This document contains 57 multiple choice questions assessing knowledge of chapters 14-16 from the Psychology 41 Lifespan Development course. The questions cover topics related to puberty and physical development, cognitive development, identity development, and psychosocial issues in adolescence such as peer relationships, family relationships, crime and suicide.
1) The amount of information available for our use doubles every.docxdorishigh
1) The amount of information available for our use doubles every
A) two years
B) century
C) decade
D) 5-7 years
2) The highest levels of technophobia are exhibited by
A) women and minority group members
B) mid-level managers
C) children
D) middle-class men
3) What is the most popular (frequent) method used by Americans to find information?
A) radio
B) Internet
C) TV
D) newspapers
4) One of the dramatic changes in the United States today is the increase in
A) manufacturing and heavy industry
B) the homogeneity of the population
C) cultural diversity
D) blue-collar workers
5) People who habitually say, “Naturally, I act this way because of the way I grew up”
fail to realize, as the text suggests, that
A) free choice and responsibility go hand in hand
B) they have fewer options than their parents
C) they cannot take calculated risks
D) their choices are limited
6) All of the following traits remain rather stable over a lifetime EXCEPT
A) neuroticism
B) self-esteem
C) introversion
D) expressiveness
7) The experience of personal growth usually ends with the stage of
A) acknowledging change
B) feeling anxiety and discomfort
C) reorganizing our experience
D) changing our attitudes
8) We are more apt to have positive, gratifying feelings about an experience of personal
growth at the third and final stage designated as
A) sensing dissatisfaction
B) acknowledging change
C) experiencing dissonance
D) reorganizing our experience
9) When scientists examine existing data such as historical documents, they are using
the ________ method.
A) growth
B) conceptual
C) archival
D) empirical
10) In which psychoanalytic stage did Freud say genuine love develops?
A) oral
B) anal
C) latency
D) genital
11) Which concept is not part of Freud’s view of the psyche?
A) consciousness
B) unconscious
C) ultraconscious
D) preconscious
12) Carol likes Dr. Reed, the supervisor of her practice teaching. In fact, Carol often finds
herself adopting many of Dr. Reed’s methods and mannerisms in the classroom. Ban-
dura refers to this type of learning as
A) classical conditioning
B) observational learning
C) due to the effects of unconscious Oedipal wishes
D) identification with the parent figure
13) Social learning theorists such as Bandura regard the inconsistencies in human behav-
ior as largely the product of
A) conditioned responses
B) personality traits
C) unconscious conflicts
D) situational factors
14) From which perspective are psychologists most likely to argue that spanking is harm-
ful to children?
A) the humanistic perspective
B) the psychoanalysis perspective
C) the learning perspective
D) all of these
15) Humanistic psychology has received national prominence as
A) deconstructivist
B) emphasizing individual sameness
C) Freud’s theory
D) the third force in psychology
16) Research shows that older people score lower in ________ than younger people.
A) conscientiousness
B) agreeableness
C) social vitality
D) all of the above
17) Research (Scarr) suggests that ________ ch ...
UNIT 11) The amount of information available for our use doubl.docxwillcoxjanay
UNIT 1
1) The amount of information available for our use doubles every
A) two years
B) century
C) decade
D) 5-7 years
2) The highest levels of technophobia are exhibited by
A) women and minority group members
B) mid-level managers
C) children
D) middle-class men
3) What is the most popular (frequent) method used by Americans to find information?
A) radio
B) Internet
C) TV
D) newspapers
4) One of the dramatic changes in the United States today is the increase in
A) manufacturing and heavy industry
B) the homogeneity of the population
C) cultural diversity
D) blue-collar workers
5) People who habitually say, “Naturally, I act this way because of the way I grew up”
fail to realize, as the text suggests, that
A) free choice and responsibility go hand in hand
B) they have fewer options than their parents
C) they cannot take calculated risks
D) their choices are limited
6) All of the following traits remain rather stable over a lifetime EXCEPT
A) neuroticism
B) self-esteem
C) introversion
D) expressiveness
7) The experience of personal growth usually ends with the stage of
A) acknowledging change
B) feeling anxiety and discomfort
C) reorganizing our experience
D) changing our attitudes
8) We are more apt to have positive, gratifying feelings about an experience of personal
growth at the third and final stage designated as
A) sensing dissatisfaction
B) acknowledging change
C) experiencing dissonance
D) reorganizing our experience
9) When scientists examine existing data such as historical documents, they are using
the ________ method.
A) growth
B) conceptual
C) archival
D) empirical
10) In which psychoanalytic stage did Freud say genuine love develops?
A) oral
B) anal
C) latency
D) genital
11) Which concept is not part of Freud’s view of the psyche?
A) consciousness
B) unconscious
C) ultraconscious
D) preconscious
12) Carol likes Dr. Reed, the supervisor of her practice teaching. In fact, Carol often finds herself adopting many of Dr. Reed’s methods and mannerisms in the classroom. Bandura refers to this type of learning as
A) classical conditioning
B) observational learning
C) due to the effects of unconscious Oedipal wishes
D) identification with the parent figure
13) Social learning theorists such as Bandura regard the inconsistencies in human behavior as largely the product of
A) conditioned responses
B) personality traits
C) unconscious conflicts
D) situational factors
14) From which perspective are psychologists most likely to argue that spanking is harmful to children?
A) the humanistic perspective
B) the psychoanalysis perspective
C) the learning perspective
D) all of these
15) Humanistic psychology has received national prominence as
A) deconstructivist
B) emphasizing individual sameness
C) Freud’s theory
D) the third force in psychology
16) Research shows that older people score lower in ________ than younger people.
A) conscientiousness
B) agreeableness
C) social vitality
D) all of the above
17) Research (Scarr) sugges ...
1) Which of the following is an example of a secondary groupA) .docxdorishigh
1) Which of the following is an example of a secondary group?
A) the psychology class you are presently in
B) the graduating seniors at a large university
C) a family
D) all are secondary groups
2) In-group perceptions can develop
A) any time two or more people gather
B) based on ethnicity
C) based on clear set rules
D) all of the above are reasons ingroups develop perceptions
3) What is the correct sequence of group formation, according to the text?
A) forming, storming, norming, and performing
B) storming, forming, norming, and performing
C) forming, storming, performing, and norming
D) norming, storming, performing, and forming
4) Which statement is true about the group communication networks?
A) when tasks are complicated or decisions require complex input, decentralized net-
works are best
B) centralized communication networks allow for individuals to communicate more freely
with one another
C) centralized and decentralized networks result in about the same type of performance
in groups
D) where one or two individuals control the flow of information it is called decentralized
communication network
5) With electronic communication
A) each group member has a greater likelihood of participating
B) status inequities are enhanced
C) groups are more likely to be vulnerable to problems such as groupthink
D) the highest status group members do most of the talking
6) The group polarization effect refers to
A) groups doing less work than individuals no matter what the task
B) a few group members opting to oust other group members
C) feeling less responsible during group decision making
D) groups shifting to a more extreme decision than individuals alone
7) Two well-documented leadership styles are ________ and ________.
A) severe; moderate
B) casual; intense
C) people-oriented; task-oriented
D) thoughtful; thoughtless
8) Groupthink begins when
A) the leader is not very directive or authoritative
B) the group is close-knit and attractive to members
C) the group members are not concerned with consensus
D) the group is too open to ideas from outsiders
9) Which of the following are signs of groupthink?
A) a poorly designed solution
B) isolation of the group from criticism
C) mindguards
D) all of the above
10) The text states that when choosing a career goal, it’s best to begin by
A) asking your parents, spouses, or friends for their ideas
B) taking stock of yourself
C) scanning the classified ads in the newspaper
D) looking over the Occupational Outlook Handbook
11) People who score high on the Realistic theme of the Strong Interest Inventory would
most likely enjoy a job working as an
A) engineer
B) accountant
C) stockbroker
D) biologist
12) Most job changes occur
A) as an individual faces retirement
B) during young adulthood
C) during the retirement years
D) during middle age
13) Surveys on job satisfaction show that
A) women are much less satisfied with their jobs than men are
B) professional workers are more satisfied than workers in lower-level ...
Albertus Final Exam1.Imprinting is of particular concern to __.docxsimonlbentley59018
Albertus Final Exam
1.
Imprinting is of particular concern to _____ theorists.
A)
bioecological
B)
psychoanalytic
C)
ethological
D)
social learning
2.
Bronfenbrenner was the founder of:
A)
the bioecological model.
B)
the theory of social cognition.
C)
the psychosexual perspective.
D)
behaviorism.
3.
The family is part of which level of the bioecological model?
A)
the mesosystem
B)
the microsystem
C)
the macrosystem
D)
the chronosystem
4.
_____ is part of the mesosystem.
A)
Parents' contact with a child's soccer coach
B)
Societal importance placed on athletic prowess of boys
C)
A child's favorite TV show
D)
A father's job as a truck driver
5.
The chronosystem involves the:
A)
settings in which the child is not a direct participant.
B)
change in person or environment over time.
C)
general beliefs, values, customs, and laws of the larger society.
D)
activities, roles, and relationships in which the child directly participates.
6.
Children with ADHD:
A)
tend to be of below-average intelligence.
B)
typically show severe emotional disturbances.
C)
have difficulty inhibiting impulses to act.
D)
are more likely to be female.
7.
Walter Mischel's procedure in which preschool children were asked to wait for a considerable amount of time in order to receive a greater number of treats was designed to assess which characteristic?
A)
intelligence
B)
attentiveness
C)
delay of gratification
D)
social competence
8.
Discrete emotions theory holds that:
A)
the basic emotions are innate and distinct from early in life.
B)
emotional facial expressions must be learned.
C)
a select few emotions are present at birth, and the others are a function of experience.
D)
children must learn to fear strangers.
9.
The FIRST clear sign of happiness in infants is:
A)
the expression of love toward the mother.
B)
the social smile.
C)
laughter.
D)
smiling.
10.
Social smiles tend to emerge by the _____ month of life.
A)
1st
B)
2nd
C)
3rd
D)
6th
11.
Separation anxiety or distress due to separation from the parent who is the child's primary caregiver emerges around
A)
4 months of age
B)
5 months of age
C)
7 months of age
D)
8 months of age
12.
Which emotion is thought to have an evolutionary basis as it helps humans avoid potential poisons or disease-causes bacteria?
A)
surprise
B)
sadness
C)
anger
D)
disgust
13.
The initial signs of fear develop at approximately _____ months of age.
A)
6 to 7
B)
2 to 3
C)
4 to 5
D)
8 to 9
14.
Extensively discussing emotional problems with a peer is referred to as:
A)
rumination.
B)
co-rumination.
C)
reiteration.
D)
co-reiteration.
15.
Attachments are:
A)
enduring emotional bonds formed by children to their primary caregivers.
B)
compulsive needs of children to hold security items, such as pacifiers and blankets.
C)
connections between siblings that are maintained throughout the life span.
D)
qualities that are central to one's identity.
16.
Attachment theory was proposed by:
A)
Harlow.
B)
Ainsworth.
C)
Bowlby.
D)
Lorenz.
.
1) The world as we know it today is characterized byA) more coll.docxdorishigh
1) The world as we know it today is characterized by
A) more collectivism in comparison to individualism
B) galloping technological changes
C) slower social change than was witnessed in previous decades
D) a movement toward increased industrialization and fewer service industries
2) The fear of technology is known as
A) technophobia
B) electronosis
C) decidophobia
D) computeritis
3) What is the most popular (frequent) method used by Americans to fi nd information?
A) radio
B) newspapers
C) Internet
D) TV
4) In today’s world, almost ________ percent of Americans use e-mail.
A) 75
B) 50
C) 100
D) 25
5) Which is NOT a technique to help the environment?
A) recycle
B) reproduce
C) reuse
D) reduce
6) Truly autonomous people who are unafraid to make important decisions and
who accept responsibility for their lives and their decisions are
A) collectivistic
B) self-actualized
C) normalistic
D) decidoteric
7) Researchers have found high stability across a life span for which personality
trait?
A) introversion-extroversion
B) authoritarianism
C) perfectionism
D) self-esteem
8) The highest degree of stability of personality has been found in the domain of
A) authoritarianism
B) introversion-extroversion
C) perfectionism
D) self-esteem
9) How does personal growth usually proceed?
A) acknowledgment, dissatisfaction, reorganization
B) dissonance, neutrality, consonance
C) dissatisfaction, reorganization, acknowledgment
D) dissonance, consonance, neutrality
10) The experience of personal growth usually ends with the stage of
A) changing our attitudes
B) reorganizing our experience
C) acknowledging change
D) feeling anxiety and discomfort
11) In which psychoanalytic stage did Freud say genuine love develops?
A) anal
B) genital
C) latency
D) oral
12) According to Erikson, the second stage of psychosocial development poses
the developmental task of
A) autonomy vs. shame
B) industry vs. inferiority
C) trust vs. mistrust
D) initiative vs. guilt
13) The process by which we learn by observing is called
A) reinforcement
B) punishment
C) observational learning
D) learning theory
14) ________ emphasizes the importance of learning and the environment rather
than biological or unconscious drives.
A) Jung’s analytical psychology
B) Bandura’s social learning theory
C) Erikson’s psychosocial theory
D) Freud’s psychodynamic theory
15) Ken argued with Audra that they should give up their stressful jobs and move
to a small town to start a winery. He was confi dent they would be successful.
Ken has high levels of
A) self-effi cacy
B) personality dynamism
C) self-actualizing tendency
D) ego as well as id
16) Humanistic psychology has received national prominence as
A) deconstructivist
B) the third force in psychology
C) emphasizing individual sameness
D) Freud’s theory
17) According to the concept of positive regard, children automatically develop a
need for
A) behavior rewards
B) acceptance by others
C) social consciousness
D) valuing self
18) According to Maslow, self-actua ...
1) The amount of information available for our use doubles every.docxdorishigh
1) The amount of information available for our use doubles every
A) two years
B) century
C) decade
D) 5-7 years
2) The highest levels of technophobia are exhibited by
A) women and minority group members
B) mid-level managers
C) children
D) middle-class men
3) What is the most popular (frequent) method used by Americans to find information?
A) radio
B) Internet
C) TV
D) newspapers
4) One of the dramatic changes in the United States today is the increase in
A) manufacturing and heavy industry
B) the homogeneity of the population
C) cultural diversity
D) blue-collar workers
5) People who habitually say, “Naturally, I act this way because of the way I grew up”
fail to realize, as the text suggests, that
A) free choice and responsibility go hand in hand
B) they have fewer options than their parents
C) they cannot take calculated risks
D) their choices are limited
6) All of the following traits remain rather stable over a lifetime EXCEPT
A) neuroticism
B) self-esteem
C) introversion
D) expressiveness
7) The experience of personal growth usually ends with the stage of
A) acknowledging change
B) feeling anxiety and discomfort
C) reorganizing our experience
D) changing our attitudes
8) We are more apt to have positive, gratifying feelings about an experience of personal
growth at the third and final stage designated as
A) sensing dissatisfaction
B) acknowledging change
C) experiencing dissonance
D) reorganizing our experience
9) When scientists examine existing data such as historical documents, they are using
the ________ method.
A) growth
B) conceptual
C) archival
D) empirical
10) In which psychoanalytic stage did Freud say genuine love develops?
A) oral
B) anal
C) latency
D) genital
11) Which concept is not part of Freud’s view of the psyche?
A) consciousness
B) unconscious
C) ultraconscious
D) preconscious
12) Carol likes Dr. Reed, the supervisor of her practice teaching. In fact, Carol often finds
herself adopting many of Dr. Reed’s methods and mannerisms in the classroom. Ban-
dura refers to this type of learning as
A) classical conditioning
B) observational learning
C) due to the effects of unconscious Oedipal wishes
D) identification with the parent figure
13) Social learning theorists such as Bandura regard the inconsistencies in human behav-
ior as largely the product of
A) conditioned responses
B) personality traits
C) unconscious conflicts
D) situational factors
14) From which perspective are psychologists most likely to argue that spanking is harm-
ful to children?
A) the humanistic perspective
B) the psychoanalysis perspective
C) the learning perspective
D) all of these
15) Humanistic psychology has received national prominence as
A) deconstructivist
B) emphasizing individual sameness
C) Freud’s theory
D) the third force in psychology
16) Research shows that older people score lower in ________ than younger people.
A) conscientiousness
B) agreeableness
C) social vitality
D) all of the above
17) Research (Scarr) suggests that ________ ch ...
UNIT 11) The amount of information available for our use doubl.docxwillcoxjanay
UNIT 1
1) The amount of information available for our use doubles every
A) two years
B) century
C) decade
D) 5-7 years
2) The highest levels of technophobia are exhibited by
A) women and minority group members
B) mid-level managers
C) children
D) middle-class men
3) What is the most popular (frequent) method used by Americans to find information?
A) radio
B) Internet
C) TV
D) newspapers
4) One of the dramatic changes in the United States today is the increase in
A) manufacturing and heavy industry
B) the homogeneity of the population
C) cultural diversity
D) blue-collar workers
5) People who habitually say, “Naturally, I act this way because of the way I grew up”
fail to realize, as the text suggests, that
A) free choice and responsibility go hand in hand
B) they have fewer options than their parents
C) they cannot take calculated risks
D) their choices are limited
6) All of the following traits remain rather stable over a lifetime EXCEPT
A) neuroticism
B) self-esteem
C) introversion
D) expressiveness
7) The experience of personal growth usually ends with the stage of
A) acknowledging change
B) feeling anxiety and discomfort
C) reorganizing our experience
D) changing our attitudes
8) We are more apt to have positive, gratifying feelings about an experience of personal
growth at the third and final stage designated as
A) sensing dissatisfaction
B) acknowledging change
C) experiencing dissonance
D) reorganizing our experience
9) When scientists examine existing data such as historical documents, they are using
the ________ method.
A) growth
B) conceptual
C) archival
D) empirical
10) In which psychoanalytic stage did Freud say genuine love develops?
A) oral
B) anal
C) latency
D) genital
11) Which concept is not part of Freud’s view of the psyche?
A) consciousness
B) unconscious
C) ultraconscious
D) preconscious
12) Carol likes Dr. Reed, the supervisor of her practice teaching. In fact, Carol often finds herself adopting many of Dr. Reed’s methods and mannerisms in the classroom. Bandura refers to this type of learning as
A) classical conditioning
B) observational learning
C) due to the effects of unconscious Oedipal wishes
D) identification with the parent figure
13) Social learning theorists such as Bandura regard the inconsistencies in human behavior as largely the product of
A) conditioned responses
B) personality traits
C) unconscious conflicts
D) situational factors
14) From which perspective are psychologists most likely to argue that spanking is harmful to children?
A) the humanistic perspective
B) the psychoanalysis perspective
C) the learning perspective
D) all of these
15) Humanistic psychology has received national prominence as
A) deconstructivist
B) emphasizing individual sameness
C) Freud’s theory
D) the third force in psychology
16) Research shows that older people score lower in ________ than younger people.
A) conscientiousness
B) agreeableness
C) social vitality
D) all of the above
17) Research (Scarr) sugges ...
1) Which of the following is an example of a secondary groupA) .docxdorishigh
1) Which of the following is an example of a secondary group?
A) the psychology class you are presently in
B) the graduating seniors at a large university
C) a family
D) all are secondary groups
2) In-group perceptions can develop
A) any time two or more people gather
B) based on ethnicity
C) based on clear set rules
D) all of the above are reasons ingroups develop perceptions
3) What is the correct sequence of group formation, according to the text?
A) forming, storming, norming, and performing
B) storming, forming, norming, and performing
C) forming, storming, performing, and norming
D) norming, storming, performing, and forming
4) Which statement is true about the group communication networks?
A) when tasks are complicated or decisions require complex input, decentralized net-
works are best
B) centralized communication networks allow for individuals to communicate more freely
with one another
C) centralized and decentralized networks result in about the same type of performance
in groups
D) where one or two individuals control the flow of information it is called decentralized
communication network
5) With electronic communication
A) each group member has a greater likelihood of participating
B) status inequities are enhanced
C) groups are more likely to be vulnerable to problems such as groupthink
D) the highest status group members do most of the talking
6) The group polarization effect refers to
A) groups doing less work than individuals no matter what the task
B) a few group members opting to oust other group members
C) feeling less responsible during group decision making
D) groups shifting to a more extreme decision than individuals alone
7) Two well-documented leadership styles are ________ and ________.
A) severe; moderate
B) casual; intense
C) people-oriented; task-oriented
D) thoughtful; thoughtless
8) Groupthink begins when
A) the leader is not very directive or authoritative
B) the group is close-knit and attractive to members
C) the group members are not concerned with consensus
D) the group is too open to ideas from outsiders
9) Which of the following are signs of groupthink?
A) a poorly designed solution
B) isolation of the group from criticism
C) mindguards
D) all of the above
10) The text states that when choosing a career goal, it’s best to begin by
A) asking your parents, spouses, or friends for their ideas
B) taking stock of yourself
C) scanning the classified ads in the newspaper
D) looking over the Occupational Outlook Handbook
11) People who score high on the Realistic theme of the Strong Interest Inventory would
most likely enjoy a job working as an
A) engineer
B) accountant
C) stockbroker
D) biologist
12) Most job changes occur
A) as an individual faces retirement
B) during young adulthood
C) during the retirement years
D) during middle age
13) Surveys on job satisfaction show that
A) women are much less satisfied with their jobs than men are
B) professional workers are more satisfied than workers in lower-level ...
Albertus Final Exam1.Imprinting is of particular concern to __.docxsimonlbentley59018
Albertus Final Exam
1.
Imprinting is of particular concern to _____ theorists.
A)
bioecological
B)
psychoanalytic
C)
ethological
D)
social learning
2.
Bronfenbrenner was the founder of:
A)
the bioecological model.
B)
the theory of social cognition.
C)
the psychosexual perspective.
D)
behaviorism.
3.
The family is part of which level of the bioecological model?
A)
the mesosystem
B)
the microsystem
C)
the macrosystem
D)
the chronosystem
4.
_____ is part of the mesosystem.
A)
Parents' contact with a child's soccer coach
B)
Societal importance placed on athletic prowess of boys
C)
A child's favorite TV show
D)
A father's job as a truck driver
5.
The chronosystem involves the:
A)
settings in which the child is not a direct participant.
B)
change in person or environment over time.
C)
general beliefs, values, customs, and laws of the larger society.
D)
activities, roles, and relationships in which the child directly participates.
6.
Children with ADHD:
A)
tend to be of below-average intelligence.
B)
typically show severe emotional disturbances.
C)
have difficulty inhibiting impulses to act.
D)
are more likely to be female.
7.
Walter Mischel's procedure in which preschool children were asked to wait for a considerable amount of time in order to receive a greater number of treats was designed to assess which characteristic?
A)
intelligence
B)
attentiveness
C)
delay of gratification
D)
social competence
8.
Discrete emotions theory holds that:
A)
the basic emotions are innate and distinct from early in life.
B)
emotional facial expressions must be learned.
C)
a select few emotions are present at birth, and the others are a function of experience.
D)
children must learn to fear strangers.
9.
The FIRST clear sign of happiness in infants is:
A)
the expression of love toward the mother.
B)
the social smile.
C)
laughter.
D)
smiling.
10.
Social smiles tend to emerge by the _____ month of life.
A)
1st
B)
2nd
C)
3rd
D)
6th
11.
Separation anxiety or distress due to separation from the parent who is the child's primary caregiver emerges around
A)
4 months of age
B)
5 months of age
C)
7 months of age
D)
8 months of age
12.
Which emotion is thought to have an evolutionary basis as it helps humans avoid potential poisons or disease-causes bacteria?
A)
surprise
B)
sadness
C)
anger
D)
disgust
13.
The initial signs of fear develop at approximately _____ months of age.
A)
6 to 7
B)
2 to 3
C)
4 to 5
D)
8 to 9
14.
Extensively discussing emotional problems with a peer is referred to as:
A)
rumination.
B)
co-rumination.
C)
reiteration.
D)
co-reiteration.
15.
Attachments are:
A)
enduring emotional bonds formed by children to their primary caregivers.
B)
compulsive needs of children to hold security items, such as pacifiers and blankets.
C)
connections between siblings that are maintained throughout the life span.
D)
qualities that are central to one's identity.
16.
Attachment theory was proposed by:
A)
Harlow.
B)
Ainsworth.
C)
Bowlby.
D)
Lorenz.
.
1) The world as we know it today is characterized byA) more coll.docxdorishigh
1) The world as we know it today is characterized by
A) more collectivism in comparison to individualism
B) galloping technological changes
C) slower social change than was witnessed in previous decades
D) a movement toward increased industrialization and fewer service industries
2) The fear of technology is known as
A) technophobia
B) electronosis
C) decidophobia
D) computeritis
3) What is the most popular (frequent) method used by Americans to fi nd information?
A) radio
B) newspapers
C) Internet
D) TV
4) In today’s world, almost ________ percent of Americans use e-mail.
A) 75
B) 50
C) 100
D) 25
5) Which is NOT a technique to help the environment?
A) recycle
B) reproduce
C) reuse
D) reduce
6) Truly autonomous people who are unafraid to make important decisions and
who accept responsibility for their lives and their decisions are
A) collectivistic
B) self-actualized
C) normalistic
D) decidoteric
7) Researchers have found high stability across a life span for which personality
trait?
A) introversion-extroversion
B) authoritarianism
C) perfectionism
D) self-esteem
8) The highest degree of stability of personality has been found in the domain of
A) authoritarianism
B) introversion-extroversion
C) perfectionism
D) self-esteem
9) How does personal growth usually proceed?
A) acknowledgment, dissatisfaction, reorganization
B) dissonance, neutrality, consonance
C) dissatisfaction, reorganization, acknowledgment
D) dissonance, consonance, neutrality
10) The experience of personal growth usually ends with the stage of
A) changing our attitudes
B) reorganizing our experience
C) acknowledging change
D) feeling anxiety and discomfort
11) In which psychoanalytic stage did Freud say genuine love develops?
A) anal
B) genital
C) latency
D) oral
12) According to Erikson, the second stage of psychosocial development poses
the developmental task of
A) autonomy vs. shame
B) industry vs. inferiority
C) trust vs. mistrust
D) initiative vs. guilt
13) The process by which we learn by observing is called
A) reinforcement
B) punishment
C) observational learning
D) learning theory
14) ________ emphasizes the importance of learning and the environment rather
than biological or unconscious drives.
A) Jung’s analytical psychology
B) Bandura’s social learning theory
C) Erikson’s psychosocial theory
D) Freud’s psychodynamic theory
15) Ken argued with Audra that they should give up their stressful jobs and move
to a small town to start a winery. He was confi dent they would be successful.
Ken has high levels of
A) self-effi cacy
B) personality dynamism
C) self-actualizing tendency
D) ego as well as id
16) Humanistic psychology has received national prominence as
A) deconstructivist
B) the third force in psychology
C) emphasizing individual sameness
D) Freud’s theory
17) According to the concept of positive regard, children automatically develop a
need for
A) behavior rewards
B) acceptance by others
C) social consciousness
D) valuing self
18) According to Maslow, self-actua ...
1) The term positivism” came from the writings of A) Franz Gall.docxdorishigh
1) The term “positivism” came from the writings of
A) Franz Gall.
B) Auguste Comte.
C) Charles Darwin.
D) Cesare Lombroso.
2) According to Arseneault and Trembley’s recent study of teenage boys in Canada, minor abnormalities in the shape of the __________ were associated with an increased risk of psychiatric and behavioral problems.
A) teeth
B) tongue
C) ears
D) All of the above
3) According to William Sheldon, __________ have the greatest likelihood of becoming criminal offenders.
A) cyclothmorphs
B) endomorphs
C) ectomorphs
D) mesomorphs
4) Research suggests that exposure to the color __________ can calm people who are feeling angry or agitated.
A) purple
B) pink
C) blue
D) brown
5) Which of the following variables may moderate the relationship between tem-
perature and criminal behavior?
A) Time of day
B) Season of the year
C) Day of the week
D) All of the above
6) According to Goddard, a tendency toward __________ was inherited.
A) criminality
B) alcoholism
C) feeblemindedness
D) degeneracy
7) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an XYY male?
A) Shorter than average height
B) Overrepresented in prisons and mental hospitals
C) Less than average intelligence
D) Suffers from acne or other skin disorders
8) The work of __________ contributed to the development of the field of behavioral genetics.
A) James Q. Wilson
B) Freda Adler
C) Sir Francis Galton
D) Edward O. Wilson
9) According to sociobiologists, the violence and aggressiveness associated with
territoriality is often reserved for
A) acquaintances.
B) relatives.
C) strangers.
D) family members.
10) Which of the following is not a criticism of sociobiology?
A) There is no rational basis for applying findings from animal studies to hu-
mans.
B) It fails to integrate biology into the paradigm.
C) It does not properly depict basic human nature.
D) It does not identify the importance of culture, social learning, and individual experiences in shaping behavior.
11) James Q. Wilson and Richard J. Herrnstein wrote
A) Crime and Human Nature.
B) Sisters in Crime.
C) Sociobiology.
D) Creating Born Criminals.
12) Which of the following is not one of the early signs or indicators of psychopathy?
A) Cruelty to animals
B) Teenage pregnancy
C) Firesetting
D) Bed-wetting
13) Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of antisocial personality disorder?
A) Callous unconcern for the feelings of others
B) Prone to blame others for the behavior that brought the patient into conflict
with society
C) A low tolerance to frustration
D) The inability to establish relationships
14) A possible psychogentic cause of antisocial personality disorder is
A) a separation from the mother during the first six months of life.
B) a low state of arousal.
C) a malfunction of some inhibitory mechanisms.
D) none of the above
15) According to Eysenck, a(n) __________ is generally irrational, shy, moody, and emoti ...
1.
What is meant by the term "hidden" corporate culture?
a.
the values and beliefs of the corporation that shape employees' attitudes
b.
the tendency to promote individuals to their level of incompetence
c.
an organization's tendency to shift goals to perpetuate its existence
d.
the placement of minorities in highly visible but powerless positions
2.
Anthony, a retired Army officer, is a professor of sociology at a small state university. During the Vietnam War, he was awarded the Medal of Honor and he usually wears a small ribbon on the lapel of his suit coat denoting this. He also wears his West Point ring from the class of 1965. Using the terminology of dramaturgy, the lapel pin and class ring would be classified as ________.
a.
stages
b.
background assumptions
c.
role performances
d.
props
3.
How does the mass media influence gender roles in contemporary American society?
a.
It encourages a sexless society.
b.
It encourages women to assume male roles to be successful.
c.
It reinforces gender roles considered appropriate for one's sex.
d.
It encourages cross-gender behavior.
4.
What did the Harlow experiment conclude as being the key to infant-mother bonding?
a.
peer socialization
b.
feeding and grooming
c.
intimate social contact
d.
intellectual development
5.
Jane is a 49-year-old woman of Irish-German descent. What do these characteristics have in common?
a.
These are examples of her ascribed statuses.
b.
These are examples of her achieved statuses.
c.
These, particularly her Irish-German descent, are part of her master status.
d.
These characteristics are examples of status inconsistency.
6.
Which of Williams' U.S. values is contradicts the other values of freedom, democracy, and equality?
a.
science and technology
b.
material comfort
c.
group superiority
d.
religiosity
7.
Which groups of social theorists would focus most on macro-level analysis when examining patterns of society?
a.
symbolic interactionists and structural functionalists
b.
symbolic interactionists and conflict theorists
c.
conflict theorists and structural functionalists
d.
conflict theorists and symbolic interactionists
8.
Sociologists have identified an emerging set of five interrelated values in American society. What are these emerging values?
a.
self-destiny, spirituality, environmental concern, technological awareness, and physical fitness
b.
leisure, self-fulfillment, physical fitness, youthfulness, and environmental concern
c.
freedom, equality, romantic love, youthfulness, and physical fitness
d.
romantic love, individualism, mental health, self-fulfillment, and equality
9.
Steve and Naomi are counting the empty whiskey bottles in trashcans to measure the level of whiskey consumption in town. These researchers are using a method of research referred to as ________.
a.
documentation
b.
participant observation
c.
survey research
d.
unobtrusive measures
10.
The spread of cultural characteristics from one group to another refers to ________.
a..
Locate three contemporary examples on following category, .docxSHIVA101531
Locate three contemporary examples on following category,
Good Samaritan conduct or random acts of kindness
Assemble the 3 examples according to the category and in a visually appealing manner. For each example, include the following:
A summary of the event
A graphic illustration, photo, or other visual item related to the event
One properly APA-formatted reference
Quiz 2
Comm 300: Communication Theory
Spring 2014
PART I: Multiple Choice (1 point each)
Directions: Below are 30 multiple choice questions. Please indicate the best answer from the selections given.
Symbolic Interaction Theory
1. Symbolic interaction theory argues that meaning
a. can only exist when people share common interpretations of the symbols they exchange in an interaction
b. occurs between people
c. is affected by society
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
2. According to Mead, one of the most critical activities people accomplish through thought is
a. projection
b. role taking
c. the Pygmalion effect
d. the concept of mind
3. The looking-glass self is best defined as
a. the mental image others have of us
b. the mental image we have of ourselves
c. the mental image we have of how others see us
d. the mental image of the physical attributes we observe
4. True or False? One of Mead’s ontological assumptions is that human communication is social.
a. true
b. false
Coordinated Management of Meaning
5. Coordinated management of meaning
a. refers to how individuals establish rules for creating and interpreting meaning
b. refers to how rules are used in a conversation
c. assumes that humans co‑create reality
d. all of the above
6. Which of the following is a speech act?
a. a compliment
b. an insult
c. a sarcastic remark
d. all of the above
7. Deanna and her son Aidan are talking about manners. Deanna tells Aidan, “Cover your mouth when you sneeze.” This is an example of which type of rule?
a. constitutive
b. unwarranted
c. regulative
d. patterned
8. True or False? CMM is an example of a Laws Approach to theory building.
a. true
b. false
Cognitive Dissonance Theory
9. Cognitive dissonance can be defined as
a. the feeling people have when they do things that don't fit with what they believe
b. the feeling people have when some of their opinions do not fit with other opinions they hold
c. the feeling people have when their actions are congruent with what they know
d. both a and b
e. none of the above
10. You believe that smoking is dangerous to your health; and yet, you smoke a pack of cigarettes a day. When this inconsistency is pointed out to you, you are likely to experience
a. dissonance
b. consonance
c. irrelevance
d. none of the above
11. When confronted with the fact that you smoke even though you think it is bad for you, you rationalize that it’s okay for you to smoke because you are under a tremendous amount of stress in college and smoking helps to calm your ne ...
Unit 1 Examination39GED 215 Psychology of Adjustment.docxmarilucorr
Unit 1 Examination
39
GED 215 Psychology of Adjustment
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
The world as we know it today is characterized by: 1.
Slower social change than was witnessed in previous decades.a.
Galloping technological changes.b.
More collectivism in comparison to individualism.c.
A movement toward increased industrialization and fewer service industries. d.
Technology makes relationships among people more: 2.
fluid and flexiblea.
uncomfortableb.
long-lastingc.
confusing d.
The highest levels of technophobia are exhibited by: 3.
middle-class mena.
childrenb.
mid-level managersc.
the uneducated and minority group members d.
The gap between use of computers by men and women: 4.
has narroweda.
remains the sameb.
has widenedc.
None of the above is true. d.
The fastest growing segment of the U.S. population is: 5.
African Americansa.
Hispanicsb.
Caucasiansc.
Asians d.
One of the dramatic changes in the United States today is the increase in: 6.
the homogeneity of the populationa.
blue-collar workersb.
manufacturing and heavy industryc.
cultural diversity d.
Unit 1 Examination
40
GED 215 Psychology of Adjustment
Child development involves: 7.
all of the followinga.
enduring changesb.
biological changesc.
changes due to the environment d.
The number of children in the United States is projected to increase to ________ million by 8.
2030.
46a.
66b.
88c.
98 d.
Which perspective on personality is primarily concerned with the influence of genetics? 9.
biologicala.
ecologicalb.
psychodynamicc.
humanistic d.
Most researchers agree that intelligence and ______ have strong genetic influences. 10.
clothing choicesa.
interestsb.
occupationsc.
sociability d.
Which of Bronfenbrenner’s systems refers to the setting the child is currently in? 11.
macrosystema.
mesosystemb.
microsystemc.
exosystem d.
In the _______, children and adolescents are influenced by social settings that they do not take 12.
part in.
microsystema.
mesosystemb.
exosystemc.
macrosystem d.
Unit 1 Examination
41
GED 215 Psychology of Adjustment
Choose the false statement. 13.
The five senses decline with age.a.
Older drivers have more accidents than younger drivers.b.
Older adults are less likely to get a cold.c.
Reaction time slows with age. d.
In the last decade, a trend seen in young adults’ behavior is that: 14.
More young adults are moving in with their parents.a.
More young adults are majoring in humanities and social sciences.b.
More females than males between 20-24 years old are living with their parents.c.
Many are less concerned with social issues, such as the environment. d.
The motherhood-penalty refers to the fact that: 15.
Mothers pay more in health insurance.a.
Women are waiting longer to become mothers.b.
Working mothers are viewed as less competent than non-mothers.c.
There are incr ...
FINAL EXAMNote It is recommended that you save your response as.docxssuser454af01
FINAL EXAM
Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question.
Question 1 (1 point)
Your textbook defines psychology as which of the following?
Question 1 options:
a)
The science of behavior
b)
The study of mental processes
c)
The study of mental disorders and their treatment
d)
The science of mind and behavior
Question 2 (1 point)
One morning, Alan wakes to the news that a powerful earthquake occurred in California. “I told you the big one would hit this year!” he exclaims. Alan appears subject to the _____ bias.
Question 2 options:
a)
cognitive
b)
hindsight
c)
predictive
d)
foresight
Question 3 (1 point)
Dr. Harris is describing the assumptions, rules, and procedures that psychologists use to gather observations. Dr. Harris is outlining the _____ method.
Question 3 options:
a)
deductive
b)
psychological
c)
rational
d)
scientific
Question 4 (1 point)
Andrea is reading a general, comprehensive explanation of the causes of human aggression in the introduction to a research report in psychology. Andrea is reading a(n):
Question 4 options:
a)
theory
b)
hypothesis
c)
operational definition
d)
explanation
Question 5 (1 point)
A hypothesis is best defined as a(n):
Question 5 options:
a)
specific prediction concerning the relationship between variables
b)
specification of a variable in terms of the procedures that will be used to measure it
c)
broad, general explanation of the phenomenon of interest
d)
behavior, event, or other characteristic that can assume different values
Question 6 (1 point)
Which of the following researchers is conducting a case study?
Question 6 options:
a)
Dr. Henriette, who is measuring how fast a group of students can respond to a stimulus.
b)
Dr. Innis, who is examining the tactile perception of a blind woman
c)
Dr. Jenner, who is observing children on a playground
d)
Dr. Kulik, who is combing through newspaper stories on serial killers
Question 7 (1 point)
The number of violent TV shows that a child watches is positively correlated with the aggressiveness of the child’s play. Why might this be?
Question 7 options:
a)
Viewing violent TV causes aggressive behavior
b)
Aggressive behavior causes viewing violent TV
c)
There is a third common-causal variable that creates the correlation
d)
A, B, or C may be correct but the correlation cannot tell us which one is correct
Question 8 (1 point)
Which of the following is the goal of experimental research?
Question 8 options:
a)
To assess the validity of a measurement
b)
To assess the relationships among variables
c)
To assess the current state of affairs
d)
To assess the causal influence of one or more manipulations
Question 9 (1 point)
Psychologists use the term __________ to refer to the pattern of enduring characteristics that lend stability and consistency to an individual's behavior and serve to differentiate one individual from another.
Qu ...
1. With respect to the fundamental attribution error, it turns out t.docxelliotkimberlee
1. With respect to the fundamental attribution error, it turns out that in other cultures, like those of Asia,
there's a/an _______ orientation to others that emphasizes interdependence.
A. individualistic
B. philosophical
C. collectivist
D. intrapersonal
2. The more people there are at the scene of an accident, the less likely it is that individuals will step up to
lend a hand. This phenomenon is referred to as
A. diffusion of interest.
B. antisocial behavior.
C. diffusion of responsibility.
D. crowd apathy.
3. According to your text, whether you're persuaded by a message will primarily depend on which factor?
A. Your characteristics, including your personality and intelligence
B. Your perception or understanding of the recipient of the message
C. Whether you receive the message while at work or at home
D. The nature of the message as it relates to your temperament
4. In the "teacher-learner" experiments conducted by Stanley Milgram, ______ percent of the experimental
subjects eventually applied the "lethal" 450-volt shock to the "learner."
A. 35
B. 15
C. 2
D. 65
5. As discussed in your textbook, the Implicit Association Test (IAT)
A. requires subjects to react to a series of black and white faces.
B. is based on a culture-free questionnaire.
C. has revealed that most people aren't prejudiced.
D. requires people to openly express and reveal their latent prejudices.6. Jason and Julia are preparing for a quiz in Psychology 101. Jason recites four reasons for seeking out a
social support network. Julia, who has top grades in the class, gives her nod of approval to all but one of
Jason's list. Which one is she most likely to reject?
A. Group members can help a participant with practical things like finding a new job.
B. Being a member of a social support network can help reduce a person's stress levels.
C. Being in a social support network helps a person learn how to win arguments.
D. Support group membership can help a participant feel valued by others.
7. Mandy has decided that she has no control over the aversive stimuli she encounters at work and at home
day by day. Thus, she has given up trying to make her life better. Psychologists would say Mandy's
worldview illustrates
A. emotion-focused coping.
B. problem-focused coping.
C. learned avoidant coping.
D. learned helplessness.
8. A popular talk show host, jovial and sharp-witted as usual, outlines his views on the death penalty,
taking time to consider both sides of the issue. As a long-time listener to that talk show, if you're swayed to
adopt the talk-show host's point of view, it will probably be due to
A. your temperament and character.
B. the character of the message.
C. your tendency to employ peripheral route processing.
D. the medium of the message (radio).
9. Four steps are involved in a person's decision to offer assistance in an emergency situation. The third
step is
A. deciding how to help.
B. appraisal of one's skills and experience in dealing with emergencies.
C. interpreting .
Flu Vaccine Alert in Bangalore Karnatakaaddon Scans
As flu season approaches, health officials in Bangalore, Karnataka, are urging residents to get their flu vaccinations. The seasonal flu, while common, can lead to severe health complications, particularly for vulnerable populations such as young children, the elderly, and those with underlying health conditions.
Dr. Vidisha Kumari, a leading epidemiologist in Bangalore, emphasizes the importance of getting vaccinated. "The flu vaccine is our best defense against the influenza virus. It not only protects individuals but also helps prevent the spread of the virus in our communities," he says.
This year, the flu season is expected to coincide with a potential increase in other respiratory illnesses. The Karnataka Health Department has launched an awareness campaign highlighting the significance of flu vaccinations. They have set up multiple vaccination centers across Bangalore, making it convenient for residents to receive their shots.
To encourage widespread vaccination, the government is also collaborating with local schools, workplaces, and community centers to facilitate vaccination drives. Special attention is being given to ensuring that the vaccine is accessible to all, including marginalized communities who may have limited access to healthcare.
Residents are reminded that the flu vaccine is safe and effective. Common side effects are mild and may include soreness at the injection site, mild fever, or muscle aches. These side effects are generally short-lived and far less severe than the flu itself.
Healthcare providers are also stressing the importance of continuing COVID-19 precautions. Wearing masks, practicing good hand hygiene, and maintaining social distancing are still crucial, especially in crowded places.
Protect yourself and your loved ones by getting vaccinated. Together, we can help keep Bangalore healthy and safe this flu season. For more information on vaccination centers and schedules, residents can visit the Karnataka Health Department’s official website or follow their social media pages.
Stay informed, stay safe, and get your flu shot today!
The prostate is an exocrine gland of the male mammalian reproductive system
It is a walnut-sized gland that forms part of the male reproductive system and is located in front of the rectum and just below the urinary bladder
Function is to store and secrete a clear, slightly alkaline fluid that constitutes 10-30% of the volume of the seminal fluid that along with the spermatozoa, constitutes semen
A healthy human prostate measures (4cm-vertical, by 3cm-horizontal, 2cm ant-post ).
It surrounds the urethra just below the urinary bladder. It has anterior, median, posterior and two lateral lobes
It’s work is regulated by androgens which are responsible for male sex characteristics
Generalised disease of the prostate due to hormonal derangement which leads to non malignant enlargement of the gland (increase in the number of epithelial cells and stromal tissue)to cause compression of the urethra leading to symptoms (LUTS
Prix Galien International 2024 Forum ProgramLevi Shapiro
June 20, 2024, Prix Galien International and Jerusalem Ethics Forum in ROME. Detailed agenda including panels:
- ADVANCES IN CARDIOLOGY: A NEW PARADIGM IS COMING
- WOMEN’S HEALTH: FERTILITY PRESERVATION
- WHAT’S NEW IN THE TREATMENT OF INFECTIOUS,
ONCOLOGICAL AND INFLAMMATORY SKIN DISEASES?
- ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE AND ETHICS
- GENE THERAPY
- BEYOND BORDERS: GLOBAL INITIATIVES FOR DEMOCRATIZING LIFE SCIENCE TECHNOLOGIES AND PROMOTING ACCESS TO HEALTHCARE
- ETHICAL CHALLENGES IN LIFE SCIENCES
- Prix Galien International Awards Ceremony
263778731218 Abortion Clinic /Pills In Harare ,sisternakatoto
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Acute scrotum is a general term referring to an emergency condition affecting the contents or the wall of the scrotum.
There are a number of conditions that present acutely, predominantly with pain and/or swelling
A careful and detailed history and examination, and in some cases, investigations allow differentiation between these diagnoses. A prompt diagnosis is essential as the patient may require urgent surgical intervention
Testicular torsion refers to twisting of the spermatic cord, causing ischaemia of the testicle.
Testicular torsion results from inadequate fixation of the testis to the tunica vaginalis producing ischemia from reduced arterial inflow and venous outflow obstruction.
The prevalence of testicular torsion in adult patients hospitalized with acute scrotal pain is approximately 25 to 50 percent
Ethanol (CH3CH2OH), or beverage alcohol, is a two-carbon alcohol
that is rapidly distributed in the body and brain. Ethanol alters many
neurochemical systems and has rewarding and addictive properties. It
is the oldest recreational drug and likely contributes to more morbidity,
mortality, and public health costs than all illicit drugs combined. The
5th edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
(DSM-5) integrates alcohol abuse and alcohol dependence into a single
disorder called alcohol use disorder (AUD), with mild, moderate,
and severe subclassifications (American Psychiatric Association, 2013).
In the DSM-5, all types of substance abuse and dependence have been
combined into a single substance use disorder (SUD) on a continuum
from mild to severe. A diagnosis of AUD requires that at least two of
the 11 DSM-5 behaviors be present within a 12-month period (mild
AUD: 2–3 criteria; moderate AUD: 4–5 criteria; severe AUD: 6–11 criteria).
The four main behavioral effects of AUD are impaired control over
drinking, negative social consequences, risky use, and altered physiological
effects (tolerance, withdrawal). This chapter presents an overview
of the prevalence and harmful consequences of AUD in the U.S.,
the systemic nature of the disease, neurocircuitry and stages of AUD,
comorbidities, fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, genetic risk factors, and
pharmacotherapies for AUD.
TEST BANK for Operations Management, 14th Edition by William J. Stevenson, Ve...kevinkariuki227
TEST BANK for Operations Management, 14th Edition by William J. Stevenson, Verified Chapters 1 - 19, Complete Newest Version.pdf
TEST BANK for Operations Management, 14th Edition by William J. Stevenson, Verified Chapters 1 - 19, Complete Newest Version.pdf
New Directions in Targeted Therapeutic Approaches for Older Adults With Mantl...i3 Health
i3 Health is pleased to make the speaker slides from this activity available for use as a non-accredited self-study or teaching resource.
This slide deck presented by Dr. Kami Maddocks, Professor-Clinical in the Division of Hematology and
Associate Division Director for Ambulatory Operations
The Ohio State University Comprehensive Cancer Center, will provide insight into new directions in targeted therapeutic approaches for older adults with mantle cell lymphoma.
STATEMENT OF NEED
Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) is a rare, aggressive B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) accounting for 5% to 7% of all lymphomas. Its prognosis ranges from indolent disease that does not require treatment for years to very aggressive disease, which is associated with poor survival (Silkenstedt et al, 2021). Typically, MCL is diagnosed at advanced stage and in older patients who cannot tolerate intensive therapy (NCCN, 2022). Although recent advances have slightly increased remission rates, recurrence and relapse remain very common, leading to a median overall survival between 3 and 6 years (LLS, 2021). Though there are several effective options, progress is still needed towards establishing an accepted frontline approach for MCL (Castellino et al, 2022). Treatment selection and management of MCL are complicated by the heterogeneity of prognosis, advanced age and comorbidities of patients, and lack of an established standard approach for treatment, making it vital that clinicians be familiar with the latest research and advances in this area. In this activity chaired by Michael Wang, MD, Professor in the Department of Lymphoma & Myeloma at MD Anderson Cancer Center, expert faculty will discuss prognostic factors informing treatment, the promising results of recent trials in new therapeutic approaches, and the implications of treatment resistance in therapeutic selection for MCL.
Target Audience
Hematology/oncology fellows, attending faculty, and other health care professionals involved in the treatment of patients with mantle cell lymphoma (MCL).
Learning Objectives
1.) Identify clinical and biological prognostic factors that can guide treatment decision making for older adults with MCL
2.) Evaluate emerging data on targeted therapeutic approaches for treatment-naive and relapsed/refractory MCL and their applicability to older adults
3.) Assess mechanisms of resistance to targeted therapies for MCL and their implications for treatment selection
Title: Sense of Taste
Presenter: Dr. Faiza, Assistant Professor of Physiology
Qualifications:
MBBS (Best Graduate, AIMC Lahore)
FCPS Physiology
ICMT, CHPE, DHPE (STMU)
MPH (GC University, Faisalabad)
MBA (Virtual University of Pakistan)
Learning Objectives:
Describe the structure and function of taste buds.
Describe the relationship between the taste threshold and taste index of common substances.
Explain the chemical basis and signal transduction of taste perception for each type of primary taste sensation.
Recognize different abnormalities of taste perception and their causes.
Key Topics:
Significance of Taste Sensation:
Differentiation between pleasant and harmful food
Influence on behavior
Selection of food based on metabolic needs
Receptors of Taste:
Taste buds on the tongue
Influence of sense of smell, texture of food, and pain stimulation (e.g., by pepper)
Primary and Secondary Taste Sensations:
Primary taste sensations: Sweet, Sour, Salty, Bitter, Umami
Chemical basis and signal transduction mechanisms for each taste
Taste Threshold and Index:
Taste threshold values for Sweet (sucrose), Salty (NaCl), Sour (HCl), and Bitter (Quinine)
Taste index relationship: Inversely proportional to taste threshold
Taste Blindness:
Inability to taste certain substances, particularly thiourea compounds
Example: Phenylthiocarbamide
Structure and Function of Taste Buds:
Composition: Epithelial cells, Sustentacular/Supporting cells, Taste cells, Basal cells
Features: Taste pores, Taste hairs/microvilli, and Taste nerve fibers
Location of Taste Buds:
Found in papillae of the tongue (Fungiform, Circumvallate, Foliate)
Also present on the palate, tonsillar pillars, epiglottis, and proximal esophagus
Mechanism of Taste Stimulation:
Interaction of taste substances with receptors on microvilli
Signal transduction pathways for Umami, Sweet, Bitter, Sour, and Salty tastes
Taste Sensitivity and Adaptation:
Decrease in sensitivity with age
Rapid adaptation of taste sensation
Role of Saliva in Taste:
Dissolution of tastants to reach receptors
Washing away the stimulus
Taste Preferences and Aversions:
Mechanisms behind taste preference and aversion
Influence of receptors and neural pathways
Impact of Sensory Nerve Damage:
Degeneration of taste buds if the sensory nerve fiber is cut
Abnormalities of Taste Detection:
Conditions: Ageusia, Hypogeusia, Dysgeusia (parageusia)
Causes: Nerve damage, neurological disorders, infections, poor oral hygiene, adverse drug effects, deficiencies, aging, tobacco use, altered neurotransmitter levels
Neurotransmitters and Taste Threshold:
Effects of serotonin (5-HT) and norepinephrine (NE) on taste sensitivity
Supertasters:
25% of the population with heightened sensitivity to taste, especially bitterness
Increased number of fungiform papillae
micro teaching on communication m.sc nursing.pdfAnurag Sharma
Microteaching is a unique model of practice teaching. It is a viable instrument for the. desired change in the teaching behavior or the behavior potential which, in specified types of real. classroom situations, tends to facilitate the achievement of specified types of objectives.
1. Psychology 41 - Lifespan Development
Pretest Chapters 14, 15, 16
Summer 2009 (Dr. S. Lee)
1. The term “menarche” refers to:
A) the beginning of growth of the uterus.
B) the first ovulation of a mature egg.
C) a girl's first menstrual period.
D) the first year of menstruation, which is usually anovulatory.
2. The first sign of puberty in a typical girl is:
A) a spurt in height.
B) the onset of breast growth.
C) an increase in weight.
D) the development of muscular strength.
3. The biological events that begin puberty involve a hormonal signal from the:
A) cerebellum.
B) hypothalamus.
C) hippocampus.
D) ovaries or testes.
4. The hormone that causes the ovaries and testes to greatly increase their production of estradiol and
testosterone is:
A) the growth hormone.
B) the follicle-stimulating hormone.
C) the gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
D) cortisol.
5. The most powerful effect on adolescent joy or anger usually comes from:
A) fluctuating hormones.
B) parents.
C) the indirect psychological effects of puberty.
D) the influence of television.
6. Family conflict and stress:
A) may cause the early onset of puberty.
B) may cause the late onset of puberty.
C) typically increase after puberty.
D) typically decrease after puberty.
7. In a recent experiment conducted on 10- to 14-year olds and their food choices:
A) junk food was overwhelmingly selected over healthy food.
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2. B) junk food was mostly selected along with one small healthy food item.
C) healthy food was selected if it was cheaper than unhealthy food.
D) healthy food was consistently selected regardless of peer influence or price.
8. A 14-year-old boy has disproportionately large feet and hands and a big nose. He most likely:
A) is at the end of his growth spurt.
B) has not started his growth spurt.
C) has reached his full adult body size.
D) is near the beginning of his growth spurt.
9. The growth spurt typically occurs during puberty in the following order:
A) weight, height, muscle.
B) weight, muscle, height.
C) height, weight, muscle.
D) muscle, height, weight.
10. Secondary sex characteristics are those characteristics that:
A) occur later in development.
B) are harder to detect.
C) are inside the body.
D) are not directly related to reproduction.
11. Imelda, a 15-year-old high school sophomore, has many interests, enjoys “re-inventing” herself often, and
quickly picks up on the latest dances and fashions. The ease in which she learns and changes is attributed
to:
A) the completion of dendrite pruning in the prefrontal cortex.
B) the unfinished dendrite pruning in the prefrontal cortex.
C) the maturity of the executive functions.
D) the stimulation of the limbic system.
12. The younger people are when they contract a STI:
A) the more likely they are to seek treatment.
B) the more likely they are to alert their sexual partners.
C) the lower the rate of reinfection.
D) the less likely they are to recognize symptoms.
13. Trends in drug use by adolescents in the United States show:
A) steady increases from the mid-1970s on.
B) steady decreases from the mid-1970s on.
C) after decreases in the 1980s, a recent increase.
D) less use of alcohol, more use of marijuana.
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3. 14. Annual nationwide surveys of high school seniors show that about ______ percent have tried alcohol and
about ______ percent have smoked at least one cigarette.
A) 73; 47
B) 63; 37
C) 53; 27
D) 43; 17
15. Most adolescents think about themselves:
A) rarely.
B) occasionally.
C) periodically.
D) frequently.
16. In general, adolescent egocentrism refers to which of the following?
A) the belief that one is destined to have a legendary life
B) the notion that one cannot be harmed by unprotected sex
C) the viewpoint that everyone else is smarter than oneself
D) the view that one is noticed by everyone
17. The belief that one cannot be harmed by things that would hurt a normal person is referred to as:
A) the invincibility fable.
B) a personal fable.
C) an imaginary audience.
D) deductive reasoning.
18. The term “imaginary audience” refers to adolescents':
A) ability to understand how others perceive them.
B) false belief that everyone is constantly attending to their behavior and appearance.
C) constant posing and posturing before mirrors.
D) belief that others spy on them.
19. Ryan's thinking is no longer restricted to personal experience as it had been earlier in his life. Ryan is in
the stage of:
A) sensorimotor thought.
B) preoperational thought.
C) concrete operational thought.
D) formal operational thought.
20. Jeremy is 7 years old and has been asked to balance a scale with weights that can be hooked to the arms of
the scale. Jeremy will probably:
A) solve the problem through a trial-and-error strategy.
B) put weights on both sides without considering distance from the center of the scale.
C) understand the inverse relationship between distance and weight.
D) put all the weights on one side of the scale.
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4. 21. The following is true of hypothetical thought.
A) It is tied to the everyday world as the individual knows it.
B) It is emotionally based.
C) It involves imagined possibilities.
D) It is an aspect of concrete operational thinking.
22. Beginning with a logical idea and then using logic to draw specific conclusions describes:
A) hypothetical reasoning.
B) inductive reasoning.
C) deductive reasoning.
D) adolescent egocentrism.
23. Using inductive thinking, a person might think, “If it barks like a dog, and wags its tail like a dog, it must
be a ______.”
A) mammal
B) animal
C) dogfish
D) dog
24. Brian has met three girls who tell him that Titanic is their all-time favorite movie. He concludes that all
girls love Titanic. Brian has just used:
A) hypothetical reasoning.
B) inductive reasoning.
C) deductive reasoning.
D) adolescent egocentrism.
25. Identify the true statement about adolescents' intuitive thought.
A) It almost always ends up at the same conclusion as analytic thought.
B) It is slower than analytic thought.
C) It is considered a separate pathway from analytic thought.
D) It begins with a logical premise.
26. The dual-process model of adolescent thought suggests that two distinct pathways exist in the brain to
process thought. One pathway processes analytic thought. The other pathway processes:
A) ordered thought.
B) logical thought.
C) left-brained thought.
D) intuitive thought.
27. Brent was determined to get a place on his middle school's basketball team because he practices at least
two hours each day. He rarely makes a basket and becomes quickly winded because of his severe asthma.
His determination is fueled by his:
A) analytic thought processes.
B) crisp, accurate logic.
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5. C) sunk cost fallacy.
D) economy of thought.
28. The common middle-school schedule that involves classroom changes every 40 minutes has the effect of:
A) creating a developmental mismatch.
B) supporting development.
C) improving student grades.
D) increasing student collaboration.
29. In high-stakes testing situations, students are typically given:
A) several different tests to address varying learning styles.
B) a single test to determine success or failure.
C) opportunities to move to the next level despite failure in the previous level.
D) the opportunity to waive the test if failed more than three times.
30. Identify the recommendation you would make to a school district that is trying to structure its high schools
to enhance adolescent cognitive development.
A) Cut the length of subject periods from 40 minutes to 25 minutes so that students do not have to pay
attention for such a long time.
B) Enlarge schools so that students have more opportunities to find a group of friends.
C) Create more opportunities for students to be involved in school clubs and sports.
D) Discourage teachers and students from talking about personal matters by keeping teachers' lunch
rooms, parking lots, and bathrooms separate from those of students.
31. According to extensive research, the ideal high school size is:
A) 100 to 300 students.
B) 200 to 400 students.
C) 300 to 500 students.
D) 400 to 600 students.
32. If high schools want to decrease the incidence of violence, they should:
A) install metal detectors.
B) plan regular police patrols.
C) set clear standards of student behavior.
D) offer activities that are focused exclusively on academics.
33. Adolescent thinking is a combination of:
A) ego, logic, and emotion.
B) fact and fantasy.
C) certainty and objectivity.
D) ego, emotion, and irrationality.
34. Psychosocial development during adolescence is often seen as a quest to answer the question:
A) “What am I going to do with my life?”
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6. B) “Will I ever find someone to love?”
C) “Who am I?”
D) “Why don't my parents understand me?”
35. Seventeen-year-old Andrew failed several classes, lost his job, and spends most of his time sleeping on
the couch. When his parents voiced their disapproval, he replied, “Whatever.” Andrew's response
indicates identity:
A) diffusion.
B) achievement.
C) foreclosure.
D) moratorium.
36. Identity diffusion refers to the identity status in which adolescents:
A) take a pause in identity formation that allows for exploration of alternatives.
B) form their identity prematurely.
C) have few commitments to goals or values and fail to take on any role.
D) understand who they are, connected to everything they have learned.
37. The term for a pause in identity formation, when alternatives are explored before final choices are made,
is known as:
A) identity diffusion.
B) role confusion.
C) negative identity.
D) moratorium.
38. Harold readily adopted his parent's religious faith without question. Happy and secure he enjoys
participating in religious events with his parents. His identity status reflects:
A) diffusion.
B) achievement.
C) foreclosure.
D) moratorium.
39. Gender identity refers to ______, while sexual orientation refers to ______.
A) self-definition as male or female; erotic desires
B) erotic desires; self-definition as male or female
C) chosen gender-role; homosexuality
D) heterosexuality; homosexuality
40. Marissa and her mother bicker about her clothing, her choice of music, and her presence at family
functions. After several years, her mother will most likely:
A) escalate her bickering to include threats.
B) dismiss Marissa as a hopeless case.
C) adjust to the notion that Marissa needs more autonomy.
D) allow Marissa to come and go as she pleases.
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7. 41. Miranda and her mother bicker constantly about daily routines, hair, and clothes. This bickering is
indicative of:
A) a troubled relationship.
B) an identity crisis.
C) clinical depression.
D) a close relationship.
42. Jordan's older brother is a very aggressive high school dropout who abuses drugs and alcohol. Jordan is
likely to:
A) follow in his brother's footsteps.
B) learn from his brother's mistakes.
C) adopt his parent's values over his brother's.
D) distance himself from his brother.
43. Abbie is aware of where her son is whenever he goes out, and she requires him to call if there is any
change in plans. Abbie is demonstrating:
A) position control.
B) foreclosure for her son.
C) parental monitoring.
D) negative control.
44. Nate's parents engage in very high parental monitoring and control. Compared with Nate's peers whose
parents engage in less parental monitoring, Nate is more likely to:
A) use drugs and alcohol.
B) be involved with weapons.
C) be depressed.
D) be delinquent.
45. Chris typically can be found with his group of close friends on the gym steps at lunchtime. He is
socializing in a:
A) clique.
B) cluster.
C) crowd.
D) crew.
46. Cliques and crowds provide adolescents with social:
A) control.
B) support.
C) deviancy.
D) control and social support.
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8. 47. At age 17, Jeff aspired to become a serious musician. His group of friends began to change as he made
more friends with serious musical interests and drifted away from friends with other interests. He is
exhibiting peer:
A) exclusion.
B) facilitation.
C) selection.
D) focus.
48. Identify the general pattern of heterosexual attraction, as described by Dunphy?
A) small mixed-sex group, pairing off of couples, loose association of boys' and girls' same-sex groups
B) small mixed-sex group, loose association of boys' and girls' same-sex groups, pairing off of couples
C) loose association of boys' and girls' same-sex groups, small mixed-sex group, pairing off of couples
D) loose association of boys' and girls' same-sex groups, pairing off of couples, small mixed-sex group
49. Jason is a gay high-school senior. His formation of friends and romantic bonds has proceeded:
A) at much the same pace as his straight classmates.
B) at a slower pace than his straight classmates.
C) more quickly than that of his straight classmates.
D) because he denied his sexual orientation.
50. Joel is 14 years old and has been using marijuana steadily for the past six months. Because of his early
drug use, he is at an increased risk for:
A) employment difficulties.
B) depression.
C) disapproval by peers.
D) uneven relationship with his parents.
51. Luis was raised to believe that he is intelligent, skilled, and protected by his family. During adolescence,
he will most likely exhibit:
A) an increase in confidence.
B) a decrease in confidence.
C) no change in confidence.
D) vacillating confidence.
52. Parasuicide refers to:
A) any self-destructive behavior.
B) the serious consideration of suicide as an option.
C) a deliberate act of self-destruction that does not end in death.
D) assisting someone else in the act of suicide.
53. Adolescents who perform acts of parasuicide:
A) have clear intentions of killing themselves.
B) are almost always disappointed that they did not kill themselves.
C) will tend to try again if authority figures assume the attempt was serious.
D) often feel relieved that they survived.
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9. 54. Cluster suicides:
A) are statistical anomalies.
B) occur in threes.
C) are socially disconnected.
D) are relatively common in adolescence.
55. How widespread a particular behavior or circumstance is within a population is referred to as:
A) likelihood.
B) incidence.
C) odds.
D) prevalence.
56. Identify the accurate statement about adolescent crime.
A) It is quite low, involving less than 20 percent of arrests for serious crimes.
B) There are many one-time offenders.
C) Chronic offenders tend to be convicted of many repeated violent offenses.
D) The average girl has committed more crimes than the average boy, but she has not been arrested.
57. An adolescence-limited offender is someone who:
A) attacks only adolescents.
B) stops committing crimes by age 21.
C) is never arrested.
D) is a juvenile delinquent.
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