The document is a review test for pre-midwifery licensure examination that contains 100 multiple choice questions covering topics related to care of infants and children. It provides instructions for taking the test, sample questions with answers, and covers topics like nutrition, infections, rheumatic fever, haemophilia, and conditions like Hirschprung's disease and congenital heart failure. The test is intended to help nurses prepare for their licensure exam through reviewing essential content on maternal and child health.
Focus charting describes documenting from the patient's perspective by focusing on their current status, progress towards goals, and response to interventions. It brings the focus back to the patient's concerns using a focus column that incorporates aspects of patient care instead of a problem list. The narrative portion of focus charting includes documenting Data, Action, and Response (DAR) to provide a holistic emphasis on the patient and their priorities.
The 11 areas of nursing responsibility.
1. Safe quality nursing care
2. Management of Resources and Environment
3. Health Education
4. Legal Responsibility
5. Ethico-moral Responsibility
6. Personal and Professional Development
7. Quality improvement
8. Research
9. Records Management
10. Communication
11. Collaboration and Teamwork
The document discusses the key concepts of community health nursing including defining a community, health, and nursing; it describes the focus, clients, scope, and skills of community health nursing; and it explains the nursing process used in community health nursing from assessment of communities, families, and individuals to planning, implementation, and evaluation of care.
The document defines focus charting as a systematic method for organizing health information using nursing terminology to describe a patient's health status and care. It involves focusing on key concerns from the care plan like skin integrity or activity tolerance. A focus note includes subjective and objective data supporting the focus, nursing interventions, and the patient's response. An example focus note addresses a patient's pain by documenting their complaint, administering medication, repositioning the patient, and noting their improved pain level in response.
Community health nursing examination part i answer keyryanmejia
This document provides an answer key for a community health nursing examination covering topics like epidemiology, vital statistics, and health education. It contains multiple choice questions testing knowledge of these topics, including questions about epidemiological investigations, calculating health statistics like mortality rates, and functions related to reporting vital events. The key aims to evaluate understanding of epidemiological and statistical tools used in community health nursing.
A 30-year-old woman, G1P0, was brought to the labor room in active labor. She underwent an episiotomy and spontaneously delivered a baby boy at 9:00 PM, who had APGAR scores of 8 and 9. Some parts of the placenta were missing, causing postpartum bleeding, so an episiorrhaphy was performed. The mother and newborn were given post-delivery care instructions and medications before being transferred to the postpartum care unit, where the mother had a well-contracted uterus and minimal bleeding.
The document describes Focus-Data-Action-Response (F-DAR) charting, which organizes health information in a patient's record with three columns: Date/Hour, Focus, and Progress Notes. The Progress Notes column contains three sections - Data (assessment findings), Action (nursing care provided), and Response (patient outcomes). Several examples of completed F-DAR charts are provided addressing issues like pain, fever, risk of infection, nausea, and more. F-DAR charting aims to make the patient and their concerns the focus of care through systematic documentation of assessments, interventions, and responses.
1) The document is a learning feedback diary from a nursing student named Edmar Erick R. Guitto during their clinical rotation at Holy Infant Hospital.
2) The student's objectives were to familiarize themselves with the hospital setting, establish rapport with clients, maintain good relationships with staff and instructors, and provide total client care while developing their nursing skills.
3) The student found their clinical instructor engaging and learned some important nursing concepts. They were challenged by their preliminary grades but aim to improve during their rotation.
Focus charting describes documenting from the patient's perspective by focusing on their current status, progress towards goals, and response to interventions. It brings the focus back to the patient's concerns using a focus column that incorporates aspects of patient care instead of a problem list. The narrative portion of focus charting includes documenting Data, Action, and Response (DAR) to provide a holistic emphasis on the patient and their priorities.
The 11 areas of nursing responsibility.
1. Safe quality nursing care
2. Management of Resources and Environment
3. Health Education
4. Legal Responsibility
5. Ethico-moral Responsibility
6. Personal and Professional Development
7. Quality improvement
8. Research
9. Records Management
10. Communication
11. Collaboration and Teamwork
The document discusses the key concepts of community health nursing including defining a community, health, and nursing; it describes the focus, clients, scope, and skills of community health nursing; and it explains the nursing process used in community health nursing from assessment of communities, families, and individuals to planning, implementation, and evaluation of care.
The document defines focus charting as a systematic method for organizing health information using nursing terminology to describe a patient's health status and care. It involves focusing on key concerns from the care plan like skin integrity or activity tolerance. A focus note includes subjective and objective data supporting the focus, nursing interventions, and the patient's response. An example focus note addresses a patient's pain by documenting their complaint, administering medication, repositioning the patient, and noting their improved pain level in response.
Community health nursing examination part i answer keyryanmejia
This document provides an answer key for a community health nursing examination covering topics like epidemiology, vital statistics, and health education. It contains multiple choice questions testing knowledge of these topics, including questions about epidemiological investigations, calculating health statistics like mortality rates, and functions related to reporting vital events. The key aims to evaluate understanding of epidemiological and statistical tools used in community health nursing.
A 30-year-old woman, G1P0, was brought to the labor room in active labor. She underwent an episiotomy and spontaneously delivered a baby boy at 9:00 PM, who had APGAR scores of 8 and 9. Some parts of the placenta were missing, causing postpartum bleeding, so an episiorrhaphy was performed. The mother and newborn were given post-delivery care instructions and medications before being transferred to the postpartum care unit, where the mother had a well-contracted uterus and minimal bleeding.
The document describes Focus-Data-Action-Response (F-DAR) charting, which organizes health information in a patient's record with three columns: Date/Hour, Focus, and Progress Notes. The Progress Notes column contains three sections - Data (assessment findings), Action (nursing care provided), and Response (patient outcomes). Several examples of completed F-DAR charts are provided addressing issues like pain, fever, risk of infection, nausea, and more. F-DAR charting aims to make the patient and their concerns the focus of care through systematic documentation of assessments, interventions, and responses.
1) The document is a learning feedback diary from a nursing student named Edmar Erick R. Guitto during their clinical rotation at Holy Infant Hospital.
2) The student's objectives were to familiarize themselves with the hospital setting, establish rapport with clients, maintain good relationships with staff and instructors, and provide total client care while developing their nursing skills.
3) The student found their clinical instructor engaging and learned some important nursing concepts. They were challenged by their preliminary grades but aim to improve during their rotation.
Drug study- Paracetamol and Cefuroxime NaMj Hernandez
Paracetamol is used for mild pain or fever. It works by blocking pain impulses and inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. The dosage is 250/5ml every 4 hours for children, with a maximum of 5 doses in 24 hours. Nurses should advise not using it for marked or prolonged fever without a prescriber's direction.
Cefuroxime is a second-generation cephalosporin used for respiratory, urinary, and skin infections. It works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis. The dosage is 500mg every 8 hours. It is contraindicated in those with hypersensitivity to it or other cephalosporins, and should be used cautiously in those with penicillin aller
Community Organizing Participatory Action ResearchKriszy Torio
COPAR is a community development approach that aims to transform apathetic communities by promoting participation, empowerment, and addressing exploitation through collective action. It involves mobilizing communities to identify their needs and take sustained action to improve their conditions through participatory and experiential learning processes. The COPAR method includes phases of entry, organizing, sustaining participation, and eventually transitioning control to community organizations.
The document summarizes a case presentation by BSN level III nursing students. It describes the objectives of demonstrating knowledge of a patient's diagnosis, disease process, complications, treatment plan, and nursing interventions. It then outlines the specific program, which involved students presenting thorough assessments and understanding pathophysiology, drug therapy, contributing factors, and formulating appropriate nursing care plans. The summary describes the student groups presenting cases involving various conditions like CVA, hyperthyroidism, heart failure, and gallstones. The panelists provided feedback and advice to help students improve their analysis and presentations.
The document discusses perioperative nursing, which describes the nursing care provided during the surgical experience. It is divided into three phases: preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative.
The preoperative phase extends from admission to the surgical unit until being transported to the operating room. The intraoperative phase is from admission to the OR until being transported to the recovery room. The postoperative phase is from the recovery room until follow-up care.
The document also discusses the goals, assessments, screening tests, and interventions of the preoperative phase, including addressing patient fears and obtaining informed consent.
This document provides an overview of various laws and regulations affecting the practice of nursing in the Philippines. It lists presidential decrees, administrative orders, department circulars, executive orders, house bills, presidential proclamations, letters of instruction, republic acts, board of nursing resolutions, and relevant aspects of the 1987 Philippine Constitution. The document was prepared by Mark Fredderick R. Abejo R.N, M.A.N and covers a wide range of topics including healthcare staffing ratios, immunization requirements, healthcare rights, and ethics standards for nurses.
History of nursing informatics in the philippinesshakiamarie
Nursing informatics is a relatively new field in the Philippines that follows the development of biomedical informatics. Some key events in its history include the Philippine Nurses Association participating in developing health information standards in 1999, the launch of a health informatics master's program in 2005, and the formation of the Philippine Nursing Informatics Association in 2010. Nursing informatics aims to help nurses keep up with increasing use of technology in healthcare, but faces challenges in customizing international curriculum to local needs and gaining recognition as a specialty.
The document defines family and discusses the Filipino family structure. It provides definitions of family from various sources that emphasize family as a basic social unit shaped by society. It then outlines sections from the Philippine Constitution regarding the state's recognition and protection of family. The rest of the document discusses characteristics of the Filipino family including bilateral kinship and family types, roles, and stages of development. It also examines theoretical approaches to understanding the family, including developmental, structural-functional, and systems models.
The document describes a patient's activities of daily living before and during hospitalization. It discusses the patient's health perceptions, nutritional patterns, elimination patterns, activity levels, sleep patterns, cognitive functioning, self-concept, family roles, stress coping mechanisms, sexual history, and religious beliefs. The patient viewed himself as healthy but able to work, but now in the hospital feels less healthy. His routines have changed in the hospital, including following the hospital diet and engaging in limited physical activity. He is oriented but experiences confusion during seizure attacks. He views hospitalization positively and is well-supported by his family.
The document provides a course syllabus for Competency Appraisal II at Eastern Samar State University College of Nursing. The course aims to apply the nursing process and core competencies in caring for individuals, families, and communities. Over 90 hours, students will learn through lectures, discussions, and nursing simulations. Simulations will integrate nursing process, levels of care, and prevention for individuals with cellular abnormalities, behavioral issues, emergencies, and more. Students will also develop competencies in leadership, resource management, documentation, collaboration, quality improvement, ethics, and research through various clinical setting scenarios. Upon completion, students will be able to provide holistic nursing care and demonstrate competencies across all areas of responsibility.
Mr. Aproniano Castro, a 56-year-old Filipino jeepney driver, was admitted to the hospital for cholecystitis with multiple gallstones. He experiences symptoms like severe abdominal pain, weight loss, and jaundice. His medical history includes thyroidectomy and asthma. Diagnostic tests show elevated white blood cell count indicating infection. He is scheduled for cholecystectomy to remove his inflamed gallbladder. Pre-operative nursing care focuses on managing his pain and risk of dehydration from vomiting.
The document contains multiple sections from nursing notes on different patients. It includes assessments of patients' symptoms and concerns, nursing diagnoses, objectives for interventions, details of interventions provided and their rationales, and evaluations of outcomes. Key information includes patients presenting with anxiety about their health, pain, knowledge deficits, and weight gain related to changes in diet. Nurses addressed these issues through monitoring, education, and lifestyle counseling aimed at reducing anxiety and pain levels, increasing knowledge, and identifying unhealthy eating habits within 8 hours of interventions.
This document describes Gordon's 11 Functional Health Patterns, which are used to organize client health data. The patterns include health perception/management, nutritional-metabolic, elimination, activity-exercise, cognitive-perceptual, sleep-rest, self-perception, role-relationship, sexuality-reproductive, coping/stress tolerance, and values-beliefs. Each pattern describes an area of client health and provides examples of related data that would be assessed.
COPAR (Community Organizing Participatory Action Research) is an approach to community development that aims to transform apathetic communities into active, participatory communities through collective action. It is a sustained process of raising awareness, identifying community needs and objectives, taking action to address immediate issues, and developing cooperative attitudes. The COPAR process involves progressive cycles of action, reflection on outcomes, and further informed action. It is participatory, group-centered, and biased towards empowering the poor and marginalized.
This document outlines a lecture on disaster nursing. It begins with an introduction that defines key terms like disaster and discusses types of natural disasters. It then covers topics like patterns of mortality and injury from disasters, the phases of disaster response, and the roles and responsibilities of nurses during disasters. The document emphasizes that nurses are on the frontlines during disasters but receive little disaster-related training. It promotes developing a online "Supercourse" to educate nurses worldwide on disaster nursing concepts and preparedness. The overall goal is to build global awareness of the importance of disaster nursing.
This document provides an overview of basic surgical instruments categorized into four groups: retracting and exposing instruments, cutting and dissecting instruments, clamping and occluding instruments, and grasping and holding instruments. Specific instruments are described within each category, including their names, intended uses, and key features. Common instruments include retractors, scalpels, scissors, forceps, and needle holders. The document serves as a reference for identifying and understanding basic tools used in surgery.
Typology of nursing problems in family health careNova Leon
This document outlines a typology and assessment tool for identifying nursing problems in family health care. It describes a 4-level assessment process to determine a family's wellness conditions, health threats, health deficits, and stressors. For each level, it provides examples of specific issues that could be assessed, such as lifestyle risks, environmental hazards, illnesses, disabilities, and family dynamics. The assessment is intended to help students identify appropriate nursing problems and diagnoses for families based on standardized criteria. Students are assigned an exercise to apply this assessment tool to a specific family case.
The document provides demographic and health statistics for the Philippines. It notes that while infectious diseases are declining, non-communicable diseases are rising. It also notes challenges in delivering healthcare to remote areas and shortages of medical professionals. Tables provide data on population, births, deaths, life expectancy, leading causes of mortality and more, broken down by age, sex and region to paint a statistical picture of health in the Philippines.
Tetanus toxoid immunization is important for pregnant women and child-bearing aged women to protect newborns from neonatal tetanus, a deadly disease. A series of two tetanus toxoid doses must be received by women one month before delivery. Completing the five dose schedule through booster shots provides full protection for both mother and child, and the mother is considered fully immunized. The expanded program on immunization in the Philippines aims to reduce infant and child mortality from seven vaccine-preventable diseases by ensuring children receive recommended vaccinations by age one.
This document provides an overview of nursing codes of ethics, including their purpose and history. It discusses the International Council of Nurses, which was established in 1899 and has been a pioneer in developing nursing ethics codes. The first nursing ethics book was written in 1900. Nursing codes outline ethical standards and guidelines for nurses, inform the public of nursing standards, and provide direction for self-regulation. The document reviews the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses and the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics, noting updates made in 2001.
The document describes a case of a 1-month-old girl brought for follow-up after being hospitalized for acute gastroenteritis caused by rotavirus. When her mother resumed the usual cow milk formula, the girl began having increased watery stools. On examination she appears well hydrated with normal abdomen. The best management is to change to a lactose-free formula for the next few days as she likely has secondary lactose intolerance from the rotavirus infection. Repeating stool studies is unnecessary and other options like diluting formula or only oral rehydration are inappropriate.
This document contains 20 self-assessment questions submitted by junior medical students on their Pediatric Clerkship rotation. The questions cover topics like rheumatic fever, Kawasaki disease, asthma severity classifications, otitis media, Down syndrome, HIV in mothers and newborns, Wilson's disease, and more. The questions are provided "as is" by the clerkship director as a study aid for subsequent students.
Drug study- Paracetamol and Cefuroxime NaMj Hernandez
Paracetamol is used for mild pain or fever. It works by blocking pain impulses and inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. The dosage is 250/5ml every 4 hours for children, with a maximum of 5 doses in 24 hours. Nurses should advise not using it for marked or prolonged fever without a prescriber's direction.
Cefuroxime is a second-generation cephalosporin used for respiratory, urinary, and skin infections. It works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis. The dosage is 500mg every 8 hours. It is contraindicated in those with hypersensitivity to it or other cephalosporins, and should be used cautiously in those with penicillin aller
Community Organizing Participatory Action ResearchKriszy Torio
COPAR is a community development approach that aims to transform apathetic communities by promoting participation, empowerment, and addressing exploitation through collective action. It involves mobilizing communities to identify their needs and take sustained action to improve their conditions through participatory and experiential learning processes. The COPAR method includes phases of entry, organizing, sustaining participation, and eventually transitioning control to community organizations.
The document summarizes a case presentation by BSN level III nursing students. It describes the objectives of demonstrating knowledge of a patient's diagnosis, disease process, complications, treatment plan, and nursing interventions. It then outlines the specific program, which involved students presenting thorough assessments and understanding pathophysiology, drug therapy, contributing factors, and formulating appropriate nursing care plans. The summary describes the student groups presenting cases involving various conditions like CVA, hyperthyroidism, heart failure, and gallstones. The panelists provided feedback and advice to help students improve their analysis and presentations.
The document discusses perioperative nursing, which describes the nursing care provided during the surgical experience. It is divided into three phases: preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative.
The preoperative phase extends from admission to the surgical unit until being transported to the operating room. The intraoperative phase is from admission to the OR until being transported to the recovery room. The postoperative phase is from the recovery room until follow-up care.
The document also discusses the goals, assessments, screening tests, and interventions of the preoperative phase, including addressing patient fears and obtaining informed consent.
This document provides an overview of various laws and regulations affecting the practice of nursing in the Philippines. It lists presidential decrees, administrative orders, department circulars, executive orders, house bills, presidential proclamations, letters of instruction, republic acts, board of nursing resolutions, and relevant aspects of the 1987 Philippine Constitution. The document was prepared by Mark Fredderick R. Abejo R.N, M.A.N and covers a wide range of topics including healthcare staffing ratios, immunization requirements, healthcare rights, and ethics standards for nurses.
History of nursing informatics in the philippinesshakiamarie
Nursing informatics is a relatively new field in the Philippines that follows the development of biomedical informatics. Some key events in its history include the Philippine Nurses Association participating in developing health information standards in 1999, the launch of a health informatics master's program in 2005, and the formation of the Philippine Nursing Informatics Association in 2010. Nursing informatics aims to help nurses keep up with increasing use of technology in healthcare, but faces challenges in customizing international curriculum to local needs and gaining recognition as a specialty.
The document defines family and discusses the Filipino family structure. It provides definitions of family from various sources that emphasize family as a basic social unit shaped by society. It then outlines sections from the Philippine Constitution regarding the state's recognition and protection of family. The rest of the document discusses characteristics of the Filipino family including bilateral kinship and family types, roles, and stages of development. It also examines theoretical approaches to understanding the family, including developmental, structural-functional, and systems models.
The document describes a patient's activities of daily living before and during hospitalization. It discusses the patient's health perceptions, nutritional patterns, elimination patterns, activity levels, sleep patterns, cognitive functioning, self-concept, family roles, stress coping mechanisms, sexual history, and religious beliefs. The patient viewed himself as healthy but able to work, but now in the hospital feels less healthy. His routines have changed in the hospital, including following the hospital diet and engaging in limited physical activity. He is oriented but experiences confusion during seizure attacks. He views hospitalization positively and is well-supported by his family.
The document provides a course syllabus for Competency Appraisal II at Eastern Samar State University College of Nursing. The course aims to apply the nursing process and core competencies in caring for individuals, families, and communities. Over 90 hours, students will learn through lectures, discussions, and nursing simulations. Simulations will integrate nursing process, levels of care, and prevention for individuals with cellular abnormalities, behavioral issues, emergencies, and more. Students will also develop competencies in leadership, resource management, documentation, collaboration, quality improvement, ethics, and research through various clinical setting scenarios. Upon completion, students will be able to provide holistic nursing care and demonstrate competencies across all areas of responsibility.
Mr. Aproniano Castro, a 56-year-old Filipino jeepney driver, was admitted to the hospital for cholecystitis with multiple gallstones. He experiences symptoms like severe abdominal pain, weight loss, and jaundice. His medical history includes thyroidectomy and asthma. Diagnostic tests show elevated white blood cell count indicating infection. He is scheduled for cholecystectomy to remove his inflamed gallbladder. Pre-operative nursing care focuses on managing his pain and risk of dehydration from vomiting.
The document contains multiple sections from nursing notes on different patients. It includes assessments of patients' symptoms and concerns, nursing diagnoses, objectives for interventions, details of interventions provided and their rationales, and evaluations of outcomes. Key information includes patients presenting with anxiety about their health, pain, knowledge deficits, and weight gain related to changes in diet. Nurses addressed these issues through monitoring, education, and lifestyle counseling aimed at reducing anxiety and pain levels, increasing knowledge, and identifying unhealthy eating habits within 8 hours of interventions.
This document describes Gordon's 11 Functional Health Patterns, which are used to organize client health data. The patterns include health perception/management, nutritional-metabolic, elimination, activity-exercise, cognitive-perceptual, sleep-rest, self-perception, role-relationship, sexuality-reproductive, coping/stress tolerance, and values-beliefs. Each pattern describes an area of client health and provides examples of related data that would be assessed.
COPAR (Community Organizing Participatory Action Research) is an approach to community development that aims to transform apathetic communities into active, participatory communities through collective action. It is a sustained process of raising awareness, identifying community needs and objectives, taking action to address immediate issues, and developing cooperative attitudes. The COPAR process involves progressive cycles of action, reflection on outcomes, and further informed action. It is participatory, group-centered, and biased towards empowering the poor and marginalized.
This document outlines a lecture on disaster nursing. It begins with an introduction that defines key terms like disaster and discusses types of natural disasters. It then covers topics like patterns of mortality and injury from disasters, the phases of disaster response, and the roles and responsibilities of nurses during disasters. The document emphasizes that nurses are on the frontlines during disasters but receive little disaster-related training. It promotes developing a online "Supercourse" to educate nurses worldwide on disaster nursing concepts and preparedness. The overall goal is to build global awareness of the importance of disaster nursing.
This document provides an overview of basic surgical instruments categorized into four groups: retracting and exposing instruments, cutting and dissecting instruments, clamping and occluding instruments, and grasping and holding instruments. Specific instruments are described within each category, including their names, intended uses, and key features. Common instruments include retractors, scalpels, scissors, forceps, and needle holders. The document serves as a reference for identifying and understanding basic tools used in surgery.
Typology of nursing problems in family health careNova Leon
This document outlines a typology and assessment tool for identifying nursing problems in family health care. It describes a 4-level assessment process to determine a family's wellness conditions, health threats, health deficits, and stressors. For each level, it provides examples of specific issues that could be assessed, such as lifestyle risks, environmental hazards, illnesses, disabilities, and family dynamics. The assessment is intended to help students identify appropriate nursing problems and diagnoses for families based on standardized criteria. Students are assigned an exercise to apply this assessment tool to a specific family case.
The document provides demographic and health statistics for the Philippines. It notes that while infectious diseases are declining, non-communicable diseases are rising. It also notes challenges in delivering healthcare to remote areas and shortages of medical professionals. Tables provide data on population, births, deaths, life expectancy, leading causes of mortality and more, broken down by age, sex and region to paint a statistical picture of health in the Philippines.
Tetanus toxoid immunization is important for pregnant women and child-bearing aged women to protect newborns from neonatal tetanus, a deadly disease. A series of two tetanus toxoid doses must be received by women one month before delivery. Completing the five dose schedule through booster shots provides full protection for both mother and child, and the mother is considered fully immunized. The expanded program on immunization in the Philippines aims to reduce infant and child mortality from seven vaccine-preventable diseases by ensuring children receive recommended vaccinations by age one.
This document provides an overview of nursing codes of ethics, including their purpose and history. It discusses the International Council of Nurses, which was established in 1899 and has been a pioneer in developing nursing ethics codes. The first nursing ethics book was written in 1900. Nursing codes outline ethical standards and guidelines for nurses, inform the public of nursing standards, and provide direction for self-regulation. The document reviews the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses and the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics, noting updates made in 2001.
The document describes a case of a 1-month-old girl brought for follow-up after being hospitalized for acute gastroenteritis caused by rotavirus. When her mother resumed the usual cow milk formula, the girl began having increased watery stools. On examination she appears well hydrated with normal abdomen. The best management is to change to a lactose-free formula for the next few days as she likely has secondary lactose intolerance from the rotavirus infection. Repeating stool studies is unnecessary and other options like diluting formula or only oral rehydration are inappropriate.
This document contains 20 self-assessment questions submitted by junior medical students on their Pediatric Clerkship rotation. The questions cover topics like rheumatic fever, Kawasaki disease, asthma severity classifications, otitis media, Down syndrome, HIV in mothers and newborns, Wilson's disease, and more. The questions are provided "as is" by the clerkship director as a study aid for subsequent students.
This document contains a model exam for nursing graduates with multiple choice questions covering various topics in pediatric nursing. It includes 50 questions testing knowledge on areas like well-baby care, childhood illnesses, immunizations, diabetes management, fluid management for diabetic ketoacidosis, and more. It also includes 2 patient scenarios asking additional questions related to the cases. The exam addresses essential information needed for nurses caring for pediatric patients.
This document contains 15 multiple choice questions about child health nursing. Each question is followed by an answer and rationale section. The questions cover topics such as causative organisms, newborn assessments, congenital heart defects, malnutrition grading, advantages of delayed cord clamping, signs of hypocalcemia, teething, nursing care of IV fluids, Mantoux test interpretation, Bell's palsy eye care, and encopresis. The questions, answers and rationales provide information to help test knowledge of child health nursing concepts.
This document contains 29 multiple choice questions about various topics in neonatology. It begins with questions related to Apgar scoring, jaundice, treatment of hyperbilirubinemia, nasal obstruction in newborns, and clinical syndromes. Subsequent questions cover definitions, screening tests, causes of conditions like hypercalcemia and necrotizing enterocolitis, and appropriate actions for meconium stained fluid at delivery. Further questions address genital anomalies, respiratory distress syndrome risk factors, normal newborn findings, effects of caffeine, signs of zinc deficiency, and risks of assisted reproduction. The document concludes with questions on imprinting disorders, osteogenesis imperfecta, nasal malformations, cephalohematomas, group B
The document contains 20 multiple choice questions related to child health nursing. The questions cover topics like signs and symptoms of various childhood illnesses, appropriate nursing care and health teachings for conditions like seizures, Down syndrome, cleft lip repair, sickle cell crisis, and more. Correct answers are identified for issues such as associated disorders with myelomeningocele, signs of dehydration in children, and conditions diagnosed with specific medical tests.
This document contains 39 multiple choice questions about various topics in neonatology. The questions cover areas such as Apgar scoring, jaundice, respiratory issues, genetic disorders, complications of prematurity and more. Each question is followed by 5 possible answer choices. The questions are from a 100 question MCQ exam on neonatology created by Dr. Ayman Abu Mehrem from King Abdulaziz Hospital in Saudi Arabia.
The document contains 20 multiple choice nursing questions related to various topics including: total parenteral nutrition, diabetes management, medication administration, wound care, and more. The questions assess understanding of appropriate nursing interventions, assessments, teaching, and rationales. Correct answers are provided along with explanations of the rationale behind each answer.
Managing diarrhea- Current nutrition perspectives.pptxssuserb9f7cc
Managing diarrhea-
Current nutrition perspectives
The document discusses the management of diarrhea from a nutritional perspective. It emphasizes that breast milk is best for infants in the first 6 months as it provides optimal nutrition and protection from illness. For acute diarrhea cases, the main treatment goal is to replace fluid and electrolyte losses through oral rehydration with oral rehydration solution given in small, frequent amounts. Intravenous fluids are only recommended for severe cases involving persistent vomiting or shock. Proper nutritional management during and after diarrhea is also important to support recovery.
The document contains multiple choice nursing questions covering various topics such as medication administration, client education, assessment, and priority setting. Some key topics addressed include methadone intoxication, antipsychotic medication compliance, amniotomy monitoring, calcium supplementation during pregnancy, cultural considerations during a procedure, priority interventions for various conditions, and post-procedure instructions for an arteriogram. The questions assess understanding of best nursing practices.
This document contains 49 multiple choice questions related to caring for clients with various neurological conditions and injuries. The questions cover topics like increased intracranial pressure, meningitis, stroke, seizures, cranial nerve impairments, and burns. Response options involve assessing clients, interpreting test results, identifying appropriate nursing interventions, recognizing risk factors, and selecting priority concerns.
The document contains 20 multiple choice questions about the gastrointestinal, renal, and hepatic systems. It provides explanations for each answer that focus on the key aspects of the disease process or nursing care being tested. Some examples covered include evaluating effectiveness of intestinal decompression, assessing a client with cirrhosis for signs of hepatic encephalopathy, and identifying appropriate dietary restrictions for a client taking medications to treat a uric acid kidney stone.
TEST BANK For Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults, 2nd Edit...kevinkariuki227
TEST BANK For Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults, 2nd Edition by Laurie Kennedy-Malone, Verified Chapters 1 - 19, Complete Newest Version.pdf
TEST BANK For Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults, 2nd Edition by Laurie Kennedy-Malone, Verified Chapters 1 - 19, Complete Newest Version.pdf
This document contains 40 multiple choice practice questions for the NCLEX exam. The questions cover topics such as medications, disease processes, diagnostic tests, developmental stages, and nursing care. They assess knowledge of conditions like meningitis, hyperkalemia, Down syndrome, and more. The correct answers are provided after each set of 10 questions to help test-takers review.
Assessment of Mother, Fetus and Newborn with.pptxdrshonarkar
This document provides an overview of assessing the mother, fetus, and newborn. Key points include:
1) Identifying high-risk pregnancies is important to monitor for complications and institute treatments. Conditions that increase risk include growth issues, congenital anomalies, prematurity, and maternal medical complications.
2) A newborn's transition to extrauterine life requires assessment of the delivery and mother's history to anticipate any issues. Routine newborn care includes eye prophylaxis, skin antisepsis, and vitamin K administration.
3) The Apgar score rapidly assesses a newborn's condition at 1 and 5 minutes. Low scores may indicate the need for resuscitation per the AB
This document discusses submersion injuries and drowning. It defines drowning and near drowning and notes that drowning is the 3rd leading cause of unintentional injury death worldwide. The highest risk groups are children ages 1-4 and teenage males. Drowning victims often struggle, swallow water, and vomit or aspirate liquid. Prognosis depends on factors like age, submersion time, water temperature, resuscitation time, and neurological status. Pre-hospital management focuses on CPR, oxygen, and stabilizing the victim, while hospital management addresses issues like acidosis, hypothermia, and fluid/electrolyte balance. Prevention strategies include pool fencing, education, not swimming alone
This document outlines the structure and content of the National Council Licensing Examinations leading to registration as a General Nurse. The exam consists of two papers covering medical aspects and nursing care. Paper 1 includes 75 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of topics like medico-pathology, pharmacology, nursing care plans, and ethics. It has a duration of 2 hours and is worth a total of 100 marks. Candidates are instructed to write clearly, respect the order of questions, and answer all questions by choosing the correct letter response.
The document contains questions and answers related to pediatric nursing topics organized into 5 categories (H1-H5). Key topics covered include pain assessment in children, Lyme disease, sickle cell disease, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, and gastrointestinal disorders like appendicitis and Hirschsprung's disease. The questions test nursing knowledge and understanding of pediatric assessment, disease management, and appropriate patient education.
A twenty-year-old boy presented with edema of the face, mostly in the morning. Examination found normal blood pressure but ascites and pleural effusion. Laboratory results showed hypoalbuminemia and hypercholesterolemia.
The medical diagnosis is nephrotic syndrome (statement b). The first line investigation is a urine test for albumin (statement a). Risk factors for primary hypertension include age, gender, and genetic link, which are non-modifiable (statement d).
Similar to Checked cic & icf mid set b preboard one of the public health ak apr 20&21, 2013 by auntie digs for xrox (20)
ABDOMINAL TRAUMA in pediatrics part one.drhasanrajab
Abdominal trauma in pediatrics refers to injuries or damage to the abdominal organs in children. It can occur due to various causes such as falls, motor vehicle accidents, sports-related injuries, and physical abuse. Children are more vulnerable to abdominal trauma due to their unique anatomical and physiological characteristics. Signs and symptoms include abdominal pain, tenderness, distension, vomiting, and signs of shock. Diagnosis involves physical examination, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. Management depends on the severity and may involve conservative treatment or surgical intervention. Prevention is crucial in reducing the incidence of abdominal trauma in children.
Histololgy of Female Reproductive System.pptxAyeshaZaid1
Dive into an in-depth exploration of the histological structure of female reproductive system with this comprehensive lecture. Presented by Dr. Ayesha Irfan, Assistant Professor of Anatomy, this presentation covers the Gross anatomy and functional histology of the female reproductive organs. Ideal for students, educators, and anyone interested in medical science, this lecture provides clear explanations, detailed diagrams, and valuable insights into female reproductive system. Enhance your knowledge and understanding of this essential aspect of human biology.
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8 Surprising Reasons To Meditate 40 Minutes A Day That Can Change Your Life.pptxHolistified Wellness
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Basavarajeeyam is an important text for ayurvedic physician belonging to andhra pradehs. It is a popular compendium in various parts of our country as well as in andhra pradesh. The content of the text was presented in sanskrit and telugu language (Bilingual). One of the most famous book in ayurvedic pharmaceutics and therapeutics. This book contains 25 chapters called as prakaranas. Many rasaoushadis were explained, pioneer of dhatu druti, nadi pareeksha, mutra pareeksha etc. Belongs to the period of 15-16 century. New diseases like upadamsha, phiranga rogas are explained.
Recomendações da OMS sobre cuidados maternos e neonatais para uma experiência pós-natal positiva.
Em consonância com os ODS – Objetivos do Desenvolvimento Sustentável e a Estratégia Global para a Saúde das Mulheres, Crianças e Adolescentes, e aplicando uma abordagem baseada nos direitos humanos, os esforços de cuidados pós-natais devem expandir-se para além da cobertura e da simples sobrevivência, de modo a incluir cuidados de qualidade.
Estas diretrizes visam melhorar a qualidade dos cuidados pós-natais essenciais e de rotina prestados às mulheres e aos recém-nascidos, com o objetivo final de melhorar a saúde e o bem-estar materno e neonatal.
Uma “experiência pós-natal positiva” é um resultado importante para todas as mulheres que dão à luz e para os seus recém-nascidos, estabelecendo as bases para a melhoria da saúde e do bem-estar a curto e longo prazo. Uma experiência pós-natal positiva é definida como aquela em que as mulheres, pessoas que gestam, os recém-nascidos, os casais, os pais, os cuidadores e as famílias recebem informação consistente, garantia e apoio de profissionais de saúde motivados; e onde um sistema de saúde flexível e com recursos reconheça as necessidades das mulheres e dos bebês e respeite o seu contexto cultural.
Estas diretrizes consolidadas apresentam algumas recomendações novas e já bem fundamentadas sobre cuidados pós-natais de rotina para mulheres e neonatos que recebem cuidados no pós-parto em unidades de saúde ou na comunidade, independentemente dos recursos disponíveis.
É fornecido um conjunto abrangente de recomendações para cuidados durante o período puerperal, com ênfase nos cuidados essenciais que todas as mulheres e recém-nascidos devem receber, e com a devida atenção à qualidade dos cuidados; isto é, a entrega e a experiência do cuidado recebido. Estas diretrizes atualizam e ampliam as recomendações da OMS de 2014 sobre cuidados pós-natais da mãe e do recém-nascido e complementam as atuais diretrizes da OMS sobre a gestão de complicações pós-natais.
O estabelecimento da amamentação e o manejo das principais intercorrências é contemplada.
Recomendamos muito.
Vamos discutir essas recomendações no nosso curso de pós-graduação em Aleitamento no Instituto Ciclos.
Esta publicação só está disponível em inglês até o momento.
Prof. Marcus Renato de Carvalho
www.agostodourado.com
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Basavarajeeyam is a Sreshta Sangraha grantha (Compiled book ), written by Neelkanta kotturu Basavaraja Virachita. It contains 25 Prakaranas, First 24 Chapters related to Rogas& 25th to Rasadravyas.
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Checked cic & icf mid set b preboard one of the public health ak apr 20&21, 2013 by auntie digs for xrox
1. REVIEW UNIVERSITY FOR NURSES, INC.
Successfully Training Filipino Nurses and Midwives for Global Setting
P.U.P. Hasmin Hostel, R. Magsaysay Blvd., Sta. Mesa, Manila
reviewuniversityfornurses@gmail.com; www.runurses.com
Tel. Numbers: (02)-716-4783; (02)-713-8880; (02)708-27-82
PRE-MIDWIFERY LICENSURE EXAMINATION
CARE OF INFANT AND CHILDREN
APRIL 20 & 21, 2013
SET - B
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS: This test questionnaire contains 100 test items. Shade only one (1) box for each question
on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalidate your answer. AVOID ERASURES.
1. One of the public health concerns in our country is malnutrition. All but one is common nutritional deficiencies which
could lead to serious physical, mental & problems.
a. Vit. A
b. Folic acid
c. Iron
d. Iodine
Ans:BFolic acid
2. Included in the Philippine Nutrition Program’s Life –Cycle are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. 0-3 year old children
b. Adolescent females c. Pregnant & lactating mothers
Ans: D– CHN pp. 158 – Nutrition Program ---- Strategies #2
d. School age children
3. Vit. A capsule is distributed & given 2 times a year, through the ―ArawngSangkapPinoy‖ ASAP‖ which is also known
as:
a. Infant & Young Child Feeding Program (IYCF)
c. Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI)
b. GarantisadongPambata (GP)
d. MicronutrientSupplémentation Program
Ans: B– 2 x a year distribution of Vit. A capsules through the ASAP known as GarantisadongPinoy (GP)
4. In doing the admission assessment, the midwife should expect to find which signs of dehydration in an infant?
a. Fever and bradycardia
c. Hypotension and anuria
b. Irritability and sunken eyeballs
d. Dry mucous membranes and bulging anterior fontanel
ANS: B-signs of dehydration in infants would include irritability and sunken, dry eyeballs due to fluid loss. Fever may
be present, and tachycardia, not bradycardia (A) is common. Low BP often results, followed by oliguria; anuria (C) is rare
and would be an ominous sign of renal failure. Finally, the oral buccal mucosa may be quite dry, and the anterior fontanel
may be sunken, not bulging.
5. The surgeon orders a preoperative series of cleansing enemas for an infant with Hirschprung’s disease. The midwife
should expect the solution ordered for these enemas to be:
a. Soapsuds enema (SSE)
b. Normal saline
c. Pediatric Fleets
d. Tap water
ANS: B-the only solution that should be used in doing cleansing enemas for a child with Hirschprung’s disease is
normal saline, because the child will retain some of the fluid which will be absorbed through the bowel wall. As an
isotonic solution, normal saline will not alter the fluid balance like a non-isotonic solution almost certainly would (A, C, D).
6. A child has been admitted for surgery to correct a congenital megacolon. Enemas are ordered preoperatively to
cleanse the bowel. The midwife should use:
a. Tap water
b. Soap suds
c. Isotonic saline
d. Hypertonic phosphate
ANS: C-isotonic saline is compatible with body fluids. It is neither hypertonic nor hypotonic, so it does not cause a
change in osmotic pressure and upset the balance of intracellular and extracellular fluid and electrolytes. (A)- This
hypotonic solution might cause fluid and electrolyte imbalance. (B)- soap- suds enemas consist of water with added soap
products and are therefore hypotonic; this can cause fluid shifts and electrolyte imbalances. (D)- This solution would
cause excess fluid loss and therefore be dangerous.
7. In reviewing what he would do if he experienced a hypoglycaemic episode, a teenager correctly states that he would
eat piece of candy or drink a glass of orange juice. The midwife should then instruct him to follow this
concentrated sweet with:
a. A dextrostix test
A urine dipstick for glucose
A glass of milk
5 U of regular insulin
ANS: C-because concentrated sweets will cause a rise in blood sugar, followed by a precipitous drop, the nurse should
teach this patient that he should follow up this concentrated sweet with a complex carbohydrate such as a glass of milk.
The complex carbohydrate will help maintain a consistent level of blood sugar, thus avoiding the precipitous drop. Any
other action would be inappropriate at this time.
8. Following surgery to close the myelomenginocele sac, the midwife should place the infant on her:
a. Abdomen, with head 10 degrees lower than hips
c. Abdomen, with hips 10 degrees lower than head
b. Abdomen, with head of bed elevated 30 degrees
d. Abdomen, flat in bed
ANS: A-the infant is placed on her abdomen, postoperatively; to prevent trauma or pressure to the sutured area on
her back. In addition, the infant’s head should be positioned 10 degrees lower than her hips to prevent the pressure of
circulating CSF from affecting the suture line on the lower back. An obvious contraindication to this position is if increased
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3. REVIEW UNIVERSITY FOR NURSES, INC.
Successfully Training Filipino Nurses and Midwives for Global Setting
P.U.P. Hasmin Hostel, R. Magsaysay Blvd., Sta. Mesa, Manila
reviewuniversityfornurses@gmail.com; www.runurses.com
Tel. Numbers: (02)-716-4783; (02)-713-8880; (02)708-27-82
ANS: D-the mating of a carrier female (XOXH) and an unaffected male (XOYO) results in the following possible
offspring; a carrier female (XOXH), an unaffected female (XOXO), an unaffected male (XOYO), or an affected male
(XHYO). (A)- For each child there is a 50% chance of not being affected. (B)- For each child there is a 50% chance of
being affected. (C)- Males cannot carry the trail; female have a 50% chance of being carriers.
17. Which of the following is not included in the Essential Maternal & Child Health Service Package?
a. Micronutrient Supplementation
c. Macronutrient Supplementation
b. Breast Feeding
d. Complementary Feeding
Ans: C
18. The doctor attempts to shine a light through a myelomeningocele sac and notes ―no transillumination.‖ The midwife
should interpret this finding to mean that the sac:
a. Can be easily repaired
c. Contains meninges and CSF
b. Cannot be evaluated by this technique
d. Contain meninges, CSF, and the spinal cord
ANS: D-transillumination, or the procedure of shining a light through the sac, is the usual means for evaluating the
contents of the sac. When there is ―no transillumination‖ (the light cannot shine through the sac), this indicates the
presence of solid material, or the spinal cord, within the sac. Thus (B) and (C) are incorrect. Transillumination has no
bearing on determining whether the sac can be easily repaired (A).
19. Between meals, the midwife should place an infant with CHF in which position?
a. In a infant seat with head elevated
c. Supine with head slightly hyperextended
b. Prone with head turned to side
d. Side-lying with the head of the bed elevated 30degree
ANS: A-as with an adult with CHF, the infant should be positioned in a chair/infant seat, in semi fowler’s position, to
provide maximum expansion of the lungs and to assist the heart. Placing him on his stomach (B) might be an acceptable
second choice, providing he can tolerate this position. He should never be placed on his back (C), even with his head
slightly hyper extended, because of the possibility of aspiration and other respiratory complications. A side lying (D)
would not allow for maximum expansion of the lungs; an infant seat is more appropriate.
20. A toddler tries to pull her IV out, and the midwife determines she must be restrained to maintain the IV site.
Which restraint would the midwife be most correct in applying?
a. Posey jacket
b. Elbow
c. Mummy
d. Clove-hitch
ANS: D-to restraint a toddler receiving IV therapy, clove-hitch restraint to two or more limbs is most effective in
maintaining the IV site. A Posey jacket (A) would allow the toddler use of her hands with which to pull at her IV. Elbow
restraints (B) would still allow the toddler to stand and twist at the IV tubing. A mummy restraint (C) would be
unnecessary restrictive for a toddler.
21. In the Universal Supplementation of Vit. A for infants 6-11 months, one capsule or one dose is given anytime during
the 6-11 months period, but usually the most favourable time to give this is at:
a. 6 months
b. 7 months
c. 8 months
d. 9 months
Ans: D– 9 months during measles immunization
22. For a infant with severe chronic CHF, the formula the midwife should plan to offer would be:
a. Isomil
b. Lofenalac
c. Lonalac
d. Similac 27 with iron
ANS: C-an infant with severe chronic CHF should be on a low sodium formula, Lonalac. Isomil (A) is a lactose-free
formula that contains a normal amount of sodium. Lofenalac (B) is the formula used to treat infants with PKU and also
contains a normal amount of sodium. Similac 27 with iron (D) is most frequently used for preterm infants and also
contains a normal amount of sodium.
23. While admitting an infant, the midwife notes all the following abnormal findings. Which one is considered the classic
sign of Hirschprung’s disease?
a. Abdominal distention
b. Anorexia
c. Constipation
d. Vomitus flecked with feces
ANS: C-the classic sign of Hirschprung’s disease is obstinate constipation that persists despite all efforts at treatment.
Other symptoms may also occur but are not generally considered specific to Hirschprung’s disease as much as they
indicate intestinal obstruction; abdominal distension (A), anorexia (B), and vomiting (D).
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4. REVIEW UNIVERSITY FOR NURSES, INC.
Successfully Training Filipino Nurses and Midwives for Global Setting
P.U.P. Hasmin Hostel, R. Magsaysay Blvd., Sta. Mesa, Manila
reviewuniversityfornurses@gmail.com; www.runurses.com
Tel. Numbers: (02)-716-4783; (02)-713-8880; (02)708-27-82
24. The midwife performs a Metro Manila Developmental Screening Test(MMDST) on a 3-year-old. Which behavior
should the midwife expect this child to be capable of doing?
a. Going up stairs on alternate feet
c. Dressing without supervision
b. Pedalling a bicycle
d. Tying shoelaces
ANS: A-three-year-olds should be able to coordinate the brain and gross motor activity necessary to go to stairs using
alternate feet. They should also be able to pedal (Big Wheels‖ or a tricycle but not a bicycle (B). Three-year-olds should
also be able to get dressed with supervision but not without it(C). They should not be ready to master tying shoelaces (D)
for another year or two.
25. A 2-year-old is admitted to the hospital with acute bilateral otitis media. Her temperature is 103degree F, and she
has tremors in her arms and legs. In addition to a spinal tap to rule out bacterial meningitis, the doctor orders all
the following. Which order should the midwife perform first?
a. Respiratory isolation
c. Tylenol 120 mg POq4h
b. IV 5% dextrose in 0.45 normal saline solution at 35mL/h
d. Seizure precautions
ANS: A-in caring for a patient with a potentially contagious condition such as meningitis, the first priority is protecting
the nurse and other patients by observing appropriate infection control measures, in this case, respiratory isolation. All
other nursing care measures would then follow in the appropriate order (B, C, D).
26. In doing an infant’s admission examination, the nurse notes all the following abnormal findings. Which one is the
most common sign of heart disease the midwife should assess?
a. Circumoral cyanosis
b. Hypertension
c. Diastolic murmur
d. Tachycardia
ANS: D- the majority of infants with CHD present with tachycardia, or a heart rate above 160 betas/min; this is often
the first sign of CHD that the nurse can assess. Circumoral cyanosis (A), hypertension (B), and diastolic murmur (C) all
may or may not be present, depending on the type and severity of the defect.
27. A toddler is to be placed in a croupette. The midwife should plan to perform which nursing action?
a. Remove all toys from the crib
b. Withhold all liquids and solids temporarily
c. Monitor oxygen concentration daily and record in notes
d. Evaluate the toddler’s reaction to oxygen therapy in terms of vital signs and color
ANS: D- if the toddler responds well to oxygen therapy, she should show clinical improvement in terms of pink lips and
nail beds and normal vital signs, especially pulse. ―All‖ toys do not have to be removed from her crib (A) nor will she have
to be NPO (B), although she will probably be somewhat anorexic and prefer clear, cool liquids initially. Oxygen
concentrations should be monitored and recorded at least every 2 hours (C).
28. When preparing an infant who is immunosuppresed after chemotherapy for discharge, the midwife explains to the
parents that the measles, mumps, and rubella(MMR) immunization must:
a. Be discussed with the pediatrician on the next visit
b. Not the given until the infant is at least 2 years of age
c. Not the given as long as the infant is receiving chemotherapy
d. Be given to protect the infant from getting any of these diseases
ANS: C-MMR vaccine is composed of live viruses and its administration could be life threatening for an
immunosuppressed child. (A)- At the discharge the parents need information about immunizations, because MMR vaccine
is generally given at 12 to 15 months of age. (B)- This child will receive the MMR vaccine when blood values return to
normal regardless of age, but not before 12 months of age. (D)- Because the MMR vaccine is composed of live viruses,
giving it can be as life-threatening as actually having the disease.
29. Children ages 21 – 71 months, under the Universal Supplementation of Vit. A, one capsule is given every 6 months
and the dosage is:
a. 50,000 ―IU‖ b. 100,000 ―IU‖
c. 150,000 ―IU‖
d. 200,000 ―IU‖
ANS: D– 200,000 ―IU‖
30. For High Risk children, like a 6-11 months child with measles or a Preschool child with measles , Vit A
supplementation should be:
a. 6-11 months 150,000 ―IU‖; Preschool 200,000 ―IU‖
c.6-11 months 100,000 ―IU‖; Preschool 200,000 ―IU‖
b. 6-11 months 100,000 ―IU‖; Preschool child 150,000 ―IU‖ d.6-11 months 150,000 ―IU‖; Preschool ―250,000 ―IU‖
ANS: C
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5. REVIEW UNIVERSITY FOR NURSES, INC.
Successfully Training Filipino Nurses and Midwives for Global Setting
P.U.P. Hasmin Hostel, R. Magsaysay Blvd., Sta. Mesa, Manila
reviewuniversityfornurses@gmail.com; www.runurses.com
Tel. Numbers: (02)-716-4783; (02)-713-8880; (02)708-27-82
31. For Malnourished children ages 6 – 12 years old, Vit A supplementation, the correct dosage is given at:
a. 100,000 ―IU‖
b. 150,000 ―IU‖
c. 200,000 ―IU‖
d. 250,000 ―IU‖
ANS: C
32. For children with Xerophthalmia, age 6-11months, Vit A is given immediately upon diagnosis, & the correct dose is:
a. 50,000 ―IU‖
b. 100,000‖IU‖
c. 150,000 ―IU‖
d. 200,000 ―IU‖
ANS: B– pp. 161
33. For 12 – 50 months, children with xerophthalmia, is treated with correct dosage of VIt. A;
a. 100,000 ―IU‖
b. 150,000 ―IU‖
c. 200,000 ―IU‖
ANS: C
d. 250,000 ―IU‖
34. The midwife teaching a nursing education class emphasizes that the common nursing care to help prevent both
sickle cell crisis and celiac crisis is :
a. Limitation of activity
c. High-iron, low-fat, high-protein diet
b. Protection from infection
d. Careful observation of all vital signs
ANS: C-warmth causes vasodilatation, which will help lessen the pain of a vaso-occlusive crisis. (A)- IV fluids if
ordered, should be increased to dilute the blood and prevent further sickling. (B)- cold will cause more vasoconstriction
and increase pain. (D)- This is an inadequate dose for an adolescent.
35. The midwife’s background knowledge of the basic nutrients that act as partners in building red blood cells will be
used to develop a teaching plan for a child with nutritional anemia. These nutrient partners of iron are:
a. Calcium and vitamins b. Vitamin D and riboflavin c. Proteins and ascorbic acid d. Carbohydrates and thiamine
ANS: C- proteins are essential for the synthesis of the blood proteins, albumin, fibrinogen, and haemoglobin. Ascorbic
acid influences the removal of iron from ferritin (making more iron available for production of heme) and influences the
conversion of folic acid to folinic acid. (A)- These are not involved in building red blood cells. (B) and (D)- Same as
answer A.
36. Iron supplementation to infant ages 6 – 11 months, should be given the correct dose as;
a. 10 mg.of elemental iron
c. 20 mg.of elemental iron
b. 15 mg.of elemental iron
d. 25 mg.of elemental iron
ANS: B
37. Iron supplementation for Low Birth Weight children should be at a correct dose of:
a. 15 mg. elemental iron b. 20 mg elemental iron
c. 25 mg elemental iron
ANS: A
d. 10 mg elemental iron
38. When evaluating the laboratory reports for a 1-year-old child, the midwife recalls that the normal hematocrit range
for a child of this age is:
a. 19% to 32%
b. 29% to 41%
c. 37% to 47%
d. 42% to 69%
ANS: B-this is the expected hematocrit range for a 1 year old. (A)- This would be too low; it would only occur with a
problem such as prolonged blood loss. (C)- This is too high; this would be expected for an adult female. (D)- This is too
high; this would be expected for a newborn.
39. Iron supplementation to Pre - school children should be at a correct dose of:
a. 15 mg elemental iron
b. 20 mg elemental iron
c. 25 mg elemental iron
ANS: D
d. 30 mg elemental iron
40. A child undergoes heart surgery to repair the defects associated with tetralogy of Fallot. Post-operatively, it is
essential that the midwife prevent:
a. Crying
b. Coughing
c. Hard stools
d. Unnecessary movement
ANS: C-forceful evacuation results in the child’s taking a deep breath, holding it, and straining (Valsalva maneuver).
This increased intrathoracic pressure puts excessive strain on the heart sutures. (A)- Crying is not a problem after cardiac
surgery; it may, in fact, help prevent respiratory complications. (B)- Coughing and deep breathing are essential for the
prevention of postoperative respiratory complications. (D)- Activity is gradually increased postoperatively.
41. The laboratory analysis for a 5-year-old admitted for repair of tetralogy of Fallot indicates a high red blood cell
count. The nurse recognizes that this polycythemia can best be understood as a compensatory mechanism for:
a. Low BP
b. Cardiomegaly
c. Low iron level
d. Tissue oxygen need
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6. REVIEW UNIVERSITY FOR NURSES, INC.
Successfully Training Filipino Nurses and Midwives for Global Setting
P.U.P. Hasmin Hostel, R. Magsaysay Blvd., Sta. Mesa, Manila
reviewuniversityfornurses@gmail.com; www.runurses.com
Tel. Numbers: (02)-716-4783; (02)-713-8880; (02)708-27-82
ANS: D-decreased tissue oxygenation stimulates erythropoiesis, resulting in excessive production of red blood cells.
(A)- This would not be a direct cause of polycythemia. (B)- Same as answer A. (C) - This may or may not affect the
production of red blood cells.
42. A 3-year-old is scheduled for an arterial cardiac catheterization, Nursing care after this procedure should include:
a. Encouraging early ambulation
c. Restricting fluids until blood pressure is stabilized
b. Monitoring the site for bleeding
d. Comparing blood pressure in the affected and unaffected extremities
ANS: B-haemorrhage is a major life-threatening complication, because arterial blood is under pressure and an artery
has been entered (punctured) by a catheter. (A)- The child is kept in bed for 6 to 78 hours after the procedure. (C)Fluids may be given as soon as tolerated. (D)- Pulses, not BP must be checked for quality and symmetry.
43. A young child has coarctation of the aorta. When taking the child’s vital signs, the midwife can expect to observe:
a. Notching of the clavicle
c. Weak, thread radial pulses
b. Bounding femoral pulses
d. Higher BP in the upper extremities
ANS: D-coarctation of the aorta is a narrowing of the aorta, usually in the thoracic segment, causing decreased blood
flow below the constriction and increased blood volume above it. (A)- This is not related to coarctation of the aorta. (B)In coarctation of the aorta, femoral pulses would be weak or absent, and BP in the lower extremities would be decreased.
(C)- In coarctation of the aorta, radial pulses would be full and bouning.
44. A 2-year-old child has a congenital right-to-left shunt defect of the heart. The midwife would expect to observe:
a. Orthopnea
b. An elevated hematocrit
c. Absence of pedal pulses
d. Edema in the extremities
ANS: B-polycythema reflected in an elevated hematocrit level is a direct attempt of the body to compensate for the
decrease in oxygenation to all body cells caused by the mixture of oxygenated and unoxygenataed circulating blood. (A)This is not characteristic of right-to-left shunt heart disease in children. (C)- This is characteristic of coarctation of the
aorta. (D)- edema is not a common finding in right-to-left shunt heart disease.
45. A common finding in most children with cardiac anomalies is:
a.
Mental retardation b. Delayed physical growth c. Clubbing of the fingertips
d. A family history of cardiac anomalies
ANS: B- children with cardiac anomalies often use increased energy in activities of daily living: decreased oxygen and
increased energy output in the developing child results in a slow growth rate. (A)- Mental retardation is not a common
finding in children with congenital heart disease. (C)- Clubbing is not characteristics of most children with cardiac
anomalies, only of those with more sever hypoxia. (D)- Cardiac anomalies are more often a result of prenatal, rather than
genetic factors.
46. A 5-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic for monthly checkup. The midwife is aware that the assessment
finding that would need the most immediate follow-up would be:
a. Strabismus
b. Tachycardia
c. Mild hypotonia
d. Inability to sit with support
ANS: B- tachycardia in infants is often a sign of a heart defect. This infant should be examined fro the presence of a
heart defect. (A)- This is frequently seen in young children; it is related to immature muscle control and does not require
intervention unless it persists into toddlerhood. (C)- This does not warrant immediate attention, but the infant should be
reevaluated at the next visit. (D)- This finding at this age does not require immediate attention; however, the infant
should be monitored for the attainment of this and other developmental milestones at future visits.
47. A 3-year-old preschooler has been hospitalized with nephritic syndrome. The best way to detect fluid retention would
be to:
a. Have the child urinate in a bedpan
c. Weigh the child at the same time every day
b. Measure the child’s abdominal girth daily
d. Test the child’s urine for Hematuria and proteinuria
ANS: C-daily weights are an important direct way to assess fluid retention or loss. (A)- This may not always happen
and would not be accurate. (B)- This is a measure for the degree of ascites; it would only measure fluid retention
indirectly. (D)- Assessment of urine for blood and protein gives information about the disease process but not about the
amount of fluid retention.
48. During clinic visit, a child with nephritic syndrome has a muddy, pale appearance and complains of not wanting to
eat and feeling tired. The midwife suspects that the child is:
a. In impending renal failure
c. Developing a viral infection
b. Being too active in school
d. Not taking the ordered medication
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ANS: A- poor appetite and decreased energy are associated with the accumulation of toxic waste; anemia accounts for
the pallor. (B)- Once remission has occurred, usual activities can be resumed with discretion. (C)- An elevated
temperature probably would be present but an infection would not cause a muddy pallor. (D)- Discontinuing the
corticosteroids and diuretics that are usually prescribed would probably result in recurrence of edema in steroiddependent children.
49. The parents of a child with acute glomerulonephritis are very concerned about activity restrictions after discharge.
The midwife bases the answer to them on the fact that after the urinary findings are nearly normal:
a. Activity must be limited for 1 month
c. The child must remain in bed for 2 weeks
b. The child must not play active games
d. Activity does not affect the course of the disease
ANS: D- when urinary findings are normal, such as an evidence of hematuria or proteinuria, the child may resume preillness activities. (A)- This restriction is unnecessary. (B)- Same as answer A. (C) - Bed rest u=is unnecessary at this
stage.
50. A child is admitted with the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN). When performing a physical assessment,
the midwife should expect to find:
a. anorexia, Hematuria, proteinuria (1+),and decreased blood pressure
b. normal blood pressure, anorexia, proteinuria (1+),and glycosuria(3+)
c. lowered blood pressure, preorbital edema, proteinuria(1+),and decreased specific gravity(1.00)
d. moderately elevated blood pressure, preorbital edema, proteinuria(4+), and increased specific gravity(1.030)
ANS: D- the glomerular filtration rate is reduced, resulting in sodium retention, protein loss, and fluid accumulation
producing these signs. (A)- Not all of these support the diagnosis of glomerulonephritis (AGN). (B) and (C)- Same as
answer A.
51. The maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance is more critical in children than in adults because:
a. Cellular metabolism is less stable than in adults
b. The proportion of water in the body is less than in adults
c. Renal function is immature in children below 4 years of age
d. The extracellular fluid requirement per unit of body weight is greater than in adults
ANS: D-the extracellular body fluid represents 45% at birth, 25% at age 2, and 20% at maturity. Another
measurement is percentage of total body weight, which is 80% at birth, 63% at 3, and approximately 60% at 12 years.
(A)- Cellular metabolism in children is not less stable than in adults. (B)- The proportion of total body water in children
(up to 2 years) is greater than it is in adults. (C)- Renal function is immature during infancy only.
52. The behavior of an infant with colic is usually suggestive of:
a. An allergic response to certain proteins in milk
c. Paroxysmal pain and grunting respirations
b. Inadequate peristalsis resulting in constipation
d. Constant severe pain and absence of stools
ANS: C-the traditional efforts to explain and treat colic center on control of gas in the intestinal tract that is causing
the paroxysmal pain. (A)- Excessive intake of carbohydrates may cause flatus, but diet changes rarely prevent colic
attacks. (B)- Colic is thought to be caused by excessive fermentation and gas production. (D)- The exact cause of colic is
not known.
53. The midwife plans to discuss childhood nutrition with parents of children with Down syndrome in an attempt to
minimize a common nutritional problem encountered in children with Down syndrome namely:
a. Rickets
b. Anaemia
c. Obesity
d. Rumination
ANS: C-obesity is a common nutritional problem in children with Down syndrome. It is thought to be related to
excessive caloric intake and impaired growth. (A)- This is a nutritional disorder related to vitamin D deficiency; it is not
especially encountered is these children. (B)- This is the most common nutritional problem in children (iron deficiency); it
is not specially encountered in these children. (D)- This us a psychiatric eating disorder of infancy characterized by
repeated regurgitation without gastrointestinal illness; it is not usually encountered in these children.
54. Mebendazole (Vermox) is ordered for a child with pinworms. It is advisable that this drug also be administered to:
a. The child’s younger brother who is 1 year old
b. All members of the child’s family who test positive
c. All people using the same toilet facilities as the child
d. The child’s mother, father, and siblings even if they are symptom-free
ANS: D-all household members should be treated at the same time unless they are younger than 2 years or pregnant.
(A)- This drug is not recommended for children under the age of 2. (B)- Positive testing is not a criterion for
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administration to family members. (C)- This is not a significant criterion for administration of medication because eggs are
airborne.
55. Pinworms cause a number of symptoms besides anal itching,. A complication of pinworm infestation, although rare,
that the midwife should observe for is:
a. Hepatitis
b. Stomatitis
c. Appendicitis
d. Pneumonitis
ANS: C-the worm attaches itself to the bowel wall in the cecum and appendix and can damage the mucosa, causing
appendicitis. (A)- The pinworm does not migrate to the liver. (B)- Although pinworms (and their ova) are ingested by
mouth, they do not attach there; inflammation of the mouth is not a complication of pinworm infestation. (D)- the
pinworm does not migrate to the respiratory system.
56. A 9-year-old child has just been diagnosed with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP). What should the midwife plan to
include in the home –care instructions when the child is discharged? Select all that apply.
a. _______ bowel training
c. _______ clear liquids when pain recurs
b. _______ high-fiber diet
d. _______ ice packs to the abdomen when pain occurs
ANS: A AND B.(A)- This helps the child to re-establish bowel habits. (B)- this, is addition to a bulk laxative, is
beneficial for a child with recurrent abdominal pain. (C)- Fiber, not clear liquids, is recommended. (D)- Warm applications,
such as heating pads are recommended.
57. Corrective surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is completed, and the infant is returned in stable condition to
the pediatric unit with an intravenous infusion and a nasogastric tube in place. The priority nursing action should
be to:
a. Apply adequate restraints
c. Assess the IV site for infiltration
b. Administer a mild sedative
d. Attach the Nasogastric tube to wall suction
ANS: A- protecting the iv and nasogastric tube form becoming dislodged is a priority. (b)- this is not
the priority action.(C) and (D)- Same as answer B.
58. Surgery to correct hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is performed on a 2 week-old infant who has been formula –fed. The
midwife caring for the infant notices that the postoperative orders are similar to those for other infants having
undergone such surgery and include:
a. Thickened formula 24 hours after surgery
c. Regular formula feeding 24 hours after surgery
b. Withholding all feedings for the first 24 hours
d. Additional glucose feedings as desired after the first 24
hours
ANS: C-initial feedings of glucose and electrolytes in water or breast milk are given 4 to 6 hours after surgery. When
clear fluids are retained, usually within 24 hours, formula feedings are begun. (A)- Regular formula should be started 24
hours after surgery in an attempt to gradually return the infant to a full feeding schedule. (B)- This is not necessary. (D)Same as answer B.
59. The mother of a toddler who has swallowed liquid drain cleaner containing lye calls the poison control center. She is
advised to administer:
a. Syrup of ipecac b. Two ounces of milk
c. Dilute vinegar solution
d. Sodium bicarbonate solution
ANS: C- lye, a basic, is neutralized by administration of a weak acid such as vinegar. (A)- This induces vomiting and
would cause further burning of tissue when the lye was vomited back through the esophagus. (B)- Milk is useful to soothe
irritated mucous membranes but will not inactivate the poison. (D)- Bicarbonate is used to neutralize acids.
60. An 8-month-old infant has a gastrostomy tube and is given 240 mL of tube feeding q4h. One of the primary nursing
responsibilities is to:
a. Open the tube 1 hour before feeding
c. Give 10 mL of normal saline before and after feeding
b. Position on the right side after feeding
d. Elevate the tube 30cm (12inches) above the mattress
ANS: B- positioning on the right side after feeding facilitates digestion because the pyloric sphincter is on the side and
gravity aids in emptying the stomach. (A) –Feeding may proceed immediately after opening the tube. (C)- Placement of
the tube and residual should be ascertained before administering any fluid. (D)- The usual height for elevation of the
gastrostomy tube when feeding an infant is 6 to 8 inches above the child’s stomach.
61. A mother brings her week-old infant to the clinic because the infant continually regurgitates. Chalasia is suspected.
The midwife instructs the mother to:
a. Keep the infant prone following feedings
c.Administer a minimum of 8 oz of formula at each feeding
b. Prevent the infant from crying for prolonged periods
d.Keep the infant in a semi sitting position, particularly after feedings
ANS: D-chalasia is an incompetent cardiac sphincter which allows a reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus and
eventual regurgitation. Placing the infant in an upright position keeps the gastric contents in the stomach by gravity and
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limits the pressure against the cardiac sphincter. (A)- This will promote regurgitation; it is an unsafe position because of
the danger of SIDS. (B)- This ill probably have little effect chalasia. (C)- This will promote vomiting because it is too much
formula for a week-old infant.
62. Chickenpox can sometimes be fatal to children who are receiving:
a. Insulin
b. Steroids
c. Antibiotics
d. Anticonvulsants
ANS: B-steroids have an anti-inflammatory effect. It is believed that resistance to certain viral diseases, including
chickenpox, is greatly decreased when a child takes steroids regularly. (A)- There is no known correlation between
chickenpox and insulin. (C)- Because chickenpox is viral, antibiotics would have no effect. (D)- There is no known
correlation between chickenpox and anti-convulsants.
63. A 10-year old is diagnosed with lymphocytic thyroiditis. The midwife should explain to the parents and child that
this condition is:
a. Chronic
b. Inherited
c. Difficult to treat
d. Probably temporary
ANS: D-the goiter associated with this disease associated with this disease (Hashimoto’s disease) is usually transient
and regresses spontaneously in 1 or 2 years. The child usually is euthyroid but may be slightly hypo-or-hyperthyroid. (A)This not a chronic disease. (B)- There seems to be a strong genetic predisposition, but no mode of inheritance has been
identified. (C)- This is not an untreatable or fatal disorder; it can be controlled with a medical regimen.
64. One nutritional principle to the followed in children with type1 diabetes is to provide for compensatory changes. The
midwife should review with the child how compensation for increased physical activity can be achieved and instruct
the child to:
a. Take the oral hypoglycaemic medication on days of heavy exercise
b. Increase dietary intake when there is a plan to exercise more than usual
c. Lower the insulin dose in the morning when extra exercise in the morning when extra exercise is anticipated
d. Eat simple sugars that are more rapidly absorbed to compensate for extra exercise
ANS: B- by increasing the diet- that is, increasing the child’s carbohydrate intake- a hypoglycaemic reaction caused by
exercise is less likely to occur. (A)- An oral hypoglycaemic is an inappropriate treatment for individuals with type I
diabetes. (C)- This is not an appropriate reason for altering the insulin dosage. (D)_ This type of intake is less effective
than other nutrients absorbed more slowly, which provide a more consistent blood glucose level.
65. At
At
a.
b.
c.
d.
7am, the midwife receives the information that a diabetic adolescent’s 6am fasting blood glucose was 180mg/dL.
the time, the midwife should:
Encourage the adolescent to get up and the exercise
Ask the adolescent to obtain an immediate glucometer reading
Give the adolescent a complex carbohydrate such as milk or cheese
Have the adolescent administer the prescribed does of regular insulin
ANS: D- blood glucose of 180 mg/dL is above the average range, and regular insulin, which is fast-acting, is needed.
(A)- Exercise will not correct the problem; regular insulin is needed. (B)- This action will not correct the problem; the
blood glucose is already known. (C)- Food intake would increase the blood glucose at this time.
66. A 16-year-old recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes, will receive Novolin N insulin subcutaneously. When providing
counselling about the insulin and the potential for hypoglycaemia, the midwife should include information that NPH
(Novolin N) insulin given subcutaneously will peak in:
a. 1-2 hours
b. 2-4 hours
c. 4-12 hours
d. 5-7 hours
ANS: C- NPH (Novolin N) insulin peaks in 4 to 12 hours; it has an onset of 1 to 2 hours and duration of 18 to 24 hours.
(A)- This is the onset of action of NPH (Novolin N) insulin. (B)- This is the peak action of regular (Novolin R) insulin. (D)This is the duration of action of regular (Novolin R) insulin.
67. An
a.
b.
c.
d.
evening snack is planned for a child receiving Humulin N insulin. The midwife understands that this will provide:
Added calories to help the child gain weight
Encouragement for the child to stay on a diet
High-carbohydrate nourishment for immediate utilization
Nourishment with a latent effect to counteract late insulin activity
ANS: D- a bedtime snack for the evening. Humulin N insulin lasts for 24 to 48 hours. Protein and carbohydrate
ingestion before sleep prevents hypoglycaemia during the night, when action of Humulin N insulin will be high. (A)- There
are no data to indicate such a need; a bedtime snack is routinely provided to help cover intermediate-acting insulin during
sleep. (B)- The snack is important for diet/insulin balance the night, not encouragement. (C)- The snack must contain
mainly protein-rich foods to help cover the intermediate-acting insulin during sleep.
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68. After orthopedic surgery, a 15 year-old complains of pain and is given 15 mg of codeine sulphate as ordered every 3
hours PRN. Two hours after having been given this medication, the adolescent complains of severe pain. The
midwife should:
a. Report that the adolescent has an apparent idiosyncrasy to codeine
b. Tell the adolescent that additional medication cannot be given for 1 more hour
c. Request that the physician evaluate the adolescent’s need for additional medication
d. Administer another dose of codeine within 30 minutes, because it is a relatively safe drug
ANS: C-the nurse made the assessment that the medication was ineffective in relieving the child’s pain for the
duration ordered. This information should be communicated to the physician for evaluation. (A)- There are no data to
support this. The amount of medication was probably inadequate for the client’s pain tolerance level. (B)- The nurse
should not ignore the child’s need for pain relief. (D)- The physician’s order is for administration only every 3 hours;
legally it an be given only within these guidelines.
69. A 9-year-old child has a fractured tibia, and a full leg cast has been applied. The midwife should immediately notify
the physician if assessment demonstrates:
a. A pedal pulse of 90
b. An inability to move the toes
b. An increased urinary output
d. A plaster cast that is still damp after 4 hours
ANS: C- a cast is not flexible and can inhibit circulation. Cold toes, loss of sensation in toes, pain, and inability to move
toes should be reported to the physician immediately. (A)- The expected pulse for a 9-year-old child ranges from 70 to
110. (B)- This may be related to increased fluid intake. (D)- It takes 24 to 48 hours for a plaster cast to dry.
70. A 7-year-old girl has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The parents are concerned about the lifelong
effects of the disease. Their daughter is already having difficulty going to school in the morning. The parents are
investigating other therapies to use with the medications. The midwife should recommend a referral for:
a. Physical therapy
b. Special education
c. Nutritional therapy
d. Herbal supplements
ANS: A-a physical therapist can prescribe an exercise protocol to keep the joints as mobile as possible; a routine can
be developed to help the child alleviate morning stiffness. (B)- Although this might be necessary in the future, there is no
evidence that is needed at this time. (C)- Although nutrition is an appropriate part of therapy, it is the physical therapy
program than can most directly influence movement. (D)- Over-the-counter medications should not be used without the
supervision of the practitioner.
71. When elevating the head of an infant in a spica cast, the midwife should be aware that it is important to:
a. Limit this position to 1 hour at a maximum
c. Place at least two pillows under the shoulders
b. Use folded diapers around the edge of the cast
d. Raise the entire mattress or bed at the head of the
bed
ANS: D- pillows under the head or shoulders of a child in a spica cast will thrust the chest forward against the cast,
causing discomfort and respiratory distress. When elevation of the head is desired, the entire mattress or bed should be
raised at the head of the bed. (A)- There is no reason to place a time limit on this position. (B)- This will not help in any
way. (C)- This will thrust the chest forward against the cast, causing discomfort and respiratory distress.
72. A child with a leg fracture of suspicious origin is brought into the emergency department by his mother and the
mother’s boyfriend. It is the child’s first visit to this hospital. After assessing the child, the midwife suggests that the
physician order a skeletal survey because it:
a. Will pinpoint the exact location and extent of the fracture
b. Is more cost effective that ordering three separate x-rays of the leg and hip
c. Is the first step toward a complete assessment before a CT scan and an MRI is done
d. Will provide a skeletal history of the current fracture and any previous healing or healed fractures
ANS: D- abusive parents may ―shop‖ for hospitals that do not have a previous record of their child; the skeletal survey
would provide a revealing injury history if there were abuse. (A)- Pinpointing the exact location of a fracture is necessary
to plan for appropriate treatment, but it does not provide the information that a skeletal survey would when abuse is
suspected. (B)- Cost effectiveness is not the primary concern if abuse is suspected. (C)- A CT scan and MRI would not be
required unless internal injuries are suspected.
73. The midwife explains to parents of a toddler with strabismus that if this condition is not corrected in early
childhood, it can lead to:
a. Glaucoma
b. Refractive errors
c. Partial loss of sights d. Childhood catheters
ANS: C- if the strabismus is not corrected, sight in the affected eye would be lost due to lack of use. (A)- Glaucoma is
caused by increased intraocular pressure, not strabismus. (B)- Refractive errors are related to visual acuity rather than
strabismus. (D)- Cataracts do not result from strabismus.
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74. If monocular strabismus in children is not corrected early enough:
a. Dyslexia will develop
c. Amblyopia develops in the weak eye
b. Peripheral vision will disappear
d. Vision in both eyes will be diminished
ANS: C-Amblyopia is reduced visual acuity that may occur when an eye weakened by strabismus is not forced to
function. (A)- the lack of binocularity could result in impaired depth and spatial perceptions, not dyslexia. (B)- Depth and
spatial perceptions are impaired when vision in one eye is severely impaired. (D)- Only vision in the affected eye will be
diminished.
75. A 12 year-old child is in the intensive care unit after sustaining a spinal cord injury. Which interventions should the
midwife include in this client’s plan of care? Select all that apply.
a. _____ Minimizing environmental stimuli
c. ______Monitoring and maintaining blood pressure
b. ______Monitoring for respiratory complications d. ______Initiating a bowel and bladder training program
ANS: B and C.(B)- individuals with spinal cord injury, particularly those higher in the vertebral column, remain
unstable for several weeks after the injury. Maintaining a patent airway a priority. (C)- Physiologic instability during the
first several weeks after the injury results in fluctuating vital signs including BP readings. (A)- Environmental stimuli do
not have to be reduced. (D)- This is too early to institute a bowel and bladder training program.
76. A child with diminished sensation in the legs because of cerebral palsy should be taught special safety precautions,
including:
a. Testing the temperature of water in any water-related activity
b. Setting the clock two times during the night to change position
c. Tightening straps and buckles more than usual on braces when ambulating
d. Looking down at the lower extremities when crutch walking to determine proper positioning of the legs
ANS: A-individuals whose thermoreceptives senses are impaired are unable to detect changes or degrees of
temperature. They must be taught to first test the temperature in any water-related activity to prevent scalding and
burning. (B)- the child with cerebral palsy normally has uncontrolled movement of voluntary muscles and does not need
to be awakened at night to prevent skin breakdown. (C)- Over tightening straps and buckles may lead to circulatory
impairment and/or skin breakdown. (D)- This is dangerous because this action alters the center of gravity; with practice
the child will be bale to place the legs in the appropriate position for walking without looking down.
77. A 4-year-old child has a revision of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. A sign of an infected shunt that the midwife should
assess for would be:
a. Lethargy
b. Headache
c. Stiff neck
d. Decreased pulse
ANS: C-infectious process could cause meningitis that would result in a stiff neck. (A)- Irritability rather than lethargy
would result; lethargy is more often associated with increased intracranial pressure. (B)- Headache is associated with
increased intracranial pressure. (D)- The pulse would be increased with an infection; a decreased pulse is associated with
increased intracranial pressure.
78. One morning, the nurse notes that a 3-year-old child in a crib has a clamped jaw and is having a tonic-clonic seizure.
The priority nursing responsibility at this time is to:
a. Start oxygen at 10L
c. Restrain the child to prevent injury to soft tissue
b. Insert a plastic airway
d. Protect the child from harm from the environment
ANS: D-because the child is in a crib, the nurse should remain, observes, and protects the child from injury to the
head or extremities during the seizure activity. (A)- This is useless until the seizure is over; the child is apneic during a
seizure. (B)- Attempts at inserting a plastic airway are futile; this could damage the child’s teeth and jaws. (C)- An
individual should never be restrained during a seizure; fractured bones or torn muscles and ligaments can result.
79. A infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with exstrophy of the bladder. The midwife should cover the
exstrophy with a sterile:
a. Loose diaper
b. Saline gauze pad
c. Dry gauze dressing d. Petroleum jelly gauze pad
ANS: B- the bladder membrane is exposed; it must remain moist and as far as possible, sterile. (A)- The exposed
membrane would dry and there would be an increased risk for infection. (C)- Same as answer A. (D)- The jelly would
adhere to the membrane, causing trauma.
80. A 7 year old is admitted for surgery. Preoperatively, it is essential that the midwife:
a. Observe the child’s ASO titer
c. Check for loose teeth and report the findings to the physician
b. Provide the child with a favourite toy
d. Encourage a parent to stay until the child goes to the operating room
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ANS: C- school age children lose their primary teeth, which could be aspirated during surgery. The anaesthesiologist
must take special precautions to maintain safety. (A)- There is no reason to obtain an antistreptolysin (ASO) titer. (B)This is a comforting gesture, but it is not essential. (D)- This is important but not always possible.
81. A toddler is admitted to the hospital because of sudden hoarseness and continuous, somewhat unintelligible speech.
When talking with the mother, the midwife will be particularly concerned about:
a. Retropharyngeal abscess
c. Undetected laryngeal abnormality
b. Acute respiratory tract infection
d. Respiratory tract obstruction caused by a foreign body
ANS: D-respiratory tract obstructions usually occur in the larynx, trachea, or major bronchi (usually right). Hoarseness
may indicate vocal cord injury. Unintelligence speech may indicate an interference in the flow of air out of the respiratory
tract and/or obstruction or injury to the larynx. (A)- a retropharyngeal abscess would not produce these clinical signs. (B)An acute respiratory infection usually has a gradual onset. (C)- In view of the sudden onset of clinical signs and the age
of the child, this is unlikely.
82. While feeding a newborn with the diagnosis of choanal atresia, the midwife notices that the newborn:
a. Chokes on the feeding
c. Does not appear to be hungry
b. Lacks a swallowing reflex
d. Takes only about half of the feeding
ANS: A-there is little or no opening between the nasal passages and the nasopharynx; therefore, the infant can
breathe only through the mouth. When feeding, the infant cannot breathe without aspirating some of the fluid; this
causes choking. (B)- The swallowing reflex is present in these infants. (C)- Because it is difficult if not impossible to suck,
the infant will be very hungry. (D)- If choanal atresia is unilateral, there may be no symptoms and the infant will be able
to feed; if bilateral, sucking will be almost impossible.
83. The average 5 year old is incapable of:
a. Tying shoelaces
b. Abstract thought
c. Making decisions
d. Hand-eye coordination
ANS: B-Piaget’s stresses that age 7 is the turning point in mental development. New forms of organization appear at
this age that marks the beginning of logic, symbolism and abstract thought. (A)- A 5-year-old is capable of tying laces.
(C)- a toddler is capable of making simple decisions. (D)- an infant is capable of hand-eye coordination.
84. The midwife understands that a good snack for a 2-year old child with a diagnosis of acute asthma would be:
a. Grapes
b. Apple slices
c. A glass of milk
d. a glass of cola
ANS: B-of these foods and fluids, an apple provides the best nutrition for a toddler. (A)- This is unsafe; a toddler could
choke on the skins of the grapes. (C)- The child may have difficulty swallowing liquids; cold fluid may cause
bronchospasm. (D)- Cola is lacking in nutritional value and could be too much of a stimulant.
85. When evaluating a 3 year old ’s developmental progress, the midwife should recognize that development is delayed
when the child is unable to:
a. Copy a square
b. Hop on one foot
c. Catch a ball reliably d. Use a spoon effectively
ANS: D- this is a task expected of 3 year olds. (A)- This is a task expected of 4 to 5 year olds. (B)- This is a task
expected of 4 year olds. (C)- Same as answer B.
86. A 15 month old is playing in the playpen. The midwife evaluates that the child’s ability to perform physical tasks is at
the age-related norm when the child is able to:
a. Build a tower of six blocks
c. Throw all the toys out of the playpen
b. Walk across the playpen with ease
d. Stand in the playpen holding onto the sides
ANS: B-at 15 months, strength and balance have improved, and the toddler can stand and walk alone. (A)- This is
usually occurs when the child is 2 years old. (C)- Infants are very capable of throwing toys. (D)- Infants 9 to 12 months
of age can stand with support.
87. At a well-child visit, a 1 –year-old boy’s height is assessed by the nurse to be below what is expected. His current
height is 28 inches, and his birth length was 20 inches. What should his current height be?
a. 27 inches
b. 30 inches
c. 32 inches
d. 35 inches
ANS: B-this child is 2 inches shorter than expected. At 1 year of age a child should have increased his or her birth
length by 50%; 50% of 20 inches is 10 inches; 10 inches added to the birth length at 20 inches equals 30 inches. (A)This is too short. (C)- This too tall. (D)- Same as answer C.
88. A child with a high blood level of lead is started on a regimen of chelation therapy that consists of calcium disodium
edetate (EDTA) and dimecaprol (BAL) q4h for 5 days. The midwife understands that this combination of drugs:
a. Removes lead from the bone marrow more efficiently
b. Eliminates lead from the body more rapidly through the urine
c. Has fewer side effects and removes lead from the brain more effectively
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d. Removes lead from the blood more rapidly and increases deposition in the bones
ANS: C-fewer side effects are desirable. Rapid elimination of the lead prevents further irreversible damage. (A)- The
combination is preferred because it removes lead more effectively from the brain rather then from bone marrow. (B)There is no marked difference in the arte of urinary elimination when these agents are used together. (D)- Each drug is
able to accomplish this, but given alone, each can cause more side effects.
89. The midwife administers desmopressin (DDAVP) to a child with enuresis. This medication usually is effective because
it acts as:
a. A laxative
b. A sedative
c. An antidiuretic
d. An antidepressant
ANS: C-DDAVP is an analog of arginine vasopressin, which acts as an anti-diuretic. (A)- DDAVP is used only as antidiuretic. (B) and (D)- same as answer A.
90. After orthopedic surgery, codeine sulphate is given for pain to an adolescent. About 8 hours later, the adolescent
complains of itching. A drug that can be ordered to relieve this symptom is:
a. Nitrofurazone(Furacin) b. Hyaluronidase(Wydase) c. Acetylsalicylic acid(ecotrin) d. Diphenhydramine(Benadryl)
ANS: D-Diphenhydramine(Benadryl) is an antihistamine that prevents histamine from reaching its site of action by
competing for the receptors. (A)- Nitrofurazone(Furacin)is a bacterial agent used especially with burns. (B)Hyaluronidase(Wydase)- is a mucolytic enzyme that promotes diffusion and absorption of injected fluids, exudates,
transudates. (C)- This is a salicylate.
91. The midwife explains to the parents of a child who is taking methylphenidate(Concerta) for attention deficit
hyperactivity disorder(ADHD) that the medication should be given early in the day to limit:
a. Nausea
b. Anorexia
c. Insomnia
d. Tachycardia
ANS: C-one of the CNS side effects of Concerta is insomnia. Because it is an extended release (ER) medication, it must
be given early so that its effect has subsided before bedtime. (A)- Although this is a side effect of Concerta, it is not the
reason for administering the medication. (B) and (D)- Same as answer A.
92. A child who is known to have the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV) is admitted with the diagnosis of
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. The physician orders trimethoxazolesulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) and pentamidine.
When administering Bactrim to a child with AIDs, the midwife should monitor for the most common side effect of:
a. Jaundice
b. Headache
c. Toxic nephrosis
d. Hypersentivity reactions
ANS: D-hypersensitivity reactions such as skin rash, erythema, fever, and pruritus occur with mush greater frequency in
clients with AIDS. (A)- Hepatic side effects, such as jaundice, may occur but are not common. (B)- CNS side effects such
as headache are rare adverse reactions. (C)- This is a rare side effect.
93. A 6-year-old girl begins thumb-sucking after surgery. This was not the child’s behaviour preoperatively. The midwife
should:
a. Accept the thumb-sucking
c. Report this behaviour to the physician
b. Distract her by playing checkers
d. Tell her that thumb-sucking causes buckteeth
ANS: A-regression is expected in times of stress. It is a transient need that should be accepted, because it helps reduce
anxiety. (B)- Distraction works only as long as it is employed. (C)- This behaviour is unrelated to medical progress. (D)Cause (thumb sucking) and future effect (buckteeth) will not be meaningful to a 6 year old; furthermore, thumb sucking
may or may not cause malocclusion.
94. Before surgery to relieve an intestinal obstruction, a 3-month-old is kept NPO and has a Nasogastric tube in place. To
calm the infant, as well as meet developmental needs, the midwife should:
a. Allow the infant to suck on a pacifier
c. Hang a brightly colored mobile in the infant’s crib
b. Offer the infant a favourite toy to hold
d. Place the infant on the abdomen and permit crawling
ANS: A- sucking is a primary need of infancy. It decreases anxiety and does not interfere with the gastric
decompression. (B)- This would be more helpful if the child were a toddler. (C)- Usually this does not help to calm the
infant. (D)- This will probably increase the pain from abdominal distention; 3 month old is not be placed on their
abdomens because this practice is associated with SIDS.
95. Before administering a tube feeding to an infant, the midwife should:
a. Irrigate the tube with water
c. Provide the baby with a pacifier
b. Slowly instill 10mL of formula
d. Place in the Trendelenburg position
ANS: C-a pacifier should be given during the feeding to help the infant associate sucking with feeding and meet oral
needs. (A)- This would cause complications if the tube is not in the stomach. (B)- This would be done after placement
and a residual are ascertained. (D)- Upright positioning is essential to prevent regurgitation or reflux and subsequent
aspiration.
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Tel. Numbers: (02)-716-4783; (02)-713-8880; (02)708-27-82
96. The response that would be unusual in infants subjected to prolonged hospitalization would be:
a. Lack or slowness of weight pain
c. Excessive crying and clinging when approached
b. Limited emotional response to stimuli d. Looking at ceiling lights rather than at persons caring for them
ANS: C-excessive crying and clinging are the usual responses of an infant who expects to be comforted, not one who
has experienced prolonged separation from a parent because of illness. (A)- Prolonged hospitalization an separation from
parenting can cause delayed growth or even death in infants. (B)- Withdrawing active attention Is the infant’s way to
―turn off‖ and may learned from multiple failures in interactions with stimuli. (D)- inattentiveness may be learned from
failure to gain response form humans in previous experiences.
97. A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after falling on the handlebars of her tricycle. She is
guarding her abdomen, crying, and not allowing anyone to touch her. Which actions would best enable the midwife
to initiate the assessment process?
a. Medicate the child for pain and then proceed
b. Allow the child to guide the examiner’s hand to the area that hurts
c. Have the parents restrain the child while the abdomen is auscultated
d. Have the physician order a CAT scan since a child this age is unable to cooperate
ANS: B-the child will move her hand to the abdomen; the nurse can then engage the child’s cooperation and do a
general assessment. (A)- Further assessment is necessary; it should be determined whether the crying is due to pain or
fear. (C)- The parents may hold the child, but they should not restrain her because this could increase anxiety. (D)- This
is not an initial intervention; the child’s cooperation will be needed for this procedure.
98. Iodine supplementation for school age children, should be given at a dose of one capsule per year, and the correct
dose is:
a. Iodized oil capsule with 200 mg iodine
c. Iodized capsule oil with 100 mg iodine
b. Iodized capsule oil with 250 mg iodine
d. Iodized capsule oil with 150 mg iodine oil
ANS: A
99. The correct definition of exclusive breast feeding is:
a. Giving a baby only breast milk for the first 6 months
b. Giving a baby only with breast milk & can be given with water
c. Giving a baby with only breast milk, no water but can be given with drops or syrups which could be vitamins,
minerals or medicines for the first 6 months
d. Giving a baby with breast milk, water vitamins & minerals for the first 6 months
ANS: C- CHNpp 136
100.
After 6 months of age, all babieswould require other foods to complement breast feeding, this is called:
a. Exclusive breast feeding
c. Breast feeding with complementary feeding
b. Exclusive complementary feeding
d. Complementary feeding
ANS: D– Complementary feeding is giving all babies after 6 months of age with other foods to complement breast milk—
this we call as complementary foods. When complementary foods are introduced, breast feeding should still continue up
to 2 years f age or beyond.
GOOD LUCK AND GOD BLESS!!!
SUBMIT YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR PROCTOR AND WAIT FOR FURTHER INSTRUCTIONS. .
Ningloves /Emgy/Lea/Iya/Marky/Jay/Mulo
Sir Mark/Sir Oyo/Maam Chit/Maam Digs
Toni/Hazel/Rima/Josh
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P.U.P. Hasmin Hostel, R. Magsaysay Blvd., Sta. Mesa, Manila
reviewuniversityfornurses@gmail.com; www.runurses.com
Tel. Numbers: (02)-716-4783; (02)-713-8880; (02)708-27-82
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