1 Quiz 2 The Cell and DNA (25 points) Below is a copy of Quiz 2 (25 points). Read carefully and answer the questions. This is an open book quiz, however, you are expected to do your own work and for the short answer questions write the answers using your own words. Submit as a Word or rtf attachment (please put your last name in the file name of attached documents--for example student John Smith would be Smith J.Quiz 2. doc). Do not submit your answers as a response to this topic. The quiz is due no later than November 01, 2015 11:59 P.M. Eastern Time. See the syllabus for the policy on late submissions. Part A. Fill in the blank 1. (1 point) Determine the amino acid sequence encoded in the following mRNA sequence: mRNA codons: AUG GGU GUA AUC GGC ___________________________________________________ 2. (2 points) Describe what would happen if GGU in question 1 was changed to CGU, name the type of mutation describe its effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide ______________________ 3. (2 points) Describe what would happen if GUA in question 1 was changed to GUG, name the type of mutation and describe its effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide ______________________ Part B. Short answers Answer in complete sentences using your own words and provide complete citations for the sources of your information. If you list the sources on the last page, you must provide in-text citations within your answers. 4 (4 points) What role do the existing strands of DNA play during the synthesis of the new DNA strands? Use the following sequence of double stranded DNA to illustrate how the existing and new strands are related after replication of the molecule (label which are the new and old strands). 3' GATTACAGA 5' 5' CTAATGTCT 3' 5. (3 points) Describe at least three functions of cell membranes. 6. (4 points) Describe the events and molecules involved in the process of transcription. 7. (3 points) Given an amino acid sequence (amino acids linked together), can one predict a unique corresponding mRNA nucleotide sequence (nucleotides linked together)? Explain how you arrived at your answer and give an example to illustrate. Part C. DNA Activity (6 points) Perform the virtual "DNA Extraction Activity" in Course Module 2 and answer the following questions. 1) When extracting DNA why should you use an enzyme? a. Unwind from packing protein b. Pull cells apart c. Slow down extraction process d. Protect DNA from degrading 2) Which of the following protects the ends of the DNA molecule? a. Detergent b. Salt c. Water d. Alcohol 3) What do you use to separate the cells from each other? a. Strainer b. Blender c. ROH d. Toothpick 4) Why does DNA end up in the alcohol layer at the end of the procedure? a. DNA sinks because it's more dense than the banana mixture b. DNA sinks because it's less dense than the banana mixture c. DNA floats because it's denser than the banana mixture d. DNA floats because it's less dense than the b.

1. 1
Quiz 2 The Cell and DNA (25 points)
Below is a copy of Quiz 2 (25 points). Read carefully and
answer the questions. This is an open book quiz, however, you
are expected to do your own work and for the short answer
questions write the answers using your own words. Submit as a
Word or rtf attachment (please put your last name in the file
name of attached documents--for example student John Smith
would be Smith J.Quiz 2. doc). Do not submit your answers as a
response to this topic. The quiz is due no later than November
01, 2015 11:59 P.M. Eastern Time. See the syllabus for the
policy on late submissions.
Part A. Fill in the blank
1. (1 point) Determine the amino acid sequence encoded in the
following mRNA sequence: mRNA codons: AUG GGU GUA
AUC GGC
___________________________________________________
2. (2 points) Describe what would happen if GGU in question 1
was changed to CGU, name the type of mutation describe its
effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide
______________________
3. (2 points) Describe what would happen if GUA in question 1
was changed to GUG, name the type of mutation and describe
its effect on the primary structure of the polypeptide
______________________
Part B. Short answers
Answer in complete sentences using your own words and
provide complete citations for the sources of your information.
If you list the sources on the last page, you must provide in-text
citations within your answers.
4 (4 points) What role do the existing strands of DNA play
during the synthesis of the new DNA strands? Use the following
sequence of double stranded DNA to illustrate how the existing

2. and new strands are related after replication of the molecule
(label which are the new and old strands).
3' GATTACAGA 5'
5' CTAATGTCT 3'
5. (3 points) Describe at least three functions of cell
membranes.
6. (4 points) Describe the events and molecules involved in the
process of transcription.
7. (3 points) Given an amino acid sequence (amino acids linked
together), can one predict a unique corresponding mRNA
nucleotide sequence (nucleotides linked together)? Explain how
you arrived at your answer and give an example to illustrate.
Part C. DNA Activity (6 points)
Perform the virtual "DNA Extraction Activity" in Course
Module 2 and answer the following questions.
1) When extracting DNA why should you use an enzyme?
a. Unwind from packing protein
b. Pull cells apart
c. Slow down extraction process
d. Protect DNA from degrading
2) Which of the following protects the ends of the DNA
molecule?
a. Detergent
b. Salt
c. Water
d. Alcohol
3) What do you use to separate the cells from each other?
a. Strainer
b. Blender
c. ROH

3. d. Toothpick
4) Why does DNA end up in the alcohol layer at the end of the
procedure?
a. DNA sinks because it's more dense than the banana mixture
b. DNA sinks because it's less dense than the banana mixture
c. DNA floats because it's denser than the banana mixture
d. DNA floats because it's less dense than the banana mixture
5) Why do you add detergent to the banana scraps?
a. Pull the cells apart from each other
b. Protect the DNA
c. Dissolve the cell and nuclear membrane
d. Change the density of the DNA
6) What are two things or conditions that could damage DNA if
it is not protected by salt in Step 1 of the procedure
7) What would happen if you forgot to add the meat tenderizer?
Explain why.
8) What are at least two uses of the extracted DNA other than
for forensics?
Environmental & Competitive Analysis
Developing a marketing environmental analysis for your
business is a critical step in trying to understand external local,
international and national forces that can easily affect the
fashion industry as a business (Yüksel, 2012). The
environmental factors happen to be outside the control of the
business managers, but they can try to position their business so
that it can take advantage of the opportunities while at the same
time playing safe to reduce the threats that the environment is
presenting. Carrying out a PESTEL analysis is the best way of
understanding the major environmental factors. PESTEL stands

4. for Social, Political, technological, economic, environment and
legal. In this discussion, we are going to look at the factors and
how they affect the fashion business.
Environmental Analysis
Political
The political, environmental factors are the government policies
and actions that are impacting the fashion industry and the
ability to trade with other countries or within the country. We
have different policies that are affecting the fashion industry
like the restrictions on the importation of certain fabrics that are
found locally even when importation is cheaper (Fleisher et al.,
2014). The policy is limiting the market and hampering the
industry from obtaining raw materials at a cheaper price. At the
local levels, we also have restrictions to carry out business in
certain districts, and this affects the expansion of the business.
It is important for the fashion business to understand what the
political environment is calling for so that it can take advantage
of the opportunities and minimize the threats.
Economic
Regarding the economic environment, it includes the different
taxes and duties that the business is supposed to pay. We also
have the fiscal decisions on certain things like the interests of
the central bank together with the international exchange rates
vitality (Fleisher et al., 2014). When a manager in the fashion
industry is able to understand the economic factors, it will go a
long way in helping them in the planning of the financial
strategy for the fashion business. It is always critical to
understand the economic policies of the country and other
different countries so that they can be able to come up a good
plan to improve performance.
Social
The social factor is the major factor that affects the fashion
industry. It refers to the way the society is changing and
adapting to the situations over a period (Yüksel, 2012). It takes

5. place in the world, and it is important when making a business
plan concerning the fashion business to consider all the social
factors. We have religion, population demographics like gender,
ethnic origin, and housing standards. Understanding the religion
of people will help the fashion business determine what kind of
materials the business is going to use in the making of the
products. Population demographics will also help in the
determination of the kind of designs to make. If the population
is consisting of the majority of the children, then the children
products should be more. If the lifestyle of the people is
luxurious, it is easy for the industry to come up with premium
products to maximize the revenues. The fashion business will
require that they carry out a thorough social study to determine
what is relevant to the business.
Technological
The new technology opportunities that are coming up each day
is wiping away the old business methods and presenting the new
business opportunities regarding production and marketing
(Fleisher et al., 2014). It is important for the fashion industry to
understand the impact that the next advances in technology is
going to bring, and this will give the business a market
advantage over the main competitors. It is important for the
fashion business to look at how the communications are
changing and how the business is going to take advantage of the
emerging opportunities so that the business can reach a larger
customer base. The fashion industry will be at the forefront to
make the business more efficient and productive through
exploration of the new technologies in the process of
distribution and production.
Legal
The carrying out of any business is always under a strict legal
environment (Fleisher et al., 2014). It is important for the
business managers to understand the legal obligations that are

6. relating to their business. Legal obligations could include the
environmental restrictions, regulatory obligations, basic health
and safety law and the regulatory environment. For the fashion
industry, it is important to have a legal team that is going to
play a vital role in ensuring that we have a clear understating of
that we are required to do by the laws of the country.
Environment
Many operations in the world are now becoming increasingly
aware of the environment factors concerning their business
operations. Any business should be ready to consider the
environmental aspects that relate to the business considering the
effects on the wider and local environment (Christopher et al.,
2004). The different attitudes that exist concerning the
environmentally friendly materials are a major concern for
many customers and can affect the consumer behavior. In the
fashion business, it is important to show the customers that you
are going green and not polluting the environment will help the
business in attracting new customers. The business will have a
team of environmental studies that will be helping the business
in making the environmentally related decisions.
Competitive Analysis
The fashion industry has two categories that are currently high
profile, and they include fashion designers and the models.
However, we have numerous roles in the industry making the
field more competitive. The competitors for the fashion
business include the Companies that has specialization in the
production of handmade jewelry and organic fashion designs
since this is the area of specialization for the fashion business
that we are targeting. We have various Companies that have
already specialized in this area providing a stiff competition for
the small businesses. There are several ways that the business
could use to differentiate its products from the products of the
competitors. The first is:

7. Price
The pricing of the products will be different from what the
competitors are offering. Carrying out a market survey to
determine the price of the competitors will help in the
determination of the price that you are going to set for the
customers (Christopher et al., 2004). Price cut for the premium
market will help attract more customers.
Added value
The business will be offering some unique incentives including
a free initial consultation or special money-back guarantee. The
business will also be conducting an evaluation of what the
customers need so that it can be able to create a special
incentive that will help in the motivation of the customers. Buy-
one-get-one-free will also be an important incentive for helping
the customers to love the products.
Convenience
The business will develop an e-commerce website then go ahead
to try and streamline the checkout process especially when it
comes to the matter of the returning customers. It is important
to make it easy for the customers to find information concerning
the products and try to offer customer service via e-mail. For
the shoppers who are in need of immediate answers, you can use
the phone to pass the message.
Reference

8. Christopher, M., Lowson, R., & Peck, H. (2004). Creating agile
supply chains in the fashion industry. International Journal of
Retail & Distribution Management,32(8), 367-376.
Fleisher, C. S., & Bensoussan, B. E. (2014). Business and
competitive analysis: effective application of new and classic
methods. Pearson Education.
Yüksel, I. (2012). Developing a multi-criteria decision-making
model for PESTEL analysis. International Journal of Business
and Management, 7(24), p52.
Sustainability Proposal from a Marketing Perspective
Situation: The fashion industry has realized a lot of tremendous
growths as well as challenges all in equal measures that has
been affecting its market target. I tend to believe that carrying
out a market study analysis before starting the business is a key
to ensuring that the Company realizes a high profit. Many
Companies are now trying to carry out the SWOT analysis to
ensure that they know their weaknesses, strength, opportunities,
and threats. Many Companies are now doing the market
analysis, but most of them are not carrying out the SWOT
analysis that is very critical to helping in the process of
strategic analysis. I tend to believe that many Companies do not
have the relevant knowledge concerning the importance of
carrying out the SWOT analysis. Many companies are making a
lot of losses because they are not aware of their strength and
what are the opportunities that they can take (Fletcher et al.,
2012). They are also not aware of their weaknesses so that they
can improve on them, and they are also not aware of their
threats.
Proposed

9. Solution
: Through a proper analysis of the 24 different fashion
Companies, I believe I will be able to come up with results that
will be used in convincing the Companies to carry out the
SWOT analysis. Understanding the SWOT analysis will play a
vital role in improving the performance of the fashion
Companies that is performing poorly in the market. I will be
analyzing the different Companies that are using the SWOT
analysis and how they are performing in the market. I will also
analyze the Companies that are not carrying out the SWOT
analysis so that I will be able to determine their performance in
the market. To be able to determine the performance of the
Company, the financial performance will also be under analysis
to help in the determination of their profitability.
Potential Problems: The major problem that I am anticipating is
the access to the financial statement of the Companies. Not all
the 24 Companies will be willing to share their financial
statements with an outsider. The use of the Hoover that contains
the different financial records of these records will be of great
use to me. The second problem is that of determining whether
the fashion design Company has the SWOT analysis or not.
Data display will also be a major problem that I could face to

10. keep the data useful for a long time to be used by the future
Companies.
Benefits: There are several benefits when a fashion Company
carries out the SWOT analysis. It will help in the process of
identifying, planning and prioritizing the Company’s strength,
opportunities, threats, and weaknesses. The Fashion Company
can decide to use their resources in the process of maximizing
the strengths while working towards the reduction of the
weaknesses. It will also help in the process of counteracting the
threats (Dyson, 2004). When the fashion house identifies the
opportunities, they can decide to venture into the business.
When I manage to carry out all of the above steps and
conducting a proper research, I believe I will be in a better
position of convincing the Companies to be able to carry out
their SWOT analysis. It will require a lot of work with proper
analysis, but I believe the sacrifice is worth making to improve
the fashion industry. Thank you
Reference
Dyson, R. G. (2004). Strategic development and SWOT analysis
at the University of Warwick. European journal of operational
research, 152(3), 631-640.
Fletcher, K., Grose, L., & Hawken, P. (2012). Fashion &

11. Sustainability: design for change. London: Laurence King.
Quiz 1
Biology 307 Dr. Harold L Katcher UMUC
Fall 2015
Please note that you may have to look up some terms on the
Internet – but these are things you need to know, and being able
to find information (good and true information) is a valuable
skill).
Please note that your answers MUST be in your own words, if
they are not and not surrounded by quotes that is plagiarism
which will be reported to the dean.
These questions are elementary or should be known by anyone
who's taken basic biology (or read Starr). For more advanced
concepts I'll ask you to explain, in your own words in essay
questions. The numbers in front of those questions – say “391.-
400.”,(just kidding), means that the question is worth ten of the
multiple-choice questions (each of which only has one number
in front of it) so DO NOT CHANGE MY NUMBERING and do
not make them into ten questions – there may be fewer than ten
parts or more than ten parts to the question (what I look for

12. when I grade it, “does the student mention a, b, c ?”)I just
calculate the value of that question using the simple algorithm :
Value of question in % = Total of numbers attached to the
question divided by the total number of questions. Then I
multiply that by your grade expressed as a decimal fraction
(85% = 0.85)-and add together all the subtotals (Multiple-choice
questions are either right or wrong)and there's your grade!
Sounds tedious? It would be, but I worked for a time as a
professional computer programmer – so I don't do it by hand. I
just grade your essay as an essay and give it any grade from
zero to one hundred and the computer does the rest. Which is
also why I want the quiz answers in the form I ask, so please
don't change the numbering, don't give me more than letter
answers for the multiple choice – but I do grade every essay
question like an essay – and if it's copies it gets a zero -
everything must be in your own words, and in complete
sentences and spelling and grammar count. I may give you an
extension on when it's due, but as of now – by Monday,
midnight (instead of Sunday – it's a long quiz for some (the m/c
part would take me no more than 15 minutes – but that's me)
short for others – for those for whom the quiz is short, spend
your excess time giving good answers to the essays.
RETURN ONLY THE COMPLETED ANSWER SHEET BY
PASTING IT INTO THE ASSIGNMENT FOLDER

13. ONLY give letter answers for multiple choice questions. Only
use the answer sheet provided and make sure the completed
answers are in by Monday, midnight to get graded. DO NOT
CHANGE MY NUMBERING – Questions 100- 109 is NOT ten
questions – it's one essay question worth as much as ten
multiple-choice questions.
1.
The molecular “machines” (those components that do things) of
the cell are the
a.
proteins.
b.
carbohydrates
c.
DNA
d.
energy
e.

14. homeostasis
2.
Silicon is an element, look it up in the Periodic table and
answer the following questions
a)What is its chemical symbol?
b)How many neutrons does it have?
c)How many protons?
d)How many electrons in its second shell?
3.

15. A mutation is a change in
a.
RNA sequence
b.
the developmental pattern in an organism.
c.
appearance and behavior of a cell
d.
DNA conformation
e.
DNA sequence
4.
_________ is the main molecule providing energy for
intracellular (within a cell) processes.
5.
The chemical processes in the living cell are collectively called

16. a.
adaptation.
b.
homeostasis.
c.
evolution.
d.
respiration.
e.
metabolism.
6.
The ability to acquire, store, transfer, or utilize energy is called
a.
biochemistry.
b.
photosynthesis.

17. c.
metabolism.
d.
respiration.
e.
phosphorylation.
7.
Which is the smallest unit of life that can exist as a separate
entity?
a.
a cell
b.
a molecule
c.
an organ
d.
a population

18. e.
an ecosystem
8.
Which of the following might be defined as "the physical and
biological components living in the same limited type of
environment "
a.
ecosystem
b.
community
c.
biosphere
d.
organism
e.
population

19. 9.
If the atomic weights of carbon, oxygen and hydrogen are 12,
16, and 1 respectively, the gram molecular weight of ethyl
alcohol C expressed in grams is
a.
24 grams.
b.
28 grams.
c.
52 grams.
d.
168 grams.
e.
180 grams.
10.
A salt will dissolve in water to form
a.

20. acids.
b.
gases.
c.
ions.
d.
bases.
e.
polar solvents.
11.
Amino acids are the building blocks for
a.
proteins.
b.
steroids.
c.
lipids.

21. d.
nucleic acids.
e.
carbohydrates.
12.
The formation of large molecules from small repeating units is
known as what kind of reaction?
a.
oxidation
b.
reduction
c.
condensation
d.
hydrolysis
e.
decarboxylation

22. 13.
The breakdown of large molecules by the enzymatic addition of
water is an example of what kind of reaction?
a.
oxidation
b.
reduction
c.
condensation
d.
hydrolysis
e.
decarboxylation
14.
Which is a "building block" of nucleic acids?

23. a.
glycerol
b.
nucleotide
c.
simple sugar
d.
monosaccharide
e.
either simple sugars or monosaccharides
15.
Which substance is the most common in cells?
a.
carbohydrates
b.
salts and minerals

24. c.
proteins
d.
fats
e.
water
16.
Which of the following is composed of a 1:2:1 ratio of carbon
to hydrogen to oxygen?
a.
carbohydrate
b.
protein
c.
lipid
d.
nucleic acid

25. e.
steroid
17.
Glucose and ribose
a.
have the same number of carbon atoms.
b.
have the same structural formulas.
c.
are the two components of sucrose.
d.
are monosaccharides.
e.
are molecules whose atoms are arranged the same way.
18.
Which element is NOT characteristic of the primary structure of
proteins?

26. a.
sulfur
b.
carbon
c.
phosphorus
d.
oxygen
e.
nitrogen
19.
Proteins may function as
a.
structural units.
b.
hormones.

27. c.
storage molecules.
d.
transport molecules.
e.
all of these
20.
What kind of bond exists between two amino acids in a protein?
a.
peptide
b.
ionic
c.
hydrogen
d.
amino

28. e.
hemiacetyl
21.
The sequence of amino acids is the __________ structure of
proteins.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
tertiary
d.
quaternary
e.
stereo
22.

29. The secondary structure of proteins can be
a.
helical.
b.
sheet like.
c.
globular.
d.
the sequence of amino acids.
e.
both helical and sheet like.
23.
When a hen's egg is cooked for breakfast, which of the
following statements does not apply?
a.
High temperature breaks the hydrogen bonds.

30. b.
Gentle cooling will reverse the denaturation that has occurred.
c.
The covalent bonds are not broken.
d.
Denaturation has resulted in a change from "runny" to "semi-
solid."
24.
Which of the following is NOT found in every nucleic acid?
a.
ribose
b.
phosphate group
c.
purine
d.
pyrimidine

31. e.
all of these are characteristic of every nucleotide
25.
Nucleotides contain what kind of sugars?
a.
three-carbon
b.
four-carbon
c.
five-carbon
d.
six-carbon
e.
seven-carbon
26.
DNA

32. a.
is one of the adenosine phosphates.
b.
is one of the nucleotide coenzymes.
c.
contains protein-building instructions.
d.
all of these
e.
none of these
27.
Which statement is NOT true?
a.
Membranes are often perforated by proteins that extend through
both sides of the membrane.
b.
Some membranes have proteins with channels or pores that

33. allow for the passage of hydrophilic substances.
c.
Hydrophilic substances have an easier time passing through
membranes than hydrophobic substances do.
d.
The current concept of a membrane can be best summarized by
the fluid mosaic model.
e.
The lipid bilayer serves as a hydrophobic barrier between two
fluid regions.
28.
Which of the following are made of two subunits and are
composed of RNA and protein?
a.
Golgi
b.
mitochondria
c.

34. chloroplasts
d.
ribosomes
e.
endoplasmic reticula
29.
These are the primary cellular sites for the recapture of energy
from carbohydrates
a.
Golgi bodies
b.
ribosomes
c.
mitochondria
d.
lysosomes

35. e.
endoplasmic reticula
30.
Cell part responsible for maintaining cell shape, internal
organization, and cell movements is the
a.
vesicle.
b.
nucleus.
c.
endoplasmic reticulum.
d.
cytoskeleton.
e.
ribosome.
31.
What cell organelle is found in plant cells but NOT in animal

36. cells?
a.
nucleoplasm
b.
central vacuole
c.
plasma membrane
d.
Golgi body
e.
microtubules
32.
An organelle found in the nucleus is a
a.
plastid.
b.

37. vacuole.
c.
microvillus.
d.
nucleolus.
e.
basal body.
33.
Which of the following is NOT true concerning the nuclear
envelope?
a.
It has two lipid bilayers.
b.
There are pores in the membrane.
c.
Ribosomal subunits can pass out of the nucleus.

38. d.
DNA molecules are transported out through the pores.
e.
Protein filaments are attached to the inner surface.
34.-36. Describe a "chromosome" What does is it made of,
what does it do? Here I want more than DNA and proteins – I
want to know about nucleosomes and how you can fit 3 feet of
DNA into a cell to small to see?
37.
Which organelles contain DNA?
a.
nuclei.
b.
mitochondria.
c.
chloroplast
d.

39. all the above
e.
only the nucleus.
38.
The number of membranes composing a mitochondrion is
a.
one.
b.
two.
c.
three.
d.
four.
e.
unknown.

40. 39.
The inner membranes of mitochondria are called
a.
filaments.
b.
cilia.
c.
chromatin.
d.
cristae.
e.
centrioles.
40.
Which organelles contain RNA?
a.
nuclei.
b.

41. mitochondria.
c.
ribosomes
d.
all the above
e.
only the nucleus.
41.
The number of membranes composing a mitochondrion is
a.
one.
b.
two.
c.
three.
d.

42. four.
e.
different for different mitochondria.
42.
The inner membranes of mitochondria are called
a.
filaments
b.
cilia.
c.
chromatin.
d.
cristae.
e.
centrioles.
43.

43. According to the first law of thermodynamics
a.
although energy in the universe is constant, energy in an earthly
system may accumulate.
b.
the amount of energy in the universe grows constantly.
c.
chemical reactions create or destroy energy.
d.
energy can not change from one form to another.
e.
all of these
44.
The second law of thermodynamics holds that
a.
matter can neither be created nor destroyed.

44. b.
energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
c.
energy of one form is converted to a less concentrated form
whenever energy is transformed or transferred.
d.
entropy decreases with time.
e.
none of these
45.
The removal of electrons from a compound is known as
a.
dehydration.
b.
oxidation.
c.
reduction.

45. d.
phosphorylation.
e.
a nonreversible chemical reaction.
46.
When NAD+ combines with hydrogen, the NAD+ becomes
a.
reduced.
b.
oxidized.
c.
phosphorylated.
d.
denatured.
e.
none of these

46. 47.
Which reaction is NOT an exergonic reaction?
a.
protein synthesis
b.
digestion
c.
fire
d.
respiration
e.
movement
48.
Although it its too simple an explanation, the concept of a key
fitting into a lock is descriptive of the

47. a.
inhibition of enzymes by small molecules.
b.
fit of coenzymes to enzymes.
c.
matching of enzyme with substrate.
d.
regeneration of ATP from ADP.
e.
stepwise cascade of electrons in the oxidation–reduction
reactions.
49.
Which of the following may show enzymatic activity?
a.
lipids
b.
proteins

48. c.
DNA
d.
lipids and proteins
e.
proteins and carbohydrates
50.
Which of the following is NOT true of enzyme behavior?
a.
Enzyme shape may change during catalysis.
b.
The active site of an enzyme orients its substrate molecules,
thereby promoting interaction of their reactive parts.
c.
All enzymes have an active site where substrates are
temporarily bound.
d.

49. Each enzyme can catalyze a wide variety of different reactions.
e.
none of these
51.
Enzymes
a.
are very specific.
b.
act as catalysts.
c.
are organic molecules.
d.
have special shapes that control their activities.
e.
all of these

50. 52.
The active site of an enzyme
a.
is where the coenzyme is located.
b.
is a specific bulge or protuberance on an enzyme.
c.
is a groove or crevice in the structure of the enzyme.
d.
will react with only one substrate no matter how many
molecules may resemble the shape of the substrate.
e.
rigidly resists any alteration of its shape.
53.
Enzymes increase the rate of a given reaction by lowering what
kind of energy?
a.

51. combination
b.
activation
c.
thermal
d.
electrical
e.
solar
54.
When a cell undergoes mitosis
a.
the daughter cells have identical genes.
b.
the daughter cell has genes identical to those of the mother cell
that produced it.
c.

52. the amount of cytoplasm in the mother cell and in each of the
daughter cells is equal.
d.
there is an exact duplication and division of all of the
organelles between daughter cells.
e.
both the daughter cells have identical genes and the daughter
cell has genes identical to those of the mother cell that produced
it is true.
55.
In mitosis, if a parent cell has 16 chromosomes, each daughter
cell will have how many chromosomes?
a.
64
b.
32
c.
16

53. d.
8
e.
4
56.
Chromatids that are attached at the centromere are called what
kind of chromatids?
a.
mother
b.
daughter
c.
sister
d.
programmed
e.

54. either mother or daughter but not sister nor programmed
57. A Cells two sets of genetic information are described by the
term
a.
polyploid.
b.
diploid.
c.
triploid.
d.
haploid.
e.
tetraploid.
58.
DNA replication occurs

55. a.
between the gap phases of interphase.
b.
immediately before prophase of mitosis.
c.
during prophase of mitosis.
d.
during prophase of meiosis.
e.
at any time during cell division.
59.
The spindle apparatus is made of
a.
Golgi bodies.
b.
microtubules.
c.

56. endoplasmic reticulum.
d.
nucleoprotein.
e.
chromatids.
60.
In eukaryotic cells, which can occur during mitosis?
a.
the duplication of chromatids
b.
the replication of DNA
c.
pairing of homologous chromosomes
d.
fragmentation and disappearance of nuclear envelope and
nucleolus
e.

57. all of these
61.
The chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator during
a.
anaphase.
b.
metaphase.
c.
interphase.
d.
prophase.
e.
telophase.
62.
The spindle apparatus becomes visible during
a.

58. anaphase.
b.
metaphase.
c.
interphase.
d.
prophase.
e.
telophase.
63.
The chromosomes detach from one another and become visibly
separated during
a.
anaphase.
b.
metaphase.

59. c.
interphase.
d.
prophase.
e.
telophase.
64.
The chromosomes are moving to opposite poles during
a.
anaphase.
b.
metaphase.
c.
interphase.
d.
prophase.

60. e.
telophase.
65.
The chromosomes have arrived at opposite poles during
a.
anaphase.
b.
metaphase.
c.
interphase.
d.
prophase.
e.
telophase.
66.
Strictly speaking, mitosis and meiosis are divisions of the

61. a.
nucleus.
b.
cytoplasm.
c.
chromosomes.
d.
only nucleus and chromosomes.
e.
nucleus, cytoplasm, and chromosomes.
67.
In which of the stages below does the chromosome consist of
two DNA molecules?
I. metaphase II. telophase
III. prophase IV. anaphase

62. a.
III and IV
b.
I, III, and IV
c.
I and III
d.
I, II, and III
e.
I, II, III, and IV
68.
Cytokinesis (cytoplasmic division)
a.
in animal cells begins with various deposits of material
associated with groups of microtubules at each pole of the
nucleus.

63. b.
in animal cells occurs when the plasma membrane is pulled
inward by a ring of actin filaments at the spindle equator.
c.
usually accompanies nuclear division.
d.
begins with the deposition of a very rigid lipid bilayer that cuts
the cell in two.
e.
all of these
69.
The distribution of cytoplasm to daughter cells is accomplished
during
a.
prokaryotic fission.
b.
mitosis.

64. c.
meiosis.
d.
cytokinesis (cytoplasmic division).
e.
karyokinesis.
70.
Proteins associated with DNA in eukaryotes are
a.
repressors.
b.
tryptophans.
c.
histones.
d.
nucleosomes.

65. e.
operons.
71.
Histone–DNA units are called
a.
polysomes.
b.
ribosomes.
c.
nucleosomes.
d.
chromocenters.
e.
vesicles.
72.-75.
Matching. Choose the one most appropriate answer for each.

66. a.
_____ centriole
b.
_____ centromere
c.
_____ chromatid
d.
_____ cytokinesis
e.
_____ metaphase
f.
_____ microtubules
g.
_____ prophase
h.
_____ telophase
1.

67. cytoplasm apportioned between the two daughter cells
2.
final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
3.
two sister chromatids are joined here
4.
chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
5.
chromosomes line up at spindle equator
6.
sister chromatids separate; move to opposite spindle poles now
7.
about 25 mm in diameter; form mitotic spindle
8.
half of a chromosome in prophase
9.
in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle

68. formation
76.
Genes are
a.
located on chromosomes.
b.
inherited in the same way as chromosomes.
c.
arranged in linear sequence on chromosomes.
d.
assorted independently during meiosis.
e.
all of these
77.
Chromosomes other than those involved in sex determination
are known as
a.

69. nucleosomes.
b.
heterosomes.
c.
alleles.
d.
autosomes.
e.
liposomes.
78.
DNA coding regions that affect the same trait are called
a.
homologues.
b.
alleles.
c.

70. autosomes.
d.
loci.
e.
gametes.
79.
The location of a gene on a chromosome is its
a.
centromere.
b.
locus.
c.
autosome.
d.
allele.
e.

71. none of these
80.
A karyotype
a.
compares one set of chromosomes to another.
b.
is a visual display of chromosomes arranged according to size.
c.
is a photograph of cells undergoing mitosis during anaphase.
d.
of a normal human cell shows 48 chromosomes.
e.
cannot be used to identify individual chromosomes beyond the
fact that two chromosomes are homologues.
81.
In karyotyping, individual chromosomes may be distinguished

72. from others by
a.
a comparison of chromosome lengths.
b.
bands produced on chromosomes by differential staining.
c.
the position of centromeres.
d.
all of these
e.
none of these
82.
Karyotyping is usually done using what kind of cells?
a.
muscle
b.

73. sex
c.
cartilage
d.
blood
e.
epidermal
83.
Which chemical is used to keep chromosomes from separating
during metaphase?
a.
Giemsa stain
b.
acetone
c.
colchicine

74. d.
alcohol
e.
formaldehyde
84.
Sex chromosomes
a.
determine sex.
b.
vary number and kind from one sex to another.
c.
carry some genes that have nothing to do with sex.
d.
were unknown to Mendel.
e.
all of these

75. 85.
Which of the following designates a normal human female?
a.
XXY
b.
XY
c.
XX
d.
XYY
e.
XO
86.
In his experiments with Drosophila melanogaster, Morgan
demonstrated that
a.

76. fertilized eggs have two sets of chromosomes, but eggs and
sperms have only one set in each gamete.
b.
aneuploidy exists in karyotypes that have undergone deletions
and inversions in specific chromosomes.
c.
colchicine is effective in producing polyploidy in several
generations.
d.
certain genes are located only on an X chromosome and have no
corresponding alleles on the Y chromosome.
e.
all of these
87.
All of the genes located on a given chromosome comprise a
a.
karyotype.

77. b.
bridging cross.
c.
wild-type allele.
d.
linkage group.
e.
none of these
88.
If two genes are on the same chromosome,
a.
they are in the same linkage group
b.
they assort independently.
c.
crossing over occurs frequently.

78. d.
they are segregated during meiosis.
e.
an inversion will usually occur.
89.
If two genes are almost always found in the same gamete, they
are
a.
located on non-homologous chromosomes.
b.
located close together on the same chromosome.
c.
located far apart on the same chromosome.
d.
found on the sex chromosome.
90.

79. If the paternal chromosome has alleles L, M, and n and the
maternal chromosomes have l, m, and N, then the chromosome
that cannot be produced by crossing over is
a.
LMN
b.
LmN
c.
LMn
d.
Lmn
e.
lmn
91.
In a pedigree chart a male showing the specific trait being
studied is indicated by a
a.

80. clear triangle.
b.
clear square.
c.
darkened diamond.
d.
darkened square.
e.
darkened circle.
92.
Galactosemia
a.
is an X-linked recessive trait expressed more commonly in
males.
b.
occurs more frequently in some ethnic groups than others.

81. c.
is an autosomal recessive inheritance.
d.
must be homozygous to be expressed.
e.
b, c and d but not a.
93.
A colorblind man and a woman with normal vision whose father
was colorblind have a son. Colorblindness, in this case, is
caused by an X-linked recessive gene. If only the male offspring
are considered, the probability that their son is colorblind is
a.
.25 (or 25 percent).
b.
.50 (or 50 percent).
c.
.75 (or 75 percent).

82. d.
1.00 (or 100 percent).
e.
none of these
94.
If a daughter expresses an X-linked recessive gene, she
inherited the trait from
a.
her mother.
b.
her father.
c.
both parents.
d.
neither parent.
e.
her grandmother.

83. 95.
An X-linked carrier is a
a.
homozygous dominant female.
b.
heterozygous female.
c.
homozygous recessive female.
d.
homozygous male.
e.
heterozygous male.
96.
A human X-linked gene is
a.

84. found only in males.
b.
more frequently expressed in females.
c.
found on the Y chromosome.
d.
transmitted from father to son.
e.
found on the X chromosome.
97.
A chromosome that has been broken and rejoined in a reversal
sequence has undergone
a.
inversion.
b.
deletion.

85. c.
duplication.
d.
translocation.
e.
crossing over.
98.
Diploid organisms
a.
have corresponding alleles on homologous chromosomes.
b.
are usually the result of the fusion of two haploid gametes.
c.
have two sets of chromosomes.
d.
have pairs of homologous chromosomes.

86. e.
all of these
99.
For Mendel's explanation of inheritance to be correct,
a.
the genes for the traits he studied had to be located on the same
chromosome.
b.
which gametes combine at fertilization had to be due to chance.
c.
genes could not be transmitted independently of each other.
d.
only diploid organisms would demonstrate inheritance patterns.
e.
none of these
100. - 109. Pick a theories of aging and use the scientific
method to design an experiment that might rule one of them out.

87. 110. - 119. What are reactive oxygen species (also called 'free
radicals' and how are they believed to be involved in aging? The
original theory of Harman (the father of the current aging
paradigm ('wear and tear')), stated that free radicals (reactive
oxygen species is more a general term that includes things like
peroxide, which is not a free radical,but can be just as
damaging), produced by dysfunctional mitochondria, caused
aging by damaging molecules like DNA that store what the cell
needs to survive. What kind of evidence would disprove that
theory?
120. - 129. What are non-cycling cells, what state are they said
to be in and can they be brought out of it? How? Can all non-
cycling cells be caused to function? Any of them?
130 – 139. What are cell cycle checkpoints, explain when they
occur in the cell cycle and what their purpose is. Name a
checkpoint protein.
140 – 149. Discuss which theory of aging you prefer and why.