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ENV 100T Assignment Week 3 Wileyplus Exam (June, 2019)
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Question 1 Correct answer. Your answer is correct. When do
earthquakes occur? Entry field with correct answer During rockfalls.
When rocks shift or break and allow magma to push up words,
releasing energy and heat. As rocks shift or break releasing energy
vibrations that travel to the earth’s surface. Rocks shift displacing water
that results in tsunamis. Question 2 Correct answer. Your answer is
correct. Which of the following statements about the nature of global
mineral use is FALSE? Entry field with correct answer Highly developed
nations like the United States and Canada have less than 6% of the
world population but consume more than 25% of the world’s metals.
Many of the world’s top mineral producers are highly developed
countries such as the United States, Canada, Australia, and Russia. Both
mineral production and mineral consumption in China is on the rise as
the country industrializes – for example, China both produces and
consumes about 34% of the world’s primary aluminum (aluminum
obtained from ores). No false statement, all statements are true about
the nature of global mineral use. Question 3 Correct answer. Your
answer is correct. Contour plowing, strip cropping, and terracing are
soil conservation methods that are BEST suited to which of the
following situations? Entry field with correct answer Arid soils prone to
salinization Nitrogen depleted soils Reclaimed mine areas Soils located

on slopes Question 4 Correct answer. Your answer is correct. Why
might an environmentalist argue that gold is an expensive metal? Entry
field with correct answer Because gold is more valuable than titanium
or platinum. Because the demand for gold is skyrocketing due to
increasing wealth in developing countries. Because gold supplies are
mostly depleted so prices are higher. Because huge quantities of water
are used. Question 5 Correct answer. Your answer is correct. The
Earth’s outermost rigid rock layer the ___ is composed of plates that
float on the ___, the region of the mantle where rocks become hot and
soft. Entry field with correct answer upper mantle…inner core
asthenosphere…lower mantle plate boundary…lithosphere
lithosphere…asthenosphere Question 6 Correct answer. Your
answer is correct. What is the most likely source of sediment
accumulation in a stream adjacent to a farm field? Entry field with
correct answer Eutrophication Soil erosion Acid mine drainage
Salinization Question 7 The layer of soil that contains mostly weathered
parent material is ___ or the ___. Entry field with incorrect answer
topsoil…A-horizon. subsoil…B-horizon. weathered parent material…C-
horizon. litter…O-horizon. Question 8 Correct answer. Your answer is
correct. On the map below the red, blue and yellow lines show ___ and
the arrows indicate the ___. Entry field with correct answer the seven
major plates…plate boundaries historical location of the
continents…the directions in which the continents are moving three
types of plate boundaries…the directions of plate movements the
locations of upper, lower, and inner mantle…plate tectonics Question 9
Correct answer. Your answer is correct. The Conservation Reserve
Program (CRP) is a voluntary subsidy program that pays farmers to stop
producing crops on highly erodible farmland. Instead farmers are

required to: Entry field with correct answer strip crop native plants with
grain crops on the erodible land plant native grasses or trees on the
highly erodible land and then “retire” it from further use for 10 to 15
years develop and adopt a 5-year conservation plan for their farms that
includes erosion-control measures, and if they do not comply, they lose
federal agricultural subsidies such as price supports plant shelterbelts
to reduce the impact of wind erosion Question 10 Correct answer.Your
answer is correct. In one tree harvesting model called ___, in the first
year of harvest, undesirable tree species and dead or diseased trees are
removed and then subsequent harvests occur at intervals of several
years, allowing time for remaining trees to grow. Entry field with
correct answer clear-cutting even-age harvesting selective cutting
shelterwood cutting Question 11 Correct answer. Your answer is
correct. Which of the following can be found in U.S. National Parks?
Entry field with correct answer Significant modern architecture.
Economically significant areas or buildings. Historic battlefields. Farm
land. Question 12 Correct answer. Your answer is correct. Which of
the following statements regarding rangelands in the United States is
TRUE? Entry field with correct answer Approximately 50% of the total
land area in the United States is rangeland, and most of it is located
east of the Mississippi. The condition of U.S. rangelands which declined
starting in the 1930s, at the time of the Dust Bowl, have continued to
be on the decline largely due to the lack of federal legislation. Public
rangelands in the U.S. are managed by the National Park Service with a
preservation mandate and thus cannot be used for grazing private
livestock. Restoration of degraded rangeland in the U.S. is a slow and
costly process but effective as a result of techniques that include
seeding in places where plant cover is sparse or absent, conducting

controlled burns to suppress shrubby plants, constructing fences to
allow rotational grazing, and controlling invasive weeds. Question 13
Correct answer. Your answer is correct. What is the relationship of
overgrazing to desertification? Entry field with correct answer
Overgrazing is the destruction of a grassland ecosystem; desertification
is the destruction of a desert ecosystem. Overgrazing results in barren
exposed soil; if erosion continues, it contributes to desertification.
Overgrazing is brought about by livestock operations; desertification is
brought about by crop cultivation. Overgrazing and desertification are
both a result of the introduction of non-native species coupled with
extended droughts. Question 14 Correct answer. Your answer is
correct. Which of the following statements about the Forest
Stewardship Council is TRUE? Entry field with correct answer The FSC is
a German organization that acts as a legitimate third party in certifying
wood that is harvested using environmentally sound and socially
responsible practices. FSC certification is based on the sustainability of
the timber resource, socioeconomic benefits provided to local people,
and maintenance of forest ecosystem health. FSC is criticized by some
who are skeptical about the reliability of FSC investigations and the
economic viability of this type of forestry. All of the statements are
true. Question 15 Correct answer. Your answer is correct. What is
an important ecosystem service provided by forests? Entry field with
correct answer They fix large amounts of oxygen, removing it from the
atmosphere They promote soil erosion They maintain watersheds They
provide habitat for a few animal species Question 16 Your answer is
correct. The photo below BEST illustrates: a wildlife corridor a clear-cut
rangeland tundra Question 17 Correct answer. Your answer is
correct. A legal agreement that protects privately owned rangelands,

forests or other property from development for a specified number of
years is termed: Entry field with correct answer a public rangeland. a
national park. a conservation easement. a wildlife corridor. Question 18
Your answer is correct. In terms of sustainable agriculture, what is
being done at point A in the diagram below to minimize commercial
inorganic fertilizer inputs? 1. using monoculture to minimize different
forms of fertilizers needed 2. using legume-based crops for nitrogen
fixation 3. using flat land to control fertilizer runoff 4. using animal
manure 1 only 2 only 3 only 4 only 2 and 4 Question 19 Your answer is
correct. Which of the following is not a serious concern with the type of
pesticide application illustrated below? harming species other than the
ones for which the pesticide is intended inability of the pesticide to
readily break down into safe materials such as water, carbon dioxide,
and oxygen mobility of the pesticide through water runoff pest species
evolving genetic resistance to pesticides ease of application to ensure
that all plants are equally treated with pesticide Question 20 The main
cause of undernutrition is Entry field with incorrect answer a shift from
eating grains to eating processed foods. lack of access to adequate
nutritional guides. poverty. the proliferation of monoculture practices.
unsanitary cooking of food. Question 21 Correct answer. Your
answer is correct. A potential benefit of genetic engineering is the
development of crop plants Entry field with correct answer resistant to
viral diseases, drought, heat, or herbicides. with genes that can spread
to wild relatives of crop plants. that contain no allergens. that grow in a
crop circle. that require sunlight and water to grow. Question 22
Correct answer. Your answer is correct. The condition in which people
live with chronic hunger and malnutrition is ___. Entry field with correct
answer food crisis subsistence agriculture famine bioaccumulation food

insecurity Question 23 Correct answer. Your answer is correct. If
pesticide from a farm runs off into Lake Michigan, which organism in
the lake’s food chain would test highest for the pesticide? Entry field
with correct answer macroinvertebrates (shrimp) zooplankton
(microscopic animals) phytoplankton (algae) forage fish (perch) fish
eaters (birds) Question 24 Correct answer. Your answer is correct.
What is the green revolution? Entry field with correct answer the
storage of germplasm in seed banks development of high-yield crops
that require intensive industrial cultivation methods agricultural
production that does not use pesticides, irrigation or artificial fertilizers
a shift from industrialized agriculture to subsistence-oriented croplands
a renovation of agricultural practices to decrease the amount of
calories produced per acre Question 25 Correct answer. Your
answer is correct. Integrated pest management incorporates all of the
following methods except Entry field with correct answer crop rotation.
antibiotic application. disease-resistant crop varieties. pheromone
traps. limited use of pesticides.
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ENV 100T Week 1 Discussion
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What are at least two major environmental challenges faced by
society? How did your results from the “Build Your Proficiency”
Diagnostic reflect an understanding, or lack of understanding, about
these challenges? What new information have you learned this week
that might describe the effect of these challenges on society?
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ENV 100T Week 1 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam
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ENV 100T Week 1 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam In this graded assignment,
you are assessed on the content covered in this weeks’ readings,
activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it is recommended
that you first complete this week’s Learning Path and Self-Test Learning
Activities prior to completing this exam. Click on the Assignments link in
WileyPLUS to access the Week 1 Exam. Complete the Week 1 Exam
covering this week’s assigned readings:  Ch. 1: The Environmental
Challenges We Face Ch. 2: Sustainability and Human Values  Ch.
3: Environmental History, Politics, and Policy Note: Work submitted in
WileyPLUS does not count toward attendance. Be sure to post at least
two times each week in the online classroom to avoid being auto-
dropped from the course. Question 1 What is the environmental
significance of the process of “consumption”? Consumption can

outstrip the natural resources available and lead to overexploitation of
the environment. Extravagant consumption can create an environment
of raising one’s status among peers. The process of consumption is an
economic act, providing the “demand” necessary for the “supply” of
the environment. Consumption can generate economic growth that
relies significantly on the importation of natural resources, which
benefits the environments of less-developed countries. Question 2
Which of the following describes the relationship among population
growth, consumption of natural resources, and environmental
degradation? When individual demands on natural resources are far
greater than the requirements for survival, people in affluent nations
deplete resources and degrade the global environment through
increased consumption of nonessential items to satisfy their desires.
Rapid population growth does not overwhelm and deplete a country’s
soils, forests, and other natural resources when the amount of
resources essential to an individual’s survival is small. Rate of resource
consumption affects the environment far less that the explosion in
population. There is no relationship between population growth,
consumption of natural resources, and environmental degradation.
Question 3 Non-renewable resource is to renewable resource as living
is to non-living. limited supply is to sustainable supply. tree is to coal.
wind energy is to fossil fuel energy. Question 4 Examples of non-
sustainable human activities or behaviors include: recycling attempts to
limit human population growth using technology to improve car
mileage use of non-renewable fossil fuels Question 5 In the scientific
method, a hypothesis is a statement of fact makes a prediction that can
be tested is usually proven to be correct can only be tested once
Question 6 A state agency has contacted you to do a scientific

assessment of kudzu in a nature preserve in southern Georgia. They are
concerned about the effects of the non-native invasive vine on a small
rare plant that grows on the forest floor in the preserve, but which is
found nowhere else in the state. Kudzu is only growing in the east side
of the preserve because it hasn’t yet had time to invade further. In
order to assess the effects of kudzu on the rare plant, you set up the
following experiment: Site 1. On the east side of the park with the
kudzu, you set up ten 1m × 1m plots on the forest floor. In each plot
you count the number of individuals of the rare plant. Site 2. On the
west side of the park without the kudzu, you set up ten 1m × 1m plots
of the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of individuals of
the rare plant. Which of the following represents the hypothesis that
you are testing with this experiment? Kudzu will eventually grow on the
west side of the park. Kudzu will kill off the trees in the preserve by
strangling them. Kudzu should be removed from the preserve because
it is killing the rare plant. Kudzu is negatively affecting populations of
the rare plant in the preserve. Question 7 All of the following
statements describe environmental science EXCEPT: The goal of
environmental science is to try to establish general principles about
how the natural world functions. Environmental scientists seek to
develop viable solutions to environmental problems that are based as
much as possible on scientific knowledge. Since environmental
problems are generally complex and scientific understanding of them is
often less complete, environmental scientists are often called on to
reach scientific consensus before the data are complete. No exceptions,
all of the above statements describe environmental science. Question 8
Community members bring information, preferences, and goals that
must be incorporated into a policy decisions during which of the five

stages of solving an environmental problem? Scientific assessment Risk
analysis Public engagement Political consideration Long term
environmental management Question 9 What is deep ecology
worldview? A radical anthropocentric worldview. A worldview based on
the idea that all species have equal worth. An idea that resource
consumption is unethical. An expansionist worldview. Question 10
Sustainable human activities or behaviors include all of the following
EXCEPT: identifying strategies for recycling natural resources. working
to limit human population growth. developing technologies to improve
car mileage. promoting consumption to improve quality of life.
Question 11 The issue that racial and ethnic minorities face unusually
high exposure to environmental hazards is a central argument to: racial
prejudice environmental justice voluntary simplicity phytoremediation
Question 12 What worldview does this photograph BEST represent? A
deep ecology worldview. A sustainable consumption worldview. A
western worldview. Any environmental worldview. Question 13 Which
of the following interact to promote sustainable development? 1
Economically viable decisions 2 Socially equitable decisions 3
Environmentally sound decisions 4 High rate of resources use 5 Rapid
population growth 1 and 3 2 and 4 1, 2, and 3 3, 4, and 5 1, 4, and 5
Question 14 What does the image below represent and how does it
relate to designing sustainable cities? Residents of squatter community,
like this one, must be evicted in order to achieve the goal of making
cities more sustainable. Comparing the squatter community in the
foreground to the skyscrapers in the back shows how a city can be
transformed when sustainable city design is embraced as a goal for re-
development. Squatter communities, due to their lower resource
consumption, should be left unchanged as living in such conditions is

compatible with the goals of sustainable living. Squatter settlements
should be improved to provide basic service such as clean water to
drink, sewage treatment, and garbage pickup so as to provide a better
quality of life for the poorest of the poor. Question 15 Environmental
sustainability implies: the actions of humans directly impact the
wellbeing of the natural environment future generations will have the
resources necessary for quality of life the environment can function
indefinitely without going into a decline from the stresses imposed by
human society on natural systems all of these choices Question 16 A
deep ecology worldview would support all of the following EXCEPT:
Nonhuman life forms have value that is independent of the usefulness
they may have for narrow human purposes. The richness and diversity
of life contribute to the flourishing of life on Earth and humans have no
right to reduce this richness and diversity except to satisfy vital needs.
The inherent responsibility of individuals to implement changes in
society so that humans can flourish. A spiritual respect for life reflected
in appreciating quality of life rather than adhering to a high standard of
living. Question 17 What does the diagram below illustrate? EIS NEPA
NIMBY Kyoto Protocol Question 18 Pollution is considered an external
cost because; it has a harmful effect borne only by people who
purchased the product that caused it. its cost to the environment is not
reflected in the price of the product that produces it. it has a significant
impact on the consumer’s decision to buy the product that causes it. it
is a hidden cost that would increase demand if the consumer were
aware of it. Question 19 Which of the following definitions best
describes an environmentalist? A lawyer who works on environmental
law. Writers who write about the environmental impact of corporate
America. Someone who is concerned about the environment. A

scientist who studies the interactions of plants and animals. Question
20 All of the following are examples of conservation EXCEPT:
Phoenicians terraced hilly farmland to prevent soil erosion Americans
set aside areas as national parks to maintain them in a pristine state
Greeks practiced crop rotation to maintain yields on farmland English
regulated the number of sheep that can graze in a particular field
Question 21 Which of the following is NOT considered in determining
net domestic product? GDP population size natural capital profit from
use of natural resources Question 22 Whose name is associated with
the concept of the land ethic and in which book did he make this
argument? George Perkins Marsh in Man and Nature Henry David
Thoreau in Walden John Muir in The Yosemite Aldo Leopold in Sand
County Almanac Question 23 Laws that impose rules and regulations
and set limits of pollution are called: command and control.
environmental impact statements. legislative documents. legislative
directives. Question 24 According to the graph below: As more and
more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of
removing each additional unit of pollution decreases. As more and
more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost of
removing each additional unit of pollution increases. Cost of pollution
removal is constant regardless of how polluted an area is. Cost of
pollution is relative to the type of pollution. Question 25 What is the
BEST definition of conservation? Setting aside land and natural
resources. Careful management of land and resources. Using land and
natural resources based on current needs. Protecting land and natural
resources from human activity.
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ENV 100T Week 1-5 All Wileyplus Exams
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After you have completed your Learning Path for the week, think about
the Human Population Growth animation. Knowing the world
population projection for 2050, how do you think we will be able to
sustain those projections? What changes will need to occur? Could the

birth and death rates equal each other sooner? How did your results
from the “Build Your Proficiency” Diagnostic reflect an understanding,
or lack of understanding, about this content? How has your
understanding changed this week?
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you are assessed on the content covered in this week’s readings,
Activities prior to completing this exam. Complete the Week 2
WileyPLUS Weekly Exam covering this week’s assigned readings: Ch.
5: How Ecosystems Work Ch. 6: Ecosystems and Evolution  Ch.
7: Human Population Change and the Environment Note: Work
submitted in WileyPLUS does not count toward attendance. Be sure to
post at least two times each week in the online classroom to avoid
being auto-dropped from the course. Question 1 Which of the following
processes plays an important role in the phosphorus cycle? erosion
nitrogen fixation combustion cellular respiration Question 2 Your
answer is correct. The nitrogen cycle is one of the most important and

complex of the biogeochemical cycles. Why is nitrogen important? It’s
an Ozone depleting gas It’s an essential part of biological molecules
such as proteins and nucleic acids (DNA) It’s the most toxic element to
living organisms Nitrogen dilutes the oxygen in the atmosphere causing
respiratory problems Question 3 What is landscape ecology? the study
of human-designed communities. the study of the influences of
pollution on natural ecosystems. a science exclusively concerned with
terrestrial ecosystems. the study of the connections among various
ecosystems. Question 4 Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Predation only favors the predator with the evolution of more efficient
ways to catch prey. Predation only favors the prey with the evolution of
more efficient ways to escape predators. Predation exerts a selective
force on the prey, favoring characteristics that reduce the probability of
capture. Predation exerts a selective force on the predator, favoring
characteristics that reduce the probability of prey capture. Question 5
What do we call an area of land that runoff drains into? watershed
estuary groundwater niche Question 6 How would an ecologist classify
both the animals shown below? decomposers primary consumers
producers carnivores Question 7 Nitrogen gas accounts for what
percentage of the atmosphere? 0.03% 1% approximately 50% 78%
Question 8 What is an organism’s role, or lifestyle, within the structure
of an ecosystem called? habitat. trophic level. symbiotic relationship.
ecological niche. Question 9 What biome is most likely to have the
following temperature and rainfall profile? savanna boreal forest
tropical rainforest temperate deciduous forests Question 10 Which of
the following statements about wildfires is TRUE? They are always
damaging for natural environments. They release nutrient minerals that
were locked in dry organic material. They encourage the growth of

shade-resistant plants. They result in the destruction of the
underground stems and buds of grasses. Question 11 Individuals within
a population each have a unique combination of traits, which is known
as: Genetic variation. Reproductive capacity. Evolution. Differential
reproductive success. Question 12 Where would you expect to find the
littoral zone of a lake? Shallow water area along the shore Open water
area farther from shore with enough sunlight for photosynthesis
Deepest known, where light typically does not penetrate effectively
Bottom region where organisms tend to attach themselves to one spot
Question 13 Which of the following biomes has the HIGHEST
biodiversity? boreal forest temperate grassland temperate rain forest
tropical rain forest Question 14 Which of the following organizational
hierarchies is correct? ecosystem landscape community biome biome
community landscape ecosystem community ecosystem landscape
biome landscape community ecosystem biome Question 15 Which of
the following organisms would be members of a pioneer community on
bare rock? grass lichens shrubs ferns Question 16 Which of the
following does NOT apply to freshwater wetlands? Anaerobic
conditions Accumulation of organic material Water-tolerant vegetation
Drought resistant plants Question 17 What are the three main
ecological categories of organisms found in aquatic ecosystems?
plankton, nekton, fish plankton, benthos, littoral plankton, nekton,
benthos benthos, mangal, littoral Question 18 Compact development in
urban areas benefits the environment in all of the following ways
EXCEPT: by reversing the trend towards urbanization. by reducing air
pollution. by preserving rural areas. by increasing open space. Question
19 Which factors eventually cause birth rates to decline during a
demographic transition? Birth rates decline due to improved health

care and modern medicines. Birth rates decline due to increased
education of women. Birth rates decline due to increased contraceptive
use. All of these choices ultimately contribute to declining birth rates.
Question 20 How do demographers typically measure mortality (death)
rate? deaths per 1000 persons per year. deaths per person per year.
the number of children who die per year. the total number of deaths
per generation. Question 21 Which of the following statements about
the graph shown is TRUE? Only Nigeria’s population growth rate is
increasing. China’s and Brasil’s fertility rate is below replacement level
fertility. Only Egypt’s fertility rate is above replacement level fertility.
Mexico and Brazil are both below replacement level fertility. Question
22 Why are high fertility rates generally prevalent in developing
countries? Children contribute to the family’s livelihood. Children must
care for aging parents. Male children are culturally more desirable, so
families continue to have children until male children are born. All of
the choices. Question 23 Which of the following statements about
population ecology is TRUE? Population ecology only deals with
declining populations that are in need of intervention in order to
survive. Population ecology focuses on individuals and their
interactions, but not the abiotic environment. Population ecology
attempts to explain how and why the number of individuals in a given
area changes over time. Population ecology is not important to
scientists in applied disciplines, such as wildlife management. Question
24 What is the cause of global human population growth over the last
200 years? Higher birth rate Higher fecundity rate Increase in
immigration Lower death rate Question 25 What can be interpreted for
the following two graphs regarding literacy and fertility rates? In
general, there are more illiterate men than women. The total number

of children a woman has during her life is affected by her education –
the more educated a woman is, the greater the number of children she
has. Almost 70% of Bangladeshi women and 50% of Bangladeshi men
are able to read and write. Based on the connection between education
and fertility rates, one would predict that the fertility rate in Mexico
would be lower than the fertility rate in Ethiopia as literacy rates are
higher in Mexico.
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What are the current practices for wasteland and habitat reclamation?
Discuss how these practices are related to new technology, ecological
principles, and political and economic factors. How did your results
from the “Build Your Proficiency” Diagnostic reflect an understanding,
or lack of understanding, about this content? How has your
understanding changed this week?
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you are assessed on the content covered in this week’s readings,
that you first complete this week’s Learning Path and Self-Test learning
activities prior to completing this exam. Complete the Week 3 Exam
covering this week’s assigned readings:  Ch. 12: Mineral and Soil
Resources  Ch. 13: Land Resources  Ch. 14: Agriculture and
Food Resources Note: Work submitted in WileyPLUS does not count
toward attendance. Be sure to post at least two times each week in the
online classroom to avoid being auto-dropped from the course.
Question 1 Which of the following statements about nutrient cycling is
TRUE? Bacteria and fungi are involved in nutrient cycling as they
decompose detritus transforming large organic molecules into small
inorganic molecules, including carbon dioxide, water, and nutrient
minerals like nitrates. Nutrient cycling is the pathway of various
nutrient minerals or elements from the environment through
organisms and back to the environment. Nonliving processes are also
involved in nutrient cycling, such as the weathering of the parent
material replaces some nutrient minerals lost through erosion. All of
the above statements are true about nutrient cycling. Question 2 What
is the MAIN requirement of reclaiming land degraded by any type of
mining operation? To restore them to the same type of ecosystem that
existed before mining began on that site. To stabilize the soil so that

further degradation does not occur. To create areas for housing
subdivisions. To comply with federal law. Question 3 Which minerals
would be used to make the following products? A = zinc; B = gypsum A
= molybdenum; B = sulfur A = mercury; B = potassium A = nickel; B =
magnesium Question 4 Subduction occurs: when one tectonic plate
slides underneath another. due to mining activities. because of the
Coriolis effect. on the leeward side of a mountain. Question 5 Planting
the same crop year after year: increases damage by insects and disease.
decreases soil erosion. does not deplete essential nutrients from the
soil. will slowly increase crop yields. Question 6 The TWO main reasons
that certain areas are not suitable for agriculture are: soil is too dry and
soil has chemical problems (e.g. salinization) soil is too shallow and soil
is too wet soil is too wet and soil is too dry soil is frozen and soil has
chemical problems (e.g. salinization) Question 7 Why does this soil have
no O-horizon? The O- horizon has been plowed under for agriculture.
Considerable leaching has eliminated the O- horizon. Soil erosion has
eliminated the O- horizon. Forest soils like this one have no O-horizon.
Question 8 Which of the following statements about soil is NOT TRUE?
Soil consists of mineral and organic matter modified by the natural
actions of agents such as weather, wind, water, and organisms. Soil
formation is a continuous process that takes a long time, sometimes
thousands of years, both because the process of rock disintegrating into
fine mineral particles is slow, and time is also required for organic
material to accumulate in the soil. An area’s terrain influences soil
formation — steep slopes encourage soil formation and accumulation
while valleys discourage the formation of deep soils. Minerals, the main
component of soil, provide anchorage and essential nutrient minerals
for plants, as well as pore space for water and air. Question 9 Increased

soil erosion may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT: construction
of buildings. construction of roads. construction of shelterbelts.
clearcutting large forested areas. Question 10 Sustainable forestry:
seeks to conserve forests for the long-term commercial harvest of
timber and non-timber forest products by maintaining a mix of forest
trees, by age and species, rather than imposing a monoculture. due to
the complexity of goals, is most effective when it involves cooperation
among environmentalists, loggers, farmers, indigenous peoples, and
local, state, and federal governments. approaches vary from one forest
ecosystem to another, in response to different environmental, cultural,
and economic conditions. is all of the above. Question 11 The area
shown in the photograph below is an example of: clear cutting contour
farming monoculture selective cutting Question 12 How are wilderness
areas different from national parks? Only wilderness areas contain
large populations of predators like wolves or grizzly bears. No human
development is allowed in wilderness areas. Except for research
purposes, people are not allowed to visit wilderness areas. Wilderness
areas allow grazing and some timber removal. Question 13 In the US
land is managed by four government agencies, of which the ___ is the
only one NOT in the Department of the Interior. National Park Service
U.S. Forest Service U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Bureau of Land
Management Question 14 A legal agreement that protects privately
owned rangelands, forests or other property from development for a
specified number of years is termed: a public rangeland. a national
park. a conservation easement. a wildlife corridor. Question 15 Which
of the following is NOT a way to slow deforestation? By replanting
trees. By managing commercial logging operations. By promoting
additional slash-and-burn agricultural practices. By discouraging

plantation style agriculture of crops like bananas and palm oil. Question
16 Federally owned land encompasses all of the following EXCEPT: land
that that contains important resources such as minerals and fossil fuels
land that possesses historical or cultural significance land that provides
critical biological habitat no exceptions, all of the above are examples
of federally owned land Question 17 Habitat corridors are intended to
provide: additional habitat fragmentation. increase in species richness
within forest monocultures. a means for controlling insect pests and
invasive species. a means of migration so animals can interbreed.
Question 18 Subsistence agricultural practices are characterized by all
of the following attributes except use of manure as fertilizer. use of
draft animals for labor source. water and fossil fuel energy
conservation. high crop yield per acre. limited use of agrochemicals.
Question 19 One of the problems associated with the “green
revolution” is that not enough food is produced for developing
countries. it is confined to highly developed countries. it makes
developing countries dependent on high-energy consuming imported
technologies. it has been rejected by developing countries due to
conflicts with customary practices. technology is not advanced enough
to make it cost effective. Question 20 Pesticides are effective in
decreasing the cost of subsistence farming. increasing the crop damage
due to competition with weeds. small concentrations but not in large
concentrations. controlling some organisms that cause diseases in
humans. attracting particular insects to an area. Question 21 The move
away from using techniques that produce high yield and toward
methods that focus on long-term sustainability of the soil is known as
habitat fragmentation. subsistence agriculture. industrialized
agriculture. the green revolution. the second green revolution.

Question 22 Which of the following is not a problem associated with
industrial agriculture? soil erosion depletion of fossil fuels disposal of
livestock wastes habitat fragmentation none, these are all problems
associated with industrial agriculture Question 23 Which of the
following uses of pesticide can lead to ecological imbalance? pesticides
alter the genetic resistance in populations causing the pests to persist.
pesticides kill prey thereby causing predators to starve or migrate. Then
the prey population rebounds larger than before since predators are
gone. bioaccumulation of pesticides in animal tissue can lead to
extinction of species. pesticides show mobility, moving other than
where they were applied inadvertently killing non-pest organisms. all of
the above. Question 24 The decline of Peregrine falcons in the United
States due to the use of DDT is an example of? biological magnification
bioaccumulation genetic resistance green revolution biological
resistance Question 25 Which type of pesticide has fewer deleterious
environmental effects? Why? narrow-spectrum pesticide because it
focuses on killing specific organisms narrow-spectrum pesticide
because it stays exactly where it is sprayed broad-spectrum pesticide
because it moves around the environment to reach all potential pests
broad-spectrum pesticide because insects cannot develop resistance to
it neither broad and narrow-spectrum pesticides have deleterious
environmental effects
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WileyPLUS to access the Week 4 Exam. Complete the Week 4
WileyPLUS Weekly Exam covering this week’s assigned readings: Ch.
8: Air and Air Pollution  Ch. 9: Global and Atmospheric Changes 
Ch. 10: The Ocean and Fisheries  Ch. 16: Solid and
Hazardous Wastes Note: Work submitted in WileyPLUS does not count
toward attendance. Be sure to post at least two times each week in the
online classroom to avoid being auto-dropped from the course.
Question 1 Smaller cars, removal of sulfur from coal, and cooler
combustion temperatures are examples of ways to: reduce the total
amount of pollutants produced. reduce total amounts of pollutants
after they are produced. conserve energy. reduce CFC production.
Question 2 Why did lead pollution decrease significantly after the
creation of the Clean Air Act? Lead is now removed from coal before it
is used as fuel. Electrostatic precipitators mandated by the Clean Air Act
have greatly decreased the amount of lead being emitted from
smokestacks. Catalytic converters in cars greatly reduce the amount of
lead emitted. Leaded gasoline was outlawed. Question 3 Electrostatic
precipitators use electrical charges to attract and track what
pollutants? Ozone. Particulates. Sulfur oxides. Nitrogen oxides.
Question 4 Which other indoor air pollutant increases the risk of radon-

related cancers? Formaldehyde from carpets and furniture. Tobacco
smoke from cigarettes. Para-dichlorobenzene from moth balls and air
fresheners. Nitrogen oxides from unvented gas stoves. Question 5 The
National Academy of Sciences estimate 12% of all lung cancers are
related to radioactivity caused by which of the following? The burning
of coal. Nuclear power plants. Residual atmospheric radiation related to
nuclear weapons testing. Natural emissions that occur as uranium
breaks down. Question 6 Why are illnesses from indoor air pollution
often overlooked? They resemble common ailments like colds or flu.
They usually result long after exposure. They only occur in developing
countries. They are easily controlled using modern healthcare.
Question 7 What helps maintain global oxygen concentrations in the
troposphere? Oxygen levels remain balanced by photosynthesis and
cellular respiration. Photosynthesis replaces oxygen loss to air
pollutants like NOx, SOx, and ozone. The burning of fossil fuels since the
Industrial Revolution has helped maintain oxygen concentrations in the
atmosphere. Excess oxygen is broken down by ozone in the upper
atmosphere. Question 8 Which of the following activities is responsible
for the largest percentage of human-made carbon dioxide emissions?
burning fossil fuels deforestation ozone depletion acid deposition
agriculture Question 9 Although widespread thermometer records have
only been kept since the mid-19th century, scientists can reconstruct
historical temperature data in the following ways except: tree ring
analysis air bubbles in ancient ice ocean sediment fossilized dinosaur
bones Question 10 Which of the following activities will not mitigate
global climate? developing energy alternatives like wind and solar
switching to hybrid cars planting and maintaining forests eating more
beef Question 11 The figure reflects the differences in how sunlight

strikes the Earth at different places. Which of the statements below can
be inferred from this diagram? 1.Desk lamp A represents the vertical
angle of the sun at the equator showing that sunlight is more
concentrated here. 2. Desk lamp B represents the oblique angle of the
sun at the equator showing that there is a larger area over which the
sun shines. 3. Desk lamps A and B represent the possible different
angles of the sun striking the northern hemisphere in the summer
depending on how the Earth’s axis tilts – A means a hotter summer, B
means a cooler one. 1 only 2 only 3 only 1 & 2 only Question 12 What
can be interpreted from the following graph? 1. The graph shows that
the Earth’s surface temperatures do naturally fluctuate. 2. The graph
shows that there has been a warming trend in the last several decades.
1 only 2 only 1 & 2 None of these choices Question 13 What is the fate
of solar radiation that reaches the Earth? Most solar radiation is
absorbed by gases in the atmosphere. Most solar radiation is reflected
by snow, ice, and light colored land. Most solar radiation is absorbed by
the land and ocean. An equal amount of solar radiation is absorbed by
land, air, and water as is reflected back into space. Question 14 The
area of land drained by a single river or stream is called: cisterns.
aquifer. watershed. reservoirs. Question 15 What is probably the BEST
way for industry to reduce water waste? Decrease industrial production
Increased irrigation use Switching to dry production of industrial goods
Reuse and recycle wastewater on site Question 16 Which of the
following is NOT an example of nonpoint source pollution? Agricultural
runoff Erosion from logging operations Acid mine drainage Sewage
treatment plant effluent Question 17 What is the major difference in
the fate of precipitation after urbanization? Evaporation and
transpiration decreases. Surface runoff increases. Ground water

infiltration decreases. All of these choices. Question 18 Three-fourths of
the world’s 200 major watersheds are shared between at least ___
nations. two three four five Question 19 The area bordering a river
channel that has the potential to flood is called: wetland drainage basin
floodplain recharge zone Question 20 Plastics pose a special problem
for sanitary landfills because 1. plastics are the most rapidly
accumulated component of municipal solid waste. 2. plastics attract
harmful microorganisms and bacteria to the landfill. 3. plastics move
upward to the surface creating a fire hazard. 4. most plastics are
chemically stable and do not readily decompose. 1 only 2 only 3 only 4
only 1 and 4 Question 21 Integrated Waste Management is a set of
waste disposal alternatives that include all of the following except
incineration. composting. sanitary landfill. relocation of waste to
developing nations. reuse. Question 22 What is an economic benefit of
recycling? use of energy and generation of pollution for curbside
collection increase use of sanitary landfill generates jobs and revenues
from selling of recycled products use of natural resources in
reprocessing materials recycling has no economic benefit Question 23
What is the Superfund National Priorities List? the federal inventory of
green chemistry locations the existing hazardous waste sites that pose
the greatest threat to public health federally approved locations for the
long-term storage of toxic chemicals current policy on how to handle
chemical accidents a list of bodies of water in the U.S. that have not
been polluted Question 24 The term for crushed glass containers
destined to be melted and reused to manufacture new products is ___.
scrap dioxin leachate slag cullet Question 25 Integrated waste
management refers to dilution and dispersal of chemicals. use of
federal lands for hazardous waste disposal. a combination of source

reduction, reuse, recycling, composting. Landfills and incineration.
uniting municipal and nonmunicipal waste management programs.
using incineration as a single technique for waste disposal.
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ENV 100T Week 5 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam In this graded assignment
WileyPLUS to access the Week 5 Exam. Complete the Week 5 Exam
covering this week’s assigned readings:  Ch. 17: Nonrenewable
Energy Resources  Ch. 18: Renewable Energy Resources Note: Work
submitted in WileyPLUS does not count toward attendance. Be sure to
post at least two times each week in the online classroom to avoid
being auto-dropped from the course. Question 1 Nuclear energy is
released by splitting two electrons. by joining a proton with a neutron.
by breaking a chemical bond between two atoms. by splitting an atomic
nucleus into two smaller fragments. by combustion of uranium ore.
Question 2 What is the function of the device diagramed below? to

maintain a constant temperature for U-235. to control the fission chain
reaction to produce energy for electricity. to store spent fuel rods from
nuclear reactors for at least 40 years. to filter CO2 generated by the
fission of U-235 nuclei. a reservoir for enriching U-235. Question 3 All of
the following statements are true about surface mining except Strip
mining is an example of surface mining. It accounts for 60% of the coal
mined in the U.S. Surface mining is the most hazardous type of mining
for workers. Surface mining is a less expensive mining process than
subsurface mining. Mountaintop removal is an example of surface
mining. Question 4 What is a major issue with the type of mining
illustrated below? fluidized-bed combustion acid precipitation risk of
earthquakes safety risk to mine employees land degradation Question 5
What is a critical difference between surface and subsurface mining?
Surface mining is more expensive than subsurface mining Surface
mining is above ground; subsurface mining is below ground Surface
mining causes less environmental damage than subsurface mining
Subsurface mining creates acid mine drainage; surface mining does not
Subsurface mining has the potential for dangerous landslides; surface
mining has the potential for cave-ins Question 6 What legislation
provides incentives for utility companies to convert to clean coal
technologies? Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation,
and Liability Act of 1980 Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of
1977 Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 Resource Conservation and
Recovery Act of 1976 Superfund National Priorities Act of 2007
Question 7 What is acid mine drainage? pollution caused when
rainwater seeps through iron sulfide minerals exposed in mine wastes
photochemical reactions between particulates and water vapor residue
from sulfur and nitrogen compounds found in coal dust acid

precipitation caused by emissions from burning coal a low pH fuel that
is synthesized from natural gas Question 8 Which of the following
activities is mismatched with its environmental consequence? surface
mining: acid mine drainage polluting rivers coal-burning electric plants:
acid deposition destroying forests mountaintop removal mining: mine
tailings and debris filling valleys strip mining: oil spills killing wildlife
burning fossil fuels: release of CO2, a potent greenhouse gas Question 9
Which of the following is an example of high-level radioactive waste?
glassware giving off small amounts of ionizing radiation paper
contaminated by radioactivity reactor coolant fluid lab coat used in an
area where radioactive material is present filters from sampling devices
that test for radioactive contamination Question 10 Mountaintop
removal is an example of ___ mining. subsurface surface shaft
combustion integrated Question 11 Negative environmental impacts
from oil and natural gas production may occur due to release of oxides
in combustion emissions. accidental spills at extraction sites and during
transport. erosion and landslides during withdrawal of resources.
improper storage and disposal of spent fuel. unintentional release of
methane into atmosphere. Question 12 What does the Oil Pollution Act
of 1990 legislate for environmental disasters such as the one pictured
below? hazardous pay for clean-up workers tidal barriers to help
prevent the spread of oil slicks a remediation protocol for impacted
wildlife populations requires that, by 2015, oil be transported by land
and not sea a trust fund that pays to clean up oil spills when the
responsible party cannot Question 13 Tidal energy cannot become a
significant resource worldwide because the accompanying tidal waves
cause too much environmental destruction. the equipment required to
harness this energy is not yet. few areas have large enough differences

in water level between high and low tides to make power generation
feasible. sand damages the equipment. tidal energy can become a
significant resource worldwide. Question 14 The best example of an
energy storage element in a solar energy system is the natural gas in a
propane tank that can be used for cooking. structural overhang that
blocks sunlight in a passively cooled home. insulated windows in a
passively heated solar home. hot water tank of a solar hot water
system. sun-tracking mirrors in a power tower system. Question 15
Photovoltaic systems are characterized by all of the following except
directly converting sunlight into electricity. minimal maintenance.
producing no pollution. functioning on cloudy or rainy days. minimal
space requirement for large-scale use. Question 16 Which of the
following is a good energy efficiency practice for those with existing
homes? replace the existing insulation with a higher quality product.
board up windows on the north, east and west sides of the house.
install a gas-burning fireplace in the family room. pour a concrete
foundation between the ground and subfloor of the home. dial down
the water heater’s thermostat to knock 3-5 percent off your energy bill.
Question 17 Which of the following is more efficient (90%) than any
other energy source for producing electricity? hydropower wind energy
photovoltaic passive solar geothermal Question 18 Which of the
following biomass energy sources is incorrectly matched with its biofuel
product? sugar cane: alcohol oil used to make French fries: biodiesel
clay: biogas manure: methane wood: charcoal Question 19 Problems
associated with large hydropower dams and reservoirs include all of the
following except relocation of peoples’ homes. ecosystem destruction.
loss of biodiversity. air pollution. disruption of fish migration. Question
20 All of the following are disadvantages of photovoltaic solar cell

technology except the manufacturing process requires toxic industrial
chemicals. the amount of land needed to hold the number of solar
panels required for large-scale use. each panel’s low efficiency at
converting solar energy to electricity. the steadily increasing
manufacturing cost per watt over the last 35 years. the carbon dioxide
emissions that contribute to greenhouse gases. Question 21 Electric
meters can run backward for homeowners participating in net
metering. What does this mean? homeowners receive meter credit for
excess energy they generate and supply to the utility’s power grid the
up front costs for installing renewable energy is recovered by rewinding
the home’s electric meter if a homeowner uses less energy in one
month than the previous month, then the difference is subtracted from
the electric meter homeowners who voluntarily cut back on air
conditioning use are granted an electric credit a radio controlled
electric meter for remote monitoring allows the utility company to stop
the meter during peak demand periods Question 22 The disadvantages
of using wind energy to generate electricity include all of the following
except windmills kill birds. generation of sulfur dioxide, carbon dioxide,
and nitrogen oxides. degradation of an area’s scenic beauty. tying up
large parcels of land. distance to urban centers where electricity is most
needed. Question 23 What type of solar energy system is illustrated
below? passive solar heating system photovoltaic solar cell system solar
thermal electric generation solar-generated hydrogen fuel cell radiant
energy convection solar heating system Question 24 In rural areas of
developing countries, photovoltaic cells are used for all of the following
purposes except charging batteries. heating hot water heaters.
providing refrigeration for vaccines. grinding grain. pumping water.
Question 25 Which of the following best describes how this geothermal

heat pump works? the pressure of hot water from a deep well turns a
turbine and generates electricity. steam separated from hot water
pumped from underground turns a turbine and generates electricity.
water is transferred from a deep well to a coil exposed to solar
radiation to heat the water sufficiently to generate steam, which turns
a turbine and generates electricity. a pipe with heated oil is sent deep
into Earth to initiate a volcanic eruption then is tapped so that the
energy can be used to generate electricity. water is transferred from a
deep well into a hot water tank, which is kept at a constant
temperature by combustion of natural gas.
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