The passage discusses checking job references and provides advice for callers. It suggests asking intelligent, legitimate questions to obtain substantive answers rather than limiting oneself to vague questions. Perfunctory reference calling where only vague questions are asked makes for a good show but does not truly assess the candidate. Callers should think carefully about what questions to ask to learn the whole truth from references.
The document provides a sample English proficiency exam with 3 parts and 50 questions. Part I focuses on everyday English with topics like directions, conversations, complaints, and short passages. Part II is about English for future careers. The questions test comprehension, vocabulary, and grammar through multiple choice format. Overall, the document samples the type of questions asked in an English exam to test a variety of language skills at a basic to intermediate level.
Here are the missing words:
75. Australia
76. Switzerland
David was born in Sydney, Australia but his family migrated to Switzerland in 1999. When he finished his high school in Geneva, his new home city, he would like to further his study in Europe.
This document appears to be an English midterm exam from a school in Thailand. It contains 3 parts - if-clause questions, question tag questions, and multiple choice questions about the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). The exam tests students' knowledge of English grammar structures like conditional sentences and question tags, as well as factual information about ASEAN member countries, their leaders, capitals, and flags. It will be graded by the teacher, Mrs. Kitaya Sriri.
The passage discusses checking job references for potential employees. It suggests asking intelligent questions of references to learn important details about a candidate's past performance and qualifications. Questions should be specific rather than vague to obtain meaningful answers from references. While references may limit what they share to avoid legal issues, asking the right questions can still help an employer make informed hiring decisions.
The document is a reading comprehension test containing 35 multiple choice questions about several short passages of text. The questions test understanding of topics like characters in the passages, implied meanings, grammatical concepts, and rearranging scrambled words into proper sentences. Overall, the summary assesses the test-taker's ability to comprehend various elements of written English texts.
- The document is a test for English subject given to grade 10 students at vocational schools in Wonogiri Regency, Central Java, Indonesia.
- It provides instructions for taking the test, including writing one's test number and answering questions on provided sheets using a ballpoint pen.
- The test contains multiple choice and essay questions testing grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and writing skills.
- It provides an answer key for the multiple choice and essay questions at the end.
This document contains a 50-question English proficiency test with multiple choice answers. The test covers topics like greetings, locations, conversations, grammar, vocabulary and comprehension of short passages. Each question is numbered and includes 4 multiple choice answer options. The full test is presented in the document for review purposes.
The document provides a sample English proficiency exam with 3 parts and 50 questions. Part I focuses on everyday English with topics like directions, conversations, complaints, and short passages. Part II is about English for future careers. The questions test comprehension, vocabulary, and grammar through multiple choice format. Overall, the document samples the type of questions asked in an English exam to test a variety of language skills at a basic to intermediate level.
Here are the missing words:
75. Australia
76. Switzerland
David was born in Sydney, Australia but his family migrated to Switzerland in 1999. When he finished his high school in Geneva, his new home city, he would like to further his study in Europe.
This document appears to be an English midterm exam from a school in Thailand. It contains 3 parts - if-clause questions, question tag questions, and multiple choice questions about the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). The exam tests students' knowledge of English grammar structures like conditional sentences and question tags, as well as factual information about ASEAN member countries, their leaders, capitals, and flags. It will be graded by the teacher, Mrs. Kitaya Sriri.
The passage discusses checking job references for potential employees. It suggests asking intelligent questions of references to learn important details about a candidate's past performance and qualifications. Questions should be specific rather than vague to obtain meaningful answers from references. While references may limit what they share to avoid legal issues, asking the right questions can still help an employer make informed hiring decisions.
The document is a reading comprehension test containing 35 multiple choice questions about several short passages of text. The questions test understanding of topics like characters in the passages, implied meanings, grammatical concepts, and rearranging scrambled words into proper sentences. Overall, the summary assesses the test-taker's ability to comprehend various elements of written English texts.
- The document is a test for English subject given to grade 10 students at vocational schools in Wonogiri Regency, Central Java, Indonesia.
- It provides instructions for taking the test, including writing one's test number and answering questions on provided sheets using a ballpoint pen.
- The test contains multiple choice and essay questions testing grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and writing skills.
- It provides an answer key for the multiple choice and essay questions at the end.
This document contains a 50-question English proficiency test with multiple choice answers. The test covers topics like greetings, locations, conversations, grammar, vocabulary and comprehension of short passages. Each question is numbered and includes 4 multiple choice answer options. The full test is presented in the document for review purposes.
This document appears to be an English evaluation from a school in Indonesia. It contains multiple choice questions testing grammar concepts, exercises to practice positive and negative responses and changing sentences between active and passive voice. It also includes questions to practice using possessive adjectives and pronouns. The evaluation is signed by the teacher, Miss Laili, and instructs students to be honest, not cheat, do their best, and wishes them good luck.
The document provides a listening section with 15 multiple choice questions about short conversations between two people. The questions cover topics like a man's problem, how a woman wants to pay, why a woman stopped seeing a man, and what a woman's advice is. It also includes dialogues and texts to read, with corresponding multiple choice comprehension questions about the details and main ideas in the passages.
Soal Bahasa Inggris II Semester Ganjil (2012 2013)Aji Subekti
1. The document is an exam for grade 8 students from SMP Pangudi Luhur Santo Albertus in Ketapang, West Kalimantan.
2. It contains questions in English about grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and rearranging words into sentences.
3. The topics of the reading passages include information about redwood trees, Rafflesia flowers, and the parts of a tree.
1. The document contains multiple choice questions about short conversations and passages. It asks about topics like internet usage, driving without a license, taking public transportation, music preferences, and more.
2. The questions assess comprehension of details like number of deaths from a snowstorm, reasons for choosing a particular hotel, appropriate responses to good or bad news, and inferences about people's opinions, intentions, and responses in conversations.
3. Key details assessed include numbers, reasons, opinions, intentions, responses, and meanings of words used in the given passages and conversations.
This document provides instructions for a reading comprehension test with multiple choice questions. It is divided into three sections - incomplete dialogues, error recognition, and reading comprehension. For each section, the reader must choose the correct answer from the options provided to complete sentences, identify errors, or answer questions about passages. The purpose is to evaluate the test-taker's reading and English language skills.
The document is a mid-semester exam for a 10th grade English class at SEKOLAH MENENGAH KEJURUAN BAITUL HAMDI. The exam covers topics like personal pronouns, verbs, questions, describing pictures using sentences, professions/nationalities, arranging words into sentences, and stating the time. It consists of 26 questions in various formats to test students' English language skills.
This document contains a daily examination with multiple choice and true/false questions about greetings, conversations, spelling names, illnesses, and self-introductions. There are 30 multiple choice questions testing comprehension of dialogues, descriptions, pictures and rearranging words. Additionally, there are 5 open response questions requiring generating a dialogue, making a goodbye card, identifying greetings for pictures, finding hidden illnesses, and filling in personal details. The content focuses on appropriate social interactions, comprehension of written English, and providing personal information.
DINAS PENDIDIKAN KAB. WONOGIRI
MUSYAWARAH KERJA KEPALA SEKOLAH (MKKS)
SMK KABUPATEN WONOGIRI
ULANGAN UMUM SEMESTER GENAP
TAHUN PELAJARAN 2014/2015
LEMBAR SOAL
Mata Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Satuan Pendidikan : Sekolah Menengah Kejuruan ( SMK )
Kelompok : BM & TI
Prog. Studi / Keahlian : Semua Program Keahlian
Kelas : XI ( Sebelas )
Hari / Tanggal : Selasa, 1 Desember 2015
Waktu : Pukul 07.30 – 09.30 WIB (120 menit)
The document contains a multiple choice test in Bahasa Indonesia for 9th grade junior high school students. It has 44 questions testing students' understanding of English expressions of certainty, uncertainty, asking for repetition, and showing admiration. The questions cover topics like short messages, advertisements, procedures, reports and word sounds. The test aims to evaluate students' comprehension of common English language functions in different contexts.
This document contains a reading comprehension test with multiple choice questions for a 10th grade class (Kelas X) in Indonesia. It tests understanding of grammar concepts like verbs, pronouns, and conjunctions. It also contains a similar test for an 11th grade class (Kelas XI) focusing on verb tenses and contractions. And a third test for a 12th grade class (Kelas XII) with questions testing comprehension of dialogues and identifying emotions. The tests are in Bahasa Indonesian but require choosing English answers.
Umar helps an injured boy after witnessing a hit-and-run accident. He stays with the unconscious boy until a passing driver agrees to take them to the hospital. Umar then accompanies the driver to the police station to report the accident. Umar's friends think he acted bravely in this unforgettable incident.
This document appears to be instructions and a practice test for an English exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. The instructions state that students should choose the correct answer from options A, B, C, or D and mark their answer sheets accordingly. The questions cover a range of basic English grammar and vocabulary topics including greetings, personal information, parts of the body, places, occupations, and prepositions of place.
This document provides a summary of an English language test for 8th grade students in semester 1 of the 2012/2013 school year. It includes 25 multiple choice questions testing various English competencies. The questions cover topics like identifying questions in narratives, recognizing vowel sounds, understanding tense (present perfect and past continuous), comprehending short texts, and completing sentences with the correct grammar. It also provides the allocation of time (60 minutes), number of questions, difficulty level, and assessment standards for each competency.
This document contains a list of 5 sections titled "Guidelines for the English Teacher Assistant Subject Exam Set 1" through "Guidelines for the English Teacher Assistant Subject Exam Set 5", with each section beginning on a different page number. It appears to be providing sample exam questions or guidelines for an exam for those seeking a position as an English teacher assistant in Thailand.
The document is a reading comprehension test in Bahasa Inggris (English) for 8th grade students. It contains two passages of text and 26 multiple choice questions about the passages. The first passage is a story about Roro Jonggrang, the daughter of a king who tricks her suitor Bandung Bondowoso by making him think the sunrise has come to avoid marrying him. The second passage provides information about the founding and goals of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).
Thank you for the lesson on making polite requests in English. Practicing example dialogues is very helpful for understanding how to properly structure requests in different situations.
Soal ujian bahasa inggris semester 1 2012 2013 (7 smp)Chaerul Walad
The document provides information about an English test, including questions about greetings, conversations, and grammar. It contains questions about topics like where a conversation took place, expressions of plans and abilities, word order, and spellings. The test asks students to summarize information, identify errors, arrange jumbled words, choose the appropriate response to requests, and determine the meaning of underlined words in context.
50 soal latihan grammar untuk mahasiswa semester awal.Yanthika January
The document contains a 50 question English grammar mid-semester exam with multiple choice answers. The questions cover a range of English grammar topics including verbs, nouns, pronouns, adjectives, prepositions, and tenses. The exam is designed to test students' understanding of fundamental grammar rules in English. It provides the answer key to an exam taken by English language learners to evaluate their progress at the midpoint of a course.
The document contains examples of incomplete dialogues and multiple choice answers to complete them. It tests the reader's ability to understand context clues and choose the most appropriate response to naturally continue the conversation. The dialogues cover common situations like ordering food, talking about plans and events, and booking tickets.
SMP Satria team entered a tug-of-war contest last month against SMP Taruna. They practiced hard in the two weeks before. On the day of the contest, SMP Taruna's team was much bigger but SMP Satria worked together and won the contest despite being smaller.
This document appears to be a learning object in Thai for teaching English vocabulary related to apologizing, thanking, asking about likes/dislikes, warning, and favors. It is divided into sections with examples of phrases for each topic in both Thai and English. The document was created by a teacher for use in a 5th grade English class in Thailand.
This document appears to be an English evaluation from a school in Indonesia. It contains multiple choice questions testing grammar concepts, exercises to practice positive and negative responses and changing sentences between active and passive voice. It also includes questions to practice using possessive adjectives and pronouns. The evaluation is signed by the teacher, Miss Laili, and instructs students to be honest, not cheat, do their best, and wishes them good luck.
The document provides a listening section with 15 multiple choice questions about short conversations between two people. The questions cover topics like a man's problem, how a woman wants to pay, why a woman stopped seeing a man, and what a woman's advice is. It also includes dialogues and texts to read, with corresponding multiple choice comprehension questions about the details and main ideas in the passages.
Soal Bahasa Inggris II Semester Ganjil (2012 2013)Aji Subekti
1. The document is an exam for grade 8 students from SMP Pangudi Luhur Santo Albertus in Ketapang, West Kalimantan.
2. It contains questions in English about grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and rearranging words into sentences.
3. The topics of the reading passages include information about redwood trees, Rafflesia flowers, and the parts of a tree.
1. The document contains multiple choice questions about short conversations and passages. It asks about topics like internet usage, driving without a license, taking public transportation, music preferences, and more.
2. The questions assess comprehension of details like number of deaths from a snowstorm, reasons for choosing a particular hotel, appropriate responses to good or bad news, and inferences about people's opinions, intentions, and responses in conversations.
3. Key details assessed include numbers, reasons, opinions, intentions, responses, and meanings of words used in the given passages and conversations.
This document provides instructions for a reading comprehension test with multiple choice questions. It is divided into three sections - incomplete dialogues, error recognition, and reading comprehension. For each section, the reader must choose the correct answer from the options provided to complete sentences, identify errors, or answer questions about passages. The purpose is to evaluate the test-taker's reading and English language skills.
The document is a mid-semester exam for a 10th grade English class at SEKOLAH MENENGAH KEJURUAN BAITUL HAMDI. The exam covers topics like personal pronouns, verbs, questions, describing pictures using sentences, professions/nationalities, arranging words into sentences, and stating the time. It consists of 26 questions in various formats to test students' English language skills.
This document contains a daily examination with multiple choice and true/false questions about greetings, conversations, spelling names, illnesses, and self-introductions. There are 30 multiple choice questions testing comprehension of dialogues, descriptions, pictures and rearranging words. Additionally, there are 5 open response questions requiring generating a dialogue, making a goodbye card, identifying greetings for pictures, finding hidden illnesses, and filling in personal details. The content focuses on appropriate social interactions, comprehension of written English, and providing personal information.
DINAS PENDIDIKAN KAB. WONOGIRI
MUSYAWARAH KERJA KEPALA SEKOLAH (MKKS)
SMK KABUPATEN WONOGIRI
ULANGAN UMUM SEMESTER GENAP
TAHUN PELAJARAN 2014/2015
LEMBAR SOAL
Mata Pelajaran : Bahasa Inggris
Satuan Pendidikan : Sekolah Menengah Kejuruan ( SMK )
Kelompok : BM & TI
Prog. Studi / Keahlian : Semua Program Keahlian
Kelas : XI ( Sebelas )
Hari / Tanggal : Selasa, 1 Desember 2015
Waktu : Pukul 07.30 – 09.30 WIB (120 menit)
The document contains a multiple choice test in Bahasa Indonesia for 9th grade junior high school students. It has 44 questions testing students' understanding of English expressions of certainty, uncertainty, asking for repetition, and showing admiration. The questions cover topics like short messages, advertisements, procedures, reports and word sounds. The test aims to evaluate students' comprehension of common English language functions in different contexts.
This document contains a reading comprehension test with multiple choice questions for a 10th grade class (Kelas X) in Indonesia. It tests understanding of grammar concepts like verbs, pronouns, and conjunctions. It also contains a similar test for an 11th grade class (Kelas XI) focusing on verb tenses and contractions. And a third test for a 12th grade class (Kelas XII) with questions testing comprehension of dialogues and identifying emotions. The tests are in Bahasa Indonesian but require choosing English answers.
Umar helps an injured boy after witnessing a hit-and-run accident. He stays with the unconscious boy until a passing driver agrees to take them to the hospital. Umar then accompanies the driver to the police station to report the accident. Umar's friends think he acted bravely in this unforgettable incident.
This document appears to be instructions and a practice test for an English exam consisting of 50 multiple choice questions. The instructions state that students should choose the correct answer from options A, B, C, or D and mark their answer sheets accordingly. The questions cover a range of basic English grammar and vocabulary topics including greetings, personal information, parts of the body, places, occupations, and prepositions of place.
This document provides a summary of an English language test for 8th grade students in semester 1 of the 2012/2013 school year. It includes 25 multiple choice questions testing various English competencies. The questions cover topics like identifying questions in narratives, recognizing vowel sounds, understanding tense (present perfect and past continuous), comprehending short texts, and completing sentences with the correct grammar. It also provides the allocation of time (60 minutes), number of questions, difficulty level, and assessment standards for each competency.
This document contains a list of 5 sections titled "Guidelines for the English Teacher Assistant Subject Exam Set 1" through "Guidelines for the English Teacher Assistant Subject Exam Set 5", with each section beginning on a different page number. It appears to be providing sample exam questions or guidelines for an exam for those seeking a position as an English teacher assistant in Thailand.
The document is a reading comprehension test in Bahasa Inggris (English) for 8th grade students. It contains two passages of text and 26 multiple choice questions about the passages. The first passage is a story about Roro Jonggrang, the daughter of a king who tricks her suitor Bandung Bondowoso by making him think the sunrise has come to avoid marrying him. The second passage provides information about the founding and goals of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).
Thank you for the lesson on making polite requests in English. Practicing example dialogues is very helpful for understanding how to properly structure requests in different situations.
Soal ujian bahasa inggris semester 1 2012 2013 (7 smp)Chaerul Walad
The document provides information about an English test, including questions about greetings, conversations, and grammar. It contains questions about topics like where a conversation took place, expressions of plans and abilities, word order, and spellings. The test asks students to summarize information, identify errors, arrange jumbled words, choose the appropriate response to requests, and determine the meaning of underlined words in context.
50 soal latihan grammar untuk mahasiswa semester awal.Yanthika January
The document contains a 50 question English grammar mid-semester exam with multiple choice answers. The questions cover a range of English grammar topics including verbs, nouns, pronouns, adjectives, prepositions, and tenses. The exam is designed to test students' understanding of fundamental grammar rules in English. It provides the answer key to an exam taken by English language learners to evaluate their progress at the midpoint of a course.
The document contains examples of incomplete dialogues and multiple choice answers to complete them. It tests the reader's ability to understand context clues and choose the most appropriate response to naturally continue the conversation. The dialogues cover common situations like ordering food, talking about plans and events, and booking tickets.
SMP Satria team entered a tug-of-war contest last month against SMP Taruna. They practiced hard in the two weeks before. On the day of the contest, SMP Taruna's team was much bigger but SMP Satria worked together and won the contest despite being smaller.
This document appears to be a learning object in Thai for teaching English vocabulary related to apologizing, thanking, asking about likes/dislikes, warning, and favors. It is divided into sections with examples of phrases for each topic in both Thai and English. The document was created by a teacher for use in a 5th grade English class in Thailand.
The document is a reading comprehension test with multiple choice questions about a passage. The passage discusses how radio is used on large farms in Australia due to their isolation. It describes how the government set up a two-way radio program so farmers could contact doctors for medical advice. It also discusses radio schools being set up for farm children who could not attend regular schools due to the distance. Farm families would use "round robin" radio talks to keep in touch and share news. The radio became an important communication tool and source of information for isolated farm communities in Australia.
This document contains a mid-semester exam for grade 8 students studying English at MTs. N Batang Toru for the 2011-2012 academic year. The exam contains 50 questions testing grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and the ability to complete dialogues and short passages. The questions cover topics such as daily conversations, short stories, recipes and instructions.
Yes, we offer a 10% discount for cash payment.
So it will be 1,800 baht.
Customer: Okay, I'll take it.
4. a. styles b. colors c. sizes d. prices
5. a. follow me b. come with me c. go with me d. accompany me
6. a. Here are some high heels b. Here are the high heels
c. Here is some high heels d. Here is the high heels
7. a. I'll take it b. I'll buy it c. I want this d. I like this
8. a. Is there any discount? b. How much is the price? c. Can you reduce
This document contains an English proficiency test in Thai with 40 multiple choice questions. The test covers topics like grammar, vocabulary, conversations and comprehension. It is intended for Thai students in grade 5 studying English as a foreign language. The test takes 30 minutes to complete and is designed to measure students' English language skills before starting their lesson.
This document contains an English proficiency test in Thai with 40 multiple choice questions. The test covers topics like grammar, vocabulary, conversations and comprehension. It is intended for Thai students in grade 5 studying English as a foreign language. The test takes 30 minutes to complete and is designed to measure students' English language skills before starting their lesson.
Karen was preparing to leave her friend Alice's house when Alice's uncle Mr. Smith arrived upset and asked Karen to stay and watch over Alice while he was away that night. Mr. Smith believed riots were possible that evening and instructed Karen on what to do if she heard noises in the house. That night, Karen and Alice heard hundreds of marching feet outside but Karen remained calm and suggested it was time for bed after the group passed.
1. Mr. Smith asked Karen to stay at his house and watch over his niece Alice while he was away for the night, as he feared riots were possible.
2. That evening, Karen and Alice heard hundreds of angry voices and marching feet outside approaching the house. They realized a group was planning an attack.
3. When a weapon dropped outside and the dog barked, the group resumed marching away. Karen calmly suggested to Alice that it was time for bed, having likely scared off the group.
This document contains an English exam with multiple choice questions testing pronunciation, grammar, vocabulary and reading comprehension. It covers topics such as choosing the differently pronounced word, correcting grammatical errors, completing sentences, answering questions about a passage on Tet traditions, and rewriting sentences with the same meaning. The exam tests a wide range of English language skills.
The passage discusses the advantages of mixed-ability teaching over streaming or separating students by ability into different classes. It argues that mixed-ability teaching enriches both the knowledge and experience of bright students and prevents them from being held back. Streaming does not account for the fact that students develop at different rates and can discourage both high- and low-ability students. The passage also notes it is unrealistic to judge students solely based on intellectual ability, as personality is multidimensional. Mixed-ability teaching fosters development of academic and personal skills. Teachers employ various methods including group work, partner work, individual tasks, and formal instruction to meet students' differing needs and abilities.
Caroline Benson was surprised to get her first TV role while taking a gap year from university. She had always loved the book and imagined herself playing the character of Polly Finnegan. With her mother's help, she sent in a photo and landed the part. She took time off from university for the three weeks of outdoor filming. After returning to university, she worked hard to catch up on missed essays. The experience of acting in her first TV role was amazing, though she hasn't had other acting jobs yet. After finishing her first year, she is traveling with friends over the summer.
dapatkan contoh-contoh soal listening TOEFL PBT untuk membantu anda dalam dan persiapkan diri dalam mengikuti tes TOEFL PBT sehingga hasil tes TOEFL PBT bisa mencapai target yang diinginkan
ULANGAN HARIAN BAHASA INGGRIS LINTAS MINAT KELAS XIIsranursalim R.A
Craig tells Joan he has a cold. Joan suggests Craig rest at home and take garlic cooked in chicken stock every half hour, which she says works well. Craig responds with "Ugh!". The document provides a reading comprehension test with multiple choice questions about the short dialogue between Craig and Joan.
The passage discusses the purpose and popularity of satirical literature. It notes that satire does not typically offer original ideas, but rather presents familiar topics from a new perspective that reveals their foolish or harmful nature. This jars readers and makes them realize the falseness of commonly accepted values. Famous satires like Don Quixote, Brave New World, and A Modest Proposal are cited as works that ridiculed established ideas in their time through creative expression rather than by proposing new philosophies. Readers are drawn to satire due to the aesthetically pleasing way it stimulates critical thinking and reminds people that popular views are often only partially true.
This document contains a test with multiple choice questions in English grammar and vocabulary. The test covers topics such as verbs, pronouns, prepositions, sentence structure, and identifying grammatical errors. It is divided into 4 sections - choosing the best answer, filling in gaps in a passage, phonetic questions, and identifying mistakes. The goal of the test is to assess knowledge of English grammar and usage.
The document appears to be a test with multiple choice questions on English grammar. It covers topics like verbs in the present simple and continuous tenses, questions forms, use of "have/has got" and "was/were". There are 40 total questions testing grammar points like subject-verb agreement, tense usage and completing sentences with the correct verbs. The test seems aimed at non-native English speakers to evaluate their understanding of basic English grammar rules.
The document is an exam for admission to university in Vietnam in 2013. It consists of 80 multiple choice questions testing English proficiency, covering topics like pronunciation, vocabulary, grammar, and reading comprehension. The exam is divided into 7 sections, with questions becoming more difficult in each subsequent section. It tests abilities such as identifying stressed syllables, pronunciation of underlined parts of words, choosing the correct grammar, identifying implied meanings, and answering comprehension questions about several passages.
This document appears to be an English proficiency test containing 50 multiple choice questions testing grammar, vocabulary, pronunciation and reading comprehension. Some of the questions are incomplete sentences that require choosing the correct word or phrase to complete the sentence. Others involve identifying mistakes, stressed syllables, synonyms or choosing the best response to short dialogues or passages. The test covers a wide range of English language skills and concepts.
The document contains a grammar quiz with multiple choice questions testing parts of speech, tenses, and other grammar rules. It also contains vocabulary questions testing word meanings and a reading comprehension section with questions about airport departure times, a newspaper headline and date, and product label. The document tests English language skills through various question types.
This document contains an objective practice test with multiple choice questions about English grammar, vocabulary, pronunciation and reading comprehension. There are 30 multiple choice questions testing parts of speech, tense, articles, prepositions and meanings of words in context. It also includes a reading passage and 10 related multiple choice questions about a man who has 13 jobs on a small Scottish island.
1. แนวข้ อสอบวิชาภาษาอังกฤษ
ฉบับที่ 1
PART I : ENGLISH FOR EVERYDAY USE (1-50)
A. DIRECTIONS : Choose the best alternative for each blank in these dialogs.
A.
ATTENDING A FOOTBALL MATCH
Cathy is attending a football match for the first time.
Man : 1 , isn’t he?
Cathy : Who?
Man : Jacky Nelson. The Red Horse wouldn’t win any game without him.
Cathy : Oh? I don’t know much about football, 2 .
Man : Oh well, just watch him now. 3 on the left, near the goal.
Cathy : Yes, 4 .
Man : Look! He’s just 5 a goal! Hooray!
1. a. Excellent game b. Fantastic player
c. Terrible d. No luck
2. a. I’ve heard b. you don’t say
c. you can tell d. I’m afraid
3. a. Here he goes b. There he is
c. How he plays d. That is he
4. a. he is too far to see b. I can see nothing
c. you’d better show me where he is d. I can see him now
5. a. scored b. did
c. sent d. managed
2. B.
RECOUNTING PAST EXPERIENCES
Maria : 6 fireworks last night?
Lorry : To tell you the truth, I don’t enjoy it too much. There was such a big crowd that 7 .
Maria : When did Gibson come to pick you up?
Lorry : 8 but we had a drink in a pub first. By the time we got to the castle, 9 .
We had a hard time finding a place even to stand.
Maria : 10 .
Lorry : What about you? Did you 11 ?
Maria : Yes. We found a place where nobody could get in front of us.
Lorry : I think 12 !
6. a. How was b. How did you like
c. Do you enjoy d. How much fun you have for
7. a. I didn’t go to see them b. we couldn’t get very close
c. they refused to start the fireworks d. we went somewhere else
8. a. He missed his bus b. He was prevented from coming
c. He came early d. Not until after the fireworks show
9. a. there was no space left b. everybody had gone away
c. the place was already jammed d. Gibson lost his temper and we had a fight
10. a. It can’t be helped b. Don’t mention it
c. You must be careful c. That’s too bad
11. a. get a good view b. see a good scenery
c. arrange a good show d. find the show
12. a. you were lucky b. that’s not fair
c. I envy you d. I understand the situation
3. C.
INTERRUPTING
Farah : I’ve known him for some time now and I think I’m in love with him.
Malee : It sounds 13 . I hope things go well for you this …
Son : (Running into the room) Mommy!
Malee : 14 , Dang. Don’t interrupt. (To friend) 15 , I hope things go well for you
this time. You’ve had so…
Son : Mommy, 16 .
Malee : Dang, will you please 17 other people while they’re talking. (To friend) It seems
like You’ve had so many heartbreaks in the past. I really hope…. .
Son : But, Mommy Dao fell down and 18 .
Malee : What? 19 ? Where is she? Is she badly hurt?
13. a. like you are b. as I do
c. something wrong d. that you do
14. a. What is it, tell me b. Oh, hello
c. No more speech d. Wait a minute
15. a. Luckily b. Anyway
c. Next d. Beside
16. a. shut up b. beat it
c. come quick d. go here
17. a no interfere b. keeping your words for
c. stay away d. stop interrupting
18. a. injured her b. hurt herself
c. crying loudly d. get a shock
4. 19. a. Why didn’t you say so? b. Did she painful?
c. Did you say so? d. You can say now.
D.
PROBLEMS WITH CARS
W : Excuse me, John. 20 ? There’s something I need to talk with you about.
H : Sure. 21 ?
W : It has to do with the car.
H : 22 ?
W : The mechanic said it would 23 to repair it and it would 24 . So I think we’ll
Have to get a new car.
H : But cars are so expensive now ! 25 a new one?
W : I don’t know. Maybe we’ll have to work harder!
20. a. Do you have a minute? b. Are you alright?
c. Give me a hand d. Can you stop working hard?
21. a. What is it? b. Can I know?
c. Why are you? d. Do not hesitate.
22. a. I remember it. b. Anything about it?
c. I hope so. d. What about it?
23. a. get a long time b. demand weeks
c. last two weeks d. take several weeks
24. a. pay a high price b. cost us a lot of money
c. charge us a lot d. waste so much money
25. a. So I suggest we get b. How long can we order
c. How are we going to afford d. Nobody would ever try
5. E.
ANSWERING A TELEPHONE CALL
A woman receives a telephone call at her home from a salesperson.
A : Hello.
B : Hello. 26 ?
A : Yes.
B : 27 the Bangkok Daily. Mrs, Clyne. Do you currently have a subscription
to our newspaper?
A : No, I don’t. But 28 .
B : This month we have 29 to the Bangkok Daily. You’ll get… .
A : Excuse me, but, 30 , I’m not interested.
26. a. Good morning, Mrs. Clyne? b. Can I get Mrs. Clyne?
c. Is this Mrs. Clyne? d. Is Mrs. Clyne in today?
27. a. I telephone at b. I make a phone call from
c. I’m calling from d. I’ve worked for
28. a. I need more information first b. I may be later
c. I don’t want it anymore d. I’m not interested in one
29. a. a promotion campaign b. a subscription reward
c. offered a good selection of prizes d. a special offer for subscription
30. a. as I said b. because I said so
c. like I told d. according to what I told
6. F.
AN ANNIVERSARY
Man : Do you know what day it is tomorrow?
Woman : Yes, it’s Thursday, 31 . Why? 32 ?
Man : It’s my anniversary. I 33 for two years tomorrow.
Woman : Really? 34 ! It seems just like a few months ago.
Man : 35 and the only job I’ve ever had.
Woman : But you’ve been promoted. 36 , I think.
Man : Yes, I suppose I have, but I 37 in night school and taken some courses in management.
Woman : Are you thinking about going back 38 ?
Man : I may. My work is getting 39 .
Woman : You’d better call your boss and 40 about it.
31. a. the twentieth of August b. August the twenty
c. twenty of August d. twentieth in August
32. a. What’s special about that? b. Do you ask me?
c. How is it going to be? d. Have you gone insane?
33. a. will stay here b. will have been here
c. must have come d. am going to work
34. a. It can’t have been that long b. It’s been too long
c. It sounds like a short while d. You must be very old now
35. a. The job is hard b. It’s my first job
c. It’s my beginning d. I did the job first
36. a. You should be satisfied b. You’ve done pretty well
c. You shouldn’t have any regret d. You must be very pround
7. 37. a. must go on with b. know I should enroll
c. ought to further my study d. should have kept on
38. a. to have done it b. finishing it quickly
c. and doing it now d. and stop working
39. a. more and more challenging b. to a good turning point
c. bored and uninterested d. to be pretty routine
40. a. said something to him b. talk it over with him
c. see what he has to say d. give him what he deserves
B. DIRECTIONS : Answer the following questions.
41. The two pictures could be used in a campaign _________________ .
a. against racial discrimination b. for the welfare of the disabled
c. promoting higher education d. condemning the excessive use of energy
8. LONDON HIGHLIGHTS & THAMES CRUISE
HIGHLIGHTS
∙ Thames Crulse
∙ Introduction to all the majar sights of London
42. Which of the following statements is false?
a. The Thames Cruise ends at Tower Bridge
b. Travellers can see St. Paul’s Cathedral on their way to the Tower of London.
c. The tour will begin daily by the twin turrets of Tower Bridge.
d. Lord Mayor of London resides at the Mansion House.
43. According to the advertisement, _____________ .
a. travelers have to pay separately for the Thames Cruise
b. this tour gives you only a brief introduction to the major tourist sights of London
c. you can visit all the tourist spots in London by boat
d. whenever we arrive at Westminster Abbey, we will hear Big Ben chime
9. 44. In order to join the tour, ______________ .
a. one can choose between the morning departure and the afternoon departure and
day of the week
b. everybody should meet at the Park International Hotel before 9.00 a.m.
c. travelers must check in no later than 1.30 p.m.
d. one can catch the tour coach at Trafalgar Square at 10.00 on Sunday
45. The Square Mile is worth visiting because _____________ .
a. it is an area of financial significance
b. it is the biggest area of the West End
c. there are many famous shopping streets
d. it was the first European settlement in London
BEIJING-KL DEFENCE TALKS
Associated Press
Beijing
MALAYSIAN Defence Minister Najib Razak held closed-door talks yesterday with his Chinese counterpart
About promoting friendly ties between the two countried’ armed forces, and official report said.
Razak arrived on Sunday and was given a welcome ceremony yesterday morning by Chinese Defence
Minister Qin Jiwei.
The state-run Xinhua News Agency said it was the first visit by a Malaysian defence minister to China
Since the two countries established diplomatic relations in 1974.
Xinhua gave no detail of their talks.
Razak’s visit likely was prompted by China’s recent moves to project its power into Southeast Asia as
The United States and former Soviet Union pull back from the region.
China has aggressively reasserted its claim to the whole of the Spratly Islands in the South China Sea.
Malaysia is one of five other claimants to some or all of the chain or its territorial waters.
10. 46. We can assume that the real purpose of the Malaysian Defence Minister’s visit was to ___ .
a. establish diplomatic relations between the two countries for the first time
b. project their power into Southeast Asia
c. discuss the claim to the Spratly Islands
47. “his Chinese counterpart” refers to _________ .
a. China b. Xinhua
c. the Chinese Defence Minister d. the Chinese armed forces
48. Things discussed in “closed door talks” are almost always _________ .
a. trivial b. confidential
c. irrelevant d. superficial
49. According to the news story, ___________ .
a. Razak’s visit was personal b. Malaysia also a stake in the Spratly Islands
c. China needs support from Malaysia’s armed forces to invade the Spratly Islands
d. This is the second visit by a Malaysian defence minister after the first one in 1974
50. “prompted” means almost the same as _________ .
a. raided b. caused
c. begged d. dealt
11. PART II : ENGLISH FOR ACADEMIC PURPOSEs (51-100)
A. DIRECTIONS : Read the following texts and choose the best alternative to complete each
blank.
51. a. resembled b. imitated
c. assembled d. duplicated
52. a. buys b. summons
c. fetches d. limits
53. a. minded b. covered
c. brought d. found
54. a. put b. added
c. mixed d. neede
12. 55. a. to b. by
c. in d. for
56. a. request deposit
c. expectation d. demand
57. a. and b. they
c. which d. to
58. a. record b. recordly
c. recording d. recordedly
59. a. nesr b. nearly
c. most d. mostly
60. a. requiring b. stating
c. expecting d. regarding
Scarred by neglect and ravaged by scrap dealers. The Pacific War Memorial and fortress on the
Philppine island of Corregidor (Geographic, July 1986) are being 61 by U.S. Navy Seabees
and the Philippine government. The 62 effort will preserve the World War II 63 where
U.S. and Filipinno forces 64 a siege by the Japanese for five months in 1942. The dome has
been painted, vegetation 65 , and the commemorative tablets cleaned. Additional restoration
work is 66 . Philippine security guards will help prevent further 67 .
61. a. destroyed b. restored
c. exploited d. demolished
62. a. unwilling b. controversial
c. co-operative d. misguided
13. 63. a. site b. battle
c. weapons d. place
64. a. induced defeated
c. exposed d. withstood
65. a. beaten b. cleared
c. pulled d. caught
66. a. under way b. on their way
c. carried away d. putting away
67. a. restoration b. dissemination
c. vandalism d. accidents
14. B. DIRECTIONS : Read the following texts and choose the best alternative for each question.
TEXT 1
68. The best title for this passage should be be_______.
a. New Employment b. Job Seekers : Their Past and Pressent
c. What Kind of Boss Are you? d. Checking Job References.
69. “a third party” (line 4) refers to_______.
a. the boss of another company b. the reference’s ex-employee
c. the reference himself d. the caller
15. 70. “A legitimate question” (line 9) means a question which is _______.
a. nonsensical b. vague
c. reasonable d. detrimental
71. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Checking references does not count though intelligent questions are asked.
b. Having checked the references, the caller feels that he has done his duty.
c. If the caller limits himself to vague questions, he may not get the whole truth.
d. The caller should think carefully of what questions to ask to get substantive answers.
72. “The weapons are sheathed, it makes a good show, and nobody gets killed in the end.”
Implied that perfunctory reference calling___.
a. If used correctly can yield detrimental information against other companies
b. makes both parties feel good but does not give any real benefit
c. is absolutely worthless and should not be done at all
d. is generally very informative
73. Why isn’t perfunctory reference calling really worthwhile?
a. It is made at the wrong time.
b. The truth is intentionally concealed to avoid competition.
c. The caller cannot get the information he needs about a person’s capabilities.
d. The caller is afraid of asking many questions about a person.
74. “…given Ed,… a leg up…” means nearly the same as “helped Ed__________”.
a. mount a horse b. feel virtuous
c. do his duty d. in time of need
75. Which of the following questions would give the caller the most substantive information
regarding Jim Haller?
a. What kind of person do you think Jim is?
b. What do you know about Jim?
c. Did you check his references carefully before you employed him?
d. What was Jim’s contribution to the success of your firm?
16. 76. “…mutual consent…” (line 53) means_______.
a. extreme reluctance b. agreement on both sides
c. unforeseen circumstances d. emergency
77. _______bosses are unwilling to offer information that may prevent their former employees
from getting a new job.
a. Humane b. Magic
c. Unimaginative d. Voluntary
78. The shrinking of the Aral Sea has led to all of the following problems except_______.
a. reduction in growing seasons b. salinity of soil
c. the rivers Amu Darya and Syr Darya becoming dry
d. disruption of a fishing industry
79. The riversa Amu Darya and Syr Darya have run dry due to the fact that________.
a. water has been siphoned off for irrigation
b. the world’s fourth largest lake has run dry
c. a 25,000-square-mile areal has disappeared
d. the Aral Sea is above sea level
17. 80. we can infer that_________.
a. the Aral Sea will remain the world’s fourth largest lake
b. the Aral Sea used to be a freshwater lake
c. before reaching the Aral Sea, Amu Darya and Syr Darya have turned dry
d. Amu Darya and Syr Darya River have a direct impact on the Aral Sea
81. The problem of the Aral Sea enables us to see that________.
a. man’s interference with nature always brings desirable results
b. fish cannot survive in a salty lake
c. sometimes the gain cannot compensate for the loss
d. the shrinking of lakes is natural and has no impact on human beings
82. To solve the problem, it is advisable that______.
a. twenty species of fish be used for industry
b. tons of dried salt be carried to fields
c. growing seasons be reduced
d. siphoning water from major rivers be stopped
83. _________are among the most obvious results of the shrinking of Aral Sea.
a. Moderate temperatures b. Poverty and famine
c. Surrounding fields d. Increase in water levels
18. 84. In the first two paragraphs, the writer tries to convince the readers that__________.
a. most people of the world have made wrong decisions
b. voting is of no importance to uneducated people
c. the press can affect public opinion
d. the people let the popular press use their voting rights
85. According to the text, people’s ideas are influenced through__________.
a. repeated exposure to selected facts b. cheap advertisements
c. the system of democracy d. benefits and interests of the greater number
86. One advantage of newspapers over other types of media is the fact that people__________.
a. are given true representation of the facts b. have easy access to them
c. can arrive at something like the truth d. who read them are mostly uneducated
87. In order not to be easily led by the press, the readers should__________.
a. buy a newspaper frequently b. return a certain candidate to power
c. appeal to the public d. be well-informed of different policies
88. “… an organ which can sway it so dangerously” refers to___________.
a. the public b. the press
c. the creeds d. the safeguards
89. The writer warns the readers not to be swayed by__________.
a. every statement by their favorite newspaper
b. the power of logical thought
c. the study of different political creeds and policies
d. balanced points of view
90. “inflammatory” here means__________.
a. swollen b. fiery
c. popular d. decisive
19. 91. It can be inferred that effective democracy relies heavily upon__________.
a. enormous circulation of newspapers b. the choice of popular press
c. careful selection of facts for publication d. intelligent choice of representatives
92. The word “claim” is used here to convey the idea that__________.
a. the statement is to be rejected totally
b. true democracy cannot be found anywhere in the world
c. the benefit of the greater number is guaranteed by democracy
d. the statement cited may not contain the whole truth
93. The most suitable title for this text should be__________.
a. Democracy for the Greater Number b. The Process of Newspaper Printing
c. The Power of the Press d. Safeguard against Political Creeds
94. According to the passage, factors that contribute to stunted growth of young children include
all of the following except__________.
a. restrictive diets b. imbalanced meals
c. low-fat, low cholesterol food d. expanded diets
95. In Noelle’s case, the problem arises from__________.
a. immaturity b. misguided parental notions
c. long-term obesity d. family history of heart disease
20. 96. Most of the parents who put their children on low-fat diets__________.
a. have suffered from stunted growth themselves
b. are poverty-stricken
c. are uneducated and negligent
d. abhor obesity related diseases
97. Obsessive parents think they are doing what’s right for their children’s long-term benefit,
however, they have overlooked some facts about__________.
a. heart disease and obesity b. children’s nutrition requirements
c. adult’s normal growth d. poverty and neglect
98. According to the passage,__________.
a. about 28% of the children failing to thrive have been put on restrictive diets
b. once put on low-fat diets, children are unlikely to recover from the adverse effects
c. youngsters in America were all on low-fat, low-cholesterol diets
d. even after treatment, most parents substitute skim milk for whole milk for their children
99. To correct the situation, parents should be provided with__________.
a. formal education b. financial support
c. counseling on nutrition d. strict regimen
100. Fortunately, __________.
a. stringent low-fat diet stunts the growth of toddlers
b. a growing number of children under two are fed lean meat and a healthy diet
c. the diets obsessive parents choose are appropriate for adults
d. once placed on expanded diets, children recover and begin to thrive again
21. เฉลย
แนวข้ อสอบภาษาอังกฤษ
Part 1 (1-50)
1. b 11. a 21. a 31. a 41. b
2. d 12. a 22. d 32. a 42. c
3. b 13. a 23. d 33. b 43. b
4. d 14. d 24. b 34. a 44. d
5. a 15. b 25. c 35. b 45. a
6. b 16. c 26. c 36. b 46. c
7. b 17. d 27. d 37. d 47. c
8. c 18. b 28. d 38. c 48. b
9. c 19. a 29. d 39. d 49. b
10. d 20. a 30. a 40. c 50. b
Part 2 (1-100)
51. a 61. b 71. a 81. c 91. d
52. c 62. c 72. b 82. d 92. d
53. d 63. a 73. c 83. b 93. c
54. c 64. d 74. d 84. c 94. d
55. a 65. b 75. d 85. a 95. b
56. d 66. a 76. b 86. b 96. d
57. c 67. c 77. a 87. d 97. b
58. a 68. d 78. c 88. b 98. a
59. b 69. b 79. a 89. a 99. c
60. a 70. c 80. d 90. b 100. d
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