1. Included on this page are micrographs that were selected to illustrate the features most often used
to identify the various blood cells. Not every cell you see in the lab will look exactly like these,
but if you look for the features pointed out with each micrograph, you should be able to make
proper identifications during differential white blood cell counts or during a lab exam.
GRANULOCYTES: NEUTROPHIL - EOSINOPHIL - BASOPHIL
AGRANULOCYTES: LYMPHOCYTE - MONOCYTE
ERYTHROCYTE
THROMBOCYTES - PLATELETS
[HOME] [ENDOCRINE HISTOLOGY] [UNIT 1 TEST]
NEUTROPHIL
This granulocyte has very tiny light staining granules (the granules are
very difficult to see). The nucleus is frequently multi-lobed with lobes
connected by thin strands of nuclear material. These cells are capable of
phagocytizing foreign cells, toxins, and viruses.
When taking a Differential WBC Count of normal blood, this type of cell
would be the most numerous. Normally, neutrophils account for 50-70%
of all leukocytes. If the count exceeds this amount, the cause is usually due to an acute infection
such as appendicitis, smallpox or rheumatic fever. If the count is considerably less, it may be due
to a viral infection such as influenza, hepatitis, or rubella.
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EOSINOPHIL
This granulocyte has large granules (A) which are acidophilic and appear
pink (or red) in a stained preparation. This micrograph was color
enhanced to illustrate this feature. The nucleus often has two lobes
connected by a band of nuclear material. (Does it looks like a telephone
receiver?) The granules contain digestive enzymes that are particularly
effective against parasitic worms in their larval form. These cells also
phagocytize antigen - antibody complexes.
These cells account for less than 5% of the WBC's. Increases beyond this amount may be due to
parasitic diseases, bronchial asthma or hay fever. Eosinopenia may occur when the body is
severely stressed.
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2. BASOPHIL
The basophilic granules in this cell are large, stain deep blue to purple,
and are often so numerous they mask the nucleus. These granules
contain histamines (cause vasodilation) and heparin (anticoagulant).
In a Differential WBC Count we rarely see these as they represent less
than 1% of all leukocytes. If the count showed an abnormally high
number of these cells, hemolytic anemia or chicken pox may be the cause.
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LYMPHOCYTE
The lymphocyte is an agranular cell with very clear cytoplasm which
stains pale blue. Its nucleus is very large for the size of the cell and stains
dark purple. (Notice that the nucleus almost fills the cell leaving a very
thin rim of cytoplasm.) This cell is much smaller than the three
granulocytes (which are all about the same size). These cells play an
important role in our immune response. The T-lymphocytes act against
virus infected cells and tumor cells. The B-lymphocytes produce
antibodies.
This is the second most numerous leukocyte, accounting for 25-35% of the cells counted in a
Differential WBC Count. When the number of these cells exceeds the normal amount, one would
suspect infectious mononucleosis or a chronic infection. Patients with AIDS keep a careful watch
on their T-cell level, an indicator of the AIDS virus' activity.
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MONOCYTE
This cell is the largest of the leukocytes and is agranular. The nucleus is
most often "U" or kidney bean shaped; the cytoplasm is abundant and
light blue (more blue than this micrograph illustrates). These cells leave
the blood stream (diapedesis) to become macrophages. As a monocyte or
macrophage, these cells are phagocytic and defend the body against
viruses and bacteria.

3. These cells account for 3-9% of all leukocytes. In people with malaria, endocarditis, typhoid
fever, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever, monocytes increase in number.
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ERYTHROCYTE
The background cells in this micrograph are erythrocytes (red blood
cells). These cells are non-nucleated, biconcave discs that are filled with
hemoglobin. The primary function of these cells is to carry oxygen from
the lungs to the body cells.
Woman usually have 4-5 million erythrocytes per cubic millimeter of
blood, men have 5-6 million. If this number is considerably higher, polycythemia may be the
cause. If the number is considerably less, the person has anemia.
Sickle cell anemia is an inherited condition which results in some
erythrocytes being malformed. The gene for this condition causes the
hemoglobin to be incorrectly formed, which in turn causes some
erythrocytes to take on a crescent shape. These cells are not able to carry
adequate amounts of oxygen to cells.
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THROMBOCYTES - PLATELETS
Platelets, which are cell fragments, are seen next to the "t's" above.
(Many of the other micrographs on this page contain them as well.)
Platelets are important for proper blood clotting.
Each cubic millimeter of blood should contain 250,000 to 500,000 of
these. If the number is too high, spontaneous clotting may occur. If the number is too low,
clotting may not occur when necessary.

4. BIOLOGY 2740 - HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY AND ANATOMY
PRACTICE TEST 3
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the best answer.
1. When the membrane potential (i.e. -70 mV) becomes less negative or in other words,
approaches zero, the membrane is said to be:
A. polarizing B. hyperpolarizing C. prepolarizing D. autopolarizing E. depolarizing.
2. An all-or-none nerve fiber impulse, may be triggered by:
A. a weak below threshold stimulus
B. a weak but threshold stimulus
C. a strong well-above threshold stimulus
D. either, A or B
E. either, B or C.
3. Resting membrane potential, is defined as:
A. The movement of sodium ions outside the membrane and the movement of potassium ions
inside the membrane
B. the difference in electrical charges between the inside and outside of a resting nerve
membrane
C. the movement of action potentials along a resting axon
D. the movement of ions along the external surface of a resting membrane.
4. During an infection of the CNS, you might expect to find an increase in:
A.Schwann cells B. microglia C. astrocytes D. oligodendrocytes E. ependymal cells.
5. Bipolar neurons are located in the:
A. olfactory mucosa B. retina of the eye C. inner ear D. all of the preceding E. answers A and B
only.
6. Destruction of which cranial nerve would result in the inability to smile?
A. V; B. VI; C. VII; D. IX; E. X.
7. Nerve fibers that carry sensory impulses from skeletal muscles to the brain and spinal cord are
called:

5. A. somatic efferent
B. visceral efferent
C. visceral afferent
D. somatic afferent
E. none of the preceding.
8. Destruction of which cranial nerve would result in the inability to masticate food?
A. V; B. VI; C. VII; D. IX; E. X.
MATCH THE MAJOR BRAIN REGION WITH THE APPROPRIATE STRUCTURE.
(Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)
A. Myelencephalon B. mesencephalon C. metencephalon D. telencephalon E. diencephalon.
9. Vasomotor center
10. Occipital lobe
11. Cerebral aqueduct
12. Pons
13. Pineal gland (body)
14. Third ventricle
15. Superior colliculus
16. Lateral ventricles
17. Hypothalamus
18. Cerebellum
19. Medulla oblongata
20. Frontal lobe
21. Epithalamus
MULTIPLE CHOICE. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
22. The layer of connective tissue surrounding a nerve, is called the:
A. epimysium B. apomysium C. endoneurium D. epineurium E. perimysium.
23. The central sulcus in the cerebrum, separates the ----- from the ----- lobe.
A. temporal / occipital
B. frontal / parietal
C. parietal occipital
D. temporal / frontal
E. frontal/occipital.
24. Bundles of axons or nerve fibers are known as tracts, except in the PNS, where they are
known as:

6. A. ganglia B. interneurons C. nuclei D. nerves E. postsynaptic neurons.
25. The two principal divisions of the nervous system are the:
A. afferent nervous system and the efferent nervous system
B. autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system
C. parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems
D. saltatory conduction and continuous conduction systems
E. peripheral nervous system and central nervous system
26. Destruction of which cranial nerve would result in the inability to smell?
A. X; B. VII; C. V; D.II; E. I.
MATCHING. (Items A through E may be used more than once. Only one letter per answer.)
A. frontal lobes B. parietal lobes C. temporal lobes D. occipital lobes E. cerebellum.
27. Broca's area that makes speech possible
28. Reflex center for coordination of skeletal muscle movements
29. Functions involve responses related to memory, emotions, reasoning, judgment, planning and
verbal communication
30. Area responsible for vision
31. Location of sensory area responsible for hearing
32. Controls muscular movements of the hands and fingers that make skills, such as writing
possible (precentral gyrus)
33. The tracts of white matter have a distinctive branching matter called the arbor vitae
34. The two hemispheres of this structure are joined together by the vermis
35. Contains the location for the sensations of touch, temperature, and pressure (postcentral
gyrus)
MATCHING. Innervation of the extrinsic ocular muscles. (Note: Items A through C may be
used more than once.)
A. Trochlear B. oculomotor C. abducens
36. Medial rectus muscle
37. Inferior rectus muscle
38. Superior oblique muscle
39. Inferior oblique muscle
40. Superior rectus muscle
41. Lateral rectus muscle
TRUE OR FALSE TRUE = A; FALSE = B

7. 42. All spinal nerves are mixed nerve.
43. The hormone oxytocin is produced by cells in the pineal gland
44. A multipolar neuron has several axons and one dendrite
45. The term aphasia refers to speech and language disorders
46. Dopamine, epinephrine and norepinephrine are classified as catecholamines
47. The cerebral cortex is composed of gray matter
48. The endoneurium is composed of fine delicate nerve fibers
49. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus are responsible for monitoring the osmotic concentration
of the blood
50. The pituitary gland is attached to the epithalamus by the infundibulum
51. In the spinal cord the columns of white matter are called fascicles
52. Brain waves may be recorded as an electrocardiogram
MATCHING CRANIAL NERVES: (Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)
A. trigeminal B. glossopharyngeal C. facial D. accessory E. hypoglossal
53. Muscles of the tongue
54. Buccinator muscle
55. Temporalis muscle
56. Masseter muscle
57. Ophthalmic region of the head
58. Taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
59. Frontalis muscle
60. Medial and lateral pterygoids
61. Mandibular region of the head
62. Trapezius muscle
63. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
64. Also known as number VII
65. Also known as number IX
66.Also known as number V
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer.
67. The part of the brain responsible for the regulation of body temperature and hunger is the:
A. superior colliculus B. parietal lobe C. epithalamus D. medulla oblongata E. hypothalamus
68. The region of the brain stem located between the midbrain and medulla oblongata is the:
A. pons B. hypothalamus C. corpus callosum D. intermediate mass E. cerebral peduncles
69. Which of the following statements about the spinal cord is true?
A. it extends from the foramen magnum to the level of S1
B. it is located in the central canal

8. C. both ascending and descending fiber tracts are present
D. it consists of a central area of white matter, surrounded by gray matter
E. two of the above
70. Which one of the following structures allows CSF to pass from the subarachnoid space to the
dural sinus?
A. inter-vertebral foramina
B. choroid plexuses
C. corpus callosum
D. arachnoid villi
E. spinal central canal.
71. Which of the following is not a catecholamine?
A. epinephrine B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine C. corpus callosum D. dopamine
MATCH THE SPINAL NERVE WITH ITS APPROPRIATE PLEXUS. (Note: Items A
through D may be used more than once.)
A. cervical plexus B. sacral plexus C. lumbar plexus D. brachial plexus.
72. Sciatic nerve
73. Phrenic nerve
74. Obturator nerve
75. Axillary nerve
76. Musculocutaneous
77. Tibial nerve
78. Femoral nerve
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer.
79. Which of the following is located in the PNS?
A. Astrocytes B. ependyma C. oligodendrocytes D. Schwann cells E. all of the preceding.
80. The crossed extensor reflex:
A. involves five neurons
B. has its reflex center in the frontal lobes
C. is a contralateral reflex
D. is a polysynaptic reflex
E. two of the preceding.
81. The autonomic system:

9. A. operates reflexly
B. contains somatic motor fibers;
C. contains ganglia
D. all of the preceding;
E. answers A and C.
82. The cell bodies of postganglionic autonomic fibers are located in:
A. the lateral horn of the spinal cord
B. the effector organ
C. the ventral horn of the spinal cord
D. the medulla oblongata
E. ganglia.
83. What type of effector is not under autonomic regulation ?
A. glands B. skeletal muscle C. cardiac muscles D. smooth muscles E. two of the preceding.
84. Which of the following cranial nerves contains motor nerve fibers?
A. abducens B. optic C. olfactory D. vestibulocochlear E. none of the preceding.
85. The cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons are located in the:
A. cervical and thoracic spinal cord
B. brain and lumbar spinal cord
C. thoracic and lumbar spinal cord
D. brain and sacral spinal cord.
86. There are ------ segments in the spinal cord.
A. 11 B. 2 C. 31 D. 41 E. 30.
87. Repolarization of an axon during an action potential is produced by:
A. inward diffusion of sodium ions
B. extrusion of potassium from the cell by active transport
C. outward diffusion of potassium ions
D. inward diffusion of calcium ions
E. none of the above
88. The hormone melatonin is produced by the:
A. pituitary gland B. hypothalamus C. epithalamus D. medulla oblongata E. none of the
preceding.

10. 89. Which cranial nerves contain parasympathetic fibers?
A. III, V, IV, and VII
B. VII, IX, VIII, and X
C. III, VII, IX, and X
D. VII, V, VIII, and X.
MATCHING: SPINAL NERVE AND MUSCLES. (Note Items A through D may be used
more than once.)
A. Obturator nerve B. femoral nerve C. axillary nerve D. radial nerve.
90. Triceps brachii
91. Gacilis
92. Psoas major
93. Sartorius
94. Deltoid
95. Biceps femoris
96. Vastus lateralis.
97. Adductor longus
98. Semitendinosus
99. Rectus femoris
100. Fill in the A circle
This site provides the correct answers for the Unit 3 test questions. To fully take advantage of
this practice test we recommendthat you look carefully at the incorrect answers as well.
Determining why answers are incorrect will increase your understanding of the material - often
as much as finding the information that supports the correct answer.
Question# Answer Question# Answer Question# Answer Question # Answer
1 E 26 E 51 B 76 D
2 E 27 A 52 B 77 B
3 B 28 E 53 E 78 C
4 B 29 A 54 C 79 D
5 D 30 D 55 A 80 E
6 C 31 C 56 A 81 E
7 D 32 A 57 A 82 E
8 A 33 E 58 C 83 B
9 A 34 E 59 C 84 A
10 D 35 B 60 A 85 D

11. 11 B 36 B 61 A 86 C
12 C 37 B 62 D 87 C
13 E 38 A 63 D 88 E
14 E 39 B 64 C 89 C
15 B 40 B 65 B 90 D
16 D 41 C 66 A 91 A
17 E 42 A 67 E 92 B
18 C 43 B 68 A 93 B
19 A 44 B 69 C 94 C
20 D 45 A 70 D 95 E
21 E 46 A 71 B 96 B
22 D 47 A 72 B 97 A
23 B 48 B 73 A 98 E
24 D 49 A 74 C 99 B
25 E 50 B 75 D 100 A
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the best answer.
1.The science or study of joints is called:
A. sarcoloy B. osteology C. myology D. dermatology E. none of the preceding.
2. Which of the following parts of the upper limb or extremity is not correctly matched with the
number of bones in that part?
A. brachium - 1 B. antebrachium - 2 C. carpus - 8 D. metacarpus - 5. phalanges - 12.
3. The largest ankle bone is the:
A. metatarsal B. navicular C. talus D. calcaneus E. first cuneiform.
4. Which of the following is an amphiarthrotic joint?
A. synchondrosis B. condyloid joint C. saddle joint D. symphysis E.answers A and D
5. The hinge joint at elbow is an example of a:
A. first-class lever B. second-class lever C. third-class lever D.. fourth-class lever.
6. Which of the following joints is freely movable?

12. A. ball and socket joint B. condyloid joint C. saddle joint D. pivot joint E. all of the preceding.
7. The inability to produce the fluid which keeps most diarthrodial joints moist would most likely
be due to a disorder of the:
A. cruciate ligaments B. synovial membrane C. articular cartilage D. bursae E. answers B and D.
8. The sequence of parts in a first-class lever is:
A. effort-fulcrum-resistance
B. fulcrum-effort-resistance
C. fulcrum-effort-resistance
D. none of the preceding.
9. A rotational movement of the forearm that results in the palm of the hand being, directed
backward (posteriorly) is called:
A.pronation B. eversion C. circumduction D. lateral flexion E. supination
MATCHING: FROM THE LIST OF BONES MATCH THE CORRECT STRUCTURE OR
FOSSA THAT IS ASSOCIATED WITH IT. (Note: Items A through E may be used more than
once.)
A. fibula B. tibia C. humerus D. ulna E. scapula
10. Linea aspera.
11. Olecranon fossa.
12. Radial notch.
13. Coronoid fossa.
14. Coracoid process.
15. Lesser tubercle.
16. Capitulum.
17. Lesser trochanter.
18. Coronoid process.
19. Acromion.
20. Lateral malleolus.
21. Infraspinous fossa.
22. Trochlear notch.
MATCHING:ARTICULATIONS. (Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)
A. Symphysis B. suture C. syndesmosis D. pivot E. hinge.
23. Intervertebral joints
24. Knee joint.
25. Joint between the atlas and axis

13. 26. Joints between the cranial bones.
27. Joints between the distal and middle bones of the phalanges.
28. Joint between the distal ends of the tibia and fibula.
29. Joint between the right and left pubic bones (or pubes).
30. Joint between the proximal ends of the radius and ulna.
31. Joint between the distal ends of the radius and ulna.
TRUE OR FALSE: TRUE= A; FALSE = B.
32. Slow-twitch muscles are sometimes called red fibers.
33. Cardiac muscle fibers are located in the myocardium of the heart wall.
34. In vitro means within the body.
35. Smooth muscles in the GI tract are single-unit muscle cells.
36. Flattened sheath-like tendons are called aponeuroses.
37. Unlike multi-unit smooth muscles, single-unit smooth muscles need nerve stimulation.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer.
38. Each myofibril in skeletal muscle:
A. is made up of many myofilaments
B. is made up of many sarcomeres
C. contains a sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. answers A, B, and C
E. answers A and B.
39. The motor unit is defined as:
A. many myofibrils within the sarcolemma
B. the functional filaments within a muscle fiber
C. many motor endplates within the neuromuscular function
D. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers innervated by it
E. answers A and B.
40. The layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle fiber is called the:
A. perimysium B. endomysium C. epimysium D. apomysium E. none of the preceding.
41. At the neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles contain:
A. calcium B. troponin C. acetylcholine D. ADP E. ATP.
42. If you were to extract protein molecules from the A-band, which of the following molecules
would be found in the extract?
A. myosin B. actin C. troponin D. tropomyosin E. all of the preceding.

14. THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES SERVE AS AN ORIGIN FOR CERTAIN
SKELETAL MUSCLES. MATCH THE MUSCLES WITH THEIR POINTS OF ORIGIN.
(Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)
A. Sphenoid bone B. scapula C. iliac crest D. ischial tuberosity E. sternum.
45. Medial pterygoid
44. Internal oblique
45. Coracobrachialis
46. Teres major
47. Deltoid
48. Quadratus lumborum
49. Pectoralis major
50. Biceps femoris
51. Semimembranosus
52. Lateral pterygoid
53. Semitendinosus
MATCH THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS WITH THE APPROPRIATE MUSCLE. (Note:
Items A through E may be used more than once.)
A. extends head at neck
B. adducts the scapula
C. elevates the mandible
D. flexes head at neck
E. abducts the thigh.
54. Gluteus medius.
55. Masseter.
56. Splenius capitis (acting, together).
57. Sternocleidomastoid (acting, together).
58. Medial pterygoid.
59. Semispinalis capitis (acting together).
60. Gluteus minimus.
61. Rhomboideus major.
62. Temporalis.
63. Longissimus capitis (acting together).
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer.
64. There are three posterior thigh muscles which are antagonistic to the quadriceps femoris
muscle. These muscles are known as the hamstring and they are as follows: the
semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and the:
A. biceps femoris B. triceps femoris C. rectus femoris D. transversus femoris E. none of the
preceding

15. 65. The quadriceps femoris is actually a composite of four distinct muscles that have separate
origins but a common insertion. The four muscles are the: vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius and
the vastus medialis, and the:
A. biceps femoris B. triceps femoris C. rectus femoris D. transversus femoris E. none of the
preceding.
66. When smooth muscle contracts, calcium bonds to :
A. phosphocreatine B. tropomyosin C. calmodulin D. acetylcholine E. myosin heads
67. Slow twitch muscles:
A. are sometimes called Type I muscle fibers
B. have numerous mitochondria
C. have a high concentration of myoglobin
D. have many capillaries
E. all of the above.
68. The most movable attachment of a muscle is its:
A. insertion B. fulcrum C. origin D. none of the preceding.
THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES SERVE AS AN INSERTION FOR CERTAIN
SKELETAL MUSCLES. MATCH THE STRUCTURES WITH THE APPROPRIATE
MUSCLES. (Note: Items A through E may be used more than once.)
A. lesser trochanter of the femur
B. mastoid process of the temporal bone
C. humerus
D. xiphoid process
E. tibia.
69. Sartorius.
70. Rectus abdominis.
71. Coracobrachialis.
72. Sternocleidomastoid.
73. Iliacus.
74. Gracilis.
75. Semitendinosus.
76. Deltoid.
77. Longissimus capitis.
78. Latissimus dorsi.
79. Pectoralis major.
80. Semimembranosus.

16. MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the best answer.
81. Immediately following the arrival of a threshold stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell, there is a
short period called the:
A. relaxation period B. indecisive period C. latent period D. contraction period E. refractory
period.
82. When a muscle exerts tension without shortening, the contraction is termed:
A. isometric B. graded C. summated D. isotonic E. none of the preceding.
83. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is another name for:
A. Golgi apparatus B. reticular connective tissue C. cell membrane D. cytoplasm E. none of the
preceding
84. The delicate cell membrane surrounding each skeletal muscle fiber is called the:
A. epimysium B. sarcolemma C. sarcoplasm D. sarcoplasmic reticulum E. none of the preceding.
85. The science or study of muscles and their parts is called:
A. sarcology B. osteology C. myology D. dermatology E. none of the preceding.
FACIAL MUSCLES: MATCH THE ACTIONS WITH THE APPROPRIATE MUSCLE.
A. smile B. close the eye C. raise the eyebrows D. pucker the lips E. tighten or compress the
cheeks
86. Orbicularis oculi.
87. Zygomaticus.
88. Frontalis portion of the epicranius.
89. Orbicularis oris.
90. Buccinator.
TRUE OR FALSE: True =A; False = B.
91. Ciliary muscles in the eyeball change the shape of the lens.
92. Smooth muscles in the sperm ducts and uterine tubes are single-unit muscles.
93. The abbreviation ATP stands for alanine tripentose.
94. Embryonic cells that form skeletal muscle cells are called myoblasts.
95. The sartorius takes its origin on the posterior superior iliac spine.
96. The sagittal suture is an example of a synostosis type of joint.
97. Joints called synarthroses are freely movable joints.
98. Contraction of the tibialis anterior causes planter flexion of the foot.

17. 99. Smooth muscle fibers are uninucleated, involuntary and nonstriated.
100. Cardiac muscle fibers are uninucleated, involuntary and striated.
BIOLOGY 2740 - UNIT 2 - PRACTICE TEST - ANSWERS
This site provides the correct answers for the Unit 2 test questions. To fully take advantage of
this practice test we recommendthat you look carefully at the incorrect answers as well.
Determining why answers are incorrect will increase your understanding of the material - often
as much as finding the information that supports the correct answer.
Question# Answer Question# Answer Question# Answer Question # Answer
1 E 26 B 51 D 76 C
2 E 27 E 52 A 77 B
3 D 28 C 53 D 78 C
4 D 29 A 54 E 79 C
5 C 30 D 55 C 80 E
6 E 31 C 56 A 81 C
7 B 32 A 57 D 82 A
8 A 33 A 58 C 83 E
9 A 34 B 59 A 84 B
10 B 35 A 60 E 85 C
11 C 36 A 61 B 86 B
12 D 37 B 62 C 87 A
13 C 38 E 63 A 88 C
14 E 39 D 64 A 89 D
15 C 40 B 65 C 90 E
16 C 41 C 66 C 91 A
17 B 42 E 67 E 92 A
18 D 43 A 68 A 93 B
19 E 44 C 69 E 94 A
20 A 45 B 70 D 95 B
21 E 46 B 71 C 96 B
22 D 47 B 72 B 97 B

18. 23 A 48 C 73 A 98 B
24 E 49 E 74 E 99 A
25 D 50 D 75 E 100 A
1. Endothelium is a:
A. simple columnar epithelium
B. stratified squamous epithelium
C. transitional epithelium
D. simple squamous epithelium
E. none of the preceding.
2. A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the aortic arch would affect the flow of blood to
A. left side of the head and neck
B. myocardium of the heart
C. left shoulder and arm
D. superior surface of the diaphragm
E. right side of the head, neck, right shoulder and right arm.
3. Fenestrated capillaries are found in:
A. renal glomeruli (kidney)
B. intestinal villi
C. endocrine glands
D. all of the preceding
E. none of the preceding.
4. All arteries in the body carry oxygen-rich blood with the exception of:
A. the hepatic arteries
B. the pulmonary arteries
B. the pulmonary arteries
C. the renal arteries
D. the coronary arteries.
5. In the fetus, partially oxygenated blood is shunted from the through the foremen ovale.
A. left atrium to right atrium
B. right atrium to right ventricle
C. right ventricle to left ventricle
D. right atrium to left atrium
E. left atrium to left ventricle.
6. The "lub" or first heart sound, is produced by closing of:

19. A. the aortic semilunar valve
B. the pulmonary semilunar valve
C. the tricuspid valve
D. the bicuspid valve
E. both atrioventricular valves.
7. The QRS wave of an EKG (=ECG) is produced by:
A. depolarization of the atria
B. repolarization of the atria
C. depolarization of the ventricles
D. repolarization of the ventricles
E. answers A and C.
8. Cardiac output is:
A. (CR + SV) B. (SV-CR) C. (CR x SV) D. (SP x SV) E. (SP - DP)
MATCHING: (Items A through E may be used more than once.)
A. Great saphenous vein B. cephalic vein C. basilic vein D. brachial vein E. subclavian vein.
9. Drains the lateral side of the arm
10. Receives blood from the vertebral vein
11. Receives lymphatic fluid.
12. Deep vein in the brachium
13. Drains the medial aspect of the leg and thigh
14. Received blood from the external jugular vein
15. Drains the medial aspect of the arm
16. Receives blood from the medial cubital vein
17. Longest vein in the body
18. Joins the internal jugular vein to form the brachiocephalic vein
19. Receives blood from the ulnar and radial veins
20. Drains into the femoral vein
21. Receives blood from the axillary vein
Multiple Choice. Choose the best answer.
22. During the phase of isovolumetric contraction of the ventricles, the pressure in the ventricles
is:
A. rising B. falling C.constant D.none of the preceding.
23. Which of the following fetal structures contains the most oxygen-rich blood?
A. left atrium B. umbilical arteries C. foramen ovale D. umbilical vein E. right atrium.

20. 24. Stimulated sympathetic nerve endings in the musculature of the atria and ventricles will
cause:
A. an increase in the rate of heart contraction
B. an increase in the time spent in systole when the cardiac rate is high
C. a decrease in the rate of heart contraction
D. answers B and C.
25.Stroke volume strength is regulated by:
A. EDV
B. ventricular contraction strength
C. mean arterial pressure
D. all of the preceding
26.Which of the following structures does not drain directly into the inferior vena cave?
A. hepatic veins B. renal veins C.inferior mesenteric vein D. common iliac veins E. right gonadal
vein.
MATCHING. (Items A through D may be used more than once).
A. Arteries B. veins C. both A & B D. neither A nor B.
27. Generally have a more collapsed appearance in tissue sections
28. Classified by size
29. May contain circular skeletal muscle in the tunica media
30. Lumen is lined with a simple columnar epithelium
31. Always carry blood away from the heart
32. May carry blood with a high oxygen content
33. May possess fenestrations in their walls
34. Large vessels may contain a vase vasorum
Multiple Choice. Choose the best answer.
35. A positive chronotropic effect on the heart will cause:
A. an increase in strength of contractility
B. a decrease in cardiac rate
C. an increase in cardiac rate
D. a decrease in strength of contractility
E. none of the above are chronotropic effects.
36. Edema may result from:

21. A. low arterial pressure
B. leakage of blood proteins into the interstitial fluid
C. increased plasma protein concentration in the blood
D. all of the above.
37. The secretion of ADH occurs as neurons in the hypothalamus respond to an:
A. increase in blood pressure
B. increase in osmotic pressure
C. increase in hydrogen ion concentration
D. all of the above.
38. Which of the following is not directly associated with extrinsic regulation of blood flow?
A. ADH B.norepinephrine C. angiotensin II D. adenosine E. answers A and C.
39. The sounds of Korotkoff are produced by:
A. closing of the semilunar valves
B. closing of the AV valves
C. turbulent flow of blood through an artery
D. elastic recoil of the aorta
E. none of the preceding.
40. Lysosomes are common in:
A. tears B. sweat C. saliva D. answers A, B, and C E. phagocytes.
TRUE OR FALSE: True=A; False=B
41. The carotid body contains baroreceptors which monitor blood pressure.
42. Mean arterial pressure is systolic pressure plus one third pulse pressure.
43. A heart rate greater than 100 beats/minute is termed tachycardia
44. Arterioles in skeletal muscle receive cholinergic sympathetic fibers which release ACh.
45. The umbilical arteries in the fetus arise from the abdominal aorta.
46. Extrinsic regulation of blood flow refers to control by the ANS and the endocrine system.
47. Vasopressin has a vasodilator effect at high concentrations.
48. Active hyperemia occurs as a result of increased metabolism.
49. The vasomotor control center is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.
50. The walls of lymphatic capillaries are less permeable than are the walls of blood capillaries.
MATCHING: (Items A through E may be used more than once.)
A. celiac artery
B. inferior mesenteric artery
C. axillary artery

22. D. superior mesenteric artery
E. aorta.
51. Empties into the brachial artery.
52. Supplies the small intestine and the ascending colon.
53. Traverses or runs through the armpit region.
54. First major, unpaired branch off the abdominal aorta.
55. Largest artery in the body.
56. Second unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta.
57. Supplies the descending colon of the large intestine
Multiple Choice. Choose the best answer.
58. When blood flow and pressure are reduced in the renal artery, a group of cells called the -----
secretes the enzyme----- into the blood.
A. juxtaglomerular apparatus / angiotensin I
B. osmoreceptors / renin
C. carotid sinus / angiotensinogen
D. juxtaglomerular apparatus / renin
E. suprarenal body / angiotensin II
59. Localized chemical conditions that promote vasodilation include:
A. decreased oxygen concentration
B. increased carbon dioxide concentration
C. decreased tissue pH
D. increased potassium concentration
E. all of the preceding
60. Lymph in the thoracic duct:
A. could have originated from the right leg
B. will enter the right subclavian vein
C. both of the preceding
D. none of the preceding
61. Which class of antibodies is abundant in body secretions?
A. IgM B. IgA C. IgG D. IgE E. IgD.
MATCHING: (Items A through D may be used more than once.)
A. Delayed hypersensitivity B. immediate hypersensitivity C. both A and B D. neither A nor B

23. 62. B lymphocytes are involved.
63. IgE antibodies are involved.
64. Contact dermatitis, such as to poison ivy
65. Occurs within a period of 1 to 3 days
66. Fibroblasts involved
67. T lymphocytes are involved
68. Therapy - corticosteroids, such as cortisone
69. Allergic reactions, hay fever and asthma
70. Therapy - antihistamines and adrenergic drugs
71. An example of passive immunity
72. The antigens are called allergens.
Multiple Choice. Choose the best answer.
73. In response to endotoxins released by certain bacteria, leukocytes may release:
A. antibodies B. interferon C. antigens D. haptens E. endogenous pyrogens.
74. Lymphoid organs include:
A. spleen B. adrenal gland C. thyroid gland D. pancreas E. all of the preceding.
75. Mast cell secretion during an immediate hypersensitivity reaction is stimulated when
antigens combine with antibodies.
A. IgG B. IgE C. IgM D. IgA E. none of the preceding.
76. Active immunity may be produced by:
A. contracting a disease
B. receiving a vaccine
C. receiving gamma globulin injection
D. both A and B
E. both B and C.
77. Which of the following structures is not associated with a lymph node?
A. germinal center B. hilus (=hilum) C. capsule D. canaliculi E. afferent lymphatic vessels
78. B- lymphocytes combat bacterial and viral infections by secreting antibodies into the blood
and lymph, providing what type of immunity?
A. humoral B. nonspecific C. antigenic D. cell-mediated E. none of the preceding.
MATCH THE CELL TYPE WITH ITS SECRETION.

24. A. killer T cells B. mast ceils C. plasma cells D. macrophages
79. Antibodies
80. Perforins
81. Lysosomal enzymes
82. Histamine.
Multiple Choice: Select the best answer.
83. Antibody molecules are composed of ----- chains and ----- light chains
A. one /one B. one/two C. two / one D. two / two E. two / three.
84. A transplant between individuals belonging to different species is called a(n):
A. homograft B. xenograft C. isograft D. autograft
85. A new-boom infant who receives IgA from its mother's milk develops:
A. naturally acquired active immunity
B. artificially acquired active immunity
C. naturally acquired passive immunity
D. artificially acquired passive immunity.
86. Which of the following is not true of the spleen?
A. it consists of red and white pulp
B. afferent lymphatic vessels enter on the convex side
C. it destroys old, and fragile red blood cells
D. located in the upper left portion of the abdominal cavil
87. Antibodies belong to a group of proteins called:
A. albumins B. complement C. interferons D. alpha globulins E. none of the preceding.
88. Helper and suppressor T lymphocytes:
A. attack invaders directly
B. help regulate the specific immune system
C. activate thymosin
D. may specialize into memory and plasma cells, respective!
89. Examples of immediate hypersensitivity are:
A. conjunctivitus B. allergic rhinitis C. allergic asthma D. atopic dermatitis E. all of the
preceding

25. TRUE OR FALSE: True=A False=B
90. The graft least likely to be successful is the isograft
91. Large lymphatic nodes located in the wall of the ileum are called Peyer's patches
92. The tonsillar ring consists of the lingual, palatine, and pharyngeal tonsils
93. The thymus gland gradually enlarges after puberty
94. Poison ivy and poison oak can cause contact dermatitis
95. Oncology is the study of allergies
96. In an autoimmune disease, the immune system fails to recognize and tolerate self-antigens
97. In the study of allergies, antibodies are often called allergens
98. Interferons are polypeptides
99. Macrophages in the connective tissues are derived from neutrophils
100. Fill in the "B" circle
[HOME] [UNIT 2 TEST] [UNIT 2 HISTOLOGY]
BIOLOGY 2740 - UNIT 2 - PRACTICE TEST - ANSWERS
This site provides the correct answers for the Unit 2 test questions. To fully take advantage of
this practice test we recommendthat you look carefully at the incorrect answers as well.
Determining why answers are incorrect will increase your understanding of the material - often
as much as finding the information that supports the correct answer.
Question# Answer Question# Answer Question# Answer Question # Answer
1 D 26 C 51 C 76 D
2 E 27 B 52 D 77 D
3 D 28 C 53 C 78 A
4 B 29 D 54 A 79 C
5 D 30 D 55 E 80 A
6 E 31 A 56 D 81 D
7 C 32 C 57 B 82 B
8 C 33 D 58 D 83 D
9 B 34 C 59 E 84 B
10 E 35 C 60 A 85 C
11 E 36 B 61 B 86 B
12 D 37 B 62 B 87 E
13 A 38 D 63 B 88 B
14 E 39 C 64 A 89 E
15 C 40 E 65 A 90 B

26. 16 C 41 B 66 D 91 B
17 A 42 B 67 A 92 A
18 E 43 A 68 A 93 B
19 D 44 A 69 B 94 A
20 A 45 B 70 B 95 B
21 E 46 A 71 D 96 A
22 A 47 B 72 C 97 B
23 D 48 A 73 E 98 A
24 A 49 B 74 A 99 B
25 D 50 B 75 B 100 B