Question 1 Bonds that are secured by personal property are called Question 2 Leveraged buyouts are commonly financed by the issuance of: Question 3 Bonds issued by ____ are backed by the federal government.

1. FIN 350 Quiz 4
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Question 1
Bonds that are secured by personal property are called
Question 2
Leveraged buyouts are commonly financed by the issuance of:
Question 3
Bonds issued by ____ are backed by the federal government.
Question 4
The Treasury has relied heavily on ____-year bonds to finance the U.S.
budget deficit.
Question 5
The coupon rate of most variable-rate bonds is tied to

2. Question 6
Assume that you purchased corporate bonds one year ago that have no
protective covenants. Today, it is announced that the firm that issued the
bonds plans a leveraged buyout. The market value of your bonds will
likely ____ as a result.
Question 7
____ require the owner to clip coupons attached to the bonds and send
them to the issuer to receive coupon payments.
Question 8
Assume U.S. interest rates are significantly higher than German rates. A
U.S. firm with a German subsidiary could achieve a lower financing
rate, without exchange rate risk by denominating the bonds in
Question 9
Which of the following would not be a likely example of a protective
covenant provision?
Question 10
A ten-year, inflation-indexed bond has a par value of $10,000 and a
coupon rate of 5 percent. During the first six months since the bond was
issued, the inflation rate was 2 percent. Based on this information, the
coupon payment after six months will be $____.

3. Question 11
A call provision on bonds normally
Question 12
When firms issue ____, the amount of interest and principal to be paid is
based on specified market conditions. The amount of the repayment may
be tied to a Treasury bond price index or even to a stock index.
Question 13
Bonds that are not secured by specific property are called
Question 14
Investors in Treasury notes and bonds receive ____ interest payments
from the Treasury.
Question 15
When would a firm most likely call bonds?
Question 16
When two securities have the same expected cash flows, the value of the
____ security will be higher than the value of the ____ security.
Question 17

4. If investors rely strictly on modified duration to estimate the percentage
change in the price of a bond, they will tend to ____ the price decline
associated with an increase in rates and ____ the price increase
associated with a decrease in rates.
Question 18
As interest rates consistently rise over a specific period, the market price
of a bond you own would likely ____ over this period. (Assume no
major change in the bond's default risk.)
Question 19
The appropriate discount rate for valuing any bond is the
Question 20
Which of the following bonds is most susceptible to interest rate risk
from an investor's perspective?
Question 21
If analysts expect that the demand for loanable funds will decrease, and
the supply of loanable funds will increase, they would most likely expect
interest rates to ____ and prices of existing bonds to ____.
Question 22

5. Which of the following will most likely cause bond prices to increase?
(Assume no possibility of higher inflation in the future.)
Question 23
As interest rates increase, long-term bond prices
Question 24
From the perspective of investing institutions, the most attractive foreign
bonds offer a ____ and are denominated in a currency that ____ over the
investment horizon.
Question 25
The bonds that are most sensitive to interest rate movements have
Question 26
If a financial institution's bond portfolio contains a relatively large
portion of ____, it will be ____.
Question 27
As interest rates consistently decline over a specific period, the market
price of a bond you own would likely ____ over this period. (Assume no
major change in the bond's default risk.)
Question 28

6. With a(n) ____ strategy, funds are allocated to bonds with a short term
to maturity and bonds with a long term to maturity. Thus, this strategy
allocates some funds to achieving a relatively high return and other
funds to covering liquidity needs.
Question 29
In the ____ strategy, funds are allocated to bonds with a short term to
maturity and bonds with a long term to maturity.
Question 30
Which of the following formulas best describes the value of a bond?
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FIN 350 Quiz 5 Week 6
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Question 1
Mortgage-backed securities are assigned ratings by:

7. Question 2
Mortgage companies specialize in
Question 3
An institution that originates and holds a fixed-rate mortgage is
adversely affected by ____ interest rates; the borrower who was
provided the mortgage is adversely affected by ____ interest rates.
Question 4
____ are backed by conventional mortgages.
Question 5
____ economic growth will probably ____ the risk premium on
mortgages and ____ the price of mortgages.
Question 6
Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac experienced financial problems during the
credit crisis because they:
Question 7
Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) are generally perceived to
have
Question 8

8. Which of the following is not a common type of mortgage-backed
security according to your text?
Question 9
A mortgage with low initial payments that increase over time without
ever leveling off is a
Question 10
Which of the following will typically require homeowners to ultimately
request a new mortgage?
Question 11
Rates for adjustable-rate mortgages are commonly tied to the
Question 12
A ____ mortgage allows borrowers to initially make small payments on
the mortgage, which are then increased on a graduated basis over the
first five to ten years; payments then level off from there on.
Question 13
The interest rate on a second mortgage is ____ on a first mortgage
created at the same time, because the second mortgage is ____ the
existing first mortgage in priority claim against the property in the event
of default.

9. Question 14
Financial institutions that hold fixed-rate mortgages in their asset
portfolios are exposed to ____ risk, because they commonly use funds
obtained from short-term customer deposits to make long-term mortgage
loans.
Question 15
From the perspective of the lending financial institution, interest rate risk
is
Question 16
The ____ is a value-weighted index of stock prices of 500 large U.S.
firms.
Question 17
The ____ is a value-weighted average of stock prices of 30 large U.S.
firms.
Question 18
____ are employed by brokerage firms and execute orders for clients on
the floor of the NYSE.
Question 19

10. A firm can best avoid the time lag between registering new securities
with the SEC and actually selling them by
Question 20
When a firm buys some of its shares that it had previously issued, this is
referred to as a:
Question 21
The first-time issuance of shares by a specific firm to the public is
referred to as a(n)
Question 22
The prevailing price per share divided by the firm's earnings per share is
known as the
Question 23
American Depository Receipts (ADRs) are similar to
Question 24
____ sell shares to investors and use the proceeds to invest in portfolios
of international stocks created and managed by portfolio managers.
Question 25

11. Initial public offerings (IPOs) perform ____ on the day following the
IPO and ____ for periods of a year or longer after the IPO.
Question 26
"Pink sheets" are traded on the
Question 27
The process by which the lead underwriter solicits indications of interest
by institutional investors in an IPO at various possible ____ prices is
referred to as ____.
Question 28
____ are portfolios of international stocks created and managed by
various financial institutions.
Question 29
A firm will typically attempt to sell shares from a secondary offering
Question 30
A new stock issuance by a specific firm that already has stock
outstanding is referred to as a(n)
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12. FIN 350 Quiz 6
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Question 1
A stock's average return is 10 percent. The average risk-free rate is 7
percent. The standard deviation of the stock's return is 4 percent, and the
stock's beta is 1.5. What is the Treynor Index for the stock?
Question 2
The ____ index can be used to measure risk-adjusted performance of a
stock while controlling for the stock's beta.
Question 3
Technical analysis relies on the use of ____ to make investment
decisions.
Question 4
The Sharpe Index measures the
Question 5

13. The limitations of the dividend discount model are most pronounced for
a firm that
Question 6
The January effect refers to the ____ pressure on ____ stocks in January
of every year.
Question 7
If the returns of two stocks are perfectly correlated, then
Question 8
Which of the following is not commonly used as the estimate of a
stock's volatility?
Question 9
Stock prices of U.S. firms primarily involved in exporting are likely to
be ____ affected by a weak dollar and ____ affected by a strong dollar.
Question 10
The limitations of the dividend discount model are more pronounced
when valuing stocks
Question 11

14. ____ is (are) not a firm-specific factor(s) that affect(s) stock prices.
Question 12
The price-earnings valuation method applies the ____ price-earnings
ratio to ____ earnings per share in order to value the firm's stock.
Question 13
The formula for a stock portfolio's volatility does not contain the
Question 14
The ____ is not a measure of a stock's risk.
Question 15
A stock's beta can be measured from the estimate of the using regression
analysis.
Question 16
A(n) ____ is a standardized agreement to deliver or receive a specified
amount of a specified financial instrument at a specified price and date.
Question 17

15. According to the text, a futures contract on one financial instrument to
protect a position in a different financial instrument is known as
Question 18
If a financial institution expects that the market value of its municipal
bonds will decline because of economic conditions, it could hedge its
position by ____ futures contracts on ____.
Question 19
According to the text, when a financial institution sells futures contracts
on securities in order to hedge against a change in interest rates, this is
referred to as
Question 20
Currency futures may be purchased to hedge ____ or to capitalize on the
expected ____ of that currency against the dollar.
Question 21
____ risk is the risk that the position being hedged by a futures contract
is not affected in the same manner as the instrument underlying the
futures contract.
Question 22
An unexpected ____ in the consumer price index tends to create
expectations of ____ interest rates and places ____ pressure on Treasury
bond futures prices.

16. Question 23
Assume that speculators had purchased a futures contract at the
beginning of the year. If the price of a security represented by a futures
contract ____ over the year, then these speculators would likely have
purchased the futures contract for ____ than they can sell it for.
Question 24
Municipal Bond Index (MBI) futures
Question 25
Interest rate futures are not available on
Question 26
The initial margin of a futures contract is typically between ____ percent
of a futures contract's full value.
Question 27
Systemic risk reflects the risk that a particular event could
Question 28
The basis is the
Question 29

17. If speculators believe interest rates will ____, they would consider ____
a T-bill futures contract today.
Question 30
The profits of a financial institution with interest-rate sensitive liabilities
and interest rate-insensitive assets are ____ with hedging than without
hedging if interest rates decrease.
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FIN 350 Quiz 7
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Question 1
Which of the following is most likely to provide currency forward
contracts to their customers?
Question 2
____ forecasting is usually based on either the spot rate or the forward
rate.

18. Question 3
If the spot rate of the British pound is $2, and the 180-day forward rate
is $2.05, what is the annualized premium or discount?
Question 4
The speculative risk of purchasing a ____ is that the foreign currency
value ____ over time.
Question 5
In the Wall Street Journal, you observe that the British pound (£) is
quoted for $1.65. The Australian dollar (A$) is quoted for $0.60. What is
the value of the Australian dollar in British pounds?
Question 6
Assume that a British pound put option has a premium of $.03 per unit,
and an exercise price of $1.60. The present spot rate is $1.61. The
expected future spot rate on the expiration date is $1.52. The option will
be exercised on this date if at all. What is the expected per unit net gain
(or loss) resulting from purchasing the put option?
Question 7
When a government influences factors, such as inflation, interest rates,
or income, in order to affect currency's value, this is an example of
Question 8
If the U.S. government imposed trade restrictions on U.S. imports, this
would ____ the U.S. demand for foreign currencies, and would place

19. ____ pressure on the values of foreign currencies (with respect to the
dollar).
Question 9
The act of capitalizing on the discrepancy between the forward rate
premium and the interest rate differential is called
Question 10
Currency futures contracts differ from forward contracts in that they
Question 11
If a firm planning to hedge receivables is certain of the future direction a
spot rate will move, and requires a tailor-made hedge in terms of amount
and maturity date, it should use a
Question 12
If U.S. interest rates suddenly become much higher than European
interest rates (and if it does not cause concern about higher inflation
there), the U.S. demand for euros would ____, and the supply of euros to
be exchanged for dollars would ____, other factors held constant.
Question 13
A system whereby exchange rates are market determined without
boundaries but subject to government intervention is called
Question 14

20. Assume interest rate parity exists. If the spot rate on the British pound is
$2 and the 1-year British interest rate is 7 percent, and the 1-year U.S.
interest rate is 11 percent, what is the pound's forward discount or
premium?
Question 15
Assume an equilibrium state in which European inflation and U.S.
inflation are both 4 percent. If U.S. inflation suddenly decreased to 2
percent, the euro will ____ against the dollar by approximately ____
percent, according to purchasing power parity.
Question 16
When banks obtain funds in the federal funds market, the providers of
the funds are
Question 17
____ loans are extended primarily to finance the purchase of fixed assets
such as machinery.
Question 18
A ____ is a time deposit offered by some large banks to corporations,
with a specific maturity date, minimum deposit of $100,000 or more,
and a secondary market.
Question 19

21. When a bank obtains funds through ____, households are not a common
provider of the funds.
Question 20
When a bank obtains funds through a ____, the provider of the funds
receives collateral.
Question 21
When banks need funding for just a few days, they would most likely
Question 22
Which of the following is not an off-balance sheet activity?
Question 23
____ are the largest bank source of funds (as a percentage of total
liabilities).
Question 24
____ is (are) not a major source of funds for commercial banks.
Question 25
A ____ is a type of loan commitment.
Question 26
Which type of savings account transfers funds to a checking account
when checks are written?
Question 27

22. Commercial banks are not allowed to invest in
Question 28
Subordinated notes and debentures are examples of
Question 29
____ loans are primarily used to finance the purchase of fixed assets.
Question 30
When a bank in need of funds for a few days sells some of its
government securities to a corporation with a temporary excess of funds,
then buys them back shortly thereafter, this is a
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FIN 350 Quiz 8
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Question 1
Deposit insurance has a limit of:

23. Question 2
The moral hazard problem is minimized when deposit insurance
premiums are
Question 3
The Glass-Steagall Act of 1933 prevented
Question 4
Which banking act allowed for the creation of NOW accounts?
Question 5
The potential risk that financial problems can spread through financial
institutions and the financial system is referred to as:
Question 6
Commercial banks ____ restricted to a maximum percentage of their
capital to loan to a single customer, and ____ allowed to use borrowed
or deposited funds to purchase common stock.
Question 7
Commercial banks that are not members of the Federal Reserve System
____ borrow from the Fed, and ____ subject to the Fed's reserve
requirements.

24. Question 8
Which of the following is an "off-balance-sheet commitment?"
Question 9
Which banking act allowed interstate banking?
Question 10
____ is not a characteristics used by the Federal Deposit Insurance
Corporation (FDIC) to rate banks.
Question 11
National banks are regulated by ____, and state banks are regulated by
____.
Question 12
The key reason for regulatory examinations (such as CAMELS ratings)
is to
Question 13
Which of the following is not a specific criterion the FDIC uses to
monitor banks?

25. Question 14
During the 2008-2010 period, the ____ was implemented to alleviate the
financial problems experienced by banks and other financial institutions
with excessive exposure to mortgages or mortgage-backed securities.
Question 15
The fee banks pay to the FDIC for deposit insurance is now
Question 16
A gap ratio of less than one suggests that
Question 17
Which of the following is not a likely method used by a bank to reduce
interest rate risk?
Question 18
____ is (are) least likely to be used as a method of reducing interest rate
risk.
Question 19
When cash outflows temporarily exceed cash inflows, banks are most
likely to experience

26. Question 20
A bank's net interest margin will likely decline if it has a large amount of
Question 21
In a regression of a bank's stock return on an interest rate proxy and
market returns, a ____ coefficient for the interest rate variable suggests
that bank performance is ____ affected by ____ interest rates.
Question 22
The risk of a loss due to closing out a transaction is referred to as ____
risk.
Question 23
A bank's net interest margin is commonly defined as
Question 24
____ is (are) least likely to be used as a method of reducing interest rate
risk.
Question 25
If a bank that relies heavily on short-term deposits expects interest rates
to consistently decrease over time, it would allocate most of its loans

27. with ____ rates if it desires to maximize its expected returns. It could
reduce its exposure to interest rate risk by setting ____ rates on its loans.
Question 26
As the secondary market for loans has become active, banks are more
able to satisfy their liquidity needs with a ____ proportion of loans while
achieving ____ profitability.
Question 27
A bank that holds a greater percentage of traditional demand deposits
and loans will likely incur ____ non-interest expenses and have a ____
net interest margin than other banks of the same size (assuming that its
loan losses are no higher than those at other banks).
Question 28
The risk of a loss due to closing out a transaction is referred to as ____
risk.
Question 29
The greater the ____, the greater the amount of assets per dollar's worth
of equity.
Question 30
If a bank desired to maximize its net interest margin, it would best
achieve its goal by attempting to obtain most of its funds through ____

28. and use most of its funds for ____ (assuming that all loans will be
repaid).
posits; consumer loans
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FIN 350 Quiz 9
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Question 1
Banks G and H are the same size and have similar operations. Bank G
holds the minimum level of capital and Bank H holds a higher level of
capital. Bank G's return on equity is probably ____ volatile than that of
Bank H. Bank G's beta is probably ____ than that of Bank H.
Question 2
Banks A and B have the same net income. Bank A has a higher capital
ratio and more assets than B. Bank A's return on assets is ____ than
Bank B's. Bank A's return on equity is ____ than Bank B's.
Question 3

29. The risk premium on a commercial bank is ____ related to economic
growth and ____ related to management skills.
Question 4
Net income measured as a percentage of assets is
Question 5
Interest paid on deposits and borrowed funds is called
Question 6
____ results from a bank's sale of securities.
Question 7
If a bank has short-term deposits and provides long-term fixed rate
loans, and interest rates decline over time, its net interest margin should
be:
Question 8
Interest income generated from all assets is called
Question 9
Changes in ____ are a factor affecting the value of a commercial bank
over which the bank has some control.

30. Question 10
During the credit crisis, the level of ____ was much higher than in other
periods.
Question 11
If a bank is too ____ in attempting to avoid loan losses, its net interest
margin will be ____.
Question 12
When only equity counts as capital, the leverage measure is
Question 13
The sum of net interest income, non-interest income, and securities
gains, minus provision for loan losses and non-interest expenses equals
Question 14
If a bank increases its provisions for loan losses, its interest income is
____, and its noninterest income is ____.
Question 15
Which of the following banks would likely have the highest return on
equity?

31. Question 16
Federal credit unions are regulated and supervised by the
Question 17
Savings institutions obtain most of their funds from
Question 18
____ are the primary asset of savings institutions.
Question 19
To obtain short-term funds, savings institutions commonly borrow funds
in the ____ market.
Question 20
Savings institutions can obtain capital by:
Question 21
The primary use of credit union funds is
Question 22

32. The ____ savings institutions hold the most assets in aggregate.
Question 23
The risk that a credit union will experience an unanticipated wave of
withdrawals without an offsetting amount of new deposits is ____ risk.
Question 24
Credit unions obtain most of their funds from
Question 25
Which of the following is not an asset of savings institutions?
Question 26
Today, credit unions are regulated as to the
Question 27
____ are non-profit organizations composed of members with a common
bond.
Question 28
____ do not represent an asset of credit unions.
Question 29

33. Savings institutions that reduce their amount of ____ will best reduce
their exposure to interest rate risk.
Question 30
____ risk is probably the least concern for savings institutions.
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FIN 350 Quiz 10
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Question 1
Consumer finance companies primarily focus on
Question 2
____ provide loans to firms that cannot obtain financing from
commercial banks.
Question 3

34. Finance companies participate in the ____ market to reduce interest rate
risk.
Question 4
Which of the following is not a use of finance company funds?
Question 5
The main competition for finance companies in the consumer loan
market comes from
Question 6
When a finance company purchases equipment for use by another
business, the finance company provides financing in the form of
Question 7
Finance companies can accumulate capital by doing all of the following
except
Question 8
A wholly owned subsidiary whose primary purpose is to finance sales of
the parent company's products and services, provide wholesale financing
to distributors of the parent company's products, and purchase
receivables of the parent company is a

35. Question 9
____ finance companies concentrate on purchasing credit contracts from
retailers and dealers.
Question 10
Finance companies are subject to
Question 11
When a finance company's assets are ____ interest rate sensitive than its
liabilities and when interest rates are expected to ____, bonds can
provide long-term financing at a rate that is completely insulated from
rising market rates.
Question 12
If finance companies were confident about projections of ____ interest
rates, they may consider using the funds obtained from issuing bonds to
offer loans with ____ rates.
Question 13
Finance companies differ from commercial banks, savings institutions,
and credit unions in that they
Question 14

36. Which of the following is not a source of finance company funds to
support operations?
Question 15
Finance companies commonly act as ____ for accounts receivable; that
is, they purchase a firm's receivables at a discount and are responsible
for processing and collecting the balances of these accounts.
Question 16
A mutual fund consisting only of stocks of firms that are in a specific
industry is an example of a ____ fund.
Question 17
Mutual funds composed of stocks that have potential for very high
growth, but may also be unproven, are called
Question 18
____ are not exchange-traded funds.
Question 19
____ funds sell shares to wealthy individuals and financial institutions
and use the proceeds to invest in securities.
Question 20
Mutual funds that are willing to repurchase their shares from investors at
any time are referred to as

37. Question 21
According to SEC regulations, the majority of the members on a mutual
fund's board of directors must be
Question 22
Money market funds commonly invest in
Question 23
Money market funds invest mostly in
Question 24
The ____ of a mutual fund represents the price at which shares can be
purchased from a mutual fund.
Question 25
Most closed-end funds invest in
Question 26
Equity real estate investment trusts invest
Question 27
Mutual funds
Question 28
____ funds are open to investment from investors at any time.
Question 29

38. Mutual funds that are composed of bonds that offer periodic coupon
payments are called ____ mutual funds.
Question 30
The most common investment by closed-end funds is in
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FIN 350 Week 6 Quiz 5
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• Question 1
____ mortgages enabled more people with relatively lower
income, or high existing debt, or a small down payment to purchase
homes.
• Question 2
____ economic growth will probably ____ the risk premium on
mortgages and ____ the price of mortgages.
• Question 3
Rates for adjustable-rate mortgages are commonly tied to the
• Question 4

39. The interest rate on a second mortgage is ____ on a first
mortgage created at the same time, because the second mortgage is ____
the existing first mortgage in priority claim against the property in the
event of default.
• Question 5
Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac experienced financial problems
during the credit crisis because they:
• Question 6
A financial institution has a higher degree of interest rate risk on
a ____ than a ____.
• Question 7
Financial institutions that hold fixed-rate mortgages in their asset
portfolios are exposed to ____ risk, because they commonly use funds
obtained from short-term customer deposits to make long-term mortgage
loans.
• Question 8
In a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO), mortgages are
segmented into ____ (or classes).
• Question 9
____ risk is the risk that a borrower may prepay the mortgage in
response to a decline in interest rates.
• Question 10
For any given interest rate, the shorter the life of the mortgage,
the ____ the monthly payment and the ____ the total payments over the
life of the mortgage.
• Question 11
An institution that originates and holds a fixed-rate mortgage is
adversely affected by ____ interest rates; the borrower who was
provided the mortgage is adversely affected by ____ interest rates.
• Question 12

40. Which of the following is not true with respect to a growing-
equity mortgage?
• Question 13
From the perspective of the lending financial institution, interest
rate risk is
• Question 14
Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs) are generally
perceived to have
• Question 15
Which of the following will typically require homeowners to
ultimately request a new mortgage?
• Question 16
"Pink sheets" are traded on the
• Question 17
____ are portfolios of international stocks created and managed
by various financial institutions.
• Question 18
The largest organized exchange, listing the largest firms, is
the
• Question 19
A ____ requires that dividends cannot be paid on common stock
until all current and previously omitted dividends are paid on preferred
stock.
• Question 20
Shareholders can most easily measure a firm's performance by
monitoring changes in its ____ over time.
• Question 21

41. Managers of firms may consider a stock repurchase or even a
leveraged buyout when they believe their stock is ____ by the market, or
a secondary stock offering when they believe their stock is ____ by the
market.
• Question 22
The prevailing price per share divided by the firm's earnings per
share is known as the
• Question 23
The transaction costs to the issuing firm in an IPO is usually
____ percent of the funds raised.
• Question 24
____ sell shares to investors and use the proceeds to invest in
portfolios of international stocks created and managed by portfolio
managers.
• Question 25
The ____ is a value-weighted index of stock prices of 500 large
U.S. firms.
• Question 26
A new stock issuance by a specific firm that already has stock
outstanding is referred to as a(n)
• Question 27
Which of the following is not a part of the over-the-counter
market?
• Question 28
____ are acquisitions that require substantial amounts of
borrowed funds.
• Question 29

42. Initial public offerings (IPOs) perform ____ on the day following
the IPO and ____ for periods of a year or longer after the
IPO.
• Question 30
When a firm buys some of its shares that it had previously
issued, this is referred to as a:
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