This document contains 29 multiple choice questions about various topics in neonatology. It begins with questions related to Apgar scoring, jaundice, treatment of hyperbilirubinemia, nasal obstruction in newborns, and clinical syndromes. Subsequent questions cover definitions, screening tests, causes of conditions like hypercalcemia and necrotizing enterocolitis, and appropriate actions for meconium stained fluid at delivery. Further questions address genital anomalies, respiratory distress syndrome risk factors, normal newborn findings, effects of caffeine, signs of zinc deficiency, and risks of assisted reproduction. The document concludes with questions on imprinting disorders, osteogenesis imperfecta, nasal malformations, cephalohematomas, group B
This document contains 16 multiple choice questions about newborn examinations. The questions cover topics like common newborn physical exam findings, conditions that should be investigated in a 5 day old baby, diagnoses for common newborn rashes, the fetal circulation transition after birth, lung development, and other newborn health issues.
The document discusses several multiple choice questions (MCQs) about newborn infants. Some key points addressed include:
- Common physical findings in newborns like capillary hemangiomas, fontanels, and skin tags.
- Conditions that should be investigated in a 5 day old baby like cloudy corneas and rectus muscle separation.
- Erythema toxicum neonatorum is identified as a common benign rash seen in healthy newborns based on descriptions of lesions and smear findings.
- Transient neonatal pustular melanosis is identified as the most likely diagnosis for an infant with vesicopustules, freckle-like macules, and
This document contains 50 multiple choice questions about various topics in neonatology. The questions cover areas such as newborn assessment, common conditions in newborns, neonatal resuscitation, prematurity, and more. The questions are intended to test a physician's knowledge of clinical presentations, diagnoses, management strategies, and underlying pathophysiology across a range of neonatal conditions and scenarios.
This document contains 6 multiple choice questions about neonatal resuscitation and management:
1. The most important initial step when meconium is present is to suction the hypopharynx to clear the airway.
2. A newborn with signs of hypoxia following placental abruption would most likely have decreased bicarbonate levels.
3. For a preterm infant at 27 weeks gestation, the initial management should be to provide nasal CPAP.
4. Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy is most likely to present with seizures in the first 24 hours of life.
5. After the heart rate increases to 100 with bag-mask ventilation, the
This document contains definitions and questions related to a neonatology end-of-posting test. It defines terms like perinatal mortality rate, neonatal mortality rate, and others. It also provides answers to questions about conditions like respiratory distress syndrome, transient tachypnea of the newborn, hypoglycemia, infections, and intracranial hemorrhage in newborns. Clinical signs, diagnostic tests, and management strategies are discussed. Survival rates by birth weight are also presented.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions about neonatology. The questions cover topics like the benefits of breastfeeding, nutritional requirements for formula-fed infants, indications for soy formula, composition of breastmilk versus cow's milk, Apgar scoring of newborns, fetal development, newborn transition after birth, newborn resuscitation, and assessment of gestational age.
Mcq in neonatology for medical studentsVarsha Shah
This document contains a multiple choice quiz on neonatal topics for medical students. It includes 6 questions related to newborn examinations, skull anatomy, skin findings, risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip, normal birth physiology, and the Apgar score. For each question, the correct answer is identified and feedback is provided to explain the rationale. The feedback often notes limitations or caveats to the incorrect answer choices.
Pediatric Arab Board MCQ Review - Emergency Medicine Fatima Farid
A pediatric emergency medicine board review document was provided containing questions and answers related to pediatric toxicology, electrolyte abnormalities, burns, foreign body ingestion/aspiration, and allergic reactions. Some key points:
- Question 1 asked about prognostic markers in non-fatal drowning, with the answer being development of a seizure is not considered an unfavorable marker.
- Question 2 asked about the most common cause of poisoning in childhood, with the answer being aspirin.
- Question 3 asked about the most common cause of fatal poisoning in children, with the answer being organophosphates.
- There were also questions related to the management of button battery ingestion, hypercalcemia, alcohol
This document contains 16 multiple choice questions about newborn examinations. The questions cover topics like common newborn physical exam findings, conditions that should be investigated in a 5 day old baby, diagnoses for common newborn rashes, the fetal circulation transition after birth, lung development, and other newborn health issues.
The document discusses several multiple choice questions (MCQs) about newborn infants. Some key points addressed include:
- Common physical findings in newborns like capillary hemangiomas, fontanels, and skin tags.
- Conditions that should be investigated in a 5 day old baby like cloudy corneas and rectus muscle separation.
- Erythema toxicum neonatorum is identified as a common benign rash seen in healthy newborns based on descriptions of lesions and smear findings.
- Transient neonatal pustular melanosis is identified as the most likely diagnosis for an infant with vesicopustules, freckle-like macules, and
This document contains 50 multiple choice questions about various topics in neonatology. The questions cover areas such as newborn assessment, common conditions in newborns, neonatal resuscitation, prematurity, and more. The questions are intended to test a physician's knowledge of clinical presentations, diagnoses, management strategies, and underlying pathophysiology across a range of neonatal conditions and scenarios.
This document contains 6 multiple choice questions about neonatal resuscitation and management:
1. The most important initial step when meconium is present is to suction the hypopharynx to clear the airway.
2. A newborn with signs of hypoxia following placental abruption would most likely have decreased bicarbonate levels.
3. For a preterm infant at 27 weeks gestation, the initial management should be to provide nasal CPAP.
4. Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy is most likely to present with seizures in the first 24 hours of life.
5. After the heart rate increases to 100 with bag-mask ventilation, the
This document contains definitions and questions related to a neonatology end-of-posting test. It defines terms like perinatal mortality rate, neonatal mortality rate, and others. It also provides answers to questions about conditions like respiratory distress syndrome, transient tachypnea of the newborn, hypoglycemia, infections, and intracranial hemorrhage in newborns. Clinical signs, diagnostic tests, and management strategies are discussed. Survival rates by birth weight are also presented.
This document contains 20 multiple choice questions about neonatology. The questions cover topics like the benefits of breastfeeding, nutritional requirements for formula-fed infants, indications for soy formula, composition of breastmilk versus cow's milk, Apgar scoring of newborns, fetal development, newborn transition after birth, newborn resuscitation, and assessment of gestational age.
Mcq in neonatology for medical studentsVarsha Shah
This document contains a multiple choice quiz on neonatal topics for medical students. It includes 6 questions related to newborn examinations, skull anatomy, skin findings, risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip, normal birth physiology, and the Apgar score. For each question, the correct answer is identified and feedback is provided to explain the rationale. The feedback often notes limitations or caveats to the incorrect answer choices.
Pediatric Arab Board MCQ Review - Emergency Medicine Fatima Farid
A pediatric emergency medicine board review document was provided containing questions and answers related to pediatric toxicology, electrolyte abnormalities, burns, foreign body ingestion/aspiration, and allergic reactions. Some key points:
- Question 1 asked about prognostic markers in non-fatal drowning, with the answer being development of a seizure is not considered an unfavorable marker.
- Question 2 asked about the most common cause of poisoning in childhood, with the answer being aspirin.
- Question 3 asked about the most common cause of fatal poisoning in children, with the answer being organophosphates.
- There were also questions related to the management of button battery ingestion, hypercalcemia, alcohol
1. Findings in this x-ray: Bilateral coalesced opacities in upper and mid zones.
2. Two important conditions which produce similar findings: Pulmonary tuberculosis, pneumonia.
3. To differentiate radiologically: In tuberculosis, opacities are more dense and cavitation is seen. In pneumonia, opacities are less dense and consolidation is seen.
4. Hematological problems that can occur: Anemia due to chronic disease, thrombocytopenia.
Practical pediatric quiz - Kaun Banega WinnerGaurav Gupta
Interactive quiz based on mentimeter platform for IAP Chandigarh Annual meeting in Dec 2017.
Great success for practising paediatricians in general,
Also a great teaching experience
Foster care aims to safely care for children while providing family services to promote reunification. Most children in foster care have experienced abuse or neglect, and a permanency plan must be made within 12 months. Oral rehydration is not indicated for a 4-month-old with severe dehydration due to the risks associated with their critical condition. Patients at risk for hyponatremia from standard maintenance fluids include those who may produce antidiuretic hormone due to conditions like bronchiolitis, trauma, or nephrotic syndrome.
Here are the first 5 steps in managing a newborn presenting with seizures on day 2 of life:
1. Ensure patent airway and provide oxygen via mask or endotracheal tube if needed.
2. Start IV access and obtain blood for glucose, calcium, magnesium, blood gas, CBC, CRP levels.
3. Give 10% dextrose bolus if hypoglycemia suspected.
4. Give phenobarbitone 20mg/kg loading dose if seizures persist after correction of hypoglycemia.
5. Start antibiotics like ampicillin and gentamicin to cover for sepsis until culture reports are available.
The 4 categories of vaccines are:
1. Live attenuated vaccines: These are vaccines created from live weakened (attenuated) strains of viruses or bacteria. They mimic natural infection to stimulate immune response. Examples include MMR, BCG, chickenpox, rotavirus vaccines.
2. Inactivated vaccines: These are created from viruses or bacteria that have been killed (inactivated) using heat, chemicals, or radiation. Examples include influenza, hepatitis A vaccines.
3. Toxoid vaccines: These are created from bacterial toxins that have been inactivated with formaldehyde. Examples include tetanus and diphtheria vaccines.
4. Subunit, recombinant, polysaccharide, and conjugate vaccines
This document contains 20 self-assessment questions submitted by junior medical students on their Pediatric Clerkship rotation. The questions cover topics like rheumatic fever, Kawasaki disease, asthma severity classifications, otitis media, Down syndrome, HIV in mothers and newborns, Wilson's disease, and more. The questions are provided "as is" by the clerkship director as a study aid for subsequent students.
The most common infectious disease associated with lymphocytopenia is AIDS, which causes lymphocytopenia through destruction of CD4 T cells infected with HIV. The diagnosis of maple syrup urine disease is confirmed by decreased plasma levels of leucine, isoleucine, and valine. The preferred therapy for patients with maple syrup urine disease is liver transplantation. The core team for care of children with rheumatic disease includes all specialists except an ophthalmologist.
1) Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (HIE) is brain injury caused by lack of oxygen and blood flow before, during, or after birth. It remains a serious condition that can cause death or long-term disabilities like cerebral palsy or intellectual impairment.
2) The document discusses the definition, risk factors, pathophysiology, clinical features based on the Sarnat staging system, diagnosis using imaging and EEG, and treatment approaches for HIE including supportive care, perfusion management, anti-seizure medications, and therapeutic hypothermia.
3) The goal of treatment is to prevent further brain injury by maintaining appropriate oxygenation, blood pressure, glucose levels, and treating seizures
What is the most likely diagnosis? (1)
Station 10 B
A child presents with recurrent infections since birth. On examination he has sparse hair, cafe au lait spots and hypotonia.
The CT scan shows a large extradural haematoma on the right side of the brain causing mass effect and midline shift. The ventricles are compressed. Differential diagnoses for the large abdominal mass include neuroblastoma, Wilms tumor, lymphoma, soft tissue sarcoma and pheochromocytoma. The chest X-ray shows bowel loops in the chest cavity indicating a right-sided diaphragmatic hernia. Management includes NG drainage, ventilation until stable, and corrective surgery.
This document contains 73 multiple choice questions related to pediatric medicine. The questions cover topics such as child development milestones, growth patterns, common childhood illnesses and disorders, and prenatal development. The questions are intended to test medical knowledge for topics like normal infant growth, childhood motor and language development stages, causes of intrauterine growth retardation, and more.
This document contains 35 multiple choice questions related to a gynaecology exam. It provides the questions, possible answers and the key/correct answer for each question. The questions cover topics such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, menopause, prolapse, ovarian tumors, contraception and more.
1. The child presents with abdominal pain, fever, and decreased appetite for 13 days. Examination finds a coated tongue.
2. The most likely diagnosis is enteric fever. Investigations include blood culture, Widal test, and bone marrow culture. Complications are intestinal hemorrhage, perforation, encephalopathy, and sepsis.
3. There is a typhoid vaccine of purified Vi antigen in a single 0.5ml dose with booster doses every two years.
1. Dr. Arif Hossain and Dr. Chit Narayan Sah presented on neonatal anemia at a department seminar.
2. Case scenario 1 involved a 26 day old preterm infant with poor weight gain despite being clinically stable. The possible cause of poor weight gain was anemia.
3. Case scenario 2 was about a 2 hour old term infant with Rh-isoimmunization who was pale with a hemoglobin of 10.6 g/dl and positive Coombs test, indicating the problem was hemolytic anemia.
This document contains an OSCE (Objective Structured Clinical Examination) practice exam for pediatrics. It includes 10 multiple choice matching questions that pair drugs used in pregnancy with their expected adverse effects on the fetus. It also includes several short clinical vignettes followed by 5 questions each. The vignettes cover topics like interpreting an ABG result, identifying sickle cell anemia from a peripheral smear, making a diagnosis of retropharyngeal abscess from presented symptoms, and more. The goal of the summary is to provide a high-level overview of the content and focus of the practice exam.
This document provides an overview of obstetrics exam questions, cases, and notes on topics like fetal monitoring, biophysical profile (BPP) scoring, Doppler ultrasound, fetal heart rate patterns, and fetal assessment tests. It includes 26 multiple choice questions on these topics, along with brief explanations of answers. The key points covered are the criteria for normal vs abnormal test results on non-stress tests (NST), BPP, oxytocin challenge test (OCT), and definitions of different types of fetal heart rate decelerations and their clinical significance.
Definition of neonatal sepsis,type of neonatal sepsis ,early onset neonatal sepsis,late onset neonatal sepsis,Pathophysiology of neonatal sepsis,,sign and symptoms of neonatal sepsis, diagnosis of neonatal sepsis,management of neonatal sepsis, antibiotic used for neonatal sepsis,prevention of neonatal sepsis, prognosis of neonatal sepsis ,and A summary
This document contains 39 multiple choice questions about various topics in neonatology. The questions cover areas such as Apgar scoring, jaundice, respiratory issues, genetic disorders, complications of prematurity and more. Each question is followed by 5 possible answer choices. The questions are from a 100 question MCQ exam on neonatology created by Dr. Ayman Abu Mehrem from King Abdulaziz Hospital in Saudi Arabia.
The document contains 20 multiple choice questions related to child health nursing. The questions cover topics like signs and symptoms of various childhood illnesses, appropriate nursing care and health teachings for conditions like seizures, Down syndrome, cleft lip repair, sickle cell crisis, and more. Correct answers are identified for issues such as associated disorders with myelomeningocele, signs of dehydration in children, and conditions diagnosed with specific medical tests.
1. Findings in this x-ray: Bilateral coalesced opacities in upper and mid zones.
2. Two important conditions which produce similar findings: Pulmonary tuberculosis, pneumonia.
3. To differentiate radiologically: In tuberculosis, opacities are more dense and cavitation is seen. In pneumonia, opacities are less dense and consolidation is seen.
4. Hematological problems that can occur: Anemia due to chronic disease, thrombocytopenia.
Practical pediatric quiz - Kaun Banega WinnerGaurav Gupta
Interactive quiz based on mentimeter platform for IAP Chandigarh Annual meeting in Dec 2017.
Great success for practising paediatricians in general,
Also a great teaching experience
Foster care aims to safely care for children while providing family services to promote reunification. Most children in foster care have experienced abuse or neglect, and a permanency plan must be made within 12 months. Oral rehydration is not indicated for a 4-month-old with severe dehydration due to the risks associated with their critical condition. Patients at risk for hyponatremia from standard maintenance fluids include those who may produce antidiuretic hormone due to conditions like bronchiolitis, trauma, or nephrotic syndrome.
Here are the first 5 steps in managing a newborn presenting with seizures on day 2 of life:
1. Ensure patent airway and provide oxygen via mask or endotracheal tube if needed.
2. Start IV access and obtain blood for glucose, calcium, magnesium, blood gas, CBC, CRP levels.
3. Give 10% dextrose bolus if hypoglycemia suspected.
4. Give phenobarbitone 20mg/kg loading dose if seizures persist after correction of hypoglycemia.
5. Start antibiotics like ampicillin and gentamicin to cover for sepsis until culture reports are available.
The 4 categories of vaccines are:
1. Live attenuated vaccines: These are vaccines created from live weakened (attenuated) strains of viruses or bacteria. They mimic natural infection to stimulate immune response. Examples include MMR, BCG, chickenpox, rotavirus vaccines.
2. Inactivated vaccines: These are created from viruses or bacteria that have been killed (inactivated) using heat, chemicals, or radiation. Examples include influenza, hepatitis A vaccines.
3. Toxoid vaccines: These are created from bacterial toxins that have been inactivated with formaldehyde. Examples include tetanus and diphtheria vaccines.
4. Subunit, recombinant, polysaccharide, and conjugate vaccines
This document contains 20 self-assessment questions submitted by junior medical students on their Pediatric Clerkship rotation. The questions cover topics like rheumatic fever, Kawasaki disease, asthma severity classifications, otitis media, Down syndrome, HIV in mothers and newborns, Wilson's disease, and more. The questions are provided "as is" by the clerkship director as a study aid for subsequent students.
The most common infectious disease associated with lymphocytopenia is AIDS, which causes lymphocytopenia through destruction of CD4 T cells infected with HIV. The diagnosis of maple syrup urine disease is confirmed by decreased plasma levels of leucine, isoleucine, and valine. The preferred therapy for patients with maple syrup urine disease is liver transplantation. The core team for care of children with rheumatic disease includes all specialists except an ophthalmologist.
1) Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (HIE) is brain injury caused by lack of oxygen and blood flow before, during, or after birth. It remains a serious condition that can cause death or long-term disabilities like cerebral palsy or intellectual impairment.
2) The document discusses the definition, risk factors, pathophysiology, clinical features based on the Sarnat staging system, diagnosis using imaging and EEG, and treatment approaches for HIE including supportive care, perfusion management, anti-seizure medications, and therapeutic hypothermia.
3) The goal of treatment is to prevent further brain injury by maintaining appropriate oxygenation, blood pressure, glucose levels, and treating seizures
What is the most likely diagnosis? (1)
Station 10 B
A child presents with recurrent infections since birth. On examination he has sparse hair, cafe au lait spots and hypotonia.
The CT scan shows a large extradural haematoma on the right side of the brain causing mass effect and midline shift. The ventricles are compressed. Differential diagnoses for the large abdominal mass include neuroblastoma, Wilms tumor, lymphoma, soft tissue sarcoma and pheochromocytoma. The chest X-ray shows bowel loops in the chest cavity indicating a right-sided diaphragmatic hernia. Management includes NG drainage, ventilation until stable, and corrective surgery.
This document contains 73 multiple choice questions related to pediatric medicine. The questions cover topics such as child development milestones, growth patterns, common childhood illnesses and disorders, and prenatal development. The questions are intended to test medical knowledge for topics like normal infant growth, childhood motor and language development stages, causes of intrauterine growth retardation, and more.
This document contains 35 multiple choice questions related to a gynaecology exam. It provides the questions, possible answers and the key/correct answer for each question. The questions cover topics such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, menopause, prolapse, ovarian tumors, contraception and more.
1. The child presents with abdominal pain, fever, and decreased appetite for 13 days. Examination finds a coated tongue.
2. The most likely diagnosis is enteric fever. Investigations include blood culture, Widal test, and bone marrow culture. Complications are intestinal hemorrhage, perforation, encephalopathy, and sepsis.
3. There is a typhoid vaccine of purified Vi antigen in a single 0.5ml dose with booster doses every two years.
1. Dr. Arif Hossain and Dr. Chit Narayan Sah presented on neonatal anemia at a department seminar.
2. Case scenario 1 involved a 26 day old preterm infant with poor weight gain despite being clinically stable. The possible cause of poor weight gain was anemia.
3. Case scenario 2 was about a 2 hour old term infant with Rh-isoimmunization who was pale with a hemoglobin of 10.6 g/dl and positive Coombs test, indicating the problem was hemolytic anemia.
This document contains an OSCE (Objective Structured Clinical Examination) practice exam for pediatrics. It includes 10 multiple choice matching questions that pair drugs used in pregnancy with their expected adverse effects on the fetus. It also includes several short clinical vignettes followed by 5 questions each. The vignettes cover topics like interpreting an ABG result, identifying sickle cell anemia from a peripheral smear, making a diagnosis of retropharyngeal abscess from presented symptoms, and more. The goal of the summary is to provide a high-level overview of the content and focus of the practice exam.
This document provides an overview of obstetrics exam questions, cases, and notes on topics like fetal monitoring, biophysical profile (BPP) scoring, Doppler ultrasound, fetal heart rate patterns, and fetal assessment tests. It includes 26 multiple choice questions on these topics, along with brief explanations of answers. The key points covered are the criteria for normal vs abnormal test results on non-stress tests (NST), BPP, oxytocin challenge test (OCT), and definitions of different types of fetal heart rate decelerations and their clinical significance.
Definition of neonatal sepsis,type of neonatal sepsis ,early onset neonatal sepsis,late onset neonatal sepsis,Pathophysiology of neonatal sepsis,,sign and symptoms of neonatal sepsis, diagnosis of neonatal sepsis,management of neonatal sepsis, antibiotic used for neonatal sepsis,prevention of neonatal sepsis, prognosis of neonatal sepsis ,and A summary
This document contains 39 multiple choice questions about various topics in neonatology. The questions cover areas such as Apgar scoring, jaundice, respiratory issues, genetic disorders, complications of prematurity and more. Each question is followed by 5 possible answer choices. The questions are from a 100 question MCQ exam on neonatology created by Dr. Ayman Abu Mehrem from King Abdulaziz Hospital in Saudi Arabia.
The document contains 20 multiple choice questions related to child health nursing. The questions cover topics like signs and symptoms of various childhood illnesses, appropriate nursing care and health teachings for conditions like seizures, Down syndrome, cleft lip repair, sickle cell crisis, and more. Correct answers are identified for issues such as associated disorders with myelomeningocele, signs of dehydration in children, and conditions diagnosed with specific medical tests.
A 2-year-old child presents periodically with moderate proteinuria and microhematuria. An ultrasound shows the left kidney is undetectable, while the right kidney is present. This suggests the child has unilateral renal agenesis, or the absence of the left kidney.
A worker was off work for 16 days due to illness and was under outpatient treatment. The doctor initially issued a 5-day sick note, which was then extended for another 10 days. The document asks who can further prolong the sick note for this patient. The correct answer is that the doctor in charge of the case can further prolong the sick note, but only with the permission of the head of the patient's department.
This document contains a model exam for nursing graduates with multiple choice questions covering various topics in pediatric nursing. It includes 50 questions testing knowledge on areas like well-baby care, childhood illnesses, immunizations, diabetes management, fluid management for diabetic ketoacidosis, and more. It also includes 2 patient scenarios asking additional questions related to the cases. The exam addresses essential information needed for nurses caring for pediatric patients.
This document contains 25 multiple choice nursing questions and their answers about various medical topics including:
- Medications that can cause urine discoloration
- Appropriate storage of medications in a refrigerator
- Immunoglobulins that provide fetal protection
- Important actions for a nursing student after a needlestick exposure
- Likely causes of inability to urinate in diabetics
- Suspected eating disorders based on reported symptoms
- Potential causes of confusion in patients with certain medical histories
- Use of Rhogam for Rh negative mothers
- Screening and effects of PKU
- Monitoring during acute aspirin overdose management
- Responsibilities when caring for blind and deaf patients
- Best breathing instructions for COP
A child was brought to the hospital with skin changes in skin folds. Examination found dry skin with bumps and ill-defined patches of thickened skin. The rash was very itchy and worse in winter. The child has been formula-fed since age 2 months and has a history of excessive sweating. The grandmother on the mother's side has asthma. The most likely diagnosis is atopic dermatitis.
The document contains questions and answers related to pediatric nursing topics organized into 5 categories (H1-H5). Key topics covered include pain assessment in children, Lyme disease, sickle cell disease, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, and gastrointestinal disorders like appendicitis and Hirschsprung's disease. The questions test nursing knowledge and understanding of pediatric assessment, disease management, and appropriate patient education.
This document contains 40 multiple choice practice questions for the NCLEX exam. The questions cover topics such as medications, disease processes, diagnostic tests, developmental stages, and nursing care. They assess knowledge of conditions like meningitis, hyperkalemia, Down syndrome, and more. The correct answers are provided after each set of 10 questions to help test-takers review.
1) A newborn presents with plaques on the upper back. Serum calcium levels should be monitored as hypercalcemia can occur with subcutaneous fat necrosis of the newborn.
2) Trichoblastoma is the most common tumor arising within nevus sebaceous.
3) Cutis verticis gyrata is associated with pachydermoperiostosis.
This document contains 15 multiple choice questions about child health nursing. Each question is followed by an answer and rationale section. The questions cover topics such as causative organisms, newborn assessments, congenital heart defects, malnutrition grading, advantages of delayed cord clamping, signs of hypocalcemia, teething, nursing care of IV fluids, Mantoux test interpretation, Bell's palsy eye care, and encopresis. The questions, answers and rationales provide information to help test knowledge of child health nursing concepts.
Pediatric Genetics: What the Primary Provider Needs to KnowCHC Connecticut
This document provides information from a presentation on pediatric genetics for primary care providers. It discusses when genetic or metabolic diseases should be considered, such as in cases with multi-system involvement, seemingly unconnected symptoms, or progressive disease courses. It emphasizes that descriptive or idiopathic diagnoses can miss underlying causes and outlines examples of conditions that present with episodic clinical or biochemical decompensation. The document also notes challenges in making a diagnosis and potential issues with clinical diagnoses, and discusses considerations around patients obtaining genetic testing directly from commercial companies.
A 4-month-old boy experienced symptoms of Quincke's edema 15 minutes after receiving a diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine. Prednisolone is the recommended medication for emergency treatment. The document provides multiple choice questions regarding diagnosis and treatment for various pediatric patient cases.
This document contains a series of multiple choice medical questions covering various topics in anatomy, physiology, pathology, and clinical diagnosis. There are 39 questions in total, asking about topics like identifying anatomical structures, classifying disease processes, interpreting clinical signs and symptoms, and determining appropriate diagnostic tests or treatments. The questions are in a Ukrainian/Russian language, but are of a format commonly used in medical licensing exams.
This document contains 25 practice questions related to nursing topics. The questions cover subjects like medication side effects, appropriate storage of medications, common conditions in patients, and appropriate nursing interventions. They assess knowledge of topics like immunoglobulins, needlestick protocols, diabetes complications, eating disorders, hypercalcemia symptoms, and more. The questions are multiple choice format with a single correct answer provided for each question.
An 8 year old child presents with low-grade fever, arthritis, abdominal pain, and a purpuric rash localized to the lower extremities. Laboratory tests reveal a guaiac-positive stool, red blood cell casts in the urine, mild proteinuria, and a normal platelet count. This combination of symptoms and test results is most consistent with a diagnosis of Henoch-Schonlein vasculitis.
1. A 48-year-old patient experienced acute abdominal pain 1.5 hours after an esophageal procedure and examination revealed a tense, painful abdomen.
2. The most probable diagnosis is perforation of the abdominal part of the esophagus.
3. Multiple choice questions and answers were provided about various pediatric medical cases and diagnoses.
This document appears to be a slide presentation for a medical exam covering various pediatric topics. It includes 22 multiple choice questions testing knowledge in areas like:
- Normal fluid requirements in children
- Signs of dehydration
- Common causes of rashes
- Diagnosis and management of anaphylaxis in infants
- Interpreting blood tests and blood pictures
- Inheritance patterns in genetic disorders
- Assessing nutritional status in children
- Diagnosing various conditions from clinical features and imaging findings.
The questions cover topics in pediatrics, emergency medicine, clinical assessment, diagnostics and genetics.
This document contains multiple choice questions and answers related to nursing entrance preparation. It covers topics like complications of IUDs, contraindications for various contraceptive methods, stages of labor, newborn assessment, breastfeeding, and complications of pregnancy. Each question is followed by 4 answer choices with the correct answer indicated at the end in bold. There are over 50 questions in total addressing reproductive health, obstetrics, gynecology, and neonatology topics.
Krok 2 - 2008 Question Paper (General Medicine)Eneutron
This document presents a series of multiple choice questions related to medicine. The questions cover topics such as diagnosing a child's illness based on symptoms, examining a pregnant woman, complications during and after childbirth, diagnosing breast changes, and interpreting various medical tests and measurements.
Similar to Neonatologymcqs 100403011632-phpapp02 (20)
Feeding plate for a newborn with Cleft Palate.pptxSatvikaPrasad
A feeding plate is a prosthetic device used for newborns with a cleft palate to assist in feeding and improve nutrition intake. From a prosthodontic perspective, this plate acts as a barrier between the oral and nasal cavities, facilitating effective sucking and swallowing by providing a more normal anatomical structure. It helps to prevent milk from entering the nasal passage, thereby reducing the risk of aspiration and enhancing the infant's ability to feed efficiently. The feeding plate also aids in the development of the oral muscles and can contribute to better growth and weight gain. Its custom fabrication and proper fitting by a prosthodontist are crucial for ensuring comfort and functionality, as well as for minimizing potential complications. Early intervention with a feeding plate can significantly improve the quality of life for both the infant and the parents.
Deep Leg Vein Thrombosis (DVT): Meaning, Causes, Symptoms, Treatment, and Mor...The Lifesciences Magazine
Deep Leg Vein Thrombosis occurs when a blood clot forms in one or more of the deep veins in the legs. These clots can impede blood flow, leading to severe complications.
Under Pressure : Kenneth Kruk's StrategyKenneth Kruk
Kenneth Kruk's story of transforming challenges into opportunities by leading successful medical record transitions and bridging scientific knowledge gaps during COVID-19.
Rate Controlled Drug Delivery Systems, Activation Modulated Drug Delivery Systems, Mechanically activated, pH activated, Enzyme activated, Osmotic activated Drug Delivery Systems, Feedback regulated Drug Delivery Systems systems are discussed here.
Empowering ACOs: Leveraging Quality Management Tools for MIPS and BeyondHealth Catalyst
Join us as we delve into the crucial realm of quality reporting for MSSP (Medicare Shared Savings Program) Accountable Care Organizations (ACOs).
In this session, we will explore how a robust quality management solution can empower your organization to meet regulatory requirements and improve processes for MIPS reporting and internal quality programs. Learn how our MeasureAble application enables compliance and fosters continuous improvement.
This particular slides consist of- what is hypotension,what are it's causes and it's effect on body, risk factors, symptoms,complications, diagnosis and role of physiotherapy in it.
This slide is very helpful for physiotherapy students and also for other medical and healthcare students.
Here is the summary of hypotension:
Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is when the pressure of blood circulating in the body is lower than normal or expected. It's only a problem if it negatively impacts the body and causes symptoms. Normal blood pressure is usually between 90/60 mmHg and 120/80 mmHg, but pressures below 90/60 are generally considered hypotensive.
Unlocking the Secrets to Safe Patient Handling.pdfLift Ability
Furthermore, the time constraints and workload in healthcare settings can make it challenging for caregivers to prioritise safe patient handling Australia practices, leading to shortcuts and increased risks.
Gemma Wean- Nutritional solution for Artemiasmuskaan0008
GEMMA Wean is a high end larval co-feeding and weaning diet aimed at Artemia optimisation and is fortified with a high level of proteins and phospholipids. GEMMA Wean provides the early weaned juveniles with dedicated fish nutrition and is an ideal follow on from GEMMA Micro or Artemia.
GEMMA Wean has an optimised nutritional balance and physical quality so that it flows more freely and spreads readily on the water surface. The balance of phospholipid classes to- gether with the production technology based on a low temperature extrusion process improve the physical aspect of the pellets while still retaining the high phospholipid content.
GEMMA Wean is available in 0.1mm, 0.2mm and 0.3mm. There is also a 0.5mm micro-pellet, GEMMA Wean Diamond, which covers the early nursery stage from post-weaning to pre-growing.
International Cancer Survivors Day is celebrated during June, placing the spotlight not only on cancer survivors, but also their caregivers.
CANSA has compiled a list of tips and guidelines of support:
https://cansa.org.za/who-cares-for-cancer-patients-caregivers/
INFECTION OF THE BRAIN -ENCEPHALITIS ( PPT)blessyjannu21
Neurological system includes brain and spinal cord. It plays an important role in functioning of our body. Encephalitis is the inflammation of the brain. Causes include viral infections, infections from insect bites or an autoimmune reaction that affects the brain. It can be life-threatening or cause long-term complications. Treatment varies, but most people require hospitalization so they can receive intensive treatment, including life support.
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3. Question 1
An infant has the following findings at 5
minutes of life: pulse 130 bpm, cyanotic
hands and feet, good muscle tone, and a
strong cry and grimace. This infant Apgar
score is:
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
4. Question 2
Jaundice is most likely to be physiologic in
a term infant in which of the following
situations:
A. Jaundice at 12 hours of age
B. Serum bilirubin level increasing less than 5
mg/dL/24 hours in the first 2-4 days
C. Direct serum bilirubin greater than 2 mg/dL
D. Jaundice at 13 days of age
E. Serum bilirubin level 15 mg/dL at 7 days of
age
5. Question 3
Which of the following is most appropriate
for treating hyperbilirubinemia (11.2 mg/dL)
in a 3-week-old, breast-fed infant with
normal growth and development?
A. Phototherapy
B. Exchange transfusion
C. Phenobarbital
D. Replace breast milk by formula for 48 hours
E. None of the above
6. Question 4
Newborns are obligate nasal breathers for
the first few months after birth. Of the
following, the most common cause of
neonatal nasal obstruction is:
A. Choanal atresia
B. Craniofacial malformations
C. Intranasal encephalocele
D. Lacrymal cyst
E. Mucosal inflammation
7. Question 5
A term newborn appears dusky at rest, but becomes
pink with crying. Attempts to pass a catheter
through each nostril have failed. Physical
examination of the infant reveals other congenital
anomalies. Of the following, the most likely clinical
syndrome in this infant is:
A. Apert syndrome
B. CHARGE association
C. Crouzon syndrome
D. Pfeiffer syndrome
E. Treacher-Collins syndrome
8. Question 6
The following are accepted definitions Except
The neonatal period is the first 28 days of life
of a newborn of any gestational age
Small for gestation infants have a birth weight
less than 10th
centile
Infancy refers to the 1st
year of life
The fetal period is from the 12th
week of
gestation to delivery
The perinatal mortality rate is the number of
stillbirths and neonatal deaths per 1000 total
births
9. Question 7
The maternal serum screening test or
“quadruple test” is done between 14 and 22
weeks gestation. It includes all of the
following Except
A. Alpha-fetoprotein
B. β-hCG
C. Unconjugated pregninolone
D. Inhibin–A
E. Unconjugated esteriol
10. Question 8
Neonatal hypercalcemia is associated with
all of the following Except
A. Williams syndrome
B. Subcutaneous fat necrosis
C. Blue diaper syndrome
D. Familial hypercalciuric hypercalcemia
E. Primary hyperparathyroidism
11. Question 9
The single greatest risk factor for
necrotizing enterocolitis is
A. Prematurity
B. Patent ductus arteriosus
C. Indomethacin therapy
D. Polycythemia
E. Hypoxic-ischemic insult
12. Question 10
You are called to the delivery of a boy at 42 weeks’ GA
with thick meconium-stained fluid and type II
decelerations. The obstetrician rapidly delivers the
baby and hands him to you. The boy hypotonic,
cyanotic, apneic, and bradycardic. The most
appropriate action is to
A. Stimulate the infant to breath
B. Administer epinephrine
C. Provide positive-pressure bag-and-mask
ventilation
D. Intubate and provide positive-pressure ventilation
E. Intubate and apply negative-pressure suction
13. Question 11
You are called to see one-hour-old term baby in
normal newborn nursery with ambiguous
genitalia. Your plan includes all the following
Except
A. Inform the parents that their baby’s genitalia
are incompletely developed, and you need to do
some investigation to identify their baby’s
gender
B. Advise the parents to use unigender name
C. Urgent chromosomal analysis
D. Pelvic ultrasound
E. Serum electrolytes with daily monitoring
14. Question 12
Incidence of respiratory distress syndrome
increases with all of the following Except
A. Prematurity
B. Maternal diabetes
C. Black race
D. Male gender
E. Cesarean section delivery
15. Question 13
Normal findings in a newborn baby includes
all of the following Except
A. A mongolian blue spot
B. A strawberry nevus
C. Vaginal blood loss
D. Lanugo hair
E. Erythema toxicum
16. Question 14
The pharmacologic effects of caffeine in the treatment
of apnea of prematurity include stimulation of the
medullary respiratory center, increased sensitivity to
carbon dioxide, and enhanced diaphragmatic
contractility. Of the following, caffeine exerts most of
its effects by
A. Antagonism of prostaglandin activity
B. Blockage of adenosine receptors
C. Enhancement of catecholamine secretion
D. Stimulation of phosphodiesterase
E. Upregulation of gamma-amino-butyric acid
receptors
17. Question 15
When clinical zinc deficiency occurs in term and
preterm infants, almost all affected infants are
exclusively breastfed and receiving breast milk that
has substantially lower-than-average zinc content.
Of the following, the most common clinical
manifestation of zinc deficiency in infants is
A. Alopecia
B. Diarrhea
C. Failure to thrive
D. Irritability
E. Rash
18. Question 16
Assisted reproductive technology is
associated with significant risks to the fetus
and the mother. Of the following, the
greatest risk to the fetus is related to
A. Cesarean section
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Maternal pre-eclampsia
D. Multiple gestations
E. Placental abruption
19. Question 17
A term male newborn has severe intrauterine
growth restriction, triangular face with broad
forehead and pointed chin, leg length asymmetry,
fifth finger clinodactyly, and cryptorchidism. Of the
following, the most likely genomic imprinting
disorder in this infant is
A. Albright hereditary osteodystrophy
B. Angelman syndrome
C. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
D. Prader-Willi syndrome
E. Silver-Russell syndrome
20. Question 18
A preterm newborn has multiple fractures of long
bones, wormian skull, dark blue sclera, and beaked
nose. Osteogenesis imperfecta type II is suspected.
Genetic molecular tests are ordered for confirmation
of the diagnosis. Of the following, the genetic mutation
in this infant is most likely to involve the
A. ADAMTS2 gene
B. Collagen 1A1 gene
C. Fibrillin-1 gene
D. Filamin B gene
E. Transforming growth factor receptor 1 gene
21. Question 19
Of the following, the nasal maldevelopment
most likely to be associated with
holoprosencephaly is:
A. Cepocephaly
B. Choanal atresia
C. Nasal agenesis
D. Piriform aperture stenosis
E. Proboscis lateralis
22. Question 20
Regarding the head of a newborn infant
(multiple choices)
A. A cephalohematoma will resolve within the
first 24 hours of life
B. Caput is due to edema of the presenting
part of the head
C. A cephalohematoma is due to bleeding into
the skin
D. Overlapping of the skull bones is a normal
finding
E. A cephalohematoma should be drained
23. Question 21
The most prevalent clinical manifestation of
late-onset group B Streptococcus disease is
A. Arthritis
B. Cellulitis
C. Meningitis
D. Osteomyelitis
E. Pneumonia
24. Question 22
In contrast to “classic” bronchopulmonary dysplasia
(BPD), the “new” BPD in the more contemporary
clinical setting is characterized by different
histopathologic findings on examination of the lung
tissue. The most striking abnormality in the lungs of
infants who have new BPD is
A. Decrease in alveolar septation
B. Diffuse leukocytic infiltration
C. Epithelial squamous metaplasia
D. Hypertrophy of airway smooth muscle
E. Lung parenchymal fibrosis
25. Question 23
Several risk factors during prenatal, perinatal, and
postnatal development have been proposed as
predictors of cerebral palsy in preterm infants. Of
the following, the highest rate of cerebral palsy
among preterm infants is associated with
A. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
B. Necrotizing enterocolitis requiring surgery
C. Parenchymal brain injury
D. Sepsis or meningitis
E. Severe retinopathy of prematurity
26. Question 24
A 1700-g infant is born at 36 weeks’ gestation
complicated by severe oligohydramnios. The Apgar
scores are 3 and 5 at 1 and 5 min respectively. The baby
required intubation as part of the resuscitation and
continued MV to improve the ABGs. At 1 hour of age,
the baby showed acute deterioration with cyanosis,
bradycardia, and hypotension. The most likely
diagnosis of this acute change is
A. Patent ductus arteriosus
B. Intraventricular hemorrhage
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Pneumothorax
E. Severe respiratory distress syndrome
27. Question 25
A healthy newborn baby boy may
(one incorrect)
A. have erythema of the umbilical skin
extending on to the abdomen
B. produce breast milk
C. have a single palmar crease
D. have an umbilical hernia
E. vomit blood if breast feeding
28. Question 26
A 14-day-old preterm infant, whose birthweight was
980 g at an estimated gestational age of 27 weeks, is
receiving full enteral feedings of fortified human milk.
The infant is breathing spontaneously in room air and
has no evidence of cardiac, renal, or intracranial
abnormalities. Of the following, the most desirable
goal of enteral nutrition in this infant is to achieve
A. Fetal rate of body weight gain
B. Fetal rate of crown-heel length gain
C. Fetal rate of head circumference gain
D. Intrauterine body composition
E. Normal blood urea concentration
29. Question 27
The interruption in the transfer of nutrients from the
mother to the fetus that occurs following birth can
be minimized by early administration of parenteral
nutrition in VLBW neonates within the first 24 hours
after birth. Of the following, the most common
metabolic consequence of early parenteral nutrition
with amino acids is
A. Hyperammonemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Increase in blood urea nitrogen values
E. Metabolic acidosis
30. Question 28
A 3600-g, breast-fed female, 42 weeks’ GA, is noted to
have persistent hyperbilirubinemia at 2 weeks of age.
On examination, the infant has not gained weight
since birth and has decreased tone, an umbilical
hernia, and an anterior fontanel measuring 4 x 6 cm.
The most likely diagnosis is
A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
B. Gilbert disease
C. Biliary atresia
D. Hypothyroidism
E. galactosemia
31. Question 29
Fractured clavicle (multiple choices)
A. occurs more frequently in infants of
diabetic mothers
B. requires treatment with a sling
C. is associated with Erb’s palsy
D. causes an asymmetric Moro reflex
E. is not painful
32. Question 30
Minimal enteral feeding, also called gut priming or
trophic feeding, is designed to improve gastrointestinal
function and is used frequently in the nutritional
management of VLBW neonates. The most accurate
statement regarding minimal enteral feeding is that it
A. Increases plasma concentrations of
gastrointestinal hormones
B. Is best avoided in infants weighing 500 to 600 g
C. Is contraindicated in the presence of assisted
ventilation
D. Is contraindicated in the presence of indwelling
umbilical catheters
E. Prevents necrotizing enterocolitis
33. Question 31
The only inborn error of metabolism
associated with neonatal hyperammonemia
that is X-linked in inheritance is
A. Hyperinsulinism/hyperammonemia
syndrome
B. Isovaleric acidemia
C. Medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
deficiency
D. Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency
E. Pyruvate carboxylase deficiency
34. Question 32
A 750-g black female experienced respiratory distress
after a preterm delivery at 27 wks’ gestation. Pregnancy
was uncomplicated, but labor was abrupt and therefore
the mother did not receive steroid or penicillin therapy.
The baby required intubation and MV with 100% O2. The
possible causes of respiratory distress include
(multiple choices)
A. Pneumothorax
B. Respiratory distress syndrome
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Group B streptococcal sepsis
E. Transient tachypnea
35. Question 33
The patient in Question 32 was also treated
with endotracheal instillation of exogenous
surfactant. This is likely to be beneficial by
(multiple choices)
A. Preventing bronchopulmonary dysplasia
B. Reducing the incidence of pneumothorax
C. Reducing mortality
D. More rapid improvement of RDS
E. Preventing oligouria
36. Question 34
Approximately 10% of infants born with
congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) have
significant heart defects. The most common
congenital heart defect associated with CDH is
A. Aortic arch obstruction
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
D. Transposition of the great arteries
E. Ventricular septal defect
37. Question 35
Contemporary management of gastroschisis is
associated with a 10% to 25% incidence of
postoperative intestinal and related
complications. The most common
postoperative complication of surgical repair of
gastroschisis is
A. Abdominal compartment syndrome
B. Enterocutaneous fistula
C. Necrotizing enterocolitis
D. Renal ischemia
E. Short bowel syndrome
38. Question 36
Amniotic fluid volume varies substantially at
each week of human gestation, as reflected in
the wide range of normal values. The largest
variation in amniotic fluid volume occurs at the
gestational age of
A. 26 to 27 weeks
B. 29 to 30 weeks
C. 32 to 33 weeks
D. 35 to 36 weeks
E. 38 to 39 weeks
39. Question 37
You wish to determine the incidence and
natural course of necrotizing enterocolitis in
preterm neonates. Of the following, the best
study design to address this question is a
A. Case-control study
B. Descriptive observational study
C. Prospective cohort study
D. Randomized clinical trial
E. Systematic meta-analysis
40. Question 38
The most common fetal cause of
polyhydramnios is
A. Decreased absorption of amniotic fluid due to
gastrointestinal atresia
B. Decreased fetal swallowing from neuromuscular
disorder
C. Excessive transudation of fluid from an
abdominal wall defect
D. Increased fetal lung fluid secretion associated
with gestational diabetes
E. Increased fetal urine output from hydrops
associated with anemia
41. Question 39
A 4-week-old, A-positive, African-American former
40-week’s-gestational age infant was born to an O-
positive mother and experienced hyperbilirubinemia
requiring 2 days of phototherapy in the NB nursery
after birth. The infant appears apathetic and
demonstrates pallor, a grade 2/6 ESM, and a HR 175
bpm. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Anemia of chronic disease
B. G-6-PD deficiency
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. Sicle cell anemia with hemolytic crisis
E. ABO incompatibility with continued hemolysis
42. Question 40
The following predispose a baby to be small
for gestational age (multiple choices)
A. Placental insufficiency
B. Twin pregnancy
C. Congenital infection
D. Maternal diabetes
E. Alcohol consumption
43. Question 41
The small for gestational age newborn baby
is at increased risk of (multiple choices)
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Hypothermia
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Cardiac abnormalities
44. Question 42
A term infant is born with Apgar score 5 and 7
at 1 and 5 min respectively. The infant has a
HR 170 bpm and demonstrates pallor with
hepatosplenomegaly. A Kleihauer-Betke test
was positive. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Chronic feto-maternal transfusion
D. ABO incompatibility
E. Blackfan-Diamond syndrome
45. Question 43
The twin-twin transfusion is unique to twins
that are
A. Dizygotic, dichorionic
B. Dizygotic, monoamnionic
C. Dizygotic, monochorionic
D. Monozygotic, dichorionic
E. Monozygotic, monochorionic
46. Question 44
The amino acids derived from swallowed
amniotic fluid are important for fetal
gastrointestinal development. The amino
acid considered conditionally essential for
normal growth and maturation of the fetal
gastrointestinal tract is
A. Alanine
B. Citrulline
C. Glutamine
D. Leucine
E. Valine
47. Question 45
Respiratory distress syndrome is
exacerbated by the following Except
A. Hypothermia
B. Acidosis
C. Hypoxia
D. Meconium aspiration
E. Withholding enteral feeds
48. Question 46
The most important determinant of
endotracheal tube resistance is
A. Airflow velocity
B. Biofilm coating
C. Gas density
D. Tube curvature
E. Tube diameter
49. Question 47
Bilirubin conjugated in the liver and secreted into bile
can be deconjugated in the gut, then reabsorbed into
the bloodstream, resulting in enterohepatic bilirubin
circulation. The enzyme most responsible for
contributing to enterohepatic bilirubin circulation is
A. Beta-glucuronidase
B. Bilirubin hydrogenase
C. Bilirubin oxidase
D. Biliverdin reductase
E. Uridine diphosphoglucuronate
glucuronosyltransferase
50. Question 48
The most widely used and accurate method
for estimating amniotic fluid volume is by
A. Determination of dye dilution by timed
amniocentesis
B. Palpation of the fetus by the Leopold maneuver
C. Palpation of the uterus for fundal height
D. Ultrasonographic measurement of the amniotic
fluid index
E. Ultrasonographic measurement of the largest
vertical pocket
51. Question 49
A NB female has a ventricular septal defect,
cleft lip and palate, imperforate anus. All of
the following tests would be appropriate
Except
A. Karyotype analysis
B. TORCH titer
C. Renal US
D. Cranial US
E. Skeletal survey
52. Question 50
A 2700-g, 36-wk’s-GA white male is born after 22 hrs of
premature rupture of the amniotic membranes. The
Apgar scores are 3 and 5. He immediately experienced
respiratory distress and cyanosis requiring ET
intubation and MV with 100% O2. Vital signs are T:
35.7˚
C, HR 195 bpm, mean BP 22 mm Hg. WBC 1500/ μL,
platelets 59,000/ μL. The next most appropriate
treatment for this baby is to administer
A. Surfactant by aerosol
B. IV ampicillin and gentamicin/cefotaxime
C. IV steroids
D. IV acyclovir
E. HFOV
53. Question 51
The patient described in Question 50 is most
likely suffering from
A. Respiratory distress syndrome
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Congenital pneumonia with sepsis
D. Pneumothorax
E. TORCH infection
54. Question 52
Transient tachypnea of the newborn
(multiple choices)
A. occurs in 15% of full-term babies
B. can be diagnosed if onset occurs up to 48
hours post delivery
C. is caused by delayed absorption of fetal
lung fluid
D. is more common in babies delivered by
cesarean section
E. cannot be clearly differentiated from early
pneumonia
55. Question 53
A baby presents in heart failure at 5 days of
age. The baby is not centrally cyanosed. The
differential diagnosis includes
(multiple choices)
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Fallot’s tetralogy
C. Hypoplastic left heart
D. Coarctation of the aorta
E. Tricuspid atresia
56. Question 54
A well baby has difficulty sucking. Causes
for this could be (multiple choices)
A. Micrognathia
B. Dystrophia myotonica
C. Cleft palate
D. Prader-Willi syndrome
E. Bulbar palsy
57. Question 55
The causes for failure to pass meconium in
the first 24 hours of life include
(multiple choices)
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hirschsprung’s disease
D. Hiatus hernia
E. Galactosemia
58. Question 56
Polycythemia in the neonatal period is
associated with the following Except
A. Trisomy 21
B. The donor twin in a twin-twin transfusion
C. Maternal diabetes
D. Intrauterine growth restriction
E. Respiratory distress
59. Question 57
A preterm baby of 30 week’s gestation is
intubated and ventilated. On the 2nd
day of
life he suddenly deteriorates. The differential
diagnosis includes (multiple choices)
A. An intraventricular hemorrhage
B. A blocked endotracheal tube
C. A pulmonary hemorrhage
D. Pneumonia
E. Self-extubation
60. Question 58
The blueberry muffin appearance in infants
with TORCH infections most likely
represents
A. Dermal erythropoiesis
B. Palpable purpura
C. Metastatic hepatic tissue
D. Viral lesions
E. None of the above
61. Question 59
Necrotizing enterocolitis presents with
(multiple choices)
A. A distended abdomen
B. Blood-stained feces
C. Septicemia
D. Bilious vomiting
E. Perforation of small bowel
62. Question 60
When a newborn fails to achieve or sustain the normal
decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance at birth, the
result is hypoxemic respiratory failure or persistent
pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN). Of the
following, the mediator most responsible for normal
pulmonary vascular transition at birth is
A. Asymmetric dimethylarginine.
B. Endothelin-1
C. Leukotriene
D. Nitric oxide
E. Thromboxane
63. Question 61
The triggering mechanism that has become
the standard of care in neonatal
synchronized ventilation involves
A. Airflow trigger
B. Esophageal probe
C. Pressure trigger
D. Surface capsule
E. Thoracic impedance
64. Question 62
The clinical and ultrasonographic feature
most consistent with the compensated
phase of fetal hypoxemia is
A. Abnormal biophysical profile
B. Absent fetal weight gain
C. Diminished cardiac ventricular compliance
D. Increased diastolic flow in middle cerebral
artery
E. Lost fetal heart rate variability
65. Question 63
Harlequin color changes is a sign of
A. Congenital ichthyosis
B. TORCH infection
C. Erythroderma
D. Normal physiology
E. Spinal cord trauma
66. Question 64
The risk of developing necrotizing
enterocolitis is increased in
(multiple choices)
A. Breast-fed babies
B. Asphyxiated babies
C. Premature babies
D. Infants who have the umbilical artery
catheterized
E. Infants who have had no milk feeds
67. Question 65
A 2-day-old is noted to have conjunctival
and retinal hemorrhage. The most likely
etiology is
A. Child abuse
B. Maternal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
C. Maternal idiopathic thrombocytopenic
purpura
D. Force of birthing process
E. Forceps delivery
68. Question 66
Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO) has many of the
characteristics of an ideal selective pulmonary
vasodilator and, therefore, is used widely in the
treatment of PPHN. Of the following, the lung
disease most resistant to iNO is
A. Bacterial pneumonia
B. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
C. Idiopathic PPHN
D. Meconium aspiration syndrome
E. Respiratory distress syndrome
69. Question 67
The most common cause of nutritional
intrauterine growth restriction is maternal
A. Chronic disease
B. Drug addiction
C. Hypertension
D. Infection
E. Malnutrition
70. Question 68
Fetal undernutrition can have long-term effects
on the occurrence of chronic adult diseases, a
phenomenon described as fetal programming.
Of the following, in addition to coronary heart
disease and hypertension, the most common
chronic adult disease attributed to fetal
programming is
A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Malignancy
D. Osteoporosis
E. Retinal degeneration
71. Question 69
A baby with Apgar scores of 1 and 2 at 1 and
5 minutes, respectively, appears hyperalert
and has hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
and mydriasis. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Stage I hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
B. Stage II hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
C. Stage III hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
D. Kernicterus
E. Intraventricular hemorrhage
72. Question 70
The most typical inspiratory-to-expiratory
time used with high-frequency oscillatory
ventilation is
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 1:4
D. 1:5
E. 1:6
73. Question 71
Maternal chorioamnionitis is most likely to
prevent the occurrence or severity of
A. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Cystic periventricular leukomalacia
D. Intraventricular hemorrhage
E. Respiratory distress syndrome
74. Question 72
The clinical manifestation most predictive of
intestinal necrosis in necrotizing
enterocolitis is:
A. Abdominal tenderness
B. Bloody stools
C. Erythema of the abdominal wall
D. Gastric residuals
E. Hemodynamic instability
75. Question 73
A 2-week old preterm neonate (30 weeks) is
experiencing recurrent episodes of apnea. The infant is
well-oxygenated in room air between episodes and has
no clinical or radiographic evidence of lung disease.
Mechanical ventilation using the strategy of volume
guarantee is started. The most appropriate positive
end-expiratory pressure in this infant is
A. 0 cm H2O
B. 3 cm H2O
C. 5 cm H2O
D. 8 cm H2O
E. 10 cm H2O
76. Question 74
Many identifiable factors contribute to
human preterm birth. Of the following, the
largest single category of causes associated
with human preterm birth is
A. Idiopathic preterm labor
B. Multiple gestation pregnancy
C. Placental abruption
D. Prenatal infection
E. Substance abuse
77. Question 75
The most likely syndrome in an infant who has
thrombocytopenia and thumb anomalies is
A. Down syndrome
B. Fanconi syndrome
C. Kasabach-Merritt syndrome
D. Thrombocytopenia with absent radius
syndrome
E. Turner syndrome
78. Question 76
Transient neonatal diabetes mellitus is a rare disorder
of genomic imprinting. Its clinical presentation
includes intrauterine growth restriction, failure to
thrive, hyperglycemia, and dehydration. Of the
following, the imprinting defect in transient neonatal
diabetes mellitus is most likely to involve
A. Chromosome 6
B. Chromosome 7
C. Chromosome 11
D. Chromosome 15
E. Chromosome 21
79. Question 77
The plasma constituents most commonly
implicated in the pathogenesis of
transfusion-related acute lung injury are
A. ABO alloantibodies
B. Anti-IgA antibodies
C. Anti-neutrophil and anti-HLA antibodies
D. Anti-T agglutinins
E. Inflammatory interleukins
80. Question 78
The first time the human fetus demonstrates
swallowing ability is by the gestational age of
A. 11 weeks
B. 13 weeks
C. 15 weeks
D. 17 weeks
E. 19 weeks
(Sucking at 18-20 weeks)
81. Question 79
The function that plays a major role in
regulation of the amniotic fluid volume is
A. Fetal lung fluid secretion.
B. Fetal swallowing
C. Fetal urine formation
D. Intramembranous absorption
E. Transmembranous flux
82. Question 80
Direct-reacting hyperbilirubinemia on the
10th
day of life suggests all of the following
Except
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Galactosemia
C. Neonatal hepatitis
D. Byler syndrome
E. Gilbert disease
83. Question 81
The ventilator variable most influential in
avoiding atelectasis in mechanically
ventilated neonates is
A. Inspiratory time
B. Peak inspiratory pressure
C. Positive end-expiratory pressure
D. Tidal volume
E. Ventilator rate
84. Question 82
Nearly all preterm neonates are most likely
to have passed meconium by the postnatal
age of
A. 48 hours
B. 96 hours
C. 144 hours
D. 192 hours
E. 240 hours
85. Question 83
The most accurate statement regarding
gastrointestinal development and enteral
feeding in preterm infants is that
A. Diluted milk empties more slowly from the stomach than
does undiluted milk
B. Feeding intolerance is largely due to immaturity of mucosal
function rather than motor function
C. Gastric emptying is influenced by the temperature of the milk
D. Large feeding volumes induce maturation of motor patterns
of the gut more effectively than small feeding volumes
E. Motor function develops earlier in the stomach/small
intestine than in the rectum/anal canal
86. Question 84
Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
(multiple choices)
A. is secondary to low prothrombin
B. can present up to 6 months of life
C. is treated with protamine sulphate
D. is prevented by administering vitamin E to
all newborn babies
E. can result in intracerebral hemorrhge
87. Question 85
The most critical determinant
of ventilator-induced lung injury in preterm
neonates is excessive
A. Airway pressure
B. Gas flow
C. Oxygen concentration
D. Tidal volume
E. Time constant
88. Question 86
The postmenstrual age at which preterm
infants who have stable cardiopulmonary
status and no neurologic abnormalities are
likely to be introduced to oral feeding is
closest to
A. 28 weeks
B. 30 weeks
C. 32 weeks
D. 34 weeks
E. 36 weeks
89. Question 87
All of the following are problems of an infant
of a recently diagnosed diabetic mother
Except
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Intrauterine growth restriction
D. Hypomagnesemia
E. hyperbilirubinemia
90. Question 88
The most critical factor in the development
of respiratory distress syndrome in the
preterm neonate is
A. Immature composition and biophysical function
of surfactant
B. Leaking epithelium/endothelium barrier from
lung injury
C. Low lung gas volume with susceptibility to
overdistention
D. Low surfactant lipid pool size
E. Saccular versus alveolar stage of lung
development
91. Question 89
A newborn baby has profound
thrombocytopenia. The causes include all of
the following Except
A. Cytomegalovirus infection
B. Autoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia
C. Maternal ingestion of warfarin
D. Alloimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia
E. Gram-negative septicemia
92. Question 90
The high-frequency ventilator variable most
likely to influence oxygenation is
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Inspiratory-to-expiratory time ratio
D. Mean airway pressure
E. Tidal volume
93. Question 91
A severely hydropic infant is about to be
delivered. Complications to be prepared for
include all of the following Except
A. Pulmonary hypoplasia
B. Abdominal ascites
C. Polycythemia
D. Heart failure
E. Laryngeal edema
94. Question 92
You are called to see a tow-day-old jittery
baby. The causes to consider are
(multiple choices)
A. Maternal diabetes
B. Fetal alcohol syndrome
C. Maternal hyperparathyroidism
D. Maternal thyrotoxicosis
E. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
95. Question 93
The distribution of surfactant in the lungs is
most efficient when surfactant is administered
A. After a period of mechanical ventilation
B. As an aerosolized preparation
C. At a slow rate of infusion
D. At birth in the presence of fetal lung fluid
E. Using a smaller volume of the drug
96. Question 94
Infants at risk of hyperinsulinemic
hypoglycemia include all of the following
Except
A. Infants with nesidioblastosis
B. Infants of diabetic mothers
C. Infants with galactosemia
D. Infants with leucine sensitivity with
hyperammonemia
E. Infants with Beckwith-Wiedemann
syndrome
97. Question 95
Neural tube defects
A. Occurs with frequency of 2 per 10,000 births
B. Have a genetic predisposition
C. Result from abnormal development of the
neural tube at 3-4 months’ gestation
D. Can be detected antenatally by low maternal
serum alpha-fetoprotein levels
E. Are treated with folic acid
98. Question 96
Metabolic bone disease of prematurity
(multiple choices)
A. Is associated with chronic respiratory distress
B. Is prevented by administration of vitamin D
C. Is less severe in infants fed with breast milk
compared to formula-fed infants
D. Can result in spontaneous fractures
E. Is caused by a substrate deficiency
99. Question 97
The most common limb defect associated
with amniotic bands is
A. Amputation of digits
B. Congenital arthrogryposis
C. Preaxial polydactyly
D. Proximal syndactyly
E. Single bones in extremities
100. Question 98
The aromatic amino acid most likely to be
detected by tandem mass spectrometry is
A. Citrulline
B. Leucine
C. Methionine
D. Phenylalanine
E. Valine
101. Question 99
Hydrops fetalis is associated with
(multiple choices)
A. Beta-thalassemia
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
D. OA materno-fetal blood group
incompatibility
E. Turner syndrome
102. Question 100
The blood constituents most implicated in
the pathogenesis of transfusion-associated
graft versus host disease are
A. Anti-neutrophil antibodies
B. Anti-T agglutinins
C. Donor-derived lymphocytes
D. Erythrocytic RhD antigens
E. Inflammatory interleukins