This document contains 30 multiple choice questions about criminal law and procedure in the Philippines. It tests knowledge on topics like the different types of court records, rules around summary procedure, definitions of key terms like venue and trial, reasons for postponing trials, requirements for search warrants and probable cause determinations, when warrants are not necessary, pleas and arraignment procedures, and doctrines around illegally obtained evidence. It provides answers to each question in a multiple choice format.

1. QUESTION AND ANSWER IN
CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE
CRIMINAL PROCEDURE
SET 2
By: Charlemagne James P. Ramos

2. 1. What do you call the record of the court where the
proceedings of the court or the judgment of the court is
recorded in case the accused failed to appear for the
promulgation of judgment despite notice
A. Log book
B. Record book
C. Criminal docket book
D. Folio of the case.

3. 1. What do you call the record of the court where the
proceedings of the court or the judgment of the court is
recorded in case the accused failed to appear for the
promulgation of judgment despite notice
A. Log book
B. Record book
C. Criminal docket book
D. Folio of the case.

4. 2. Criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by law for
the offense charged does not exceed six months fall under
the rule on
A. Regular procedure
B. Summary procedure
C. Criminal procedure
D. Civil procedure

5. 2. Criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by law for
the offense charged does not exceed six months fall under
the rule on
A. Regular procedure
B. Summary procedure
C. Criminal procedure
D. Civil procedure

6. 3. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of
the court is to be exercised.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Trial courts
C. Venue
D. Territory

7. 3. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of
the court is to be exercised.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Trial courts
C. Venue
D. Territory

8. 4. It is the examination before a competent court or
tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the
facts in issue for the purpose of determining such
issue.
A. Pre – Trial
B. Arraignment
C. New Trial
D. Trial

9. 4. It is the examination before a competent court or
tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the
facts in issue for the purpose of determining such
issue.
A. Pre – Trial
B. Arraignment
C. New Trial
D. Trial

10. 5. If the accused appears to be suffering from an unsound
mental condition, which effectively renders him unable to
fully understand the charge against him to plead
intelligently.
A. The criminal charged must shall be dismissed
B. The arraignment shall be suspended
C. The trial shall be suspended
D. All of the foregoing

11. 5. If the accused appears to be suffering from an unsound
mental condition, which effectively renders him unable to
fully understand the charge against him to plead
intelligently.
A. The criminal charged must shall be dismissed
B. The arraignment shall be suspended
C. The trial shall be suspended
D. All of the foregoing

12. 6. The following are included as a reason for the
postponement of trial:
I. That the witness is really material to which the courts agrees
II. That no similar evidence could be obtained without negligence
on the party applying for postponement
III. That the court docket is full
IV. That the prosecutor is sick
A. I and II only C. I only
B. III only D. I,II,III,IV

13. 6. The following are included as a reason for the
postponement of trial:
I. That the witness is really material to which the courts agrees
II. That no similar evidence could be obtained without negligence
on the party applying for postponement
III. That the court docket is full
IV. That the prosecutor is sick
A. I and II only C. I only
B. III only D. I,II,III,IV

14. 7. In determining the probable cause, it is required that
A. The judge must examine the complaint and his
witnesses personally
B. The examination must be under oath
C. The examination must be in writing in the form of
searching questions and answers
D. All of the foregoing

15. 7. In determining the probable cause, it is required that
A. The judge must examine the complaint and his
witnesses personally
B. The examination must be under oath
C. The examination must be in writing in the form of
searching questions and answers
D. All of the foregoing

16. 8. The following are the requisites for the issuance of a
search warrant EXCEPT
A. It must be issued upon probable cause
B. The probable cause must be determined personally
by the judge
C. Particularly describing the place to be searched
D. Particularly describing the person to be seized

17. 8. The following are the requisites for the issuance of a
search warrant EXCEPT
A. It must be issued upon probable cause
B. The probable cause must be determined personally
by the judge
C. Particularly describing the place to be searched
D. Particularly describing the person to be seized

18. 9. The following statements are false, EXCEPT
A. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
B. The accused must personally enter his plea
C. The accused may excuse/waive arraignment
D. The accused may be arraigned in a court other than
where the case is assigned

19. 9. The following statements are false, EXCEPT
A. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
B. The accused must personally enter his plea
C. The accused may excuse/waive arraignment
D. The accused may be arraigned in a court other than
where the case is assigned

20. 10. It is the way or method fixed by law for the
apprehension and prosecution of persons suspected or
having committed a crime. It includes the imposition of
penalty in case of conviction. What is it?
A. Criminal procedure C. accusatorial system
B. Inquisitorial scheme D. civil code

21. 10. It is the way or method fixed by law for the
apprehension and prosecution of persons suspected or
having committed a crime. It includes the imposition of
penalty in case of conviction. What is it?
A. Criminal procedure C. accusatorial system
B. Inquisitorial scheme D. civil code

22. 11. Maybe defined as the security given for the release of
a person in custody of law, furnished by him or a
bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court
as required under the conditions herein specified.
A. Pardon
B. Bail
C. Probation
D. Parole

23. 11. Maybe defined as the security given for the release of
a person in custody of law, furnished by him or a
bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court
as required under the conditions herein specified.
A. Pardon
B. Bail
C. Probation
D. Parole

24. 12. In what instances is a warrant of arrest is not
necessary?
A. If the accused is already under detention
B. If the complaint or information was filed after
the accused was lawfully arrested without warrant
C. When the penalty is fine only
D. All of the Foregoing

25. 12. In what instances is a warrant of arrest is not
necessary?
A. If the accused is already under detention
B. If the complaint or information was filed after
the accused was lawfully arrested without warrant
C. When the penalty is fine only
D. All of the Foregoing

26. 13. One of the following is not included as a reason for
the postponement of trial.
I. That the witness is really material to which the courts
agrees
II. That no similar evidence could be obtained without
negligence on the party applying for postponement
III. That the court docket is full
A. I and II C. I and III
B. III only D. II only

27. 13. One of the following is not included as a reason for
the postponement of trial.
I. That the witness is really material to which the courts
agrees
II. That no similar evidence could be obtained without
negligence on the party applying for postponement
III. That the court docket is full
A. I and II C. I and III
B. III only D. II only

28. 14. When a court is satisfied, upon proof or oath,
that a material witness will not testify when
required, it may upon motion of either party order
the witness to __________
A. To be excused.
B. To post bail.
C. To be included in the information.
D. To be arrested.

29. 14. When a court is satisfied, upon proof or oath,
that a material witness will not testify when
required, it may upon motion of either party order
the witness to __________
A. To be excused.
B. To post bail.
C. To be included in the information.
D. To be arrested.

30. 15. During the pending of his case, X died due to
heart attack. His untimely death resulted in
A. Postponement of the case
B. Suspension of the case
C. Dismissal of the case
D. None of the above

31. 15. During the pending of his case, X died due to
heart attack. His untimely death resulted in
A. Postponement of the case
B. Suspension of the case
C. Dismissal of the case
D. None of the above

32. 16. It is defined as an accusation in writing charging
a person with an offense subscribed by the fiscal
and filed with the court.
A. Information
B. Complaint
C. Action
D. Police blotter

33. 16. It is defined as an accusation in writing charging
a person with an offense subscribed by the fiscal
and filed with the court.
A. Information
B. Complaint
C. Action
D. Police blotter

34. 17. Are search warrants by the courts of law
always issued in the name of the Philippines?
A. no C. possible
B. it depends D. yes

35. 17. Are search warrants by the courts of law
always issued in the name of the Philippines?
A. no C. possible
B. it depends D. yes

36. 18. The offender who is still undergoing preliminary
investigation at the prosecutor’s office is referred to
as
A. Respondent
B. Suspect
C. Accused
D. Defendant

37. 18. The offender who is still undergoing preliminary
investigation at the prosecutor’s office is referred to
as
A. Respondent
B. Suspect
C. Accused
D. Defendant

38. 19. In this jurisdiction, when two or more accused
are jointly charged with any offense, they shall be
tried jointly. Separate trial is _________
A. Within sound discretion of the court.
B. A constitutional requirement.
C. Statutory requirement.
D. Mandatory.

39. 19. In this jurisdiction, when two or more accused
are jointly charged with any offense, they shall be
tried jointly. Separate trial is _________
A. Within sound discretion of the court.
B. A constitutional requirement.
C. Statutory requirement.
D. Mandatory.

40. 20. After arraignment, the accused failed to appear
in the subsequent trial dates. The trial can proceed
even in the absence of the accused and such
situation is termed as what?
A. absent accused C. trial in absentia
B. escaped accused D. trial on merit

41. 20. After arraignment, the accused failed to appear
in the subsequent trial dates. The trial can proceed
even in the absence of the accused and such
situation is termed as what?
A. absent accused C. trial in absentia
B. escaped accused D. trial on merit

42. 21. What doctrine does not allow evidence
obtained by the police officers in an illegal searched
and seizures to be used against the accused?
A. Exclusionary doctrine
B. Miranda ruling
C. Fruit of poisonous tree
D. Silver plater

43. 21. What doctrine does not allow evidence
obtained by the police officers in an illegal searched
and seizures to be used against the accused?
A. Exclusionary doctrine
B. Miranda ruling
C. Fruit of poisonous tree
D. Silver plater

44. 22. In the preceding question what if it allows the
evidence obtained by the police officers in an illegal
searched and seizures to be used against the
accused?
A. Exclusionary doctrine
B. Miranda ruling
C. Fruit of poisonous tree
D. Silver plater

45. 22. In the preceding question what if it allows the
evidence obtained by the police officers in an illegal
searched and seizures to be used against the
accused?
A. Exclusionary doctrine
B. Miranda ruling
C. Fruit of poisonous tree
D. Silver plater

46. 23. To be state witness, one of the accused must
voluntarily execute a sworn statement in support of
his discharge. If the court denies the motion to
discharge said accused filed before the prosecution
rest its case, his sworn statement shall be as
_______________
A. Admissible in evidence.
B. Inadmissible evidence.
C. Admitted as material evidence.
D. Conditionally admitted as material evidence.

47. 23. To be state witness, one of the accused must
voluntarily execute a sworn statement in support of
his discharge. If the court denies the motion to
discharge said accused filed before the prosecution
rest its case, his sworn statement shall be as
_______________
A. Admissible in evidence.
B. Inadmissible evidence.
C. Admitted as material evidence.
D. Conditionally admitted as material evidence.

48. 24. Under our existing criminal procedure, who
automatically enter a plea of not guilty if the
accused refuse to plea?
A. prosecutor C. court
B. guardian D. defense lawyer

49. 24. Under our existing criminal procedure, who
automatically enter a plea of not guilty if the
accused refuse to plea?
A. prosecutor C. court
B. guardian D. defense lawyer

50. 25. In the preceding question, the on its own
initiative or automatic plea made is called as?
A. Motu proprio C. trial on merit
B. Non bis in idem D. De officio

51. 25. In the preceding question, the on its own
initiative or automatic plea made is called as?
A. Motu proprio C. trial on merit
B. Non bis in idem D. De officio

52. 26. The number of days the accused has to prepare
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered.
A. At least 30 days
B. At least 15 days
C. At least 20 days
D. At least 60 days

53. 26. The number of days the accused has to prepare
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered.
A. At least 30 days
B. At least 15 days
C. At least 20 days
D. At least 60 days

54. 27. In the preceding question, after the plea of guilty was
made the trial shall commence _________
A. Within 30 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
B. Within 45 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
C. Within 20 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
D. Within 15 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.

55. 27. In the preceding question, after the plea of guilty was
made the trial shall commence _________
A. Within 30 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
B. Within 45 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
C. Within 20 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
D. Within 15 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.

56. 28. Under the penal laws and jurisprudence, all criminal
prosecutions in the entire country shall be done by the
prosecutor. Is there an instant where a private lawyer hired
by the victim can prosecute a case even without the
presence of the public prosecutor? The answer is yes,
however, the said private lawyer shall secure written
authority from the city prosecutor to what?
A. Behave C. continue
B. Defend D. prosecute

57. 28. Under the penal laws and jurisprudence, all criminal
prosecutions in the entire country shall be done by the
prosecutor. Is there an instant where a private lawyer hired
by the victim can prosecute a case even without the
presence of the public prosecutor? The answer is yes,
however, the said private lawyer shall secure written
authority from the city prosecutor to what?
A. Behave C. continue
B. Defend D. prosecute

58. 29. This requirement imports the degree of proof
necessary to convict an accused of the crime of
treason consisting of the testimony of two witnesses
to the same over act.
A. Dangerous tendency rule
B. All of the foregoing
C. Two witness rule
D. None of the foregoing

59. 29. This requirement imports the degree of proof
necessary to convict an accused of the crime of
treason consisting of the testimony of two witnesses
to the same over act.
A. Dangerous tendency rule
B. All of the foregoing
C. Two witness rule
D. None of the foregoing

60. 30. The status of an essential witness whenever his
whereabouts are unknown or his whereabouts
cannot be determined by due diligence.
A. Unavailable
B. Absent
C. Hostile
D. Adverse

61. 30. The status of an essential witness whenever his
whereabouts are unknown or his whereabouts
cannot be determined by due diligence.
A. Unavailable
B. Absent
C. Hostile
D. Adverse

62. 31. In putting up self‐defense in criminal
prosecution, as prober, you have to determine the
existence of the most important element which is
what?
A. deliberate C. motive
B. actual killing D. unlawful aggression

63. 31. In putting up self‐defense in criminal
prosecution, as prober, you have to determine the
existence of the most important element which is
what?
A. deliberate C. motive
B. actual killing D. unlawful aggression

64. 32. One reason for the re‐opening of trial of a case.
A. The case is appealable
B. Newly discovered evidence
C. The appearance of an essential witness
D. To avoid miscarriage of justice upon motion and
with hearing

65. 32. One reason for the re‐opening of trial of a case.
A. The case is appealable
B. Newly discovered evidence
C. The appearance of an essential witness
D. To avoid miscarriage of justice upon motion and
with hearing

66. 33. Pre‐trail conference in criminal cases is
mandatory. One of the matters that should be taken
during the said proceeding is stipulation and
admission of facts. The purpose of entering into a
stipulation or admission of facts is to what?
A. Ensure justice and fair play
B. making sure of facts
C. expedite trial
D. corroborate either side party

67. 33. Pre‐trail conference in criminal cases is
mandatory. One of the matters that should be taken
during the said proceeding is stipulation and
admission of facts. The purpose of entering into a
stipulation or admission of facts is to what?
A. Ensure justice and fair play
B. making sure of facts
C. expedite trial
D. corroborate either side party

68. 34. The law that prescribes certain rights of a person
arrested, detained or under custodial investigation
and the guidelines, procedure and responsibilities of
the arresting, detaining and investigating officer is
A. B.P. 129, as amended
B. R.A 7691
C. R.A. 8294
D. R.A. 7438

69. 34. The law that prescribes certain rights of a person
arrested, detained or under custodial investigation
and the guidelines, procedure and responsibilities of
the arresting, detaining and investigating officer is
A. B.P. 129, as amended
B. R.A 7691
C. R.A. 8294
D. R.A. 7438

70. 35. After the prosecution has rested its case, the
accused file a motion to dismiss, with or without
leave of court; this rule is known as:
A. Bill of particulars
B. Demurrer to evidence
C. Summary proceeding
D. Motion to quash

71. 35. After the prosecution has rested its case, the
accused file a motion to dismiss, with or without
leave of court; this rule is known as:
A. Bill of particulars
B. Demurrer to evidence
C. Summary proceeding
D. Motion to quash

72. 36. The right to bail is a matter of right except when
the accused is charged with a capital offense and
the evidence of guilt is what?
A. enough C. divisible
B. strong D. determined

73. 36. The right to bail is a matter of right except when
the accused is charged with a capital offense and
the evidence of guilt is what?
A. enough C. divisible
B. strong D. determined

74. 37. The purpose of the habitual delinquency law is
to confine the prisoner for a longer period of time
for the purpose of protecting the?
A. Witnesses C. complaint
B. Victim D. society

75. 37. The purpose of the habitual delinquency law is
to confine the prisoner for a longer period of time
for the purpose of protecting the?
A. Witnesses C. complaint
B. Victim D. society

76. 38. The entire trial period should not exceed
______ from the first day of trial, except if
authorized by special law or by the SC circulars.
A. 120 days C. 90 days
B. 180 days D. 60 days

77. 38. The entire trial period should not exceed
______ from the first day of trial, except if
authorized by special law or by the SC circulars.
A. 120 days C. 90 days
B. 180 days D. 60 days

78. 39. In habeas corpus proceedings, any person may
apply for a writ on behalf of the aggrieved part. The
important issue in such a case is deprivation of
one’s?
A. Honor C. liberty
B. reputation D. property

79. 39. In habeas corpus proceedings, any person may
apply for a writ on behalf of the aggrieved part. The
important issue in such a case is deprivation of
one’s?
A. Honor C. liberty
B. reputation D. property

80. 40. Requisite before recall of a witness.
A. Leading Question
B. Misleading Question
C. Impeachment
D. Leave of Court

81. 40. Requisite before recall of a witness.
A. Leading Question
B. Misleading Question
C. Impeachment
D. Leave of Court

82. 41. What is this search warrant wherein it fails to
sufficiently specify the place or person to be
searched or things to be seized?
A. General C. alias
B. borderless D. major

83. 41. What is this search warrant wherein it fails to
sufficiently specify the place or person to be
searched or things to be seized?
A. General C. alias
B. borderless D. major

84. 42. As a general rule, the silence of the accused should
not prejudice him the following are exception:
I. If the prosecution has already established a prima facie
case
II. If the defense of the accused is an alibi
III. If the defense of the accused is self‐defense
A. I and II C. I only
B. II only D. III only

85. 42. As a general rule, the silence of the accused should
not prejudice him the following are exception:
I. If the prosecution has already established a prima facie
case
II. If the defense of the accused is an alibi
III. If the defense of the accused is self‐defense
A. I and II C. I only
B. II only D. III only

86. 43. When a person is lawfully arrested without a warrant of
arrest involving an offense, which requires a preliminary
investigation, the complaint or information may be filed
without need of such investigation, provided an _______ has
been conducted in accordance with existing law or
procedure
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Preliminary examination
C. Inquest proceeding
D. Fact finding investigation.

87. 43. When a person is lawfully arrested without a warrant of
arrest involving an offense, which requires a preliminary
investigation, the complaint or information may be filed
without need of such investigation, provided an _______ has
been conducted in accordance with existing law or
procedure
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Preliminary examination
C. Inquest proceeding
D. Fact finding investigation.

88. 44. Under the revised rule on summary procedure,
the filing of criminal cases falling within the scope of
that rule shall be either by complaint or what?
A. Indictment C. information
B. charge sheet D. None

89. 44. Under the revised rule on summary procedure,
the filing of criminal cases falling within the scope of
that rule shall be either by complaint or what?
A. Indictment C. information
B. charge sheet D. None

90. 45. After the prosecution rested its case, the accused filed a
demurrer to evidence. Would double jeopardy be a valid
defense if he charged again with the same offense against?
A. Yes, because the dismissal is tantamount to acquittal.
B. Yes, the case was not terminated on its own merits.
C. No, because the dismissal is with his consent or upon his
own motion.
D. No, The case was not terminated on its merits hence
double jeopardy is not a valid defense.

91. 45. After the prosecution rested its case, the accused filed a
demurrer to evidence. Would double jeopardy be a valid
defense if he charged again with the same offense against?
A. Yes, because the dismissal is tantamount to acquittal.
B. Yes, the case was not terminated on its own merits.
C. No, because the dismissal is with his consent or upon his
own motion.
D. No, The case was not terminated on its merits hence
double jeopardy is not a valid defense.

92. 46. If the accused refuses to plea the accusation
during arraignment, what will be the automatic plea
to be entered?
A. Denial C. waiver
B. not guilty D. guilty

93. 46. If the accused refuses to plea the accusation
during arraignment, what will be the automatic plea
to be entered?
A. Denial C. waiver
B. not guilty D. guilty

94. 47. The person, who is authorized by law to grant
probation to an accused convicted of a crime, is
A. President of the Philippines
B. Director of Prisons
C. Trial Court Judge
D. Jail Warden

95. 47. The person, who is authorized by law to grant
probation to an accused convicted of a crime, is
A. President of the Philippines
B. Director of Prisons
C. Trial Court Judge
D. Jail Warden

96. 48. When the judge directed the prosecutor to
‘qualify the witness’, what does it mean? Witness is?
A. To take an oath
B. An expert witness
C. Ready for trial
D. Due for cross examination

97. 48. When the judge directed the prosecutor to
‘qualify the witness’, what does it mean? Witness is?
A. To take an oath
B. An expert witness
C. Ready for trial
D. Due for cross examination

98. 49. At the hearing of an application for admission to
bail, the __________ has the burden of showing that
the evidence of guilt is strong.
A. Prosecution
B. Defense
C. Court
D. Bailiff

99. 49. At the hearing of an application for admission to
bail, the __________ has the burden of showing that
the evidence of guilt is strong.
A. Prosecution
B. Defense
C. Court
D. Bailiff

100. 50. The Judiciary Reorganization Act is otherwise
known as
A. PD 1612
B. BP 186
C. RA 7695
D. BP 129

101. 50. The Judiciary Reorganization Act is otherwise
known as
A. PD 1612
B. BP 186
C. RA 7695
D. BP 129

102. 51. It is the adjudication by the court that the
accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense
charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty
and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
A. Sentence C. Acquittal
B. Interlocutory D. Judgment

103. 51. It is the adjudication by the court that the
accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense
charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty
and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
A. Sentence C. Acquittal
B. Interlocutory D. Judgment

104. 52. If the motion to quash is based on an alleged
defect in the complaint/information, the court shall
order its?
A. Amendment C. accuracy
B. culpability D. particulars

105. 52. If the motion to quash is based on an alleged
defect in the complaint/information, the court shall
order its?
A. Amendment C. accuracy
B. culpability D. particulars

106. 53. In a judgment of acquittal, the court has
____________
I. Authority to reprimand
II. No authority to reprimand the accused
III. Authority to call a conference the counsels of the
prosecution and defense
A. I only C. II only
B. I and III D. III only

107. 53. In a judgment of acquittal, the court has
____________
I. Authority to reprimand
II. No authority to reprimand the accused
III. Authority to call a conference the counsels of the
prosecution and defense
A. I only C. II only
B. I and III D. III only

108. 54. Under the rules of court, the lifetime of a
search warrant is how many days from its
issuance?
A. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 8

109. 54. Under the rules of court, the lifetime of a
search warrant is how many days from its
issuance?
A. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 8

110. 55. In case of acquittal, the judgment shall make a finding
on the civil liability of the accused in favor of the offended
party, the following are exception:
I. The guilty party die before judgment.
II. The guilty party die after judgment.
III. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil
liability might arise did not exist.
IV. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil
liability might arise did exist.
A. I and III only C. I,II,III
B. I only only D. II and III only

111. 55. In case of acquittal, the judgment shall make a finding
on the civil liability of the accused in favor of the offended
party, the following are exception:
I. The guilty party die before judgment.
II. The guilty party die after judgment.
III. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil
liability might arise did not exist.
IV. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil
liability might arise did exist.
A. I and III only C. I,II,III
B. I only only D. II and III only

112. 56. The number of days the accused has to prepare
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered
A. Within 30 days
B. Within 45 days
C. Within 15 days
D. All of the above

113. 56. The number of days the accused has to prepare
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered
A. Within 30 days
B. Within 45 days
C. Within 15 days
D. All of the above

114. 57. The accused pleaded guilty when arraigned. However,
since the charge is a capital offense, the court directed the
prosecution to present its star witness. In the middle of the
testimony of the eyewitness, the accused changed his mind
and requested the trial court to allow him to change his plea
of ‘guilty’ to ‘not guilty’. Is it legal?
A. No
B. Yes
C. possible
D. it depends

115. 57. The accused pleaded guilty when arraigned. However,
since the charge is a capital offense, the court directed the
prosecution to present its star witness. In the middle of the
testimony of the eyewitness, the accused changed his mind
and requested the trial court to allow him to change his plea
of ‘guilty’ to ‘not guilty’. Is it legal?
A. No
B. Yes
C. possible
D. it depends

116. 58. In the preceding question the accused may
change only due to what?
A. Mistake of fact
B. Palpable mistake
C. Misapprehension of facts
D. Ignorance

117. 58. In the preceding question the accused may
change only due to what?
A. Mistake of fact
B. Palpable mistake
C. Misapprehension of facts
D. Ignorance

118. 59. A person designated to assist destitute litigants.
A. Counsel de parte
B. Attorney at law
C. Attorney on record
D. Counsel de officio

119. 59. A person designated to assist destitute litigants.
A. Counsel de parte
B. Attorney at law
C. Attorney on record
D. Counsel de officio

120. 60. What do you call the wooden hammer like
instrument being used by judges during hearings?
A. Gavel
B. shaver
C. swivel
D. mallet

121. 60. What do you call the wooden hammer like
instrument being used by judges during hearings?
A. Gavel
B. shaver
C. swivel
D. mallet

122. 61. What is the stage of the proceedings in court
where the plea bargaining, stipulation of facts,
markings of exhibits, etc are considered or
discussed?
A. Pre‐trial conference
B. Trial
C. Arraignment
D. Preliminary conference

123. 61. What is the stage of the proceedings in court
where the plea bargaining, stipulation of facts,
markings of exhibits, etc are considered or
discussed?
A. Pre‐trial conference
B. Trial
C. Arraignment
D. Preliminary conference

124. 62. When the evidence presented in court during
trial by the State and the accused are of equal
weight, which will prevail?
A. It depends
B. Accused
C. State
D. None

125. 62. When the evidence presented in court during
trial by the State and the accused are of equal
weight, which will prevail?
A. It depends
B. Accused
C. State
D. None

126. 63. At what time may the accused move to quash
the complaint or information?
A. At any time before his arrest
B. Only after entering his plea
C. At any time before entering his plea
D. All of the foregoing

127. 63. At what time may the accused move to quash
the complaint or information?
A. At any time before his arrest
B. Only after entering his plea
C. At any time before entering his plea
D. All of the foregoing

128. 64. The degree of proof required to establish the
crime is similar to that of establishing conspiracy and
that is proof beyond reasonable?
A. Necessity C. doubt
B. Motive D. fault

129. 64. The degree of proof required to establish the
crime is similar to that of establishing conspiracy and
that is proof beyond reasonable?
A. Necessity C. doubt
B. Motive D. fault

130. 65. The allegation in the complaint or information of
the place where the offense was committed
determines the:
A. Trial
B. Proceedings
C. Venue
D. Plea

131. 65. The allegation in the complaint or information of
the place where the offense was committed
determines the:
A. Trial
B. Proceedings
C. Venue
D. Plea

132. 66. A solemn and formal declaration or assertion
that the witness will tell the truth is called:
A. Statement
B. Promise
C. Affirmation
D. Declaration

133. 66. A solemn and formal declaration or assertion
that the witness will tell the truth is called:
A. Statement
B. Promise
C. Affirmation
D. Declaration

134. 67. It is concerned with the procedural steps through
which a criminal case passes, commencing with the initial
investigation of a crime and concluding with the
unconditional release of the offender.
A. Evidence
B. Criminal procedure
C. Criminal law
D. Crime

135. 67. It is concerned with the procedural steps through
which a criminal case passes, commencing with the initial
investigation of a crime and concluding with the
unconditional release of the offender.
A. Evidence
B. Criminal procedure
C. Criminal law
D. Crime

136. 68. It is a generic term used to describe the network
of laws and rules which govern the procedural
administration of criminal justice.
A. Evidence
B. Criminal procedure
C. Criminal law
D. Crime

137. 68. It is a generic term used to describe the network
of laws and rules which govern the procedural
administration of criminal justice.
A. Evidence
B. Criminal procedure
C. Criminal law
D. Crime

138. 69. It is the authority to hear and decide a particular
offense and impose punishment for it.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Criminal Jurisdiction
C. Police power
D. All of the above

139. 69. It is the authority to hear and decide a particular
offense and impose punishment for it.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Criminal Jurisdiction
C. Police power
D. All of the above

140. 70. It is the authority to hear and try a case.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Criminal Jurisdiction
C. Police power
D. All of the above

141. 70. It is the authority to hear and try a case.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Criminal Jurisdiction
C. Police power
D. All of the above

142. 71. judgment become final after the lapse of the
period for
A. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
B. Presentation of evidence by the defense
counsel
C. Perfecting an appeal
D. All of the foregoing

143. 71. judgment become final after the lapse of the
period for
A. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
B. Presentation of evidence by the defense
counsel
C. Perfecting an appeal
D. All of the foregoing

144. 72. In order for a court to validly exercise
jurisdiction the following must be present:
I. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
II. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
III. Jurisdiction over the territory
IV. Jurisdiction the case
A. I, II, III C. I and II
B. I and III D. I,II, III, IV

145. 72. In order for a court to validly exercise
jurisdiction the following must be present:
I. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
II. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
III. Jurisdiction over the territory
IV. Jurisdiction the case
A. I, II, III C. I and II
B. I and III D. I,II, III, IV

146. 73. _______ are cases of the general class where the
proceedings in question belong as determined by the
nature of the offense and the penalty imposed by
law.
A. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
B. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
C. Jurisdiction over the territory
D. Jurisdiction the case

147. 73. _______ are cases of the general class where the
proceedings in question belong as determined by the
nature of the offense and the penalty imposed by
law.
A. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
B. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
C. Jurisdiction over the territory
D. Jurisdiction the case

148. 74. ________ is the geographical limits of the
territory over which the court presides and where
the offense was committed.
A. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
B. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
C. Jurisdiction over the territory
D. Jurisdiction the case

149. 74. ________ is the geographical limits of the
territory over which the court presides and where
the offense was committed.
A. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
B. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
C. Jurisdiction over the territory
D. Jurisdiction the case

150. 75. ________ is acquired thru arrest (with warrant or
warrantless) or by voluntary surrender.
A. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
B. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
C. Jurisdiction over the territory
D. Jurisdiction the case

151. 75. ________ is acquired thru arrest (with warrant or
warrantless) or by voluntary surrender.
A. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
B. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
C. Jurisdiction over the territory
D. Jurisdiction the case

152. 76. A complaint is one which:
A. Is a sworn written statement charging a person with
an offense
B. Is Executed and Subscribed by the Offended Party, Any
peace officer, or Other public officer charged with the
enforcement of the law violated.
C. Is may be filed in the Prosecutors office or directly to
the court
D. All of the above

153. 76. A complaint is one which:
A. Is a sworn written statement charging a person with
an offense
B. Is Executed and Subscribed by the Offended Party, Any
peace officer, or Other public officer charged with the
enforcement of the law violated.
C. Is may be filed in the Prosecutors office or directly to
the court
D. All of the above

154. 77. Any lawyer or members of the bar shall, at the request
of the person arrested or of another acting in his behalf,
have the right to visit and confer privately with such
person, in jail or any other place of custody at
A. Any hour of the working day only
B. Any hour of the day or, in urgent cases, of the night
C. Any hour of Saturdays and Sundays
D. Any hour of the designated visiting day only

155. 77. Any lawyer or members of the bar shall, at the request
of the person arrested or of another acting in his behalf,
have the right to visit and confer privately with such
person, in jail or any other place of custody at
A. Any hour of the working day only
B. Any hour of the day or, in urgent cases, of the night
C. Any hour of Saturdays and Sundays
D. Any hour of the designated visiting day only

156. 78. A complaint is subscribed and executed by the
following:
A. Offended Party
B. Any peace officer
C. Other public officer charged with the
enforcement of the law violated.
D. All of the above

157. 78. A complaint is subscribed and executed by the
following:
A. Offended Party
B. Any peace officer
C. Other public officer charged with the
enforcement of the law violated.
D. All of the above

158. 79. An information is one which:
A. Is an accusation in writing
B. Is subscribed by the Prosecutor
C. Is filed with the court
D. All of the above

159. 79. An information is one which:
A. Is an accusation in writing
B. Is subscribed by the Prosecutor
C. Is filed with the court
D. All of the above

160. 80. A complaint and information are both
_________
A. In writing
B. In the name of the People of the Philippines
C. Directed against all persons who appear to be
responsible for the offense involved
D. All of the above

161. 80. A complaint and information are both
_________
A. In writing
B. In the name of the People of the Philippines
C. Directed against all persons who appear to be
responsible for the offense involved
D. All of the above

162. 81. Refers to the family history or descendant
transmitted from one generation to another.
A. Pedigree
B. Reputation
C. Privies
D. None of the above

163. 81. Refers to the family history or descendant
transmitted from one generation to another.
A. Pedigree
B. Reputation
C. Privies
D. None of the above

164. 82. The complaint or information should state the
following EXCEPT
A. Name of the offended party
B. The designation of the offense by the state
C. Name of the accused
D. Name of the court

165. 82. The complaint or information should state the
following EXCEPT
A. Name of the offended party
B. The designation of the offense by the state
C. Name of the accused
D. Name of the court

166. 83. A complaint or information is sufficient in form if it
states the following:
I. The Name of the accused
II. The Designation of the offense given by the statute
III. The Acts or omissions complained of as constituting the
offense
IV. The Name of the offended party
V. The Approximate date of the commission of the offense
VI. The Place where the offense was committed.
A. I,II,III,IV,V,VI C. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III,IV,V D. I,II,III

167. 83. A complaint or information is sufficient in form if it
states the following:
I. The Name of the accused
II. The Designation of the offense given by the statute
III. The Acts or omissions complained of as constituting the
offense
IV. The Name of the offended party
V. The Approximate date of the commission of the offense
VI. The Place where the offense was committed.
A. I,II,III,IV,V,VI C. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III,IV,V D. I,II,III

168. 84. The following are elements of complaint or
information :
I. Formal elements
II. Substantive elements
III. Designation elements
A. I and II only C. I only
B. I, II, III D. II only

169. 84. The following are elements of complaint or
information :
I. Formal elements
II. Substantive elements
III. Designation elements
A. I and II only C. I only
B. I, II, III D. II only

170. 85. A complaint or information is sufficient in
substance if it does contain any of the defects which
is a ground for a motion to quash. This statement is.
A. Correct C. incorrect
B. Partially correct D. It depends

171. 85. A complaint or information is sufficient in
substance if it does contain any of the defects which
is a ground for a motion to quash. This statement is.
A. Correct C. incorrect
B. Partially correct D. It depends

172. 86. What administrative matter was the Revised Rules of
Criminal Procedure promulgated by the Supreme Court of
the Philippines as part of the rules of court?
A. A.M. No. 00‐05‐03‐SC
B. A.M. No. 02‐2‐07‐SC
C. A.M. No. 05‐8‐26‐SC
D. B.P. 129

173. 86. What administrative matter was the Revised Rules of
Criminal Procedure promulgated by the Supreme Court of
the Philippines as part of the rules of court?
A. A.M. No. 00‐05‐03‐SC
B. A.M. No. 02‐2‐07‐SC
C. A.M. No. 05‐8‐26‐SC
D. B.P. 129

174. 87. In the preceding number on what date it was
promulgated?
A. December 1, 2000
B. December 8, 2001
C. December 1, 2001
D. December 2, 2000

175. 87. In the preceding number on what date it was
promulgated?
A. December 1, 2000
B. December 8, 2001
C. December 1, 2001
D. December 2, 2000

176. 88. It refers to the final determination by a Court of
competent jurisdiction of the issues submitted to in a
case such that after it is issued, the case ends if the
losing party does not appeal.
A. Interlocutory order
B. Summons
C. Subpoena
D. Judgment

177. 88. It refers to the final determination by a Court of
competent jurisdiction of the issues submitted to in a
case such that after it is issued, the case ends if the
losing party does not appeal.
A. Interlocutory order
B. Summons
C. Subpoena
D. Judgment

178. 89. It is a doctrine usually applied where the police
officers is not searching for evidence against the
accused but nonetheless inadvertently come across
incriminating objects.
A. Waiver or consented search
B. Stop and frisk
C. In flagrante delicto
D. Plain view

179. 89. It is a doctrine usually applied where the police
officers is not searching for evidence against the
accused but nonetheless inadvertently come across
incriminating objects.
A. Waiver or consented search
B. Stop and frisk
C. In flagrante delicto
D. Plain view

180. 90. The following are the requisites of an information
except
A. It must be filed by the offended party
B. It must charge the person with an offense
C. It must be subscribed by the prosecutor
D. It must be in writing

181. 90. The following are the requisites of an information
except
A. It must be filed by the offended party
B. It must charge the person with an offense
C. It must be subscribed by the prosecutor
D. It must be in writing

182. 91. What if the offended party is a corporation,
how do you indicate it in the complaint or
information?
A. Leave it blank
B. State the name of the corporation
C. Aver it in the charge sheet
D. State the name of the owner of the corporation
and the member who are guilty

183. 91. What if the offended party is a corporation,
how do you indicate it in the complaint or
information?
A. Leave it blank
B. State the name of the corporation
C. Aver it in the charge sheet
D. State the name of the owner of the corporation
and the member who are guilty

184. 92. What is the order of reverse trial?
A. Prosecution‐Defense‐Rebuttal‐Submission for
decision
B. Rebuttal‐Defense‐Prosecution‐Submission for
decision
C. Defense‐Prosecution‐Rebuttal‐Submission for
decision
D. Submission for decision‐Rebuttal‐Prosecution‐
Defense

185. 92. What is the order of reverse trial?
A. Prosecution‐Defense‐Rebuttal‐Submission for
decision
B. Rebuttal‐Defense‐Prosecution‐Submission for
decision
C. Defense‐Prosecution‐Rebuttal‐Submission for
decision
D. Submission for decision‐Rebuttal‐Prosecution‐
Defense

186. 93. After the cross examination of the witness, what
is the next procedure?
A. Direct examination
B. Re‐direct examination
C. Cross examination
D. Re‐cross examination

187. 93. After the cross examination of the witness, what
is the next procedure?
A. Direct examination
B. Re‐direct examination
C. Cross examination
D. Re‐cross examination

188. 94. In the preceding question, what if the offender is
the corporation how do you indicate it in the
complaint or information?
A. Leave it blank
B. State the name of the corporation
C. Aver it in the charge sheet
D. State the name of the owner of the corporation
and the member who are guilty

189. 94. In the preceding question, what if the offender is
the corporation how do you indicate it in the
complaint or information?
A. Leave it blank
B. State the name of the corporation
C. Aver it in the charge sheet
D. State the name of the owner of the corporation
and the member who are guilty

190. 95. Offenses involving criminal negligence where
the penalty of fines does not exceed a fine of
P10,000.00 is within the coverage of this rule.
A. Regular procedure
B. Ordinary procedure
C. Summary procedure
D. Any of the following

191. 95. Offenses involving criminal negligence where
the penalty of fines does not exceed a fine of
P10,000.00 is within the coverage of this rule.
A. Regular procedure
B. Ordinary procedure
C. Summary procedure
D. Any of the following

192. 96. The personal evaluation of the judge after the
filing of a case in court for the purpose of
determining the existence of a probable cause for
the issuance of a warrant of arrest.
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Preliminary examination
C. Criminal investigation
D. Inquest proceeding

193. 96. The personal evaluation of the judge after the
filing of a case in court for the purpose of
determining the existence of a probable cause for
the issuance of a warrant of arrest.
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Preliminary examination
C. Criminal investigation
D. Inquest proceeding

194. 97. The pre‐marking of evidence of the parties for
identification purposes are supposed to be made
during this stage of the proceedings
A. Arraignment
B. Trial proper
C. Pre‐trial conference
D. Direct examination

195. 97. The pre‐marking of evidence of the parties for
identification purposes are supposed to be made
during this stage of the proceedings
A. Arraignment
B. Trial proper
C. Pre‐trial conference
D. Direct examination

196. 98. An extra‐judicial confession made by an accused
shall not be sufficient and admissible unless it is in
A. Writing
B. Voluntarily given
C. Presence of his counsel
D. All of these

197. 98. An extra‐judicial confession made by an accused
shall not be sufficient and admissible unless it is in
A. Writing
B. Voluntarily given
C. Presence of his counsel
D. All of these

198. 99. Criminal actions requires preliminary
investigation by the proper officers where the
prescribed penalty at least
A. 6 months and 2 days
B. 4 years 2 months and 1 day
C. 6 years 2 months and 1 day
D. 4 years and 1 day

199. 99. Criminal actions requires preliminary
investigation by the proper officers where the
prescribed penalty at least
A. 6 months and 2 days
B. 4 years 2 months and 1 day
C. 6 years 2 months and 1 day
D. 4 years and 1 day

200. 100.An application for a search warrant can be made
in any court of the Philippines which has jurisdiction
over the subject matter
A. Wholly true
B. Partly true
C. Wholly false
D. Partly false

201. 100.An application for a search warrant can be made
in any court of the Philippines which has jurisdiction
over the subject matter
A. Wholly true
B. Partly true
C. Wholly false
D. Partly false

202. *** END ***
“REPETITION IS THE KEY ON MEMORIZING”.