MRCOG Part 1 Practice MCQs

1. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
1
1. The following statements are true
A Interleukin-1 is produced by macrophages
B Interleukin-2 is a polypeptide hormone
C Interferons are a family of related aglycoproteins
D Colony Stimulating Factors (CSF) regulate bone marrow production
E Tumour Necrosis Factor (TNF) indirectly lyses tumour cells
2. Regarding the adrenal gland in pregnancy
A Is closely related to the fetoplacental unit
B Maternal adrenal gland usually increases in size by 30%
C Plasma cortisol level increases from 20 weeks gestation
D There is no change in unbound cortisol levels
E Glucocorticoid receptors steadily increase till term
3. The umbilical cord
A Contains two veins and one artery
B Average length is between 55-60 cm
C The cord continues to grow in length up to and beyond term
D Umbilical cord artery has well formed internal elastic lamina
E Wharton’s Jelly is rich in mucopolysaccharides
4. The following diseases have satisfactory vaccines
A Tuberculosis
B Tetanus
C Syphilis
D AIDS
E Smallpox
5. Regarding the urinary system
A The ureter receives blood supply from renal, gonadal and vesical artery
B The vitamin D metabolism of kidney converts 1,25 to 25-cholecalciferol
C It is responsible for the homeostasis of acid-base balance
D The pudendal nerve plays no role in micturition
E The ureter can be injured at the lateral vaginal fornix during surgery
6. The following are true combinations
A Infarction – embolism causes vascular obstruction
B Liver – easily infracted organ
C Pulmonary hypertension – known outcome of pulmonary embolism
D Wound healing by first intention – more intense inflammatory reaction
E Wound healing by second intention – myofibroblasts cause wound contraction

2. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
2
7. The following are true regarding gonadotrophins
A Glycoproteins
B Contain sialic acid
C LH and FSH are synthesized in the same cell
D Contain an alpha subunit which is similar to thyrotrophin
E Its secretion shows a circadian rhythm
8. The following bacteria are in the bacilli group
A Leptospira
B Clostridium
C Pseudomonas
D Enterobactericiae
E Bacteroides
9. The following associations regarding cancer are true
A Vagina – stilboestrol
B Liver – aflatoxin
C Skin – paraffin
D Melanoma – sunlight
E Ovary – aniline dye
10. In septic shock
A The causative organisms are invariably gram negative
B A leucocytosis precedes death
C Endotoxins are predominantly lipopolysaccharides
D Antibiotic treatment may aggravate hypotension
E There may be associated DIVC
11. Regarding Prothrombin
A Is a Vitamin K dependant protein
B Is synthesized in the liver
C Converts fibrinogen to fibrin
D Has a half life of 2-3 days
E Has a molecular weight of 70 000
12. During pregnancy, thrombocytopenia may occur in association with
A Bacterial infection
B Viral infection
C Alcoholism
D Megaloblastic anaemia
E Amniotic fluid embolism

3. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
3
13. The following terminology regarding blood clotting factors are true
A Factor I – fibrinogen
B Factor II – prothrombin
C Factor III – tissue factor
D Factor IV – calcium ions
E Factor V - proconvertin
14. Basal fetal heart rate in utero
A Varies with gestational age
B Is not subject to parasympathetic activity before the 20th
week of pregnancy
C Frequently accelerates with external head compression
D Accelerates during orgasm
E Accelerates in response to maternal ingestion of atropine sulphate
15. In the fetus
A The umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood
B The ductus venosus short-circuits the capillaries of the liver
C The right atrium contains a mixture of oxygenated and venous blood
D The foramen ovale connects the ventricles of the heart
E The ductus arteriosus joins the aorta proximal to the aortic arch
16. The sequelae of a vasectomy include
A Varicocoele
B Sperm granuloma
C Torsion of the testis
D Sperm antibodies
E Loss of libido
17. Ureteral dilatation during pregnancy is caused by the following
A Uterine pressure at the pelvic brim
B Pressure from the dilated right ovarian vein
C Progesterone effect
D The increased glomerular filtration rate
E Increased size of the kidneys
18. Human spermatozoa
A Require the presence of FSH for normal development
B Normally fertilise the ovum in the uterus
C Are matured in the epididymis
D Contain hyaluronidase
E Production is less at 38◦
than 36◦
Celsius

4. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
4
19. Cholesterol can be synthesized from acetate by
A Ovary
B Adrenal gland
C Testis
D Placenta
E Pancreas
20. In the fetus
A The umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood
B The ductus venosus short-circuits the capillaries of the liver
C The foramen ovale is formed from the septum secundum overlapping the lower
part of the septum primum
D The definite interventricular septum originates predominantly from the sinus
venosus
E The ductus venosus shunts blood from the umbilical artery to the inferior vena
cava
21. In the newborn child
A The mastoid antrum is full adult size
B The mandible has a midline fibrous joint
C The thorax is oval in cross section
D The spinal cord extends to L3
E Paranasal sinuses are full adult size
22. In the fetal circulation
A Blood in the superior vena cava is more oxygenated than in the inferior vena cava
B Blood from the SVC is preferentially shunted through the foramen ovale to the
left atrium
C 70% of blood from the right ventricle goes through the pulmonary artery to
perfuse the lungs
D The ductus arteriosus is histologically different from the pulmonary artery
E 50% of blood bypasses the liver to enter the IVC
23. The following regarding viruses are true
A The mumps virus is a paramyxoviridae
B The dengue and yellow fever are flaviridae
C Both rubella and yellow fever are of the same family of virus
D Rotavirus is single stranded DNA
E Hapatitis B virus is partially double stranded enveloped

5. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
5
24. Regarding the prostaglandins
A There are 4 main groups of prostaglandin
B Are very rapidly metabolized
C Are highly concentrated in the liver and brain
D Exert their effects by releasing calcium ion
E Their concentration is higher at term compared to early pregnancy
25. Ketosis is a condition in which
A Acetoacetic acid, beta-hydroxybutyric acid and acetone accumulate in the blood
B Respiratory acidosis develops
C There is failure of the liver to oxidize the ketone bodies
D Ketone bodies are produced by the peripheral tissues
E There is an excessive carbohydrate availability for metabolism
26. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A Is resistant to strong acids but not alkalis
B Is an obligate aerobe
C Divides every 6-8 hours
D Cord formation on culture predicts a low virulence
E Spread to female genital tract is usually haematogenous
27. Danazol
A Is a synthetic steroid
B Is bound by serum albumin in the plasma
C Acts by pituitary gonadtrophin stimulation
D Increases oestradiol
E Has weak impeded androgenic activity
28. The vagina
A Is a tube that is directed upwards and backwards with a little curvature posteriorly
B Is lined by stratified squamous epithelium
C Has two fornices, anterior and posterior, at the vault
D Is attached to the cardinal ligament
E Is formed from single sino-vaginal bulb on the posterior wall of the urogenital
sinus
29. Regarding arcinoid tumour:
A Is malignant
B Rapidly growing
C Ocurs in Kulchitsky cells
D Secretes 5-hydroxytrptamine
E Commonest site is the ovarian teratoma

6. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
6
30. In the development of the immune system in the fetus
A Lymphocytes (T-cells) develop in the yolk sac at about 8 weeks
B B-lymphocytes develop in the liver and spleen at 20 weeks
C Cord blood levels of IgG is higher than maternal levels
D The ratio of T to B cells is the same as in the adult during the first week of life
E There is a greater proportion of null cells
31. The infection and pathogen pairs are correct
A AIDS – HIV 1 & 2
B Neoplasm – HIV
C Arthritis – HSV
D Cervicitis – HPV
E Anogenital warts – HSV
32. Rubella
A Commonly infects before age 2 years in the UK
B Has a worldwide distribution
C Has single stranded RNA
D Has an incubation period of 14-21 days
E Presents with rashes after 3 days of fever
33. Known complications of rubella include
A Encephalitis
B Persistent suboccipital lymph nodes
C Persistent arthralgia
D Haematuria
E Fetal rubella syndrome
34. In pregnancy
A The maximum plasma volume has been reached by 30 weeks
B The plasma volume increases more in primigravidae than in multigravidae
C The increases in red cell volume is of same order as the increase in plasma
volume
D The fall in plasma proteins is mainly brought about by reduction in the globulin
fractions
E The concentration of serum cholesterol falls
35. In the regulation of glucose metabolism
A Insulin promotes the uptake of glucose by muscle cells
B Glucose-6-phosphate occurs in muscle but not in the liver
C Adrenaline promotes the breakdown of hepatic glycogen
D Lactate is the end product of the aerobic metabolism of glucose
E Insulin is secreted by the alpha cells of the islet of Langerhans

7. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
7
36. Exotoxins
A Are derived from gram negative bacteria
B Have specific actions
C Are more toxic than endotoxins
D Are neutralized by their homologous antitoxin
E Can be made into toxoids
37. Polyuria occurs
A In hypercalcaemia
B In chronic renal failure
C In potassium depletion
D In the recovery phase of acute tubular necrosis
E On exercise
38. Oestrogens
A Are metabolized mainly to sulphate conjugates
B Excretion in bile is greater than that in urine
C Half-life in the circulation is 5-6 hours
D After hydroxylation at the 2 and 4 positions the resulting catecholoestrogens will
not bind to oestrogen receptors
E Oestradiol is the oestrogen in pregnancy
39. Regarding acute infections of maternal origin
A Rubella at 8 weeks POA – spontaneous abortion
B Hydrops fetalis – HPV 19
C Varicella zoster virus – good prognosis
D Coxsackie – myocarditis of the noewborn
E CMV - teratogenic
40. Regarding chronic infection of maternal origin
A CMV – most common agent of intrauterine infection
B HSV infection is always symptomatic
C Postnatal HSV presents at end of 2nd
week of life
D HSV causes intrauterine growth retardation
E HBS Ag – high risk perinatal infection
41. Regarding HIV
A Only infects intrauterine
B Is acquired via the birth canal
C Is an indication for caesarian section
D Affected mothers can breastfeed their babies
E Rate of transmission is 25%

8. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
8
42. The following statements are correct
A Large doses of thiopentone cause tocolysis
B Halothane doesn’t enter fetal circulation
C NO2 increases the incidence of abortion
D Local anaesthesia is not transferable to the fetus
E Morphine can cause fatal respiratory depression
43. Phaechromocytoma
A Is usually benign
B Is derived from chromaffin cells in the adrenal cortex
C Secretes aldosterone and catecholamines
D Metastasis is usually to the lung
E Contain totipotent cells
44. The following statements relating to adrenal glands are correct
A The average weight of a normal adrenal gland in adult is 1 gram
B Each gland is drained by the three separate veins
C The medulla is endodermal in origin
D The zona reticularis of the cortex lies next to the medulla
E Aldosterone is produced by cells of the zona glomerulosa of the cortex
45. Total cerebral blood low is most markedly increased by
A Hypercapnoea
B Hypoxia
C Cerebral activity
D Vasomotor reflexes
E Increase in mean arterial pressure
46. Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood
A In combination with haemoglobin
B As hydrochloric acid
C In combination with plasma proteins
D Mainly as bicarbonate
E In physical solution in plasma
47. During normal coitus
A Lengthening of the upper vagina precedes lubrication in the sexually stimulated
woman
B Retraction of the clitoral body occurs during the plateau phase of the female
sexual cycle
C Female vaginal contractions occur at 0.8 second intervals during orgasm
D Increase in penile length on erection is proportional to flaccid penile length
E The prostate gland is relatively insensitive to sexual stimulation

9. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
9
48. Prostaglandins
A Are small molecular weight polypeptides
B Are chemically related to thromboxanes
C Have been clearly shown to be responsible for luteolysis in man
D Inhibit the secretion of rennin
E Are produced in the seminal vesicles of man
49. The anterior abdominal wall:
A Transversalis fascia terminates at arcuate line
B Interval oblique forms the anterior and posterior walls of the rectus sheath
C The pyramidalis muscles is often absent
D The superior epigastric artery lies superficial to the rectus abdominis
E The external oblique muscle arises from the lower eight ribs
50. The following statements about vitamins are true:
A Many vitamins can be synthesized in adequate amounts in the body
B Vitamin K is water soluble
C Deficiency of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) can cause convulsions
D Naturally occurring folate contains a single glutamic acid residue
E Excessive vitamin D intake causes renal failure
51. In hypothyroidism:
A Myxoedema results from lipid infiltration of the dermis
B Mental changes are entirely reversible with substitution therapy
C Anaemia is present in most patients
D Enlargement of the sella turcica is diagnostic of primary hypothyroidism
E Barbiturates should be avoided
52. The following progestogens are derived from testosterone:
A Ethynodiol
B Megestrol
C Norgestrel
D Chlormadione
E Norethisterone
53. Histopathology
A Labia majora –keratinising squamous epithelial
B Cervix – keratinizing squamous epithelial
C Squamous metaplasia – premalignant condition
D MGH (multiglandular hyperplasia) – pregnancy
E High karyotyping index – Oestrogenic stimulant

10. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
10
54. The respiratory centre
A Is situated in the medulla oblongata
B Is inhibited during vomiting
C Send out regular impulses to the inspiratory muscles during quiet respiration
D Is reflexly regulated by vagal impulses
E Is sensitive to blood pH alterations
55. Which of the following are characteristics of damaged cells
A Fatty infiltration
B Plasma membrane blebbing
C Mitochondrial swelling
D Nuclear karyorrhesis
E Increased cytosolic calcium
56. The anterior relation of the sacro-iliac joints are
A Common iliac vein
B Ilio-lumbar artery
C Sciatic nerve
D Gluteus maximus
E Superior gluteal artery
57. The anterior pituitary produces the following hormones
A Prolactin
B Vasopressin
C Human placental lactogen
D Thyroxine
E Growth hormone
58. Metabolic responses to hypovolaemic shock include
A Respiratory alkalosis
B Metabolic alkalosis
C Increased glycogenolysis
D Increased gluconeogenesis
E Increased glycogenesis
59. During early placentation
A The chorion frondosum lies adjacent to the decidua capsularis
B The layer of Nitabuch cheeks invasion of the villi
C The secondary villi have no mesodermal core
D Chorio-decidual spaces form in the cytotrophoblastic layer
E The body stalk develops into the umbilical cord

11. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
11
60. In the anterior abdominal wall
A The posterior wall of the rectus sheath below the Douglas fold is formed by the
transversalis fascia only
B The deep inguinal ring is 1 cm above the middle of the inguinal ligament
C The conjoint tendon is formed from the internal and external oblique muscles
D The internal spermatic fascia originates from the external oblique muscle
E The dermatome at the umbilical level is T12
61. An abnormal karyotype is characteristic of
A Phenylketonuria
B Turner’s Syndrome
C Aplasia of the vagina
D Congenital adrenogenital hyperplasia
E Down’s Syndrome
62. Blood coagulation may be delayed by
A Deficiency of prothrombin
B Deficiency of factor IX (Christmas factor)
C Heparin
D Calcium citrate
E Potassium oxalate
63. Which of the following are true
A TB can cause hypopituitary state
B Galactorhoea is a result of 1◦ hypoparathyroidism
C Craniopharyngioma causes high prolactin levels
D Dopamine and serotonin are neurotransmitters
E Action of stomatostatin on pancreas inhibits insulin secretion
64. Regarding acid base balance
A The conversion of H+ ion is important for metabolism
B Base donates protons
C The neutral pH at 37◦C is 7.0
D The ICF pH 6.8-7.3
E The major protein buffer in blood is haemoglobin
65. Hyperoestrogenic effects are common in
A Granulosa cell tumour
B Thecoma
C Leydig cell tumour
D Disgerminomas
E Mature cystic teratoma

12. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
12
66. The healing of a wound is delayed by
A Vitamin C deficiency
B Starvation
C The administration of glucocorticoids
D Lack of blood supply
E Infection
67. Regarding rubella :
A It can occur in children under 2 years old
B It is always teratogenic
C Reinfection can result in positive rubella-specific IgM
D Placental infection occurs from ascending genital infection
E Rubella vaccine causes fetal damage if given to rubella-susceptible pregnant
women during the first trimester
68. The inguinal lymph nodes receive lymph from
A Perianal skin
B Infraumbilical region
C Prostate
D Testis
E Clefts between toes
69. The following structures leave the pelvis by passing through the greater sciatic
foramen above the piriformis muscle
A The sciatic nerve
B The superior gluteal nerve
C The internal pudendal vessels
D The nerve to quadratus femoris muscle
E The inferior gluteal nerve
70. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
A Controls glucocorticoid production
B Controls catecholamine production
C Is increased by the secretion of a hypothalamic releasing factor
D Is suppressed by a high level of circulating glucocorticoid
E Shows diurnal physiological variations
71. The ductus venosus
A Connects the left branch of the portal hepatic vein to the umbilical vein
B Conveys blood to the inferior vena cava before birth
C After birth becomes the ligamentum teres of the liver
D Becomes the lateral umbilical ligament of the adult
E Receives blood from the umbilical vein

13. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
13
72. The ureter
A On the right crosses the external iliac vessels to enter the pelvis
B Lies portero-superior to the internal iliac artery on the side wall of the pelvis
C Lies superior to the uterine artery as it passes through the base of the broad
ligament
D Th narrowest where it joins the bladder wall
E On the side wall of the pelvis lies medial to the obturator nerve and vessels
73. With regards to carbohydrates
A Digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth
B 1g of carbohydrates yields the same amount of energy as 1g of protein
C Fructose absorption requires energy
D Gastrointestinal glucose absorption is facilitated by insulin
E Absorption of glucose by the enterocytes take place mainly in the terminal ileum
74. Cervical ectropion
A Is frequently asymptomatic
B Consists of squamous epithelium
C Is related to trauma during childbirth
D Is exaggerated by bi-valve speculum examination
E May be corrected by trachelorrhapy
75. Precocious puberty
A Is constitutional in the majority of cases
B May initially manifest as precocious telarche
C Occurs with intra-cranial tumours
D Occurs with ovarian tumours
E Occurs in Albright Syndrome
76. Which of the following are characteristic of benign tumours
A High degree of differentiation
B More mitoses than normal tissues
C Many abnormal mitotic features
D Marked nuclear pleomorphism
E Encapsulation
77. Which of the following antimicrobial drugs may adversely affect the fetus if
given to the mother in late pregnancy
A Oxytetracycline
B Long acting sulphonamides
C Ampicillin
D Streptomycin
E Erythromycin

14. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
14
78. The fetal membrane comprises of
A Amnion
B Chorion
C Yolk sac
D All of the above
E A and B only
79. In the human feto-placental unit
A The intervillous space contains fetal blood
B The invasion of maternal spiral arteries by throphoblast causes dilatation
C Two-cell membranes separate the maternal and fetal circulations
D The spiral arteries enter the placental cotyledons
E Cytotrophoblast cells disappear towards term
80. During early placentation
A The chorion frondosum lies adjacent to the decidua capsularis
B The layer of “Nitabuch” checks invasion of villi
C The secondary villi has no mesodermal core
D Chorio-decidual spaces form in the cytotrophoblastic layer
E The boy stalk develops into the umbilical cord
81. Throphoblasts
A Enter the maternal circulation in normal pregnancy
B Are lysed in the maternal lung
C Are genetically maternal
D Produce human chorionic gonadotrophin
E Are immunologically inert
82. The functions of the placenta include
A Production of erythrocytes
B The formation of immunological barriers
C Excretion of waste products
D Production of insulin
E Production of progesterone
83. The following statements about placental pathology are appropriate
A Placenta extrachorialis predisposes to postpartum haemorrhage
B A velamentous insertion of the cord is of no clinical importance
C Placental succenturiata (succenturiate lobe) predisposes to antepartum
haemorrhage
D A haemangioma of the placenta causes oligohydramnios
E Placenta percreta penetrates through the serosal surface of the uterus

15. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
15
84. The following substances cross the placenta to the fetus against a concentration
gradient
A Calsium
B Magnesium
C Amino acids
D Iron
E Fat soluble vitamins
85. The following crosses the placenta to the fetus
A Thyroxine
B Triiodothyronine
C Thiouracil
D TSH
E LATS
86. The following statements relate to syphilis
A Treponema pallidum is a gram negative organism
B The primary chancre usually appears within one week of exposure to infection
C Spirochaetes are distributed through out the body at the time of appearance of the
primary chancre
D Serology is positive in all cases of tertiary syphilis
E The Reiter protein complement fixation test is the most reliable verification test
available
87. Cytomegalovirus
A Has infected 80% of the adult population
B Is demonstrable in 0.5 to 1.5% of neonates
C Is an adenovirus
D Cause neonatal jaundice
E Is commonly present in the salivary glands
88. The following antibiotics act by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis
A Cephalosporins
B Cephamycins
C Aminoglycosides
D Polymyxins
E Rifamycins
89. In the human testis
A Spermatogenesis takes place in the seminiferous tubules
B Spermatozoa arise directly from germ cells
C Sertoli cellsregulate spermatogenesis
D FSH stimulates spermatogenesis by increasing the protein content of Sertoli cells
E Spermatogenesis only occurs at normal deep body temperature

16. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
16
90. In the adult female
A The fallopian tubes convey ova from the ovaries to the uterus
B The fallopian tube segment closest to the ovary is called the ampulla
C The uterus and connective tissue capsules of the ovaries are connected by the
broad ligament
D The middle layer of the uterus is muscular
E The structure of the inner layer of the uterus varies during the menstrual cycle
91. In the human ovary
A Ovarian follicles are formed during fetal life
B Each ovarian follicle contains several primordial ova
C The zona granulosa is formed from proliferating follicle cells
D FSH causes mature Graffian follicle to rupture
E The ovum is released into the fallopian tube
92. Progesterone
A Is produced by the developing ovarian follicle
B Transforms the endometrium into a secretory endothelium
C Enhances the contractile reponse of the myometrium to oxytocin
D Is produced by the placenta throughout pregnancy
E Is metabolized mainly in the liver
93. The following are sedative agents
A Lorazepam
B Promethazine
C Maxolon
D Lignocaine
E Droperidol
94. The following are correct statements
A Ovarian artery – supplies to the uterus
B Vaginal artery – supplies the cervix
C Lumbar plexus – psoas major, psoas minor
D Sacral plexus – iliacus
E Ventral root – brachial plexus
95. Innervation of the female genitalia
A Ilio-inguinal nerve
B Inferior rectal nerve
C Superior rectal nerve
D Inferior perineal nerve
E Labial nerve

17. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
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96. Regarding lymphatic drainage of the genital organs
A Superior inguinal lymph node – fallopian tubes
B Internal iliac lymph node – nulva
C Paraaortic lymph node – ovaries
D Lower 1/3 vagina – sacral lymph node
E Cervix – paracervical lymph node
97. Regarding uterine contraction
A There are no contractions before 25 week POA
B Highly sensitive to oxytocin due to raised prostaglandin level
C Is caused by a fall in oestrogen level
D Is associated with raised pregnanediol
E Causes raised prostaglandin level
98. The following are effects of prostaglandin
A PGI2 – vasodilator effects
B TXA2 – stimulate platelet aggregation
C PG1 is derived from linoleic acid
D PG3 is derived from plants
E Alkaloic acid is associated with PG1
99. During sexual intercourse
A Increased activity in sacral parasympathetic nerves causes the penis
B The vagina is engorged with blood
C Vaginal stimulation causes the release of oxytocin
D Ejaculation is produced by smooth muscle contranction at the root of the penis
E Impairment of the parasympathetic innervation causes failure of ejaculation
100. The side effects of cytotoxic drugs may include
A Immunosuppression
B Gastrointestinal disturbances
C Renal dysfunction
D Loss of hair
E Inhibition of wound healing
101. The antifungal drug griseofulvin
A Is effective gainst ringworm caused by all known forms of fungi
B Is used by topical administration and may not be given orally
C Is normally used in combination with topical zinc undecenoate ot tolnaftate
D Can inhibit mammalian cell division
E Has a broader spectrum of action than clotrimazole

18. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
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102. Nystatin
A Is used in the treatment of candidiasis
B Binds selectively to biological membranes which do not contain sterols
C Does not exert toxic effects mammalian cells
D Acts on fungi in a manner which differs from that of ampothericin
E Is the drug of choice for the treatment of pulmonary aspergillosis
103. The Wasserman reaction is a
A Precipitin test
B Complement fixation test
C Haemagglutination inhibition test
D Agglutination test
E Treponemal immobilization test
104. Which of the following cell types may be found in germinal cetres?
A LYmphoblasts
B Plasma cells
C Macrophages
D Eosinophils
E Mast cells
105. Ultrasound
A Produces images of tissue structure
B Enables both size and nature of structure to be ascertained
C Is not applicable to study the eye
D Is essentially similar to x-ray
E Is a non-invasive technique
106. Regarding morphine
A The major pathway for its detoxification is by oxidation to gentisic acid
B It increases biliary tract pressure
C It is eliminated mainly in the conjugated state via glomerular filtration
D It is secreted in the bile
E It alters the threshold or responsiveness of nerve endings to noxious stimulation
107. Patients with testicular feminizing syndrome
A Have well-formed breasts
B Complain of secondary amenorrhoea
C Lack pubic hair
D Have XY karyotype
E Are liable to develop malignant change in the gonads

19. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
19
108. The following are the primary branches of the celiac artery
A Left gastric artery
B Right gastro-epiploic artery
C Gastroduodenal artery
D Hepatic artery
E Splenic artery
109. The following statements relating to the adrenal glands are correct
A The average weight of a normal adrenal gland in the adult is 1 gram
B Each gland is drained by the 3 separate veins
C The medulla is endodermal in origin
D The zona reticularis of the cortex lies next to the medulla
E Aldosterone is produced by cells of the zona glomerulosa of the cortex
110. The cerebral blood flow is most markedly increased by
A Hypercapnoea
B Hypoxia
C Cerebral activity
D Vasomotor reflexes
E Increase in mean arterial pressure
111. Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood
A In combination with haemoglobin
B As hydrochloric acid
C In combination with plasma proteins
D Mainly as bicarbonate
E In physical solution in plasma
112. The respiratory centre
A Is situated in the medulla oblongata
B Is inhibited during vomiting
C Sends out regular impulses to the inspiratory muscles during quiet respiration
D Is reflexly regulated by vagal impulses
E Is sensitive to blood pH alterations
113. Transexual patients characterictically
A Have normal external genitalia
B Have abnormal karyotype
C Have abnormal hormone profiles
D Are of subnormal intelligence
E Are maladjusted socially

20. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
20
114. Oestrogens
A Are synthesized from cholesterol
B Are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
C Are secreted by thr adrenal gland
D Are secreted by the stromal cells of the ovary
E Are principally excreted in the urine
115. Cervical erosions
A Are often asymptomatic
B Show ulcerative features on microscopic examination
C Are associated with pregnancy
D Are associated with oral contraceptive use
E Are associated with later development of cervical carcinoma
116. Which of the following separate maternal and fetal blood in the human
placenta?
A Throphoblast
B Maternal vascular endothelium
C Fetal vascular endothelium
D Maternal connective tissue
E Fetal connective tissue
117. Progesteron is
A Synthesized by the throphoblast
B Mainly excreted as pregnanediol glucoronide
C Synthesized from cholesterol
D A smooth muscle stimulant
E A glycoprotein
118. Lymphatic drainage from the uterine cervix is through the following lymph
node
A Superficial femoral
B Superficial inguinal
C External iliac
D Obturator
E Lumbosacral
119. Pudendal nerve carries the following nerves
A Sensory from the anterior part of the labia majora
B Sensory from the perineum
C Sensory from the lower part of the uterus
D Motor to the external anal sphincter
E Sensory from the clitoris

21. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
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120. The following structures support the uterus in position
A The broad ligament
B The infundibulo-pelvic ligaments
C The transverse cervical ligaments
D The vagina
E The transverse perineal muscles
121. Urogenital diaphragm is pierced by the
A Ureters
B Rectum
C Vagina
D Urethra
E Obturator nerve
122. The following associations of types of epithetlium are correct
A Ciliated and uterine body
B Stratified squamous and vagina
C Transitional and bladder
D Columnar and cervix
E Transitional and urethra
123. The ovarian ligaments
A Contain the ureters
B Contain the ovarian arteries
C Are attached laterally to the pelvic wall
D Lie anterior to the broad ligament
E Are homologous to part of the gubernaculums testis in the male
124. The following are synovial joints
A Symphysis pubis
B Sacro-iliac
C Sacro-coccygeal
D Lumbo-sacral
E Patello-femoral
125. The following statements relate to nerves of the pelvis
A The genitofemoral nerve arises from L1 and L2
B The levator ani is in part supplied by the perineal nerve
C The pudendal nerve lies just posterior to the sacro-tuberous ligament
D The skin of the anal triangle is supplied by S1 and S2 fibres
E The obturator nerve arises from the sacral plexus

22. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
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126. The following diseases are commonly made worse by pregnancy
A Gout
B Systemic lupus erythematosus
C Migraine
D Hyperthyroidism
E Addison’s disease
127. The following structures lie in the posterior triangle of the neck
A Supraclavicular lymph glands
B Common carotid artery
C Subclavian artery
D Vagus nerve
E Brachial plexus
128. The following are primary branches of the coeliac artery
A Left gastric artery
B Right gastro-epiploic artery
C Gastro-duodenal artery
D Hepatic artery
E Splenic artery
129. Ectopic breast tissue may appear anywhere along
A Toldt’s line
B Semicircular line
C Milk line
D Subway line
E Red line
130. The ovarian artery contributes to the blood supply of the
A Fallopian tube
B Round ligament
C Uterus
D All of the above
E None of the above
131. The following pelvic structures are extensively covered by peritoneum
A Uterine corpus
B Uterine cervix
C Ovary
D All of the above
E None of the above

23. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
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132. Which of the following diseases are shown to be commonly related to
infection with streptococci
A Scarlet fever
B Glomerulonephritis
C Cellulitis
D Acute rheumatic fever
E Thyroiditis
133. Dysplasia
A Is an abnormal maturation epithelial cells
B Is an irreversible process
C Often arises from a background of squamous metaplasia
D Invariably progresses to cancer
E Shows increase mitoses
134. Cancer suppressor genes include
A Retinoblastoma gene
B Adenomatous polyposis coli gene
C P53 gene
D nM gene
E Bcl 2 gene
135. The terminal ileum mainly absorbs
A Iron
B Cyanocobalamin
C Fatty acids
D Bile salts
E Water-soluble vitamins
136. The fat embolism syndrome
A Is associated with severe skeletal injuries
B Usually manifests within 12 hours of injury
C Is associated with thrombocythaemia
D Is fatal in the majority of cases in postmortem
E Can be diagnosed histologically by paraffin-embedded tissue injection
137. The human placenta
A Produces pregnanediol
B Is haemochorial
C Has anastomoses between villous vessels
D Has syncytiotrophoblast as the major component of the trophoblast near term
E Is anchored to the myometrium by stem villi

24. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
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138. The kidneys secrete
A 1,25-dehydrocholecalciferol
B Rennin
C Angiotensin
D Vasopressin
E Erythropoietin
139. The following statements about haemophilia are true
A All sons of affected males will inherit the condition
B Half of the sons of a carrier female will inherit the condition
C The incidence of haemophilia in the daughters of an affected male (married to a
normal female) will be one in four
D If a carrier female marries anaffected male, all of the offspring will inherit the
haemophilia gene
E Normal daughters cannot be born to a carrier female
140. The following statements relate to the normal distribution
A The mean and mode are equal
B The median is one standard deviation below the mean
C 99.7% of the population lies within two standard deviations of the mean
D The standard error of the mean is the variance divided by the square root of the
number of observations
E No other symmetrical distribution is possible
141. The volume of amniotic fluid
A Is closely related to the fetal crown-rump length in the 3rd
trimester of pregnancy
B May be predicted by ultrasound
C Is excessive in severe rhesus disease
D Increases following amniocentesis
E Is reduced in severe pre-eclampsia
142. Spermatogenesis
A Is a process requiring 110 + 5 days in the human male
B Requires both FSH and LH to stimulate sperm maturation
C Is associated with an increase in testosterone in the intertubular tissue of the testis
D Is abnormal in a male with a karyotype 47XXY
E Is depressed by mycoplasma infection of the male genital tract
143. The placental barrier between mother and fetus is composed of
A Fetal capillary endothelium
B Throphoblasts
C Maternal capillary endothelium
D All the above
E A and B only

25. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
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144. The following statements relate to clostridia and clostridial infection
A All clostridia are anaerobes
B Clostridium tetani produces central spores
C Clostridium perfringens (Welchii) is the only organism which causes gas
gangrene
D Clostridium perfringens (Welchii) must be actively treated when isolated from
vaginal swabs
E Patients with tetanus must be barrier nursed
145. The following obtains the following substances by simple diffusion
A Water
B Sodium
C Oxygen
D Calcium
E Iron
146. An episiotomy during childbirth
A Prevents uterine injury
B Enlarges the pelvic outlet
C Prevents tearing of the perineal muscles
D Cause tearing of the central tendon of the perineum
E Helps prevent uterine prolapse
147. Renin
A Has a molecular weight of 40,000
B Is only produced in the kidney
C Is released when there is a rise in blood pressure
D Is released by decreased blood sodium concentration
E Falls in amount with a rise in plasma potassium
148. Which of the following statements are true
A Warfarin does not cross the placenta to enter the fetus
B Plasma insulin is lower on the fetal side
C Local anaesthetic crosses the placenta readily
D Corticosteroid administration may lead to higher oestriol secretion in the maternal
urine
E Low urinary oestriol concentration may occur with acute urinary tract infection
149. Human chorionic gonadotrophin
A Has all the properties of LH
B Can transform a normal cyclic corpus luteum into a pseudopregnant corpus
luteum
C Is responsible for the onset of parturition
D Is detectable before implantation of the ovum
E Is significantly elevated in pre-eclampsia

26. MRCOG PART 1 PRACTICE MCQs – SET B
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150. These methods of placental transfer are appropriate for the following
substances
A Oxygen – active
B Fats – pinocytosis
C Iron – active
D Carbon dioxide – passive
E Antibodies - pinocytosis