This document contains a test bank of 100 multiple choice questions for a Deck Officer Assessment. The questions cover topics related to navigation including compass errors, position fixing methods, GPS, celestial navigation, tides, currents, and navigation instruments. An accurate understanding of these topics is important for safely planning and conducting a voyage and determining a ship's position.
2. 1. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using
a magnetic compass. How should an error of 5 degrees WEST be
applied to the compass bearings?
A. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings
2. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be
confirmed by other means, when possible. Which of the following
suggested methods would be the most accurate?
A. The ranges of three distinctive shore
objects on theradar
3. What is important to check when
transferring a position from the GPS output
to a paper chart?
A. Any necessary corrections are applied to
convert between the GPS datum and the chart datum
4. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display
indicate when the accuracy of the displayed position isreduced?
A. A large HDOP value is displayed
on the screen
5. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is
correct for an observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude
15°00' West, when observing the sun on the meridian, if the sun's
Declination is 15°00' South?
A. Figure 4 is correct.
6. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to
determine the latitude of the observer when the sun is on the meridian?
A. Calculation 3 is correct.
7. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line
for the following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W,
Time 1200 GMT. Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing
of the sun: 200°, Intercept correction: 00°02' Towards (observed
altitude - computed altitude).
A. Figure 2 is correct.
3. 8. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of .
B. Fixed known objects on shore
9. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned
because.
A. Signals begin to blink
10. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the
following should be considered?
C. The buoy may not be in the charted position.
11. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed
on the visible horizon when .
A. In high latitudes
12. When navigating a vessel, you .
A. Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its
exact position
13. Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR
position at that time is LAT 22°16'N, LONG 150°06'W. Which
statement concerning the planets available for evening sights is
TRUE?
A. Venus will have a westerly
meridian angle.
14. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
C. Only when fixed aids are not available
15. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude
check.What would the azimuth have to be?
A. 000°T
16. For navigational purposes,each great circle on the Earth has a length of
A. 21, 600 miles
17. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time
would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination
of the Sun at LAN?
0728
4. 18. A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at
different times and advancing them to a common time isa(n)
B. Running fix
19. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for .
A. Venus
20. The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What
time would you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the
declination of the Sun at LAN?
A. 0659
21. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in
a(n)
B. Estimated position
22. The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for .
B. The Moon
23. All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium
frequency standards which permit .
B. each station to transmit without reference to another station
24. Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m
of the 4th day of the month. Six minutes later your position is
179°59'E longitude. Your LMT and date is now .
C. 00h 02m on the 6
25. Which position includes the effects of wind and current?
C. Estimated position
26. The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet
is 150°. What is the right ascension of the planet?
B. 11 hours
27. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
B. Fix
28. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than
the minimum skywave distance, there is an area in which no signal
is receive This is calledthe
A. Skip zone
th
5. 29. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
B. One
33. Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your
DR position at that time is LAT 15°02'N, LONG 46°02'W. Which
statement concerning the planets available for morning sights is
TRUE?
A. At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-
meridian observation.
34. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of
the satellites that your receiver is locked onto?
A. Horizontal Dilution of Precision
35. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude
reads 60° on the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60°
reading is _.
B. 30°
36. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean
time (LMT) is indicated by the .
A. Equation of time
37. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?
A. Aero light
38. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are
required for a two- dimensional fix
C. 3
39. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a .
B. Negative correction
40. The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the
apparent Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, at
what zone time will the apparent Sun cross the meridian?
C. 1212
6. 41. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200
you again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which
statement is TRUE?
C. The drift is 0.25 knot.
42. A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a .
A. Positive correction
43. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the
mean Sun. If you are on the central meridian of your time zone, the
apparent Sun will cross your meridian at .
A. 11-51-20 ZT
44. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for
a three- dimensional fix that takes into account altitude?
C. 4
45. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause
of index error?
B. Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel
46. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from .
A. fixed known objects on the shore
47. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results ina(n)
.
b. estimated position
48. In the Beaufort Scale of Wind Force, what is the Beaufort number associated
with the wind force known as a "Gale"? This should not be confused with a
"Near Gale" or "Strong Gale"Eight (8)
49. Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan posisi. (Plan and
conduct a passage and determine position ) Before the voyage commences.
50. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
d. All the above
51. What is the correct understanding of the term "Isobar"?An "Isobar" is a line
joining places of equal pressure.
52. What is the correct understanding of the term "Lapse Rate" when used in
Meteorology?The change of the temperature in the atmosphere withheight
above sea level.
7. 53. What is the depth of an iceberg below the surface of the sea? The draught of an
iceberg varies with the type of berg and its age.
54. What is the direction of wind associated with an anticyclone (area of high
pressure) in the Northern Hemisphere?Clockwise around the highpressure
55. What is the weather associated with being in the centre of an Anticyclone (a
region of High Pressure)?Light winds and fair weather, sometimes fog.
56. What is understood by the term "Dew point" of the air?The temperature at which
condensation in the air forms into water droplets.
57. When the temperature of the air increases with height it is known as a
"Temperature Inversion" and may influence the performance of some
instruments on the ship. What should the bridge Officer of the Watch be
prepared to happen?Abnormal ranges of VHF RT and Second Trace Returns on
the radar
58. NGA (NIMA) charts are adopting the metric system in order use the conversion
lable found
All of the above
59. . Whit respect to failure warnings and status indicators,GPSreceived
All of the above
86. The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair ofLoran-C
stations is very closely controlled and operates with .
A. An atomic time standar
87. The difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and oneon
119°W is
.
C. 20 minutes
88. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your
vessel's course and speed is a(n) .
B. Estimated position
89. A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of
position taken at nearly the same time, is a(n) .
A. Fix
90. The date is the same all over the world at _.
B. 1200 GMT
91. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
C. Fix
92. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the
minimum skywave distance, there is an area in which no signal is receive
This is called the
.
A. Skip zone
8. 93. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
B. One
94. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the
.
A. Index mirror
95. On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridiansteaming
westwar What is your local time?
D. It is 1000, 7 July.
96. The horizon glass of a sextant is .
A. Silvered on its half nearer the frame
97. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads
60° on the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60° reading is
.
B. 30°
98. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a .
C. Negative correction
99. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you
again fix your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is
TRUE?
D. The drift is 0.25 knot.
100. A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a .
A. Positive correction
101. It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which
statement is TRUE?.
C. The observer is in time zone -4.
102. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
A. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
103. The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of
which may be corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the
navigator is
B. Prismatic error
104. When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determinedmost
easily from
C. Ranges
105. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken atdifferent
times and advanced to a common time is a(n) .
A. Running fi
9. 106. The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent
wind to be 30 knots from 10° on your port bow. To what course andspeed
must you change?
D. Cn 090°, 32.5 knots
107. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?
A. Prismatic error
108. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of thebody
and the longitude of the observer is the .
B. Meridian angle
109. In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the
B. Horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at
zero
110. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must havea
device to indicate the .
B. Speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
111. The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasingdistance
from the transmitting stations as .
B. A result of variation in propagation conditions
112. The index error is determined by adjusting the .
D. Micrometer drum
113. The date is the same all over the world at _.
b. 1200 GMT
114. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?
A. 127°33'E
115. A polyconic projection is based on a .
D. Series of cones tangent at selected parallels
116. A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image
of the horizon forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the
sextant is rotated about the line of sight the images separate. The sextant has
.
B. Side error
117. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar .
B. Should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the distance to the
horizon
118. During the month of October the Sun's declination is .
B. South and increasing
119. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published a year.
10. Twice
120. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck
of the other during transfer operations, which type of radar would pose a
greater danger of the induced ignition ?
C. A 10cm radar
121. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from .
A. The radar of the nearest land
122. In Loran C .
A. The master and secondary stations transmits 8 pulses each
123. In Mercator sailing ---.
D. DMP = d'lat x Secant Course
124. If the strength of the wind is related to the pressure gradient and the
space between the isobars, which of the following statements is correct?
The closer the isobars are together the stronger will be the predicted wind.
125. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when
.
B. Only one bearing line is available
126. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is
.
A. 1863.07
127. The Decca green zone has .
A. 18 lanes
128. A vertical sextant angle gives .
A. Position circle
129. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from .
fixed known objects on the shore
130. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38?12.4'; Index error :
3.0' on the arc; Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for
LL + 14.8. What is the true altitude of the Sun's Lower limb?
A. 38?17.6'
131. What will be the d?Long for departure of 66.5? When the ship is on
m?Lat of 29 degrees N.
C. 76
132. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is .
C. 80?47'
133. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _.
A. By port and harbour authorities within their respective limits
134. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? Will be _ .
11. B. Easterly
135. Which of the following methods do you think will give themost
accurate ship?S position?
C. Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees.
136. When calibrating a sextant for Index Error using the Sunthe
micrometer .of the sextant?
C. 0.8' on the arc
137. In latitude 42 36? N, a ship sails due east from Longitude 26 30? W to
longitude 21 12? W . What departure has she made?
D. 235.08 miles
138. To fix the ship's position by horizontal sextant angle you need at least
.
C. 3 objects
139. The LHA of the body when on the observer's meridian is .
D. 270?
140. Your DR latitude is 10?S. A body whose declination in 20?S when
setting makes an angle of 30? At the observer's zenith. What is its azimuth?
B. 330?
141. The chronometer which was losing 8 seconds every day was 4m48s
fast on GMT on 20th March. What will be the error on 4thApril?
A. 5m 48s
142. The method used to plot ship?S position when only one navigational
mark is available and radar cannot be used to find the distance off is called
.
A. A running fix
143. A fixed quantity of Mercury will weigh more at .
B. 30?N Latitude
144. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean
time (LMT) is indicated by the .
A. Equation of time
145. When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use
in celestial navigation, it is used to determine .
C. Time of local apparent noon
146. 90° - Ho = .
A. Sextant altitude
147. The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulatedin
all almanacs, are for the .
C. Centers of the various celestial bodies
148. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your
position, an indeterminate position will result in which situation?
12. D. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.
149. When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a
Lambert conformal projection, .
A. A straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle
150. The height of eye correction is smaller than geometrical dip
because of
D. Terrestrial refraction
151. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your
position, an indeterminate position will result in which situation?
C. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.
152. For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more
convenient than using a Mercator?
A. Plotting radio bearings over a long distance
153. When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant angle (hs),you
always subtract the dip because you are correcting _ .
B. Hs to the sensible horizon
154. A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac
corrections for
B. The Moon
155. A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of .
27. The Moon
156. A gnomonic projection is based on a(n) .
A. Plane tangent at one point
157. You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light maybe
identified on the radar by .
D. A coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the
light
158. The error in the measurement of the altitude of a celestialbody,
caused by refraction, increases as the .
D. Altitude of the body decreases
159. A line of position derived by radar range from an identified point ona
coast will be a(n) _.
B. Arc
160. The small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestialequator,
and transcribed by the daily motion of the body, is called the .
B. Parallel of declination
161. With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving
the same accuracy as a military receiver if .
A. Selective availability is set to zero
13. 162. In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparableto
latitude on the terrestrial sphere?
D. Declination
163. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center,
and the heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in
relation to the flash, what type of bearings are produced?
A. Relative
164. A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in lineis
called a(n)
.
B. Range line
165. At about GMT 1436, on 3 December 1981, the lower limb of the
Moon is observed with a sextant having an index error of 2.5' on the ar The
height of eye is 32 feet. The sextant altitude (hs) is 3°38.8'. What is the
observed altitude?
B. Ho 4°29.1'
166. On 21 January 1981, you observe a back sight of the Sun's lower lim
The sextant altitude (hs) is 121°31.5'. The index error is 2.5' on the ar The
height of eye is 31 feet (9.3 meters). What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
B. 58°53.1'
167. What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical triangle?
C. Celestial Meridian
168. On 16 January 1981, you take a sight of a star. The sextant altitude
(hs) is 4°33.0'. The temperature is -10°C, and the barometer reads 992
millibars. The height of eye is 42 feet. The index error is 1.9' off the ar What
is the observed altitude (Ho)?
C. 4°17.0'
169. To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the parallels of LAT
34°30'N
and LAT 31°30'N, which 30 mile scale should be used?
C. 32°45'N to 33°15'N
170. Radar makes the most accurate determination of the .
B. Distance to a target
171. You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a
triangle.
The actual position of the vessel .
C. May be inside or outside of the triangle
172. The magnitude of three stars is indicate Which star is the brightest?
B. Altair + 0.9
14. 173. Concerning a celestial observation, the azimuth angle ismeasured
from the principal vertical circle to the _ .
A. Greenwich celestial meridian
174. You are on course 238°T. To check the course of your vessel you
should observe a celestial body on which bearing?
C. 328°
175. A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at anygiven
time is a
C. Line of position
176. When using GPS without Selective Availability, you may expect your
horizontal accuracy to be better than
B. 20 meters
177. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPSreceivers
should provide, at a minimum, .
B. A warning of loss of position
178. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to havean
accuracy equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?
B. Selective Availability
179. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is
provided by
A. DGPS, within a coverage area
180. How can the error of the Gyro compass be determined?
a. By taking a transit bearing with the gyro compass of two
prominent fixed shore objects and comparing it with the bearing of
the same objects on the chart
181. Is the location of the Compass Binnacle critical?
a. Yes, for the reasons stated in all of the suggested answer
182. The compass binnacle on the ship has various specific functions,
which of the following answers reflect its most important functions.
a. All of the answers provided
183. The gyro compass can suffer from a compass error and may need to
be allowed for, when steering a course in a dangerous navigational area.
What is the probable cause of the error?
a. An uncorrected course and speed error.
184. What are the main components causing the magnetic compass to
require a regular evaluation and compass correction?
a. Permanent and induced magnetism in the ships structure
15. 185. What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses toreduce
any possible compass error?
a. Latitude and Speed
186. What are the two parts of the magnetic compass error?
a. Variation and Deviation
187. What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swingthrough
large angles when the ship is rolling in a seaway?
a. The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the
correct position.
188. Where can the size of the Magnetic Compass Error be found?
a. By taking a transit bearing of two fixed geographical positions and
comparing it with the bearing of the same points on the chart
189. Which part of the magnetic compass error changes with a changein
the course steered?
a. Deviation
190. What action should the Officer of the Watch (OOW) take if he is
forced to make a major deviation from the voyage plan?
a. Inform the Master
191. What are the limits of a passage or voyage plan?
a. From berth to berth
192. What is the shortest distance between two points on the surface of the
earth?
a. Great Circle
193. What methods could be introduced into a passage plan forcontinuous
monitoring of the ships position when navigating along a coastline?
a. Parallel Index lines
194. When a ship is steaming along a course line, what is the importance of
determining the set and rate of drift due to wind and current?
a. All of the suggested answers
195. When should voyage planning be done?
a. Prior to leaving the berth
196. Where can a ship expect an act of piracy to take place?
a. All over the world
16. 197. Which of the answers best summarises the information which should
be provided for the bridge Officers of the Watch within an effective Voyage
plan.
a. All of the suggested answers
198. Who is ultimately responsible for the voyage plan?
a. The Master
199. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient
way?
A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and
followed by a competent bridge team.
200. Which would you consult for information about the
general current circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean?
A. Pilot chart
201. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart byusing
the
A. Latitude scale near the middle of the track line
202. You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft
of 32'06". The charted depth of an obstruction in the channel near
Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet of keel
clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the obstruction is
01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet
these requirements?
B. 1728
203. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT
approximately the same as the great circle distance?
B. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere
204. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should
the Master insist in discussing the passage plan with the pilot while
he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation
of the ship?
A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and
pilot, when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the
bridge team when deep sea
17. 205. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which
publication provides information about channel depths,
dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine facilities
available in that port?
C. Coast Pilot
206. The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the
.
B. Speed and direction toward which the
current flows
207. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to
Portland, OR. Good seamanship would require that you have on
board, available for reference and use, all of the following
EXCEPT the
C. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
208. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on
course
233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course
to steer at 13 knots to intercept vessel A?
a.256
209. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or
important changes to aids to navigation by means of
.
A. Marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
210. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by
_.
A. All of the above
211. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage
System i
B. Australia
212. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?
A. The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS,
and
NAVAREA warnings are the same.
18. 213. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180
degrees turn. The ship has a right-handed propeller and there is
equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be
the most suitable method to make the turn using as little space as
possible?
A. Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining somesternway,
rudder hard to starboard and full ahead
214. In which country would you expect the channels to be
marked with the IALA-B Buoyage System?
B. Peru
215. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists? C.
New editions are corrected through the date shown on the
title page.
216. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the
dissemination of important marine information. Which
NAVAREAS include the Indonesian?
A. XI
217. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain
geographic area?
B. Catalog of Charts
218. What publication contains information about the port
facilities and passage entry to port ?
A. World Port Index
219. When must a passage plan be prepared ?
. B. Before the
voyage commences
220. What should a passage plan include ?
A. The plan should include the first 72 hours of
the sea voyage. B. The plan should include the
entire voyage from berth to berth
19. 221. You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft
of 32'06". The charted depth of an obstruction in the channel near
Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet of keel
clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the obstruction is
01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet
these requirements?
B. 1728
222. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT
approximately the same as the great circle distance?
C. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
223. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?
A. Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger
and includes both identification of the occurrence and
the likelihood that it will happen.
224. Who will have the authority to take charge and make
appropriate decisions in the event of a vessel emergency when
transiting the Panama Canal?
A. The Panama Canal Authority
225. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or
important changes to aids to navigation by means of
A. Marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
226. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage
System in
A. The Philippines
B. Australia
227. In which country would you expect the channels to be
marked with the IALA-B Buoyage System?
B. Peru
228. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain
geographic area?
C. Catalog of Charts
20. 229. What publication contains information about the port
facilities and passage entry to port ?
B. Coast Pilot
230. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as
flashing white with a red sector. The red sector .
B. Indicates a danger
area
231. Route with prescribed bounds where ships shall get
navigations with extra caution is
C. Precautionary area
232. Which stages following Apraisal
stage of passage planning : A. Checking,
maintain and records
D. Planning, execution and monitoring
233. Area which shall be avoided by all ships or for ship by
classification indeed is :
B. No Go Area
234. A point given at navigational charts to revamp bow
before ship arriving at way point's is :
C. Wheel Over Point
235. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where? B.
A
known
position
236. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that
.
C. 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the
Earth's surface
237. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°.
The ship's clocks are on the proper time zone. At what longitude
should the clocks be changed to maintain the proper zone time?
C. 67°30'W
21. 238. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?
C. They have a decreased range
from normal.
239. Safe water buoys may show ONLY .
C. White lights
240. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is .
C. Predicted in Tidal Current Tables
241. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on .
B. coastal anchorages
242. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is
shown as flashing white with a red sector. The red sector .
B. Indicates a danger area
243.To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply? A.
Those adopted by the International Maritime
Organization
244. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were
320, 300, 310 and 330 nautical miles respectively. Find the average
daily run speed if each day is 24 hours long
A. 315 naut. Miles
245. What chart should be used when navigating ?
A. The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected
246.The latest edition of a chart can be found from .
C. The latest cumulative notices to mariners
247. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out .
E. One to two hours prior sailing
248. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has
an Indian
Embassy. Which of these publications would you consult?
B. D. Guide to Port Entry
22. 249. Which of the following factors may not be taken into
consideration when planning a passage in coastal waters?
C. Choice of ocean route
250. A voyage passage plan is made from
C. Berth to berth
251. Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and
names the rock using vertical letters. This indicates the
.
C. Rock is dry at high water
252. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing
remains constant,the ships are on:
B Collision courses
253. According to the recommendations of International Navigational
Congress in
1912, the ratio of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels i
F. 7.4 and 7.8 to 1
G.
254. Which one of the following land marks on the coast
line must be depicted on hydrographic maps ?
All the above
255. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of
course is marked on the chart. By 2120 no land has been
sighted, the visibility is very goo What action would you
take?
. B. Call Master.
256. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior
position?
B. Fix
257. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
C. On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to
the direction of traffic flow
23. 258.A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses
the International Date Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone
time. What is the date and time at Greenwich when the vessel
crosses the line?
D. 2100, 24 January
259.The period at high or low tide during which there is no
change in the height of the water is called the .
C. Stand of the tide
260. Spring tides are tides that .
A. Have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
261. Mean high water is the reference plane used for .
B. Heights above water of land features
such as lights
262. The range of tide is the _ .
C. Difference between the heights of high and low tide
263. The reference datum used in determining the heights of land
features on most charts is .
B. Mean high water
264. Charted depth is the .
28. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the oceanbottom
265. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are
reckoned in the tide tables is .
B. The same as that used for the charts
of the locality
266. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate
.
C. Two depth
267. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter
phase, what type of tides will occur?
H. Neap
268. Priming of the tides occurs
C. When the Moon is between new and first quarter and between full
and third Quarter
24. 269. Region grooves traffic for ships does range TSS
Traffic in shore's lines, traffic corresponds to that region is
C. Range of Traffic
270. Lines which shall follow for the ships to entering or outer an area
Leading lines
271. All bridge member shall attended if there is available
changing to passage plan
C. All the above
272. Route with prescribed bounds where ships shall get
navigations with extra caution is
C. Precautionary area
273. Which stages following Apraisal
stage of passage planning :
I. Planning, execution and monitoring
274. Area which shall be avoided by all ships or for ship by
classification indeed is : A. Caution Area
B. No Go Area
275. A point given at navigational charts to revamp bow
before ship arriving at way point's is :
E. Wheel Over Point
276. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where? B. A
known position
277. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that
C. 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the
Earth's surface
278. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°.
The ship's clocks are on the proper time zone. At what longitude
should the clocks be changed to maintain the proper zone time?
C. 67°30'W
279. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?
C. They have a decreased range
from normal.
25. 280. Safe water buoys may show ONLY .
D. White lights
281. Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the
master gyrocompass. They are .
A. Accurate only in the Polar regions
282. Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are
called
C. Isogonic lines
283. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range
which bears
185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range inline
dead ahea This indicates that you(r) .
B. Course is in error
284. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a
magnetic compass
B. Turns counterclockwise to port
285. You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart
.
A. On the compass rose
286. What is an advantage of the
magnetic compass aboard vessels?
C. It is reliable due to it's essential simplicity.
287. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at
the center, and the heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings
are measured in relation to the flash, what type of bearings are
produced?
A. Relative
288. Magnetic compass deviation .
B. Is the angular difference between magnetic north and compass north
289. Deviation in a compass is caused by the .
A. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
290. Magnetic variation changes with a change in .
C. The vessel's position
26. 291. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?
B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the
Earth.
292. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in
.
C. Geographical location
293. Variation is the angular measurement between .
B. Compass north and true north
294. A relative bearing is always measured from .
A. The vessel's head
295. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and
B. Annual rate of variation change
296. When must a passage plan be prepared ?
A. At the start of
the sea voyage.
B. Before the voyagecommences.
297. What should a passage plan include ?
B. The plan should include the entire voyage from
berth to berth.
298. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart byusing
the
A. Latitude scale near the middle of the track line
299. 299.
You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of
32'06". The charted depth of an obstruction in the channel near
Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet of keel
clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the obstruction is
01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May
1983 and meet
these requirements?
B. 1728
300. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT
approximately the same as the great circle distance?
B. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
27. 301. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or
important changes to aids to navigation by means of
A. Marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
302. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A
Buoyage System in
B. Australia
303. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain
geographic area?
B. Catalog of Charts
304. Wind velocity varies .
A. Directly with the temperature of the air mass
B. Directly with the pressure gradient
305. What wind reverses directions seasonally?
A. Monsoon winds
306. What wind reverses directions seasonally?
A. Monsoon winds
307. A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the
Pacific coast of Mexico,
particularly during the colder months, is called .
A. Tehuantepecer
308. What will a veering wind do?
A. Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere
309. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing. In the
Northern
Hemisphere, this would indicate that it will .
B. Shift in a counterclockwise manner
310. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. In the
Northern
Hemisphere this indicates that the wind will .
A. Shift in a clockwise manner
311. You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a
fresh n'ly wind blowing.
As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to encounter
B. Steeper waves, closer together
312. Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly at night
than an adjacent water
area?
J. Land breeze
28. 313. A katabatic wind blows .
C. Down an incline due to cooling of the ai
314. The most common form of solid precipitation is
B. Snow
315. A cloud whose name has the prefix nimbo- or the suffix –nimbus is
C. Rain-producing
316. What air masses generally move eastward, toward Europe?
C. Maritime polar Atlantic
317. Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knot
K. Beaufort force 12
318. In reading a weather map, closely spaced pressure gradient lines would
indicate
C. High winds
319. On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each
hemisphere, the pressure diminishes. The winds along these
gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation toward the east and
are known as the .
L. Prevailing westerlies
320. Storms along a cold front are usually short-lived and
sometimes violent, while storms along a warm front
B. produce precipitation over a large area, and are
sometimes violent.
321. Which of the following statements describes what
happens when the sun heats water and land?
B. Water heats more slowly
than land does.
322. Which wind pattern has the most influence over the
movement of frontal weather systems over the North American
continent?
C. Prevailing westerlies
323. In the doldrums you will NOT have .
C. Steep pressure gradient
324. What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses.
A. Gnomonic
325. What is a chronometer used for? Indicating
GMT
29. 326. A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called?
Great circle
327. If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour
circle passing through a heavenly body • s called:
Local hour angle
328. What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ?
The date line
329. Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth?
Ionosphere
330. What is the true shape of the earth?
an oblate spheroid
331. The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called :
perihelion
332. Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called:
Vertical circles
333. Longitudinal zones of the earth‟s surface, each 15deg in extent,
measured eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called:
Zone time
334. the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of
the earth contained between the observer‟s zenith and the centre of the body
is called:
Calculated zenith distance
335. If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct?
The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the
intermediate course is
336. Right ascension is measured:
Westward from aries
337. What are planets which are closer to the sun called?
Inferior planets
30. 338. What type of motion do planets have around the sun?
Direct
339. Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time?
Yes
340. A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun?
Inferior planets
341. The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6
deg. below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that
when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called :
civil twilight
342. When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when
the sun is below the horizon, it is called:
a. twilight
343. In which case is augmentation necessary:
Sun
344. What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body
appears to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east
and setting in the west called?
Diurnal motion
345. What is the diameter about which the earth rotates?
Axis
346. What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured
from the observer's meridian called?
Local mean time
347. Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called:
Isogonic line
348. When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers
of the three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be
in opposition
349. The geographical mean between two latitudes is called:
Middle latitude
31. 350. When is a body said to be circumpolar?
Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90
351. To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply:
b. both <Option 2>and <Option 3>
stars
352. At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination
is
23.5 deg
353. At the horizon, refraction:
Is maximum
354. Refraction correction must always be:
Subtracted
355. Which of these is an inferior planet?
Mercury
356. How many time zones are there?
12
357. The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view
at sea is called:
None of the other options
358. The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible
horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called:
Dip
359. What is the maximum declination of the sun?
23 deg 26.7min N or S
360. A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the
terrestrial poles is known as
Meridian
361. Which of these is a morning and evening star?
Venus
362. What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as?
Parallel track sailing
32. 363. A chronometer is said to be loosing if :
if it is slow one day and fast the next day.
364. When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the
sextant, it is called
index error
365. What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects?
Azimuth circle
366. The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance
between two objects is known as :
Horizontal sextant angle
367. What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum
north declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day
and shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere?
Summer solstice
368. What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ?
none of the other options
369. When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the
sextant , it is called :
error of perpendicularity
370. When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and
distances run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of
celestial observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called :
DR
371. Fix at is pelorus used for?
Taking bearing
372. Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides?
Moon
373. What charts are used for coasting, pilotage waters and plotting
waypoints
Large scale
33. 374. Ship's speed through water is measured in
Knots
375. How often is a chart catalogue published?
Annually
376. How often are cumulative lists published ?
Twice a year
377. How often are chart corrections published
Monthly
378. How often are nautical almanacs published ?
Annually
379. Distance on a chart is measured using :
Latitude scale
380. Which are the two reasons which cause ocean currents?
Wind-drift currents and pressure gradient
381. What does the lower figure represent?
Mean resultant
382. A ship is being overtaken by another ship
while
proceeding along a river. What should be the
required procedure?
The overtaking vessel should request permission from the other ship by
sounding two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts on the
whistle or by direct VHF contact.
383. According to rule 13 of the International
Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea,
what is the definition of "an overtaking
vessel"?
34. When coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5
degrees abaft her beam.
384. Sailing vessel when meeting another sailing vessel. This depends on
the direction of the wind relative to each vessel. In the situation shown
here, which sailing vessel (A or B) must keep out of the way of the other?
A. Sailing vessel A must keep out of the way of sailing vessel
385. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside
will display
c. two masthead lights in a vertical line
386. A man is reported to have fallen overboard and the Officer of the
Watch releases the lifebuoy and starts a man overboard manoeuvre, whoare
the first persons onboard he should inform?
Master and Engine Room
387. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow
channel, so as to pass on the power-driven vessel's port side. Theovertaken
vessel will have to move to facilitate passage. The sailing vessel is the
.
d. give-way vessel and would sound two prolonged blasts followedby
two short blasts
388. A vessel constrained by her draft may display
.three all-round red lights
389. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel
All of the above
390. A vessel sounds one short blast. This signal indicates the vessel
is altering course to starboard
391. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel
.
is altering course to port
392. Can the OOW be the sole lookout?
During daylight when visibility and trafficallows
393. How can a new officer, just boarding a ship, ensure that he knows the
location and operation of all navigational and safety equipment and take
account of the operating limitations of such equipment?
By asking other officers and practicing with the use of the equipment
394. If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance apart of more than 100
metres, will manoeuvring and warning signals, as defined by rule 34 of the
International regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, be given on one or
both whistles?
They shall be given on one whistle only.
35. 395. In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast bythe
give-way vessel indicates that the vessel _.
is turning to starboard
396. In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signalof
two prolonged followed by one short blast?
When overtaking in a narrow channel
397. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all theothers?
A vessel on pilotage duty
398. Rule 12 of the International Collision Regulations prescribes the
action to be taken by a sailing vessel when meeting another sailing vessel.
This depends on the direction of the wind relative to each vessel. In the
situation shown here, which sailing vessel (A or B) must keep out of the way
of the other?
Sailing vessel A must keep out of the way of sailing vessel B.
399. The bridge Officer of the Watch (OOW) is plotting the ship's position
in the chartroom, when the ship is in collision with a fishing vessel. Why
would the OOW be held responsible for the collision?
Under the Rules a proper lookout should be maintained at all times and by all
available means
400. The bridge Officer of the Watch (OOW) is plotting the ship's position
in the chartroom, when the ship is in collision with a fishing vessel. Why
would the OOW be held responsible for the collision?
Under the Rules a proper lookout should be maintained at all times and by all
available means
401. The following vessels are all required to make the same sound signal
when in or near an area of restricted visibility: a vessel not under command;
a vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre; a vessel constrained by her
draught / a sailing vessel; a vessel engaged in fishing; a vessel engaged in
towing or pushing another vessel. What is that signal?
One prolonged blast, followed by two short blasts, at intervals of not more than
two minutes.
402. The lights displayed here indicate that this is one of two types of
vessel. What are the two options?
A power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length, length
of tow under 200 metres, towing vessel and tow restricted in their ability to
manoeuvre, seen head-on OR a power-driven vessel underway, more than 50
metres in length, or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second
masthead light, restricted in her ability to manoeuvre, seen head-on.
403. The ship is drifting in the open sea with a temporary engine
breakdown. The ship is equipped with GPS navigation equipment. What
should the bridge Officer of the Watch do in this situation?
All of the possible answers.
36. 404. The vessel is steaming off the coast when the engine room informs the
bridge it must stop engines immediately. Shortly afterwards they informed
the bridge they would need a least three hours to fix it. Which of the
following actions would be the most suitable taken by the bridge?
Display the NUC signal, maintain the watch and determine how the ship is
drifting and the probable position after three hours.
405. The vessel is to anchor with Pilot onboard. Which of the suggested
answers most accurately define the main duties of the Officer of the Watch
on bridge?
Assist the Master and pilot and monitor the ships position.
406. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two blast whistle signalby
either vessel means .
"I am altering course to port"
407. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a
signal which could be sounded by a .
vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
408. Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound awhistle
signal of two prolonged followed by one short blast?
When overtaking in a narrow channel
409. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass
without changing course. Vessel "A" .
will not sound any whistle signals
410. What are the additional duties required by the Officer of the Watch
when navigating in fog?
Sound fog signal, effective radar watch reporting ship movements to Master
and keep a good lookout for ships and fog signals.
411. What are the immediate duties of the bridge Officer of the Watch
when the ship suddenly runs into a fog bank?
Commence sounding the fog signal, engines on standby, call the Master and
lookout, if not already on duty
412. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?
A cylinder
413. What do the shapes that this vessel is displaying tell us about her?
That she is not under command.
414. What is correct UTC in this example? Approx. Pos: N49°51' W35°23',
zone +2, Local Time 0900.
11 00
415. What is the colour and characteristic of a "towing light", as defined in
the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea?
37. Yellow, fixed, seen over an arc of 135 degrees and so arranged as to display
67.5 degrees from right aft on each side of the vessel.
416. What is the main purpose of VTS?
Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the
vicinity.
417. What is the situation of this vessel?
This vessel is not under command, but is making way through the water.
418. What sound signal shall be used on ship's whistle when there is a man
overboard?
3 long blasts repeatedly
419. What would the Second Officer report to the Master when enteringan
area where the visibility is reduced to 2 n.miles?
The Second Officer would report to the Master that the visibility is reduced to
probable range of 2 n.miles and the engines are on standby.
420. When is the Officer of the Watch officially relieved of his
responsibilities of being in charge of the watch?
When the Master informs the Officer of the Watch that he is taking over the
"con" (watch responsibilities)
421. When should operational checks on navigation equipment be done?
When preparing for sea and entering port and at regular intervals during the
voyage
422. When steering by autopilot, how often should manual steeringbe
checked?
At least once a watch
423. When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from oneof
the vessels means .
"I am altering my course to port"
424. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?
She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of her
draft in relation to the available depth of water.
425. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning light signals?
The time between successive signals shall be not less than tenseconds.
426. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line?
A vessel constrained by her draft
427. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolongedand
two short blasts?
A vessel being towed
428. You are in an area of restricted visibility and hear this signal. It is
repeated at two minute intervals. What does it indicate?
38. That there is another vessel nearby, that she is underway, but stopped and
making no way through the water.
429. You are in an area of restricted visibility, close to a port. You hear
this signal. What vessel does it come from and what additional information
does the signal provide?
A vessel at anchor, more than 100 metres in length. She is sounding the
additional signal to give warning of her position.
430. You are in an area of restricted visibility. You hear this sound signal.
What does it mean?
That there is a vessel in distress nearby.
431. You are in open water and clear conditions. You are approaching the
pilot station when you hear this signal from a vessel ahead of you. What
does it signify?
That the vessel is operating astern propulsion.
432. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. This
vessel is sighted directly ahead. The distance is closing slowly. What action
will you take under the International Collision Regulations and why?
I will keep out of her way. I am the overtaking vessel and am obliged to keep
clear under rule 13.
433. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. This
vessel is sighted on the port bow on a steady bearing. What kind of vessel is
it and what will your action be?
This is a sailing vessel underway, seen head-on. It is my responsibility to keep
clear under rule 18 and I will take appropriate avoiding action.
434. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. This
vessel is sighted wide on the port bow. It's bearing is opening, but its
distance is closing rapidly. Which of the following is a correct assessment of
the situation and the action to be taken?
Risk of collision is deemed not to exist and I will maintain my course and
speed. I will continue to monitor the situation.
435. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. You
observe this vessel, directly ahead, on a steady bearing, with thedistance
closing steadily. What can you tell about this vessel from the lights it is
displaying?
This vessel is not under command and is not making way through the water. I
cannot tell its aspect.
436. You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. You sight
these lights on the port bow, on a steady bearing. The distance is closing.
What are you looking at and what action will you take in compliance with
the International Regulations for Preventing Collision at Sea?
This is a power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length,
length of tow under 200 metres and the tow, both being restricted in their
ability to manoeuvre, seen from the starboard side. Under rule 18, I am
required to keep clear and will take appropriate avoiding action.
39. 437. You are on a sailing vessel, underway in open water. This vessel is
sighted on the starboard bow, on a steady bearing and the distance is closing.
By the International Regulations for the Preventing Collisions at Sea, what
action will you follow?
By Rule 18, a power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of a
sailing vessel. I will maintain my course and speed, but will continue to
monitor situation to ensure the other vessel takes avoiding action.
438. You are on a tug and are towing an unmanned barge. You are
restricted in your ability to manoeuvre. The total length of the tow is 219
metres. What daylight signals are required by the International Regulations
for Preventing Collisions at Sea?
A diamond shape, where it can best be seen shall be displayed on the tug and
the tow. Three shapes shall also be displayed in a vertical line, the upper and
lower being balls and the middle one a diamond. Diamond shape
439. You are proceeding along a coastal route when you hear thissignal.
The visibility is severely restricted. What does the signal mean?
There is a vessel aground in the vicinity. She is more than 100 metres in
length. She is sounding an additional warning to approaching vessels that they
are "running into danger".
440. You are proceeding along a narrow channel and approaching a bend,
on the inside shore of which is a large hill, which obsures your view further
up channel. What sound signal will you make to indicate your presence to
any vessel that is behind the obstructing hill?
One prolonged blast.
441. You are proceeding along a narrow channel behind another vessel.
You have a higher speed and have signalled your intention to the vessel
ahead that you intend to overtake him on his port side. The vessel responds
with this sound signal. What does it mean?
That the vessel is indicating her agreement with my proposed manoeuvre.
442. You are proceeding along a narrow channel in front of anothervessel,
both heading for port. You hear this signal from the vessel behind you.
What does it mean?
I intend to overtake you on your starboard side.
443. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken
by a vessel astern. After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal
indicating his intention to pass your vessel on your starboard side, you signal
your agreement by sounding
one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in that order
444. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to
pass along the vessel's port side. How should you signal your intention?
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
445. The lights displayed here indicate that this is one of two types of
vessel. What are the two options?
40. A power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length, length of
tow under 200 metres, towing vessel and tow restricted in their ability to manoeuvre,
seen head-on OR a power-driven vessel underway, more than 50 metres in length,
or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead light, restricted in
her ability to manoeuvre, seen head-on.
446. The lights here show those that must be exhibited
by a vessel engaged in towing, as per rule 24 of the
International Collision Regulations. But how long
is the tow behind this vessel?
It exceeds 200 metres
447. This vessel is encountered at the mouth of a river
which leads to your discharge port. What do the
various shapes tell you?
This is a vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations. The two balls in a
vertical line indicate the side on which an obstruction exists; the two diamonds in a
vertical line indicate the side on which it is safe to pass; the ball / diamond / /ball in
a vertical line indiacte that the vessel is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.
448. You are approaching a port in a snowstorm. You hear this signal.
What kind of vessel is it and what is it doing?
7. It comes from a vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.
449. You are close to the entrance to a port in thick fog.You hearthe
following signal What does it mean?
That there is a vessel aground in the vicinity
450. This vessel is sighted ahead and slightly to port. What is her
situation? What will you do?
This is a vessel not under command at anchor.
41. 451. What are we seeing here?
8. A sailing vessel, seen from astern, where the edges of her sidelights are
both visible.
452. What is happening here?
These are two vessels engaged in fishing (pair trawling), showing the
additional volutary signals for hauling nets.
453. What is the description for a sidelight, as shown in
Rule 21 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea?
A green light on the starboard side and red light on the port side, showing
an unbroken light over an arc of 112.5 degree, from right ahead to 22.5
degrees abaft the beam on the respective side.
intentions or actions of another vessel, or is in
doubt that sufficient action is being taken by the
other to avoid collision?
9. Five short and rapid blasts (flashes).
454.
What signal may be given by sound and by light to
indicate that a vessel fails to understand the
42. 455. What type of vessel is this and
from what
direction are you seeing it?
10.This is a vessel engaged in fishing other than trawling, making way
through the water, with outlying gear extending more than 150m in the
direction of the all-round white light. I am looking at her port side.
456.
What, by definition in the International Collision
Regulations, is a "vessel restricted in her ability
to manoeuvre"?
11.A vessel which from the nature of her work is restricted in her ability to
manoeuvre as required by the Rules and is therefore unable to keep out
of the way of another vessel.
478
You hear this signal from the vessel behind you.
What does it mean?
1. I am faster than you. Get out of the way.
457. To navigate a ship safely and support the bridge team, it is essential
that the passage plan is made
a. from berth to berth
458. When changes are made in a passage plan, who should beconsulted
and briefed to ensure the revised plan is understood
a. Master
459. The correct order to follow while planning a passage would be
a. plan, monitor, execute, appraise.
43. 460.In preparing a passage plan the effects of squat must be borne in mind, as
under keel clearance gets reduced. Which of these factors will cause the
vessel to squat?
a. Speed
461.Which of these are used to steer a ship by keeping a conspicuous object
lying ahead of the track?
a. A bearing line
462.What is a routeing measure aimed at the separation of opposing streams of
traffic by establishing traffic lanes called?
a. Traffic separation scheme
463. What is the purpose of Ship Reporting Systems?
a. To ensure all ships are complying with regulators
464. In which Publication can information on ship reporting be found?
a. Ship Routeing
465. In which publication can information on VTS be found?
a. Routeing Charts
466.Who is responsible to ensure that bridge watch manning levels are at all
times safe for the prevailing circumstances and conditions?
a. Navigating Officer
467.From where can the maneuvering characteristics of the vesselbe
obtained
a. Ships' particulars
468. Duties of the OOW also include one for the following
a. People working on deck
469.Where should notices be posted when work is being carried out on
aerials/sound signaling apparatus
a. Cargo Office
470. Which of the following should not used for collision avoidance?
a. Manual Radar potting
471. When must the position marked on the navigation chart be erased?
a. End of the voyage
472.When should operational checks on navigational equipment be
carried out?
a. When preparing for sea and prior port entry
44. 473. How often must manual steering be tested ?
a. When there has been a steering failure
474. How would the OOW be provide with an immediate check as to
whether engine orders are being followed
a. Telegraph
475. Who publishes the chart catalogue?
a. Hydrographer to the navy
476. When transiting along the coast it is advisable to use:
a. Charts of the hydrographic office of the relevant country
477. When planning ocean passages, which of these publications are
useful?
a. Ocean passages of the world
478. Where can monthly information on ocean routeing, currents, wind,
ice limits and carious meteorological Information be obtained from
a. Notices to mariners
479. In which publication can characteristics be found?
a. Ship's routeing
480. Information obtained from harbour authorities are called:
a. Local warnings
481. In which publication will you find information pertaining to the
general interest of the Mariner?
a. Mariner's handbook
482. Who finally shoulders the responsibility for passage planning?
a. Second officer
483. Areas which the ship cannot go safely are shown by highlighting or
cross-hatching on a chart - What are these areas called?
a. No go areas
484. What is the line drawn on the chart around the no-go areas at a
distance such that, any part of the ship being navigated will not pass?
a. Margin of safety
485. What do you call the area where the ship can safely navigate ?
a. Safe water
45. 486. On what type of charts would you draw coastal and estuarial tracks?
a. Medium scale charts
487. What type of courses are laid on a Mercator Chart?
a. True courses
488. Bearings picked up from a chart are:
a. True bearings
489. Which method is useful in monitoring cross track tendency in both
poor and good visibility…
a. Parallel indexing
490. What is a position shown on the chart, where a planned change of
status will occur?
a. Waypoint
491. When a ship reaches a point, beyond which it will not be possible
to do other than proceed ahead, then, it is called:
a. Last waypoint
492. Which of these publications are not used in a passage plan?
a. P & I guidelines
493. At what stage of a passage plan should light for making landfall
and primary/secondary position fixing methods be identified?
a. At the planning stage
494. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops
moving through the water, having been steaming through a
shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer may be strong
and unexpected and is due to what reason?
A. The large volume of water dragged behind the vessel continues to
move forward and cause a strong turning moment on the stern of the
vessel
495. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs
assisting and there is little wind or current affecting the vessel.
What would be considered the best use of the tugs and at which
position?
46. A. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in case the vessel's
movement towards the berth requires reducing by the tug pulling
off.
496. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel,
using its own engines and assisted by the use of one tug. Where
should the tug be connected to assist the ship in maintaining its
course in the centre of the channel?
A. Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
497. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat"
when moving in shallow water. The amount of Squat is affected
by the speed of the vessel through the water. If the speed through
the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of
"Squat"
C. There will be a significant change in the reduction of
underkeel clearance, but the amount varies from ship to
ship
498. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in
deep water at full ahead throughout the turn. The same ship, in
the same conditions, is now to make a complete turn (360 degrees)
at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any difference in
the size (diameter) of the turning circle?
C. Yes, it will be much larger turning circle at half
ahea
499. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the
bollard pull exerted by the tug be the same at any speed?
A. No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will
be expected that there will be a reduced pull exerted by
the tug
500. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence
of a 1 knot beam current.
At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the
draught and at the second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times
the draught. If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at
47. the first jetty, what would be the approximate force exerted at the
second if the draught is the same?
A. 150 tonnes
501. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What
are the principle reasons creating the effects of squat?
A. There is an increase in the water velocity and a decrease
of water pressure around the ship's hull
502. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the
centre of the channel and approaching a bend in a river. What
helm would probably be required to safely round the bend and
what other effects could be expected in this situation?
A. The heading should be carefully monitored, some
port rudder may be required to start the swing, though
starboard rudder may be required to balance any bank
rejection.
503. In the situation illustrated, what should be the
distribution of the power requirements from the tugs, if the
ship is to be moved sideways without changing the heading?
Both tugs have similar bollard pull and are of conventional
propulsion.
A. Much greater power on the forward tug than on
the after tug while monitoring the gyro heading
504. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel
to manoeuvre, can be decreased by hydrodynamic interaction
with the ship it is assisting. Where is the most dangerous position
of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be found?
C. The most dangerous position is where the tug has made
fast the towing spring and is then moving ahead of the larger
vessel.
505. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of
water past the rudder. If the rudder is put hard over when the ship
is at full ahead in deep water, and then the engines are stopped,
how much lift force remains?
A. About 20 %
48. 506. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow
water. How much "lift force" remains when the engine is stopped?
A. About 10 %
507. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under
Keel Clearance will reduce to about 0.25 of the ship's draught.
Which of the following answers most accurately summarizes the
aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed?
A. All of the suggested answers
508. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of
30 knots which suddenly increases to 60 knots. What will be the
change of force exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty?
C. The force will be Doubled
509. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log
shows a sideways motion to port at both forward and aft positions.
Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located?
C. At a position on the centreline, about 1/6 of
the ship's length aft of the bow.
510. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"?
B. A rudder with equal rudder area forward and aft of the turning
axis, theturning axis being at the geometrical centre
of the rudder area
511. What will have a major effect on the performance of a
tug when used to assist in the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
C. The use of the tug's wire
instead of the ship's towing
spring
512. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a
ship is directionally unstable"?
B. When the rudder is kept amidships, the ship will
continue on a straight course
513. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force
and a drag force When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do
you think remains if the rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard
over position (35 degrees)
B. About 10 %.
49. 514. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During
the night you have been in a collision with a sail boat and there are
no signs of life in the water. What would you do?
A. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any
survivors
515. You are witness to a collision between two other ships
close to your vessel. What immediate action should youtake?
C. Send out a distress message on their behalf.
516. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal
region when it is in collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water
in several holds. What is the best course of action by ship A to save the
vessel and the cargo?
B. Attempt to stop the ingress of water by listing
the ship over and bringing the damaged area of the
hull out of the water.
517. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of
the vessels involved in a collision. What will your actions be
following the collision?
A. Make sure your vessel + crew are safe
and then offer your assistance to the other
vessel
518. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the
vessel has the required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding
the general alarm on board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of
your situation, what other immediate steps should be taken?
A. Complete soundings of all
compartments to determine the
number of compartments floode
Check the vessels stability
limitations within its statutory
loadline requirements to determine if
still adequate.
519. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an
other vessel. As Master responsible for the ship and persons on
board, what is the first step to take?
50. A. Organise someone to assess the extent of
damage and the residual stability of the vessel
520. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation
Scheme and receives a navigational warning of another vessel
progressing the wrong way within the scheme. What actions
should be taken on the bridge, if any?
A. Use the Arpa for early identification of all other
ship movements within the traffic lane and give rogue
vessel a wide berth
521. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall .
C. Show a day-shape of two diamonds in a vertical line
522. A power-driven vessel at anchor, not fishing or otherwise
restricted in its ability to maneuver, sounds her fog signal at
intervals of not
B. More than two
minutes
523. You are underway in reduced visibility. You hear the fog
signal of another vessel about 20° on your starboard bow.
Risk of collision may exist. You should
B. Reduce your speed to bare steerageway
524. What day-shape would a vessel at anchor show during daylight?
A. One black ball
525. You are approaching a bend in a channel. You cannot see
around the bend because of the height of the bank. You should
.
29. Sound a whistle blast of 4 to 6 seconds duration
526. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel of 150 meters in
length, at anchor?
B. She must show all-round white lights forward and aft
527. Which vessel would be required to show a white light
from a lantern exhibited in sufficient time to prevent collision
30. A 6-meter motorboat
528. Barges being towed at night
A. Must be lighted at all times
51. 529. You sight another power-driven vessel dead-ahead
showing both the red and green sidelights. The required action to
take would be to
31. Alter your course to starboard
530. You are underway in fog and hear one short, one prolonged, andone
short blast in succession. What is the meaning of this signal?
C. A vessel is at anchor, warning of her position.
531. An anchored vessel on pilotage duty must show which light(s) at
night?
A. A white light over a red light and anchor lights
532. A vessel which is fishing is required to show sidelights and a stern
light only when
C. Underway and making way
533. What is a requirement for any action taken to avoid collision?
C. The action must be positive and made in ample time.
534. In the daytime, you see a large sailing vessel on the beam. You
know that she is also propelled by machinery if she shows .
B. A black cone
535. . Your power-driven vessel is stopped and making no way, but is
not in any way disable Another vessel is approaching you on your
starboard beam. Which statement is TRUE?
B. Your vessel is the give-way vessel in a crossing situation.
536. Vessels engaged in fishing may show the additional
signals described in Annex II to the Rules when they are
.
C. In close proximity to other vessels engaged in fishing
537. Which vessel must show a masthead light abaft of and
higher than her identifying lights?
C. A 100-meter vessel not under command
538. While underway in a narrow channel, a vessel should stay
.
B. To the starboard side of the
channel
539. Vessels of less than what length may not impede the
passage of other vessels which can safely navigate only within a
narrow channel or fairway?
C. 20 meters
52. 540. A lantern combining the sidelights and stern light MAY be shown on
B. 20-meter vessel engaged in fishing and
making way
541. The lights required by the Rules must be shown .
C. ONLY from sunset to
sunrise
542. Which vessel may carry her sidelights and stern light in a
combined lantern on the mast?
A. An 18-meter
sailing vessel
543. A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway
where other vessels may be hidden by an obstruction shall
D. Sound a prolonged blast
544. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops
moving through the water, having been steaming through a
shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer may be strong
and unexpected and is due to what reason?
A. The large volume of water dragged behind the
vessel continues to move forward and cause a
strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel
545. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs
assisting and there is little wind or current affecting the vessel.
What would be considered the best use of the tugs and at which
position?
A. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast in
case the vessel's movement towards the berth
requires reducing by the tug pulling off.
546. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel,
using its own engines and assisted by the use of one tug. Where
should the tug be connected to assist the ship in maintaining its
course in the centre of the channel?
A. Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
547. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat"
when moving in shallow water. The amount of Squat is affected
by the speed of the vessel through the water. If the speed through
53. the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of
"Squat"
A. The squat effect will be reduced to
a quarter of its originalvalue
548. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in
deep water at full ahead throughout the turn. The same ship, in
the same conditions, is now to make a complete turn (360 degrees)
at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any difference in
the size (diameter) of the turning circle?
A. No, the diameter of the turning
circle would be almost the same.
549. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will
the bollard pull exerted by the tug be the same at any speed?
A. No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5 knots it will be
expected that there will be a reduced pull exerted by the tug
550. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence
of a 1 knot beam current.
At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the
draught and at the second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times
the draught. If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at
the first jetty, what would be the approximate force exerted at the
second if the draught is the same?
A. 150 tonnes
551. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What
are the principle reasons creating the effects of squat?
A. There is an increase in the water velocity and a
decrease of water pressure around the ship's hull
552. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the
centre of the channel and approaching a bend in a river. What
helm would probably be required to safely round the bend and
what other effects could be expected in this situation?
A. The heading should be carefully monitored, some
port rudder may be required to start the swing, though
54. starboard rudder may be required to balance any bank
rejection.
553. In the situation illustrated,what should be the distribution of
the power requirements from the tugs, if the ship is to be moved
sideways without changing the heading? Both tugs have
similar bollard pull and are of conventional propulsion.
A. Much greater power on the forward tug than on
the after tug while monitoring the gyro heading
554. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power
distribution of the tugs to maintain the ship sideways motion with
only minor changes in the ship's heading?
A. Considerably more power on the aft tug than the
forward tug, while monitoring the ship's gyro heading
555. It has been established by experience that the most
successful method of double banking two vessels, when no tugs
are available, is one of the following methods. Select which
answer is considered the most successful metho
A. When both vessels are underway, fig. 1
556. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has
just fallen overboar Which of the following manoeuvres is the
most appropriate action when the person is still close to the vessel?
B. Scharnow Turn
557. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel
to manoeuvre, can be decreased by hydrodynamic interaction
with the ship it is assisting. Where is the most dangerous position
of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be found?
A. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches
the bow rounding the forward shoulder of the larger
vessel.
558. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of
water past the rudder. If the rudder is put hard over when the ship
is at full ahead in deep water, and then the engines are stopped,
how much lift force remains?
A. About 2%
55. 559. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow
water. How much "lift force" remains when the engine is stopped?
A. About 10%
560. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under
Keel Clearance will reduce to about 0.25 of the ship's draught.
Which of the following answers most accurately summarizes the
aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed?
A. All of the suggested answers
561. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of
30 knots which suddenly increases to 60 knots. What will be the
change of force exerted on the ship driving it off the jetty?
A. The force will be Quadrupled
562. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log
shows a sideways motion to port at both forward and aft positions.
Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located?
A. At a position outside the hull of the ship itself
563. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"?
A. A rudder with part of the rudder area forward of the
turning axis, therefore reducing the load on the steering
motor.
564. What will have a major effect on the performance of a
tug when used to assist in the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
A. The position of the tug
relative to the ship's pivot
point
565. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a
ship is directionally unstable"?
A. The ship requires continual application of the
rudder to maintain a steady course
566. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force
and a drag force When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do
you think remains if the rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard
over position (35 degrees)?
A. About 80 %
56. 567. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will
experience an effect known as "Squat". Which of the following
statements most accurately specify the results of squat on the
vessel?
A. There will be a reduction of the vessel's
underkeel clearance and a possible change of trim.
568. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean,
what would be the best system of connecting the tow?
A. Wire from a deep sea
tug connected to the
ship's anchor chain.
569. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is
best for your vessel to maintain during this operation?
A. The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
570. Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the
master gyrocompass. They are .
A. Accurate only in the Polar regionns
571. Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are
called
C. Isogonic lines
572. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range
which bears
185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line
dead ahea
This indicates that you(r) .
B. Course is in error
573. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a
magnetic compass
B. Turns counterclockwise to port
574. You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart
A. On the compass rose
575. What is an advantage of the
magnetic compass aboard vessels?
B. It is reliable due to it's essential
simplicity.
57. 576. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at
the center, and the heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings
are measured in relation to the flash, what type of bearings are
produced?
A. Relative
577. Magnetic compass deviation .
B. Is the angular difference between magnetic
north and compass north
578. Deviation in a compass is caused by the .
A. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
579. Magnetic variation changes with a change in .
A. The vessel's position
580. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?
B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the
Earth.
581. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in
.
C. Geographical location
582. Variation is the angular measurement between .
B. Compass north and true north
583. A relative bearing is always measured from .
A. The vessel's head
584. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and
B. Annual rate of variation change
585. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one
mile. The Arpan radar is set on a range 12 miles on a course of 314 degrees
and owns ship has a vector as shown. What is the vector mode selected on
the Arpa?
a. True vectors
586. What corrections must be applied to the echo sounder reading to
compare the depth of water with the depth printed on the chart?
a. Draught of the ship
587. What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other
navigational aids?
58. a. The GPS system gives information about position, speed andtime
continuously worldwide.
588. What is the correct setting of the "Anti sea clutter" control on the
radar?
a. A few sea returns remaining on the screen.
589. What is the probable cause of an error in position of the ship obtained
from the GPS system?
a. Incorrect height of the antenna.
590. What possible reason could there be for the identification mark
associated with a Racon not being visible on the radar screen?
a. All of the suggested answers.
591. When using the echo sounder in a river the soundings indicatedmay
be incorrect, what would be the most probable cause of the error?
a. The density of the water
592. Which of the suggested navigational systems is a "Hyperbolic"
navigational system and has hyperbolae as position lines?
a. Loran C
593. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode beavoided
when using the Arpa for anti-collision purposes
a. The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water.
594. Which vessel must show a masthead light abaft of and higher than her
identifying lights?
595. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when
going astern?
A. Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the
stern and the rudder post
596. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when
going ahead?
A. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow.
597. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when
escorting a ship through narrow waters would be considered the
most effective in the event of loosing steering power?
A. The tug made fast on a line through the centre
lead astern. (figure 4).
598. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning.
59. A. Because the pivot point is not at the centre of the ship
599. Which are the four main elements of a radar system?
Transmitter, servo link, antenna, target
600. Which of these factors govern the echo presentation?
All of these.
601. How is attenuation affected when using waves of shorter wavelength?
a. Attenuation is greater
602. What is the ability of a radar set to clearly distinguish two
targets, on the same range and slightly different bearings, as two
separate targets on the PPI known as?
a. Range discrimination
603. Which control on the radar is used to suppress clutter?
a. Anti- clutter
604. What is used to control the amplification of echoes received
a. Brilliance
605. What is used as a portable, plotting device which is clamped on
top of the radar screen?
a. Plotting sheet
606. Which of these glues only a bearing and not a range?
a. Racon
607. Which of these is a result of true motion display?
a. Course, speed and aspect of any target obtained only by plotting of
triangle of relative velocities
608. What is used to warn the observer if any distinguishable target
closes to a range or transits a zone chosen by the observer?
a. Guard rings and zones
609. What can be used on the radar screen to eliminate automatic
plotting in selected areas?
a. Guard zones
610. Which are the two most important input informationrequired
to operate the ARPA accurately?.
a. Speed and heading
611. What indicates the true movement of the target being tracked?
a. True vector
60. 612. What is the rate at which two moving objects approach or
separate from each other called?
a. Relative movement
613. Who should conn the vessel at the time of a search andrescue
operation?
a. Master
614. Target detection ranges are considerably reduced due to shipboard
structures like the Samson posts etc. What are such areas known as?
a. Blind sectors
615. When two tracked targets are very close to each other, the data
of one target shifts over to the other target. What is this called?
a. Plotting
616. How can an ARPA assist the ship to steer a suitable course to make
good the entrance to a channel?
Select ground stabilized true motion display and alter course so that ownships
true vector passes through the middle of the entrance to the channel.
617. If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an
echo of a target with no trail indicate? Note this trail of the echo and nota
vector.
a. The target is on the same course and speed as own ship.
What does this control on the radar indicate?
618. (see
figure)
a. Transmitted power monitor.
619. What is this on the PPI? (see figure)
a. Clearing bearing.
61. 620. What is no.4 ? (see figure)
.
a. Modulator.
622. What does the above diagram indicate? (see figure)
a. Bearing discrimination.
623. What is this mark? (see figure)
a. Racon
624. What is no.12 ? (see figure)
a. CRT
621.
a. Multiple echoes.
What type of spurious echoes are these? (see
figure)
62. 625. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
a. Betw n 1 - 2 miles
b. Between 2 - 2.2
miles
626. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
a. Between 1 - 2 miles
627. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?
C. Now or passedl;
628. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?
a. Target A
629. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
a. Less than 1 mile
63. 630. In the equation d = (t x s) r2, the quantity S is:
a. The speed of the radar waves
631. The purpose of radar is to enable:
a. The range and bearing of objects to be obtained
632. Radar uses pulse transmission in order to:
a. detect close range targets
633. Radar does not transmit continuously
because it would:
a. reduce the life of components
634. Target ranges are obtained from:
A.the range marker
64. 635.
a. heading marker
Targets echoes appear along a line called
the :
636.
a. heading marker
A reference for target bearings is provided by
a line on the radar screen called the :
637. The unit which radiates the radar pulse is the:
a. scanner
638.
a. cathode ray unit
The main component in the display unit is
the :
639.
a. power supply
The main component of the transmitter is
the:
65. 640. The purpose of the transmitter unit is to :
a. detect the returning radar pulses
641. A radar fix at long range from land should
be used in preference to other methods.
642. The transmitted pulse length is determined by the action of the :
Magnetron
643 The transmitter P.R.F. is determined by the :
a. Trigger unit
644. The magnetron sends the R.F. pulses to the :
a. display unit
66. 645.
a. scanner unit
The unit which sends returning ragets
echoes to the receiver is the:
646. The function of the waueguide is to :
a. generate the R.F. pulses
647. The purpose of the TM cell is to :
a. protect the receiver during transmission
648. The commonest type of radar scanner is the :
a. Horizontal slotted waveguide
649. The purpose of the anodes in the CRT. is
to :
a. attract the electrons to the screen
.
67. 650. Positions obtain by radar :
a. should only be used in restricted visibility
651. Radar navigational techniques should :
D. only be used in poor visibility
65
If parts of an adjacent coastline do not
show on the radar, one possible reason is
the :
a. presence of horizontal radar shadow sectors
653. An aid to identifying land features at
long range is:
a. a chart with topographic details
68. 654. A radar fix at long range from land should
a. be used in preference to other methods.
655. The preferred method of radar position
fixing for greatest accuracy is :
a. taking a radar range and radar bearing
656. A useful aid to identifying land at long
range is :
c.That scanner is positioned too low
658. The use of radar ranges in preference to radar bearings for position fixingis
because :
a. they are more accurate
D. the calculation of distance to the radar horizon
65 If the highest part of the coast is not the
first target detected, the most likely
reason is :
69. 659. The best land target to use for radar
ranging is :
a. a small rock
660. The best land target to use for a radar bearing is :
a. a large headland
661. When choosing objects for position fixing by radar ranges you should, if
possible,
avoid :
a. small isolated features
662. A radar presentation feature which can
often be used to advantage for position
fixing is :
E. relative motion
663. Edges of land should be avoided if
possible when position fixing byradar
because of :
a. the effect of vertical beamwidth
664. The main component in the display unit is the:
a. scanner
70. 665. The main component of the transmitter is the:
a. Antenna / Magnetron
666. The unit which radiates the radar pulse is the:
d. transmitter
667. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?
d. Between 4 - 5 miles
668. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?
c. Now or passed / Between 11-20 minutes
669. What is this mark? (see figure)
b. Racon / Ramark
670. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?
b. Target A
671. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?
A. Yes
672. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the
minimum data required by IMO/IHO, to include all of the followingEXCEPT
32. Tidal currents
673. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include
C. Vector and raster
674. Raster-scan chart data is .
B. Organized into many separate files
675. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?
C. All of the above
676. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?
C. Ship hydrodynamic
information
677. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic
navigational chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the
ENC by appropriate means, and (3) the additional data added by the
mariner, is calledthe
71. B. System electronic navigational chart
678.When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a paper
chart, what Chart Datum should be selected?
A. Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart apply the stated corrections.
679.When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following
answers would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered
when deciding the courses to steer?
A. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic
density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits
680.When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following
answers would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered
when deciding the courses to steer?
A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances gained
by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits
681.The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on
ECDIS is the _.
33. Standard display information
682.The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS
display and consists of information which is required at all times in all
geographic areas and under all circumstances is the .
A. Display base information
683.Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot
should be supervised by:
A. A responsible Officer
684.Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or
river, when under pilot?