This document contains 100 multiple choice questions related to forensic medicine. It covers topics like qualifications of medical practitioners, consent, organ transplantation act, PNDT act, IPC code, inquest procedures, medical evidence rules, dying declarations, identification techniques, types of injuries, poisoning, burns, fractures, asphyxial deaths, and more. The questions are meant to test knowledge of various forensic medicine concepts and laws.

1. 100 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS in FM
By sai Raman .H
1.Medical qualifications awarded by institutions outside India
and recognized by MCI are registered in
A. First schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
B. Second Schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
C. Part I of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
D. Part II of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956

2. 2. A13-year-old boy attends the surgery without an adult
accompanying him. He has a sore throat. Legally, a general
practitioner must.
A. Examine and prescribe as appropriate.
B. Refuse to see him unless a responsible adult is present
C. Write to the present asking them to come to the surgery
D. Examine but not prescribe

3. 3.Following statement about consent is NOT true
A. Consent can only be valid if it is given by person who is
sane and has attained maturity i.e. 18 years of age
B. For sterilization of a married person, consent of both
spouse i.e. husband and wife is required
C. For artificial insemination, consent of patient alone is
required
D. In emergency situation, if no near relative is available,
doctors can perform procedure/ surgery necessary to save
life even without consent, provided that the procedure
intended is certified to be essential to save life of the patient
by two doctors

4. 4. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was
passed in
A.1994 B.1996 C. 2000 D.2002

5. 5. In PNDT Act, which one of the following is NOT a ground
for carrying out prenatal test:
A. Pregnant woman above 35 years of age
B. History of two or more spontaneous abortion or fetal
loss
C. When fetal heart rate is 160/min at fifth and 120/min
at ninth month
D. History of exposure to potentially teratogenic drugs

6. 6. IPC is :
A. Procedure for investigation
B. Code for punishement
C. Both
D. None

7. 7. A lady died due to unnatural death within seven years of
her marriage. The inquest in this case will be done by:
A. Forensic medicine expert
B. Deputy superintendent of police
C. Sub- divisional Magistrate
D. Coroner

8. 8. All are exempted from oral testimony, except:
A. Dying declaration
B. Medical evidence of injury as witness
C. Chemical examination report
D. Evidence of medical expert in lower court

9. 9. If a patient survives after having given dying declaration,
then it stands as:
A. No value
B. Valid for 48 hours
C. Corroborative evidence
D. None

10. 10. Dying deposition is more important than dying
declaration, because it is:
A. Made to a Magistrate
B. Oath is taken
C. Made in presence of the accused
D. Cross- examination is permitted

11. 11. A convict whose family or relations was not known and
no biological sample was available with jail authorities,
escaped from the jail. A dead body resembling the convict
was found in nearby forest, but due to mutilation of face,
identity could not be established. The positive identity that
he is the same convict who escaped from jail can be
established by:
A. Blood grouping B. DNA profile
C. Anthropometry D. HLA typing

12. 12. The fingerprint pattern may be impaired permanently in
case of:
A. Eczema B. Scalds
C. Scabies D. Leprosy

13. 13. Feature which distinguishes human hair from animal
hair:
A. Heavy continuous pigment in human hair
B. Medulla occupies more than half of shaft diameter
C. Medulla and cortex have equal diameter
D. Medulla is 1/3 or less of the shaft diameter

14. 14. The dead body of a murdered person is brought of
preservation in mortuary. Statement NOT correct is:
A. The body should be stored averagely at 4°C.
B. The body can be embalmed before postmortem.
C. The body should be never undressed before the
forensic doctor has seen it.
D. The body can be stored at -20°C to preserve it for
long duration.

15. 15. Last Structure to be autopsied in asphyxial death:
A. Head B. Thorax
C. Abdomen D. Neck

16. 16. Brain is preserved in all of the following, except:
A. OPC poisoning
B. Alkaloid poisoning
C. Heavy metal poisoning
D. Volatile organic poisoning

17. 17.Lung is NOT preserved in which poisoning:
A. HCN B. Chloroform
C. Organophosphate C. Kerosene

18. 19. Rectified spirit is NOT used as preservative in case of:
A. Phenol B. Cyanide
C. Insecticides D. Alphos

19. 19. Exhumation can be done in India:
A. After 7 years B. After 2 years
C. After 10 years D. At any time

20. 20. Molecular death is:
A. Complete and irreversible cessation of brain, heart and
lungs function
B. Death of individual tissues and cells after somatic death
C. Total loss of EEG Activity, but heart is functioning
D. Vitals functions are at low pitch that cannot be detected
by clinical examination

21. 21. All the following are found in brain dead patients,
except:
A. Decreased DTR (Deep Tendon Reflex)
B. Absent papillary reflexes
C. Complete apnea
D. Heart unresponsive to atropine

22. 22. All are tests associated with cessation of circulation,
except:
A. Winslow’s test B. Magnus test
C. Diaphanous test D. I – Card’s test

23. 23. The rate of cooling down of dead bodies in tropical
climate is:
A. 0.2°C/ h B. 0.5°C/ h
C. 1.5°C / h D. 2°C/ h

24. 24. Postmortem Caloricity is:
A. Increased temperature within 2 hours of death
B. Rapid fall in temperature after death
C. Increased temperature after 6-8 hours of death
D. Decrease in temperature followed by rise

25. 25. Statement NOT true about rigor mortis is:
A. Appears immediately after death
B. Affects both voluntary and involuntary muscles
C. Indicates time since death
D. Results from fusion of actin and myosin filaments

26. 26. Entomology of cadaver helps in finding:
A. Time since death B. Mode of death
C. Manner of death D. Identify the disease

27. 27. All are features of adipocere, except:
A. It consists of fatty acids
B. Takes place in bodies buried in shallow graves
C. Takes about 3 weeks to form
D. Bacterial enzymes are necessary for its formation

28. 28. Hangman’s fracture is:
A. Spondylolisthesis of C2 Over C3
B. Fracture of odontoid process
C. Fracture of transverse process
D. Dislocation of C5

29. 29. In fresh water drowning, the death occurs within 4-5
minutes of submersion due to ventricular fibrillation.
following reason is responsible for this:
A. Total asphyxia is produced due to fresh water
B. Laryngospasm causing vagal inhibition
C. Hemoconcentration of blood caused by the osmotic
pressure effect.
D. Hemodilution, overloading of heart and hemolysis
resulting in release of potassium

30. 30. Feature indicative of antemortem drowning:
A. Cutis anserine
B. Washerwoman’s feet
C. Grass and weeds grasped in hand
D. Rigor mortis

31. 31. Most common consistent feature after a child has been
taken out from pond and died from drowning is:
A. Water in lungs alveoli
B. Petechial hemorrhages
C. Washerwoman’s skin
D. Cyanosis

32. 32. Gettler’s test is used to diagnose death due to:
A. Hanging B. Strangulation
C. Burns D. Drowning

33. 33. Brush burns refers to:
A. Injury due to friction
B. Injury due to electrocution
C. Injury due to steam
D. Injury due to burns

34. 34. If there is bluish color of a bruise, then the age of injury
is:
A. 1 hour B. 2 days
C. 5-6 days D. 7-10 days

35. 35. Antemortem bruise is differentiated from postmortem
bruise by:
A. Well defined margin
B. Capillary rupture with extravasation of blood
C. Yellow color
D. Gaping

36. 36. Split laceration resembles:
A. Incised wound B. Abrasion
C. Gunshot wound D. Contusion

37. 37. Lacerated wound appears as incised wound in which of
the following sites:
A. Scalp and tibial shin
B. Anterior abdominal wall
C. Anterior thigh
D. Around the hip

38. 38. In an incised wound, all of the following are true,
except:
A. It has clean-cut margins
B. Bleeding is generally less than in lacerations
C. Tailing is often present
D. Length of injury does not correspond with length of
blade

39. 39. Tentative cuts are seen in a case of:
A. Homicide B. Suicide
C. Accident D. Fall from height

40. 40. A bullet which fails to leave the gun on firing, but is
ejected out with the subsequent shot is:
A. Dum-dum bullet B. Tandem bullet
C. Rocketed bullet D. Ricochet bullet

41. 41. The use of wadding in a smooth bore gun are all of the
following, except:
A. Seals the bore effectively
B. Helps in lubrication
C. Allows optimum pressure to develop
D. Causes fatal injuries

42. 42. Black gunpowder contains all of the following, except:
A. Potassium nitrate B. Lead peroxide
C. Charcoal D. Sulphur

43. 43. Stellate wound is produced with firearm in:
A. Contact shot
B. Close shot
C. Range within 60 cms
D. Distant shot

44. 44. In a gunshot wound, entrance wound with ragged margins
and surrounded by abrasion collar and soot particles,
distant is:
A. Few cm B. 20-40 cm
C. 1 metre D. 6 metres

45. 45. Gunshot injury in the skull, following are features,
except:
A. Entrance wound in beveled in the inner table
B. Entrance wound is beveled in the outer table
C. Exit wound is beveled in the outer table
D. Exit wound is clean cut in the inner table

46. 46. Gunshot residue on hands can be detected by:
A. Phenolphthalein test
B. Dermal nitrate test
C. Benzidine test
D. Hydrogen activation analysis

47. 47. Heat stroke is characterized by all, except:
A. High temperature B. High pulse
C. Fever D. Sweating

48. 48. All are the characteristic features of superficial burns,
except:
A. Damage no deeper than papillary dermis
B. Blisters seen
C. Loss of epidermis
D. Pinprick is not painful

49. 49. Burns involving head, face and trunk constitutes how
much percentage:
A. 45% B. 55%
C. 60% D. 65%

50. 50. Pugilistic attitude is due to:
A. Lipolysis
B. Protein coagulation
C. Carbohydrate coagulation
D. Lipogenesis

51. 51. Not true about fracture in burn:
A. Never crosses suture line
B. Usually located above the temples
C. Seen in the skull
D. Intracranial hematoma is not closely related to
fracture

52. 52. Joule burn is seen in:
A. Blast injuries B. Electrocution
C. Firearm wounds D. Lightning stroke

53. 53. Grievous injury includes all of the following, except:
A. Emasculation
B. Permanent privation of hearing
C. Privation of any member / joint
D. Disability to follow one’s ordinary pursuits for a period
of 1 week

54. 54. Simple fracture of terminal phalanx of the little finger:
A. Simple injury B. Grievous injury
C. Dangerous injury D. None

55. 55. Commonest site of fracture, leading to fat embolism is:
A. Tibia B. Femur
C. Humerus D. ulna

56. 56. NOT a feature of antemortem wounds:
A. Copious hemorrhage
B. Marks of spurting of blood are present
C. Wound edges are closely approximated
D. Leucocytic infiltration along the margin of the wound
with edema of wound margins

57. 57. Decompression sickness occurs:
A. Ascend low to high atmospheric level
B. Descend high to low atmospheric level
C. Ascend high to low atmospheric level
D. Causes oxygen toxicity

58. 58. Gallbladder in starvation death is:
A. Heart B. Kidney
C. Liver D. Brain

59. 59. The centre of ossification used as medico-legal
evidence for fetal viability:
A. Head of femur B. Distal end of femur
C. Greater trochanter D. Calcaneum

60. 60. Aseptic autolysis is seen in:
A. Adipocere B. Maceration
C. Putrefaction D. Mummification

61. 61. Spalding sign is seen in:
A. Maceration B. Mummification
C. Putrefaction D. Saponification

62. 62. Legal age by which fetus is capable of independent
existence is:
A. 240 days B. 230 days
C. 220 days D. 210 days

63. 63. ‘Vagitus uterinus’ is:
A. An infection of vagina
B. An infection of uterus
C. Cry of unborn baby from uterus
D. Infection of both vagina and uterus

64. 64. NOT associated with cephalhematoma :
A. Swelling is present at birth
B. Usually involves parietal and occipital bone
C. Bleeding is subperiosteal
D. Usually reabsorbed in 2-3 months

65. 65. Caput succedaneum in a newborn is:
A. Collection of blood under the pericranium
B. Collection of sero – sanguineous fluid in the scalp
C. Edema of the scalp due to grip of the forceps
D. Varicose veins in the scalp

66. 66. False negative hydrostatic test in live born:
A. Atelectasis B. Meconium aspiration
C. Emphysema D. Congenital heart disease

67. 67. All are true regarding sudden infant death syndrome,
except:
A. Mother taking narcotics
B. Congenital defect
C. Previous SIDS
D. Prematurity

68. 68. Munchausen syndrome by proxy is :
A. Factitious disorder B. Malingering
C. Hysteria D. Conversion disorder

69. 69. Permanent sterilization are all, except:
A. Electrocoagulation
B. Vasectomy
C. Tube ligation

70. 70. Statutory rape is:
A. Rape of an insane woman
B. Rape of another person’s wife
C. Rape in police custody
D. Rape < 16 years old girl

71. 71. When two objects come in contact, an exchange of
energy takes place. This is known as.
A. Galton exchange
B. Locard exchage principle
C. Bertillion system
D. Hasse rule

72. 72. Motile spermatozoa found in wet mount of vaginal
secretions are indicative of intercourse within the past:
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours

73. 73. Test for vaginal cells collected for investigation for rape:
A. Lugol’s iodine test
B. Acro-reaction test
C. Precipitin test
D. Berberio’s test

74. 74. Masochism means:
A. Sexual intercourse with dead body
B. Sexual pleasure by contact with articles of opposite
sex
C. Sexual pleasure by suffering of pain
D. Sexual pleasure by self-stimulation

75. 75.Eonism is
A. Desire to identify with the opposite sex
B. Intercourse with a lower animal
C. Female homosexualism
D. Obtaining sexual gratification by seeing naked bodies

76. 76. Transvestism is:
A. Wearing clothes of opposite sex
B. Touching one’s own private parts.
C. Desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies
D. Orgasm from seeing parts of the body of a woman

77. 77. Marsh test is used in diagnosis of poisoning due to:
A. Arsenic B. Lead
C. Iron D. Copper sulphate

78. 78. A middle aged man presented with paraesthesia of
hands and feet. Examination revealed presence of
‘Mees’ lines in the nails and raindrop pigmentation in the
hands. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Lead poisoning
B. Arsenic poisoning
C. Thallium poisoning
D. Mercury poisoning

79. 79. Fatty yellow liver is seen in poisoning with:
A. Arsenic B. Aconite
C. Oxalic acid D. Mercury

80. 80. Following are true regarding chronic mercury poisoning,
except:
A. Coarse tremor is seen
B. Brownish spot on anterior lens capsule
C. Fine tremor is seen
D. Inappropriate shyness and irritability

81. 81. Minamata Bay disease occurs in poisoning with:
A. Ergot B. Dhatura
C. Organophosphorous D. Mercury

82. 82. N- acetyl penicillamine is used in the treatment of
poisoning by:
A. Mercury B. Thallium
C. Cadmium C. Arsenic

83. 83. Copper sulphate poisoning manifests with:
A. Acute hemolysis
B. High anion gap acidosis
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Rhabdomyolysis

84. 84. A toxalbumin similar to viperine snake venom is present
in the seeds of:
A. Abrus precatorius B. Dhatura
C. Ergot D. Croton tiglium

85. 85. ‘Sui’ needle used to kill animals are made of:
A. Dhatura seeds B. Rati seeds
C. Lead peroxide D. Arsenic

86. 86. Toxic substance commonly used by washermen to put
marks on clothes:
A. Calotropis procera
B. Plumbago rosea
C. Semecarpus anacardium
D. Croton tiglium

87. 87. A 6-hour-old snakebite patient came to the emergency
with mild local edema at the injury site. Most appropriate
management:
A. Intravenous anti-snake venom
B. Incision and suction
C. Observe for progression of symptoms
D. Locally subcutaneous anti-snake venom

88. 88. Priapism occurs in:
A. Snakebite B. Rati poisoning
C. Cantharide poisoning D. Arsenic poisoning

89. 89. All are features of acute morphine poisoning, except:
A. Pin-point pupil
B. Hyperpyrexia
C. Fall in blood pressure
D. Slow labored breathing

90. 90. An overdose of narcotics causes all of the following,
except:
A. Dilated pupils B. Hypotension
C. Depressed reflexes D. Coma

91. 91. Marquis test is done for:
A. Mercury poisoning B. Arsenic poisoning
C. Morphine poisoning D. Cyanide poisoning

92. 92. A chronic alcoholic develops sudden palpitations after
alcohol binge. His pulse is irregularly irregular.
Arrhythmia most commonly associated with alcohol
binge in the alcoholics:
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Ventricular premature contractions
C. Atrial flutter
D. Atrial fibrillation

93. 93. Disulfiram:
A. Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
B. Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase
C. Both
D. None

94. 94. CAGE questionnaire is used in:
A. Alcohol dependence B. Opiate poisoning
C. Dhatura poisoning D. Barbiturate poisoning

95. 95. Delirium tremens is characterized by confusion
associated with:
A. Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors
B. Sixth nerve palsy
C. Features of intoxication due to alcohol
D. Korsakoff’s psychosis

96. 96. A 45-years-male with a history of alcohol dependence
presents with confusion, nystagmus and ataxia.
Examination reveals 6th cranial nerve weakness. He is
most likely to be suffering from:
A. Korsakoff’s psychosis
B. Wernicke encephalopathy
C. De Clerambault syndrome
D. Delirium tremens

97. 97. In methyl alcohol poisoning, there is CNS and cardiac
depression and optic nerve atrophy. These effects are
produced due to:
A. Formaldehyde and formic acid
B. Acetaldehyde
C. Pyridine
D. Acetic acid

98. 98. A Patient was brought with history of pyrexia,
contracted pupils, hypotension, cyanosis and stupor
progressing to coma. Most likely poisoning is:
A. Cannabis B. Dhatura
C. Phenobarbitone D. Diphenhydramine

99. 99. Urine appears ‘liquid gold’ in which poisoning:
A. Heavy metals B. Barbiturates
C. Organophosphorus D. Lead

100. 100. Alkalization of urine is done in which poisoning:
A. Barbiturates B. Amphetamine
C. Alcohol D. Cocaine

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