Exam 3 Content Review

BY 123 Content Review Exam Three

Question 1 A mother and father are phenotypically normal, but their child has an inherited metabolic disorder. What is the chance that their next child will have this disorder? 0 ½ ¾ ¼ 1

Question 2 What does the law of segregation say? What does the law of independent assortment say?

Question 3 If you have a single gene that affects more than one trait, this is an example of… polygenic inheritance epistasis pleiotropy nondisjunction a and c

Question 4 Distinguish between complete dominance, codominance, and incomplete dominance. What is the phenotypic ratio for each if I cross Tt x Tt?

Question 5 A plant that is true-breeding for a dominant trait is crossed with a plant that is true breeding for a recessive trait. The offspring plant is then allowed to self-pollinate. What is the phenotypic ratio of this new cross? 1:2:1 3:1 9:3:3:1 1:1 None of the above

Question 6 Cystic Fibrosis is caused by a defective allele that… causes hemoglobin molecules to malfunction encodes a dysfunctional enzyme that fails to break down brain lipids encodes a neurotoxin encodes an enzyme that breaks down muscle fibers none of the above

Question 7 A TTFF individual will produce ______ types of gametes, but a TtFf individual will produce ______ types of gametes. one, four four, one two, one three, two two, three

Question 8 Which of the following would be the first/fastest to allow us to get genetic information about the fetus? chorionic villus sampling amniocentesis ultrasound a or b a and c

Question 9 If my brother has thalassemia, but I don’t, and neither of our parents have thallassemia, what is the chance that I am a carrier of the disease? ¼ 1/3 ½ 2/3 ¾

Question 10 We do not know the genotype of one parent. Assume white is recessive to red(red= R, white = r). If a test cross is done with the unknown parent resulting in half red offspring and half white offspring, what is the genotype of the unknown parent? RR Rr rr any of these are possible a or c are possible

Question 11 If a species shows incomplete dominance for a single trait, the genotype and phenotype will be different equal indeterminant none of the above a and b

Question 12 If two tall parents give birth to a child with achondroplasia, it is most likely the result of… both parents passing a recessive gene both parent passing a dominant gene a new mutation new expression of a previously dormant gene none of the above

Question 13 What is the chance of having an offspring that has blood type A if the parents are type AB and O. ½ ¼ 1/3 None All will be A

Question 14 If the couple in question 13 (parents have type AB and O blood) had a second offspring what is the chance that it will have blood type A? ½ ¼ 1/3 0 1

Question 15 If 56 offspring are red-green, 456 are red-red, 44 are red-blue, and 444 are blue-blue; what is the recombination frequency? 15% 24% 20% 5% 10%

Question 16 If the cheek cells from an individual with Klinefelter’s were viewed under a microscope, the person would appear to be male female indeterminate a or c none of the above

Question 17 The chromosomes in mitochondria are most like the somatic chromosomes of the father the somatic chromosomes of the mother the chromosomes of a bacteria a and c b and c

Question 18 If my phenotypic ratio is 9:7 or 9:3:4 following the cross of BbCc x BbCc, which of the following is most likely happening? Codominance Complete dominance Epistasis Polygenic inheritance Incomplete dominance

Question 19 If a father has an x-linked recessive disorder, but the mother does not have the disease and is not a carrier, what is the possibility that a son will have this disorder? 100% 25% 50% 0% None of these

Question 20 Describe the following conditions and then classify all the following (autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, x-linked recessive, etc.): Color blindness Cystic fibrosis Huntington’s disease Polydactyly Albinism Duchenne muscular dystrophy Thalassemia Tay-Sachs disease

Question 21 Cells that have more than two complete sets of chromosomes are called…. aneuploid trisomy polyploid tetrasomy none of these

Question 22 If alleles are 5% recombinant, then they are _____ map units apart. 50 25 10 100 None of the above

Question 23 T/F The most common phenotype is referred to as the dominant type.

Question 24 In werewolves, pointy ears (P) are dominant over round ears (p). The gene is on the X chromosome. Werewolves use the same sex determining system as humans. A female werewolf has pointy ears even though her father has round ears. What percentage of her sons will have round ears if she marries a werewolf with round ears? 0% 25% 50% 75% 100%

Question 25 Okazaki fragments are eventually joined by DNA polymerase primase topoisomrase helicase None of the above

Question 27 If there is 23 % adenine in a double helix of DNA, how much cytosine is there? 23% 46% 27% 54% None of the above

Question 28 Which of the following statements is incorrect? double-stranded DNA is helical. DNA contains phosphodiester linkages. Double-stranded DNA has two complementary strands Adenine and uracil are present in equal amounts in double-stranded DNA. All are true.

Question 29 Which of these is the correct sequence of enzymes used in the synthesis of the lagging strand of DNA? primase, helicase, polymerase, ligase helicase, primase, ligase, polymerase helicase, primase, polymerase, ligase helicase, polymerase, primase, ligase ligase, primase, polymerase, helicase

Question 30 T/F The replication fork is also known as the origin of replication.

Question 31 In RNA, ______ are removed so that transcription can occur. introns exons errors a and c none of the above

Question 32 The codons AAA, CCC, GGG, and UUU specify the amino acids lysine, praline, glycine, and phenylalanine, respectively. Which of the following DNA sequences would specify the peptide pro-gly-lys-phe if present in the template strand? 3’-CCCGGGAAATTT-5’ 3’-CCCGGGAAAUUU-5’ 5’-GGGCCCUUUAAA-3’ 5’-GGGCCCTTTAAA-3’ None of these

Question 33 When a single base pair is either inserted or deleted from DNA it results in a ______. nonsense mutation frame-shift mutation inversion mutation translocation mutation missense mutation

Question 34 How many amino acids would be present in the polypeptide created from the mRNA sequence AUGCCCAUUGCUUGAGGGAUGUAA. 4 5 6 7 8

Question 35 The fact that GGU, GGC, GGA, and GGG all code for the same amino acid is a good example of transcription wobble nonsense codons a or c all of these

Question 36 Protein synthesis requires all of the following except ______. ribosomes mRNA tRNA amino acids endoplasmic reticulum

Question 37 The central dogma of genetics is DNA to amino acids to RNA DNA to transcription to RNA Protein to RNA to DNA DNA to RNA to Protein None of the above

Question 38 A group of 1200 nucleotides could code for _____ amino acids. 200 600 400 300 None of the above

Question 39 What is the proper order of these events? translation RNA processing transcription modification of protein 1,2,3,4 3,2,1,4 4,2,3,1 2,3,4,1 1,2,4,3

Question 40 T/F The poly-A tail binds to the small ribosomal subunit to allow the codons to be read from the proper starting point.

Question 41 The sex determining system where the female is heterozygous and the male is homozygous is referred to as the _____ system. ZW XY XO Haplo-diploid None of these

Question 42 Vampires can have a widows peak (W) or a continuous hairline(w), and can have red (r) or white eyes (R). Widows peak and red eyes are the most common. Cross a vampire that is homozygous for both wild types with a vampire that is heterozygous for both traits. How many offspring will be continuous hairline white eyes? None All 1 8 12

Question 43 Use the cross from number 42. How many offspring show traits for widows peak and white eyes? None All 1 8 12

Question 44 If a plant this is heterozygous for flower position and stem length (AaTt) self-pollinates, and 800 seeds are planted, how many plants should be Tall with Axial flowers? 450 150 50 100 None of the above

Question 45 A family of 15 people with genes for brown eyes only has 11 family members with brown eyes. What is the penetrance of brown eyes in this family? 27% 33% 92% 73% 12%

Question 46 Describe RNA processing in as much detail as Dr. Cusic did in lecture.

Question 47 If two parents are both carriers of an autosomalrecessive disease how likely is it that they would have a male offspring with the disease? ½ ¼ 1/3 2/3 None of the above

Question 48 If the P generation crosses a true breeding brown haired (B) person with a true breeding blond(b), what will the genotypic ration of the F2 generation be? 3:1 1:2:1 9:3:3:1 A or c None of these

Question 49 DNA replication is a: Dispersive process Conservative process Semi-conservative process

Question 50 Transcription is initiated when RNA polymerase binds to A promoter An initiator A transcriptor A codon None of the above

Question 51 The promoter sequence in eukaryotes is (included) in which of the following: TAATAA TATAAA TTGACA GTTAAA None of the above are correct

Question 52 The direct result of transcription is A duplicate DNA molecule nRNA A protein mRNA None of the above

Question 53 The direct result of translation is A duplicate DNA molecule nRNA A protein mRNA All of the above

Question 54 In messenger RNA, the nucleotide series UAG specifies Arginine Serine Start Stop Proline

Question 55 Base-pair substitutions involving the third base of a codon are unlikely to result in an error in the polypeptide. This is because: Substitutions are corrected before transcription begins. Substitutions are restricted to introns. The base-pairing rules are less strict for the third base of codons and anticodons. A signal-recognition particle corrects coding errors. Transcribed errors attract snRNPs, which then stimulate splicing and correction.

Question 56 The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is Complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon Complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA The part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid Changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to the tRNA Catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme

Question 57 If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trpoperon, then The amino acid inactivates the repressor The enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes The repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid The amino acid acts as a co-repressor The amino acid turns on transcription of the operon

Question 58 What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind the operator? Continuous transcription of the operon’s genes Reduced transcription of the operon’s genes Buildup of a substrate for the pathway controlled by the operon Irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter Overproduction of catabolite activator protein (CAP)

Question 59 In E. coli, tryptophan switches off the trpoperon by Inactivating the repressor protein Inactivating the gene for the first enzyme in the pathway by feedback inhibition Binding to the repressor and increasing the latter’s affinity for the operator Binding to the operator Binding to the promoter

Question 60 Inducible enzymes Are usually involved in anabolic pathways Are produced when a small molecule inactivates the repressor protein Are produced when an activator molecule enhances the attachment of RNA polymerase with the operator Are regulated by inherently inactive repressor molecules Are regulated almost entirely by feedback inhibition

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