immunoglobulins, 0.25 ml/Kg, followed by measles immunization 2-3 months later.
Ref : Principles of Community Medicine by B. Sridhar Rao; 5th edition
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Which one of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A:
MM
R
B: Rabies
C: Hep B
16. D: None
Correct Ans:A
Explanation
MMR is a live vaccine prepared from live and generally attenuated organisms by passing
repeatedly in the laboratory in tissue culture and thus it has lost their capacity to cause a
full blown disease but retain their properties of immunogenicity. Live vaccines are
contraindicated in pregnancy considering the risk of teratogenic harm to the fetus.
Rabies and Hepatitis B vaccines are killed or inactivated vaccines and no such
contraindication exists to their use in pregnancy.
Ref: Park’s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Pages 97-8;
Side Effects of Drugs Annual By Jeffrey K. Aronson, Pages 581-582; Immunology for The
Health Sciences By Nicholas J. Vardaxis, Pages 101-4
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Which of the following regions in India has been identified as rabies free zone?
A: Chhattisgarh
B:
Nagalan
d
C: Lakhswadip
D: Mizoram
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
A rabies free zone is one where no indigenously acquired case of rabies has been reported
in the last 2 years. In India, Andaman and Nicobar islands and Lakshwadip has been
declared as rabies free zone.
Ref: Park 21st edition, page 250.
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Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy:
17. A: Hepatitis-B
B:
Choler
a
C: Rabies
D: Yellow fever
Correct Ans:D
Explanation
It is a live attenuated vaccine, so it is contraindicated in pregnancy except if exposure is
unavoidable.
Ref:PSM and Biostatistics: Slef Assessment and Review - Park, 18th Edition, Page 182
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Which of the following vaccine is routinely given in pregnancy?
A:
Influenz
a
B: Oral polio
C: Tetanus
D: Rabies
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
Td vaccine should be given to pregnant women in the second or third trimester if they had
not been vaccinated in the past 10 years. If a pregnant women received Td in the past 10
years Tdap should be given postpartum.
American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommend that influenza vaccine
should be given only to pregnant women with serious underlying diseases such as chronic
diseases or pulmonary problems.
Ref: The Vaccine Handbook: A Practical Guide for Clinicians: the Purple Book By Gary
S. Marshall page 252.
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18. Which among the following is not a feature of furious rabies?
A: Hydrophobia
B:
Aerophobi
a
C: Constricted pupils
D: Seizure
Correct Ans:C
Explanation
Furious Rabies generally manifests as headache, fever, irritability, restlessness and anxiety.
It is associated with dilated pupils, lacrimation, salivation and perspiration. Muscle pains,
salivation and vomitting may follow.
A few days following exposure the patient may experience a stage of excitement or muscle
spasms initiated from the ingestion of of saliva or water. As a result these individuals have
a tendency to drool and begin to fear water or hydrophobia. This excited phase continues
for a few days until the patient lapses into a coma and dies.
Dumb Rabies manifests itself in the opposite manner as Furious Rabies. Instead of
demonstrating excitement the patient experiences depression and paralysis followed by a
coma. Death eventually results from respiratory arrest. This form of the virus is often
difficult to diagnose from a clinical perspective.
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