12314, 457 PMTake Test Final Exam - Part BPage 1 of 7h.docx

12/3/14, 4:57 PMTake Test: Final Exam - Part B
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2014
Fall
Information
Systems
in
Org
SEC.01
Content Take Test: Final Exam - Part BH
Take Test: Final Exam - Part BTake Test: Final Exam - Part B
Description LSIS 5010 FINAL EXAM Part B: Multiple Choice
(Open book; not timed; one attempt/submit only)
Instructions This exam is take-home and open book. (So use
textbook—chapters, index and glossary, and review old quizzes,
tips, and notes
but work alone!) Be sure also to submit Part A: Pledge, Section
A and Extra Credit under CONTENT as Word doc by due date.
Complete this Section B as a test in Blackboard (one attempt
only - you can SAVE as draft and return later, but do not
SUBMIT until
ready). 90 points possible.

Multiple
Attempts
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1. The field of MIS deals with ____ issues as well as
technical issues.
Development
Use and Behavior
Impact
Specifications
Question 1
2 points Save AnswerSave Answer
1. The main parts of the FRAME for analysis of IS are:
Purpose, Boundary, Environment
Management, Organization, Technology
Initiation, Development, Implementation

Market, Design, Sale
Question 2
Time shifting refers to business operating 24/7 rather than 9am-
5pm.
True
False
Question 3
1. In private business, how much of business expenditures
has been spent on IT?
about 90%
about 20-30%
about 34-50%
about 15-20%
Question 4
1. ESS stands for ____.
Event-Based Systems Support
Environmental Support Systems
External System Selections

Executive Support Systems
Question 5
??
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Page 2 of
1. The 6 Business Objectives do NOT include:
Operational Excellence
Decision Making
Information Display

Survival
Question 6
1. According to behavior science, IT can ________
organizations by broadening the distribution of information.
enhance
push
change
flatten
Question 7
1. The ________Chain Model highlights adding to
competitive advantage, for example with Information Systems.
Value
Supply
Critical
Food
Question 8
1. An example of how IS can enhance a business is _______.

computerize billing
increase efficiency
promote sales
develop database
Question 9
1. One way to organize IS functions is to ___.
have a separate department under central control
put representatives in department with central control
decentralize but report to CIO
All of the above
Question 10
1. Under Porter’s Competitive Forces Model, _________ is a
force effecting strategic position.
executives
database managers
customers
employees
Question 11

1. Although it has several interpretations, _______________
once suggested that the power of microprocessors doubles every
18 months.
Law of Mass Storage
Shannon’s Law
Moore’s Law
Metcalfe’s Law
Question 12
2 points
Page 3 of
1. Corporate networks and the web mainly use the single,
common, worldwide standard protocol called ____.
DOS
TCP/IP
WAN

LAN
Question 13
The most widely adopted collaboration system in small and
medium businesses using Microsoft products and networks is
_____.
SharePoint
Google Wave
Lotus Notes
Wikipedia
Question 14
In an ESS, information is often delivered through a _____,
which uses a web interface to present interpreted, personalized
business content.
DSS
portal
supply chain
spreadsheet
Question 15
1. The widely known open source software (Linux) that was

posted in 1991 was created by:
Linus Torvald
James Gosling
Gordon Moore
Robert Metcalfe
Question 16
1. In 1965, which computer machine thrived with the
introduction of the IBM 360 operating system:
vacuum tube computer
mainframe
mini-computer
personal computer
Question 17
1. _________ are independent computer programs that copy
themselves from computer to computer on their own.
computer viruses
trojan horses
worms

spyware
Question 18
1. In an denial of service (DoS) attack, hackers flood a
network or Web server with thousands of________.
zombies
phishes
HIPAAs
false requests
Question 19
1. The three main LAN topologies are star, bus, and ______.
Question 20
Page 4 of
packet-switching
ring

client-server
MAN
1. The ________networking standard is useful for creating
small PANs.
Wi-Fi
Wireless NIC
Bluetooth
Wi-Max
Question 21
Cloud Computing consists of four types of service: (1) Cloud
infrastructure as a service; (2) Cloud platform as a service; (3)
Cloud software as a
service; (4) Cloud applications as self-service with rapid
elasticity.
True
False
Question 22
1. Returns to scale increase with network growth according
to ___ who claimed in 1970 that the value of a network grows
exponentially as a function
of the number of members. [Note: so what about the web

today!??!]
Linus Torvald
James Gosling
Gordon Moore
Robert Metcalfe
Question 23
1. The _______ measures the number of customers who stop
using or purchasing products or services; important indicator of
the growth or decline of
a customer base.
operational CRM
analytical CRM
churn rate
data warehouse
Question 24
1. Sites like Kaboodle, ThisNext, and StyleHive provide the
____ e-commerce experience.
tweeting
social shopping

podcasting
syndicating
Question 25
In backward chaining, the expert system inference engine
begins with the information entered by the user and searches the
knowledge base to
reach conclusion.
True
False
Question 26
1. ______ decisions are those in which the decision maker
must provide judgment, evaluation, or insight into a problem.
operational management
structured
semi-structured
unstructured
Question 27

of
1. A good _____ provides both a single view of customers to
improve sales and marketing, and a single view of the company
by customers no matter
how many touch points.
CRM
SAP
ERM
PRM
Question 28
1. Which is the kind of knowledge that resides in the minds
of employees but has not been documented?
tacit
explicit
wisdom
organizational learning
Question 29

1. Major League Baseball (MLB) has set up _____ online to
provide a high tech connection to fans and improve sales of
tickets and other items.
soft data
hard data
retail outlets
web sites
Question 30
1. ___ uses data, tools, and systems to enhance collaboration
between a company and its selling partners.
CRM
ERM
PRM
CLTV
Question 31
1.
1. A ___ displays two or more dimensions of data in a
convenient format using spreadsheet information.
group dictionary

pivot table
GIS
GDSS
Question 32
1. _____ are the most successful solutions or problem-
solving methods in an industry for consistently and effectively
achieving a business
objective.
best practices
enterprise systems
supply chains
SAP
Question 33
1. The underlying problems in group decision making have
been the length and number of ___.
group dictionaries
meetings
questionnaires
GDSS tools

Question 34
Page 6 of
1. In _____ chaining strategies for Expert Systems, the
inference engine begins with information entered by users and
searches the knowledge base.
backward
forward
value
supply
Question 35
1. ___ testing consists of testing each program separately and
tries to make sure programs are error free, but that is
unrealistic.
Unit
System
Acceptance

Iterative
Question 36
1. Under ____ it is the responsibility of all people and
functions in an organization to watch out for quality.
Six Sigma
BPR
PRM
TQM
Question 37
1. ____ models of management suggest that the actual
behavior of managers is less systematic and reflective, but more
informal and reactive.
classical
behavioral
structured
reengineering
Question 38
Scope refers to the specific work that is to be included in a

project, which project managers can always control so easily as
they make sure that
customers avoid "scope creep" and ensure that work is never
expanded during a project.
True
False
Question 39
The rate of profit that an investment is supposed to earn is the
____.
ROI
NPV
IRR
CSF
Question 40
1. A ___ chart visually represents the timing and duration of
different tasks in a project.
ERD
Gantt
PERT
CSF

Question 41
1. Taking actions on the basis of personal or narrow
characteristics is known as ___ and rejects the concept of a
global culture.
Question 42
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1. Taking actions on the basis of personal or narrow
characteristics is known as ___ and rejects the concept of a
global culture.
semi-structured decision making
unstructured decision making
particularism
phishing

1. ___________________ is one way businesses are using
information technology to improve processes, that is, by
applying tools to analyze current
processes, design new processes, and/or optimize processes.
Total quality management
Business process management
Rationalization of procedures
Automation
Question 43
1. The open source programming language Linux is based on
___.
UNIX
Java
C
C++
Question 44
Customer Relationship Management systems help large firms
achieve customer _____ by capturing and analyzing data,
interacting
with customers, and promoting loyalty through service as if a
small firm.

value
intimacy
churn
lifetime value
Question 45
Save and Submit
Exam III GEO 107
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers
the question.
____ 1. Why does a mass of air get cooler as it rises over a
mountain?
a. The air gets cooler because it loses heat to its surrounding
cool air.
b. The air gets cooler because nearby ice and snow are cold.
c. The air gets cooler because the dry air at high elevations
conducts heat away easily.
d. Air with a certain amount of heat expands as it rises so that
heat is distributed through a

larger volume.
e. The air gets cooler because there is more air pressure at the
top of the mountain.
____ 2. An example of anthropogenic source of greenhouse gas
is
a. Volcanoes
b. lightening storms
c. burning of fossil fuels
d. heating of the upper atmosphere
e. Earthquakes
____ 3. Why are storms found at both warm fronts and cold
fronts?
a. In both cases, the warm, more-humid air rises rapidly over
cold air, cooling, condensing,
and raining.
b. Where a warm front collides with a cold front, the friction
between them generates heat
and storms.
c. In both cases, the northward-moving front goes to the right,
so the storm cell formed turns
counterclockwise.
d. Warm fronts concentrate static positive charges; cold air
concentrates negative charges.
They storm where the two collide.
e. Warm and cold airs do not mix easily because of their
different densities, so the turbulence

causes storms.
____ 4. In the Greenhouse effect
a. Short wavelength radiation is blocked by greenhouse gases
b. long wavelength radiation is blocked by greenhouse gases
c. the albedo is reduced through increaseed growth of forests
d. the Milankovich cycles spin out of control
e. the world freezes over if greenhouse gases get to high
____ 5. The process by which plants give up moisture to the air
is called ____.
a. sublimation
b. evaporation
c. transpiration
d. evapotranspiration
e. none of these
____ 6. Which of the following always decreases as we go
upward in the atmosphere?
a. wind
b. temperature
c. pressure
d. moisture
e. all of these

____ 7. What is Albedo?
a. The effect of solar winds on the magnetic field
b. the color of snow in summer
c. the influence of heat on the ocean
d. a measure of how reflective the surface is
e. a measure of the magnitude of solar radiation coming from
the sun
____ 8. The main reason for warmer summers in middle
latitudes is due to what?
a. The Earth is closer to the sun in summer.
b. The sun is higher in the sky, and we receive more direct solar
radiation.
c. Ocean currents transport heat from the tropics to middle
latitudes.
d. Plants in the mid-latitudes enhance the greenhouse effect.
e. Global warming causes this.
____ 9. Of the following the Milankovich cycles involve
a. Eccentricity of the Earth
b. The tilt of the Earth
c. The wobble of the Earth
d. a,b and c
e. none of the above
____ 10. Which isotope is preferentially locked up into the ice
during colder periods
a. Oxygen-18
b. Oxygen-16

c. Iron
d. Uranium-238
e. Purple
____ 11. Measurements show that
a. Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are rapidly
increasing over the past century
b. Carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere are rapidly
decreasing over the past century
c. Carbon dioxide levels are unchanged from the last 1 million
years
d. We are now entering a new Ice Age
e. All greenhouse gases have been at a constant level for
thousands of years and have not
changed
____ 12. Meandering streams can be expected to occur
a. in steep gradients
b. in rocky steep terrain
c. in shallow gradient regions
d. only where channels have been altered by the Army Core of
of Engineers
e. only where there is little rain
____ 13. If a 100-year floodplain was flooded in 2003, when
should we expect the next 100-year flood?
a. next year
b. 10 years
c. 100 years

d. 200 years
e. anytime
____ 14. A 100 year flood has a
a. 10 percent chance of occurrence in any given year
b. a 5 percent chance of occurrence in any given year
c. a 100 percent chance of occurrence in any given year
d. a 1 percent chance of occurrence in any given year
e. a very high probability of occurring next year
____ 15. Good uses for floodplains do NOT include which of
the following?
a. agriculture
b. parks
c. playing fields
d. golf courses
e. shopping centers
____ 16. Roughly what depth of flowing stream is dangerous to
drive through?
a. 10 cm (4 inches)
b. 30 cm (1 foot)
c. 60 cm (2 feet), since water would then be over the axels
d. 120 cm (4 feet), since water would then be window height
e. 180 cm (6 feet), since water would then be above the roof of
the car

____ 17. Which of the following statements is NOT true about
the effects of mining sand or gravel from a streambed or
banks?
a. There aren't any negative effects; the stream merely brings in
more sand and gravel.
b. Removal of sediment makes the stream erode its channel
deeper.
c. Increased erosion by the stream can affect roads and bridges.
d. Deepening the channel lowers the water table and affects
agriculture.
e. Deepening the channel can affect water supplies.
____ 18. Straight stream channels will form where
a. gradients are steep
b. gradients are shallow
c. there is no gradient
d. rainfall is very low
e. there is very little bedrock and lots of soft sediments
____ 19. What is avulsion?
a. A flooding stream permanently leaves its old channel to form
a new floodplain channel.
b. The tendency of a stream to avoid moving in a straight line;
it tends to meander.
c. Streams often drop most of their sediment load quickly as the
water velocity drops after a
flood peak.
d. Streams tend to maintain a nearly constant meander radius for
a given discharge.

e. Streams tend to be locked into their meandering channels,
avoiding changing channels
during a flood.
____ 20. Where do people most commonly get the material to
build an artificial river levee?
a. from quarries in the nearby hills
b. from the local sand and gravel company
c. from the river channel, by dredging
d. from coastal dunes or beaches
e. old composted landfill material
____ 21. Why is it almost impossible to keep water from
seeping under a levee and out onto a floodplain?
a. Bigger rocks are typically placed at the bottom of levees, and
they are most permeable.
b. Levees are built on floodplains marked everywhere by old
permeable stream channels.
c. People building levees often forget to line the stream channel
with plastic.
d. all of these
e. none of these
____ 22. Hurricanes are most common in the months of
a. December, January, February
b. May, June, July

c. October, November, December
d. August, September, October
e. March and April
____ 23. Hurricanes need the following to form
a. warm moist air, warm sea temperatures, strong low pressure
b. high pressure, dry air, and cooler sea temperatures
c. low pressure air flow out of Canada
d. cool Atlantic temperatures
e. heavy snow winters
____ 24. What are the best detection devices to warn people of
an already moving debris flow?
a. a tripwire
b. natural sounds created by the flow
c. an acoustic flow monitor
d. a visual film monitor
e. a natural barrier
____ 25. Where does a tropical cyclone or hurricane get its
energy?
a. in the heat and moisture rising from a low pressure cell of the
equatorial ocean
b. from heat of the sun shining off a hot desert near the equator
c. from high temperatures of a humid high pressure weather cell
near the equator
d. from high summer temperatures over humid equatorial
jungles
e. none of these

____ 26. Where do hurricanes striking North America originate?
a. the central Pacific Ocean, near the equator
b. in the Gulf of Mexico
c. off the north Coast of South America, near the equator
d. near-equatorial latitudes off the west coast of Africa
e. in the steamy jungles of the Congo, in western Africa
____ 27. Where in a hurricane is the atmospheric pressure
lowest, and approximately how low can that be?
a. lowest in the zone of high winds, just outside the eye; as low
as 950 millibars
b. lowest just outside the eye wall; as low as 920 millibars
c. lowest in the eye; as low as 920 millibars
d. lowest in the eye; as low as 1,200 millibars
e. lowest in the zone of high winds, midway between the eye
and its outer fringes; as low as
950 millibars
____ 28. Greater rainfall totals from hurricanes is likely to
occur from
a. slow moving storms
b. fast moving storms
c. tropical storms, but not hurricanes
d. category 5 hurricanes only
e. the eye of the hurricane

____ 29. The following is true for hurricanes
a. fatalities have increased with time, while costs from damages
have decreased
b. both fatalities and costs from damage have increased with
time
c. fatalities have only occurred in the Gulf of Mexico region,
but not along the East coast of
the U.S.
d. fatalities have decreased over time, but costs from damages
have increased
e. none of these
____ 30. What is the approximate diameter of most hurricanes
and of a hurricane's eye?
a. Hurricane diameter is about 50 to 150 km with an eye about 1
to 2 km.
b. Hurricane diameter is about 50 to 150 km with an eye about
40 to 100 km.
c. Hurricane diameter is about 160 to 800 km with an eye about
20 to 50 km.
d. Hurricane diameter is about 200 to 600 km with an eye about
1 to 2 km.
e. Hurricane diameter is about 500 to 2,000 km with an eye
about 10 to 25 km.
____ 31. What is the approximate forward speed of a hurricane
(how fast does it approach the coast)?
a. about 5-10 km/hour
b. about 25 km/hour

c. about 100 km/hour
d. about 200 km/hour
e. about 500 km/hour
____ 32. Where in a hurricane are the winds strongest?
a. in the eye
b. just outside the eye (in the eye wall)
c. half way out to the outer fringe of the hurricane
d. at the outer fringe
e. center of the surge
____ 33. What local circumstances also raise the height of a
storm surge onshore close to the beach?
a. A surge moving into a bay funnels the water and raises the
surge.
b. Approaching the coast, the hurricane moves faster toward the
coast.
c. Approaching the coast, the hurricane moves slower toward
the coast.
d. Coastal vegetation, such as thick groves of mangroves, raise
the height of a storm surge
onshore close to the beach.
e. Low sand dunes raise the height of a storm surge onshore
close to the beach.
____ 34. In regard to hurricane Katrina
a. many factors of the disaster were predicted
b. the storm damage was completely unexpected because few
realized that New Orleans was

below sea level
c. the storm damage was greatest from the high winds but
flooding provided very little
damage
d. most damage occurred to offshore oil rigs, but New Orleans
escaped disaster
e. it was only a category 5 storm
____ 35. What should you do to avoid being killed by lightning
if caught out in the open in a storm with no place to
take cover?
a. Lie flat on the ground, so you are as low as possible.
b. Stand very still, so your target is smaller.
c. Run for cover under the nearest dry tree.
d. Crouch down on the balls of your feet with your feet
together.
e. Crouch with your feet apart.
____ 36. What is a wall cloud?
a. a cloud that sheds a wall of rain
b. a slowly rotating cloud that sags below the main storm cloud
base
c. a cloud that moves along the "wall" of the Rocky Mountain
Front
d. the vertical "wall" of the edge of a storm cloud
e. a slowly rotating steep-sided stratocumulus cloud

____ 37. When is the main tornado season in the central United
States?
a. May
b. June
c. July
d. August
e. varies upon location
____ 38. The problem with New Orleans is that
a. the levees cannot withstand a category 5 hurricane and the
area continues to sink
b. the city continues to experience uplift
c. there is not enough good music there
d. there is not enough good food there
e. they have summers that are not hot enough for swimming
____ 39. What causes the loud boom that we hear as thunder?
a. supersonic movement of the leading end of a lightning bolt
b. supersonic expansion of air heated by a lightning bolt
c. supersonic movement of air pushed aside by a lightning bolt
d. supersonic vaporization of water droplets as they flash into
steam when heated by the
lightning
e. sudden generation of the sound wave as the "+" and "−"
charges from the lightning
connect

____ 40. Which of the following is correct?
a. All tornadoes rotate in a counterclockwise direction.
b. Tornadoes never strike the same place twice.
c. All tornadoes make a distinctive roar.
d. The United States has more tornadoes than any other country
in the world.
e. none of these
____ 41. Where do asteroids originate in space?
a. They originate in a belt between Mars and Jupiter.
b. They orbit the Earth.
c. They are fragments of the moon.
d. They follow an eccentric belt around the sun.
e. They are from far outside our solar system.
____ 42. How is the tail of a comet oriented? (Which way does
it point?)
a. points away from the sun
b. points toward the sun⎯
c. back from the direction of travel
d. in the direction of its afterburner
e. randomly in space
____ 43. How fast do asteroids travel in space?
a. about 2 to 4 km per minute
b. about 15 to 40 km per minute

c. about 2 to 4 km per second
d. about 15 to 25 km per second
e. about 150 to 400 km per second
____ 44. What are shatter cones?
a. funnel-shaped cones of rock pointing downward (closed
downward) and outward
b. streaked cones of rock radiating down (closed upward) and
out from the point of impact
c. cone-shaped depressions caused by hypervelocity impact
d. cones of rocks (closed downward) and with vertical axes
e. vertical cracks caused by impact and radiating outward from
the point of impact
____ 45. Which of the following would NOT follow impact of a
large asteroid on Earth?
a. widespread fires from heat of impact and spray of molten
droplets of magma
b. dust and smoke from fires blot out the sun so animals freeze
and starve
c. acid rain kills vegetation
d. global wars over food
e. vaporization of much of Earth's oceans
____ 46. Why would astronomers have difficulty spotting a
large incoming asteroid headed for Earth?
a. Coming in directly, it remains in position in space, so
astronomers cannot see its
trajectory.

b. It comes in so fast that they don't have time to see it.
c. It is dark before becoming heated in Earth's atmosphere.
d. Most of them aren't looking for such an incoming body.
e. It would be too big to see.
____ 47. What are comets made of?
a. ice and some rock
b. ice
c. high magnesium and iron rocks
d. nickel-iron
e. close-packed hydrogen
____ 48. A rock that enters Earth's atmosphere and survives to
reach the ground is a(n) ____.
a. meteor
b. meteorite
c. comet
d. asteroid
e. space rock
____ 49. The asteroid belt, orbiting the sun, contains asteroids
in a belt between the orbits of ____.
a. Venus and Earth
b. Earth and Mars
c. Jupiter and Saturn
d. Mercury and Venus
e. Mars and Jupiter

____ 50. On average, how often does a 6-meter diameter
asteroid collide with Earth?
a. once every five years
b. once every ten years
c. once every year
d. once every fifty years
e. once every century

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12314, 457 PMTake Test Final Exam - Part BPage 1 of 7h.docx