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ENV 100T Week 1 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam
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In this graded assignment, you are assessed on the content covered in
this weeks’ readings, activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it
is recommended that you first complete this week’s Learning Path and
Self-Test Learning Activities prior to completing this exam.
Click on the Assignments link in WileyPLUS to access the Week 1
Exam.
Complete the Week 1 Exam covering this week’s assigned readings:
 Ch. 1: The Environmental Challenges We Face
 Ch. 2: Sustainability and Human Values
 Ch. 3: Environmental History, Politics, and Policy
Note: Work submitted in WileyPLUS does not count toward attendance.
Be sure to post at least two times each week in the online classroom to
avoid being auto-dropped from the course.
Question 1
What is the environmental significance of the process of
“consumption”?

Consumption can outstrip the natural resources available and lead to
overexploitation of the environment.
Extravagant consumption can create an environment of raising one’s
status among peers.
The process of consumption is an economic act, providing the “demand”
necessary for the “supply” of the environment.
Consumption can generate economic growth that relies significantly on
the importation of natural resources, which benefits the environments of
less-developed countries.
Question 2
Which of the following describes the relationship among population
growth, consumption of natural resources, and environmental
degradation?
When individual demands on natural resources are far greater than the
requirements for survival, people in affluent nations deplete resources
and degrade the global environment through increased consumption of
nonessential items to satisfy their desires.
Rapid population growth does not overwhelm and deplete a country’s
soils, forests, and other natural resources when the amount of resources
essential to an individual’s survival is small.

Rate of resource consumption affects the environment far less that the
explosion in population.
There is no relationship between population growth, consumption of
natural resources, and environmental degradation.
Question 3
Non-renewable resource is to renewable resource as
living is to non-living.
limited supply is to sustainable supply.
tree is to coal.
wind energy is to fossil fuel energy.
Question 4

Examples of non-sustainable human activities or behaviors include:
recycling
attempts to limit human population growth
using technology to improve car mileage
use of non-renewable fossil fuels
Question 5
In the scientific method, a hypothesis
is a statement of fact
makes a prediction that can be tested
is usually proven to be correct
can only be tested once

Question 6
A state agency has contacted you to do a scientific assessment of kudzu
in a nature preserve in southern Georgia. They are concerned about the
effects of the non-native invasive vine on a small rare plant that grows
on the forest floor in the preserve, but which is found nowhere else in
the state. Kudzu is only growing in the east side of the preserve because
it hasn’t yet had time to invade further. In order to assess the effects of
kudzu on the rare plant, you set up the following experiment:
Site 1. On the east side of the park with the kudzu, you set up ten 1m ×
1m plots on the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of
individuals of the rare plant.
Site 2. On the west side of the park without the kudzu, you set up ten 1m
× 1m plots of the forest floor. In each plot you count the number of
individuals of the rare plant.
Which of the following represents the hypothesis that you are testing
with this experiment?
Kudzu will eventually grow on the west side of the park.
Kudzu will kill off the trees in the preserve by strangling them.
Kudzu should be removed from the preserve because it is killing the rare
plant.

Kudzu is negatively affecting populations of the rare plant in the
preserve.
Question 7
All of the following statements describe environmental science
EXCEPT:
The goal of environmental science is to try to establish general
principles about how the natural world functions.
Environmental scientists seek to develop viable solutions to
environmental problems that are based as much as possible on scientific
knowledge.
Since environmental problems are generally complex and scientific
understanding of them is often less complete, environmental scientists
are often called on to reach scientific consensus before the data are
complete.
No exceptions, all of the above statements describe environmental
science.
Question 8

Community members bring information, preferences, and goals that
must be incorporated into a policy decisions during which of the five
stages of solving an environmental problem?
Scientific assessment
Risk analysis
Public engagement
Political consideration
Long term environmental management
Question 9
What is deep ecology worldview?
A radical anthropocentric worldview.
A worldview based on the idea that all species have equal worth.
An idea that resource consumption is unethical.
An expansionist worldview.

Question 10
Sustainable human activities or behaviors include all of the following
EXCEPT:
identifying strategies for recycling natural resources.
working to limit human population growth.
developing technologies to improve car mileage.
promoting consumption to improve quality of life.
Question 11
The issue that racial and ethnic minorities face unusually high exposure
to environmental hazards is a central argument to:
racial prejudice
environmental justice

voluntary simplicity
phytoremediation
Question 12
What worldview does this photograph BEST represent?
A deep ecology worldview.
A sustainable consumption worldview.
A western worldview.
Any environmental worldview.
Question 13
Which of the following interact to promote sustainable development?
1 Economically viable decisions
2 Socially equitable decisions
3 Environmentally sound decisions

4 High rate of resources use
5 Rapid population growth
1 and 3
2 and 4
1, 2, and 3
3, 4, and 5
1, 4, and 5
Question 14
What does the image below represent and how does it relate to designing
sustainable cities?
Residents of squatter community, like this one, must be evicted in order
to achieve the goal of making cities more sustainable.
Comparing the squatter community in the foreground to the skyscrapers
in the back shows how a city can be transformed when sustainable city
design is embraced as a goal for re-development.

Squatter communities, due to their lower resource consumption, should
be left unchanged as living in such conditions is compatible with the
goals of sustainable living.
Squatter settlements should be improved to provide basic service such as
clean water to drink, sewage treatment, and garbage pickup so as to
provide a better quality of life for the poorest of the poor.
Question 15
Environmental sustainability implies:
the actions of humans directly impact the wellbeing of the natural
environment
future generations will have the resources necessary for quality of life
the environment can function indefinitely without going into a decline
from the stresses imposed by human society on natural systems
all of these choices
Question 16
A deep ecology worldview would support all of the following EXCEPT:

Nonhuman life forms have value that is independent of the usefulness
they may have for narrow human purposes.
The richness and diversity of life contribute to the flourishing of life on
Earth and humans have no right to reduce this richness and diversity
except to satisfy vital needs.
The inherent responsibility of individuals to implement changes in
society so that humans can flourish.
A spiritual respect for life reflected in appreciating quality of life rather
than adhering to a high standard of living.
Question 17
What does the diagram below illustrate?
EIS
NEPA

NIMBY
Kyoto Protocol
Question 18
Pollution is considered an external cost because;
it has a harmful effect borne only by people who purchased the product
that caused it.
its cost to the environment is not reflected in the price of the product that
produces it.
it has a significant impact on the consumer’s decision to buy the product
that causes it.
it is a hidden cost that would increase demand if the consumer were
aware of it.
Question 19

Which of the following definitions best describes an environmentalist?
A lawyer who works on environmental law.
Writers who write about the environmental impact of corporate
America.
Someone who is concerned about the environment.
A scientist who studies the interactions of plants and animals.
Question 20
All of the following are examples of conservation EXCEPT:
Phoenicians terraced hilly farmland to prevent soil erosion
Americans set aside areas as national parks to maintain them in a
pristine state
Greeks practiced crop rotation to maintain yields on farmland

English regulated the number of sheep that can graze in a particular field
Question 21
Which of the following is NOT considered in determining net domestic
product?
GDP
population size
natural capital
profit from use of natural resources
Question 22
Whose name is associated with the concept of the land ethic and in
which book did he make this argument?
George Perkins Marsh in Man and Nature

Henry David Thoreau in Walden
John Muir in The Yosemite
Aldo Leopold in Sand County Almanac
Question 23
Laws that impose rules and regulations and set limits of pollution are
called:
command and control.
environmental impact statements.
legislative documents.
legislative directives.
Question 24
According to the graph below:

As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost
of removing each additional unit of pollution decreases.
As more and more pollution is eliminated from the environment, the cost
of removing each additional unit of pollution increases.
Cost of pollution removal is constant regardless of how polluted an area
is.
Cost of pollution is relative to the type of pollution.
Question 25
What is the BEST definition of conservation?
Setting aside land and natural resources.
Careful management of land and resources.
Using land and natural resources based on current needs.

Protecting land and natural resources from human activity.
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ENV 100T Week 1-5 All Wileyplus Exams
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this week’s readings, activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it
Complete the Week 2 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam covering this week’s
assigned readings:
 Ch. 5: How Ecosystems Work
 Ch. 6: Ecosystems and Evolution
 Ch. 7: Human Population Change and the Environment
Question 1
Which of the following processes plays an important role in the
phosphorus cycle?
erosion
nitrogen fixation

combustion
cellular respiration
Question 2
Your answer is correct.
The nitrogen cycle is one of the most important and complex of the
biogeochemical cycles. Why is nitrogen important?
It’s an Ozone depleting gas
It’s an essential part of biological molecules such as proteins and nucleic
acids (DNA)
It’s the most toxic element to living organisms
Nitrogen dilutes the oxygen in the atmosphere causing respiratory
problems
Question 3

What is landscape ecology?
the study of human-designed communities.
the study of the influences of pollution on natural ecosystems.
a science exclusively concerned with terrestrial ecosystems.
the study of the connections among various ecosystems.
Question 4
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Predation only favors the predator with the evolution of more efficient
ways to catch prey.
Predation only favors the prey with the evolution of more efficient ways
to escape predators.
Predation exerts a selective force on the prey, favoring characteristics
that reduce the probability of capture.

Predation exerts a selective force on the predator, favoring
characteristics that reduce the probability of prey capture.
Question 5
What do we call an area of land that runoff drains into?
watershed
estuary
groundwater
niche
Question 6
How would an ecologist classify both the animals shown below?

decomposers
primary consumers
producers
carnivores
Question 7
Nitrogen gas accounts for what percentage of the atmosphere?
0.03%
1%
approximately 50%
78%

Question 8
What is an organism’s role, or lifestyle, within the structure of an
ecosystem called?
habitat.
trophic level.
symbiotic relationship.
ecological niche.
Question 9
What biome is most likely to have the following temperature and rainfall
profile?
savanna
boreal forest
tropical rainforest

temperate deciduous forests
Question 10
Which of the following statements about wildfires is TRUE?
They are always damaging for natural environments.
They release nutrient minerals that were locked in dry organic material.
They encourage the growth of shade-resistant plants.
They result in the destruction of the underground stems and buds of
grasses.
Question 11
Individuals within a population each have a unique combination of traits,
which is known as:
Genetic variation.

Reproductive capacity.
Evolution.
Differential reproductive success.
Question 12
Where would you expect to find the littoral zone of a lake?
Shallow water area along the shore
Open water area farther from shore with enough sunlight for
photosynthesis
Deepest known, where light typically does not penetrate effectively
Bottom region where organisms tend to attach themselves to one spot
Question 13
Which of the following biomes has the HIGHEST biodiversity?

boreal forest
temperate grassland
temperate rain forest
tropical rain forest
Question 14
Which of the following organizational hierarchies is correct?
ecosystem landscape community biome
biome community landscape ecosystem
community ecosystem landscape biome
landscape community ecosystem biome

Question 15
Which of the following organisms would be members of a pioneer
community on bare rock?
grass
lichens
shrubs
ferns
Question 16
Which of the following does NOT apply to freshwater wetlands?
Anaerobic conditions
Accumulation of organic material

Water-tolerant vegetation
Drought resistant plants
Question 17
What are the three main ecological categories of organisms found in
aquatic ecosystems?
plankton, nekton, fish
plankton, benthos, littoral
plankton, nekton, benthos
benthos, mangal, littoral
Question 18
Compact development in urban areas benefits the environment in all of
the following ways EXCEPT:

by reversing the trend towards urbanization.
by reducing air pollution.
by preserving rural areas.
by increasing open space.
Question 19
Which factors eventually cause birth rates to decline during a
demographic transition?
Birth rates decline due to improved health care and modern medicines.
Birth rates decline due to increased education of women.
Birth rates decline due to increased contraceptive use.
All of these choices ultimately contribute to declining birth rates.

Question 20
How do demographers typically measure mortality (death) rate?
deaths per 1000 persons per year.
deaths per person per year.
the number of children who die per year.
the total number of deaths per generation.
Question 21
Which of the following statements about the graph shown is TRUE?
Only Nigeria’s population growth rate is increasing.
China’s and Brasil’s fertility rate is below replacement level fertility.
Only Egypt’s fertility rate is above replacement level fertility.
Mexico and Brazil are both below replacement level fertility.

Question 22
Why are high fertility rates generally prevalent in developing countries?
Children contribute to the family’s livelihood.
Children must care for aging parents.
Male children are culturally more desirable, so families continue to have
children until male children are born.
All of the choices.
Question 23
Which of the following statements about population ecology is TRUE?
Population ecology only deals with declining populations that are in
need of intervention in order to survive.

Population ecology focuses on individuals and their interactions, but not
the abiotic environment.
Population ecology attempts to explain how and why the number of
individuals in a given area changes over time.
Population ecology is not important to scientists in applied disciplines,
such as wildlife management.
Question 24
What is the cause of global human population growth over the last 200
years?
Higher birth rate
Higher fecundity rate
Increase in immigration
Lower death rate
Question 25

What can be interpreted for the following two graphs regarding literacy
and fertility rates?
In general, there are more illiterate men than women.
The total number of children a woman has during her life is affected by
her education – the more educated a woman is, the greater the number of
children she has.
Almost 70% of Bangladeshi women and 50% of Bangladeshi men are
able to read and write.
Based on the connection between education and fertility rates, one
would predict that the fertility rate in Mexico would be lower than the
fertility rate in Ethiopia as literacy rates are higher in Mexico.
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this week’s readings, activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it
Self-Test learning activities prior to completing this exam.
 Ch. 12: Mineral and Soil Resources
 Ch. 13: Land Resources
 Ch. 14: Agriculture and Food Resources
Question 1
Which of the following statements about nutrient cycling is TRUE?
Bacteria and fungi are involved in nutrient cycling as they decompose
detritus transforming large organic molecules into small inorganic
molecules, including carbon dioxide, water, and nutrient minerals like
nitrates.
Nutrient cycling is the pathway of various nutrient minerals or elements
from the environment through organisms and back to the environment.
Nonliving processes are also involved in nutrient cycling, such as the
weathering of the parent material replaces some nutrient minerals lost
through erosion.
All of the above statements are true about nutrient cycling.

Question 2
What is the MAIN requirement of reclaiming land degraded by any type
of mining operation?
To restore them to the same type of ecosystem that existed before
mining began on that site.
To stabilize the soil so that further degradation does not occur.
To create areas for housing subdivisions.
To comply with federal law.
Question 3
Which minerals would be used to make the following products?
A = zinc; B = gypsum
A = molybdenum; B = sulfur

A = mercury; B = potassium
A = nickel; B = magnesium
Question 4
Subduction occurs:
when one tectonic plate slides underneath another.
due to mining activities.
because of the Coriolis effect.
on the leeward side of a mountain.
Question 5
Planting the same crop year after year:

increases damage by insects and disease.
decreases soil erosion.
does not deplete essential nutrients from the soil.
will slowly increase crop yields.
Question 6
The TWO main reasons that certain areas are not suitable for agriculture
are:
soil is too dry and soil has chemical problems (e.g. salinization)
soil is too shallow and soil is too wet
soil is too wet and soil is too dry
soil is frozen and soil has chemical problems (e.g. salinization)

Question 7
Why does this soil have no O-horizon?
The O- horizon has been plowed under for agriculture.
Considerable leaching has eliminated the O- horizon.
Soil erosion has eliminated the O- horizon.
Forest soils like this one have no O-horizon.
Question 8
Which of the following statements about soil is NOT TRUE?
Soil consists of mineral and organic matter modified by the natural
actions of agents such as weather, wind, water, and organisms.

Soil formation is a continuous process that takes a long time, sometimes
thousands of years, both because the process of rock disintegrating into
fine mineral particles is slow, and time is also required for organic
material to accumulate in the soil.
An area’s terrain influences soil formation — steep slopes encourage
soil formation and accumulation while valleys discourage the formation
of deep soils.
Minerals, the main component of soil, provide anchorage and essential
nutrient minerals for plants, as well as pore space for water and air.
Question 9
Increased soil erosion may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
construction of buildings.
construction of roads.
construction of shelterbelts.
clearcutting large forested areas.

Question 10
Sustainable forestry:
seeks to conserve forests for the long-term commercial harvest of timber
and non-timber forest products by maintaining a mix of forest trees, by
age and species, rather than imposing a monoculture.
due to the complexity of goals, is most effective when it involves
cooperation among environmentalists, loggers, farmers, indigenous
peoples, and local, state, and federal governments.
approaches vary from one forest ecosystem to another, in response to
different environmental, cultural, and economic conditions.
is all of the above.
Question 11
The area shown in the photograph below is an example of:
clear cutting

contour farming
monoculture
selective cutting
Question 12
How are wilderness areas different from national parks?
Only wilderness areas contain large populations of predators like wolves
or grizzly bears.
No human development is allowed in wilderness areas.
Except for research purposes, people are not allowed to visit wilderness
areas.
Wilderness areas allow grazing and some timber removal.

Question 13
In the US land is managed by four government agencies, of which the
___ is the only one NOT in the Department of the Interior.
National Park Service
U.S. Forest Service
U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
Bureau of Land Management
Question 14
A legal agreement that protects privately owned rangelands, forests or
other property from development for a specified number of years is
termed:
a public rangeland.
a national park.

a conservation easement.
a wildlife corridor.
Question 15
Which of the following is NOT a way to slow deforestation?
By replanting trees.
By managing commercial logging operations.
By promoting additional slash-and-burn agricultural practices.
By discouraging plantation style agriculture of crops like bananas and
palm oil.
Question 16
Federally owned land encompasses all of the following EXCEPT:

land that that contains important resources such as minerals and fossil
fuels
land that possesses historical or cultural significance
land that provides critical biological habitat
no exceptions, all of the above are examples of federally owned land
Question 17
Habitat corridors are intended to provide:
additional habitat fragmentation.
increase in species richness within forest monocultures.
a means for controlling insect pests and invasive species.
a means of migration so animals can interbreed.

Question 18
Subsistence agricultural practices are characterized by all of the
following attributes except
use of manure as fertilizer.
use of draft animals for labor source.
water and fossil fuel energy conservation.
high crop yield per acre.
limited use of agrochemicals.
Question 19
One of the problems associated with the “green revolution” is that
not enough food is produced for developing countries.
it is confined to highly developed countries.

it makes developing countries dependent on high-energy consuming
imported technologies.
it has been rejected by developing countries due to conflicts with
customary practices.
technology is not advanced enough to make it cost effective.
Question 20
Pesticides are effective in
decreasing the cost of subsistence farming.
increasing the crop damage due to competition with weeds.
small concentrations but not in large concentrations.
controlling some organisms that cause diseases in humans.
attracting particular insects to an area.

Question 21
The move away from using techniques that produce high yield and
toward methods that focus on long-term sustainability of the soil is
known as
habitat fragmentation.
subsistence agriculture.
industrialized agriculture.
the green revolution.
the second green revolution.
Question 22
Which of the following is not a problem associated with industrial
agriculture?

soil erosion
depletion of fossil fuels
disposal of livestock wastes
habitat fragmentation
none, these are all problems associated with industrial agriculture
Question 23
Which of the following uses of pesticide can lead to ecological
imbalance?
pesticides alter the genetic resistance in populations causing the pests to
persist.
pesticides kill prey thereby causing predators to starve or migrate. Then
the prey population rebounds larger than before since predators are gone.
bioaccumulation of pesticides in animal tissue can lead to extinction of
species.

pesticides show mobility, moving other than where they were applied
inadvertently killing non-pest organisms.
all of the above.
Question 24
The decline of Peregrine falcons in the United States due to the use of
DDT is an example of?
biological magnification
bioaccumulation
genetic resistance
green revolution
biological resistance
Question 25
Which type of pesticide has fewer deleterious environmental effects?
Why?

narrow-spectrum pesticide because it focuses on killing specific
organisms
narrow-spectrum pesticide because it stays exactly where it is sprayed
broad-spectrum pesticide because it moves around the environment to
reach all potential pests
broad-spectrum pesticide because insects cannot develop resistance to it
neither broad and narrow-spectrum pesticides have deleterious
environmental effects
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this weeks’ readings, activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it
Exam.
Complete the Week 4 WileyPLUS Weekly Exam covering this week’s
assigned readings:
 Ch. 8: Air and Air Pollution
 Ch. 9: Global and Atmospheric Changes
 Ch. 10: The Ocean and Fisheries
 Ch. 16: Solid and Hazardous Wastes
Question 1
Smaller cars, removal of sulfur from coal, and cooler combustion
temperatures are examples of ways to:
reduce the total amount of pollutants produced.
reduce total amounts of pollutants after they are produced.
conserve energy.
reduce CFC production.

Question 2
Why did lead pollution decrease significantly after the creation of the
Clean Air Act?
Lead is now removed from coal before it is used as fuel.
Electrostatic precipitators mandated by the Clean Air Act have greatly
decreased the amount of lead being emitted from smokestacks.
Catalytic converters in cars greatly reduce the amount of lead emitted.
Leaded gasoline was outlawed.
Question 3
Electrostatic precipitators use electrical charges to attract and track what
pollutants?
Ozone.

Particulates.
Sulfur oxides.
Nitrogen oxides.
Question 4
Which other indoor air pollutant increases the risk of radon-related
cancers?
Formaldehyde from carpets and furniture.
Tobacco smoke from cigarettes.
Para-dichlorobenzene from moth balls and air fresheners.
Nitrogen oxides from unvented gas stoves.
Question 5

The National Academy of Sciences estimate 12% of all lung cancers are
related to radioactivity caused by which of the following?
The burning of coal.
Nuclear power plants.
Residual atmospheric radiation related to nuclear weapons testing.
Natural emissions that occur as uranium breaks down.
Question 6
Why are illnesses from indoor air pollution often overlooked?
They resemble common ailments like colds or flu.
They usually result long after exposure.
They only occur in developing countries.
They are easily controlled using modern healthcare.

Question 7
What helps maintain global oxygen concentrations in the troposphere?
Oxygen levels remain balanced by photosynthesis and cellular
respiration.
Photosynthesis replaces oxygen loss to air pollutants like NOx, SOx, and
ozone.
The burning of fossil fuels since the Industrial Revolution has helped
maintain oxygen concentrations in the atmosphere.
Excess oxygen is broken down by ozone in the upper atmosphere.
Question 8
Which of the following activities is responsible for the largest
percentage of human-made carbon dioxide emissions?
burning fossil fuels

deforestation
ozone depletion
acid deposition
agriculture
Question 9
Although widespread thermometer records have only been kept since the
mid-19th century, scientists can reconstruct historical temperature data
in the following ways except:
tree ring analysis
air bubbles in ancient ice
ocean sediment
fossilized dinosaur bones

Question 10
Which of the following activities will not mitigate global climate?
developing energy alternatives like wind and solar
switching to hybrid cars
planting and maintaining forests
eating more beef
Question 11
The figure reflects the differences in how sunlight strikes the Earth at
different places. Which of the statements below can be inferred from this
diagram?
1. Desk lamp A represents the vertical angle of the sun at the equator
showing that sunlight is more concentrated here.
2. Desk lamp B represents the oblique angle of the sun at the equator
showing that there is a larger area over which the sun shines.
3. Desk lamps A and B represent the possible different angles of the
sun striking the northern hemisphere in the summer depending on

how the Earth’s axis tilts – A means a hotter summer, B means a
cooler one.
1 only
2 only
3 only
1 & 2 only
Question 12
What can be interpreted from the following graph?
1. The graph shows that the Earth’s surface temperatures do naturally
fluctuate.
2. The graph shows that there has been a warming trend in the last
several decades.
1 only
2 only

1 & 2
None of these choices
Question 13
What is the fate of solar radiation that reaches the Earth?
Most solar radiation is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.
Most solar radiation is reflected by snow, ice, and light colored land.
Most solar radiation is absorbed by the land and ocean.
An equal amount of solar radiation is absorbed by land, air, and water as
is reflected back into space.
Question 14
The area of land drained by a single river or stream is called:

cisterns.
aquifer.
watershed.
reservoirs.
Question 15
What is probably the BEST way for industry to reduce water waste?
Decrease industrial production
Increased irrigation use
Switching to dry production of industrial goods
Reuse and recycle wastewater on site
Question 16

Which of the following is NOT an example of nonpoint source
pollution?
Agricultural runoff
Erosion from logging operations
Acid mine drainage
Sewage treatment plant effluent
Question 17
What is the major difference in the fate of precipitation after
urbanization?
Evaporation and transpiration decreases.
Surface runoff increases.
Ground water infiltration decreases.

All of these choices.
Question 18
Three-fourths of the world’s 200 major watersheds are shared between
at least ___ nations.
two
three
four
five
Question 19
The area bordering a river channel that has the potential to flood is
called:

wetland
drainage basin
floodplain
recharge zone
Question 20
Plastics pose a special problem for sanitary landfills because
1. plastics are the most rapidly accumulated component of municipal
solid waste.
2. plastics attract harmful microorganisms and bacteria to the landfill.
3. plastics move upward to the surface creating a fire hazard.
4. most plastics are chemically stable and do not readily decompose.
1 only
2 only
3 only
4 only

1 and 4
Question 21
Integrated Waste Management is a set of waste disposal alternatives that
include all of the following except
incineration.
composting.
sanitary landfill.
relocation of waste to developing nations.
reuse.
Question 22
What is an economic benefit of recycling?

use of energy and generation of pollution for curbside collection
increase use of sanitary landfill
generates jobs and revenues from selling of recycled products
use of natural resources in reprocessing materials
recycling has no economic benefit
Question 23
What is the Superfund National Priorities List?
the federal inventory of green chemistry locations
the existing hazardous waste sites that pose the greatest threat to public
health
federally approved locations for the long-term storage of toxic chemicals

current policy on how to handle chemical accidents
a list of bodies of water in the U.S. that have not been polluted
Question 24
The term for crushed glass containers destined to be melted and reused
to manufacture new products is ___.
scrap
dioxin
leachate
slag
cullet
Question 25

Integrated waste management refers to
dilution and dispersal of chemicals.
use of federal lands for hazardous waste disposal.
a combination of source reduction, reuse, recycling, composting.
Landfills and incineration.
uniting municipal and nonmunicipal waste management programs.
using incineration as a single technique for waste disposal.
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In this graded assignment you are assessed on the content covered in this
weeks’ readings, activities, and assignments. To help you prepare, it is
recommended that you first complete this week’s Learning Path and
Exam.
 Ch. 17: Nonrenewable Energy Resources
 Ch. 18: Renewable Energy Resources
Question 1
Nuclear energy is released
by splitting two electrons.
by joining a proton with a neutron.
by breaking a chemical bond between two atoms.
by splitting an atomic nucleus into two smaller fragments.
by combustion of uranium ore.

Question 2
What is the function of the device diagramed below?
to maintain a constant temperature for U-235.
to control the fission chain reaction to produce energy for electricity.
to store spent fuel rods from nuclear reactors for at least 40 years.
to filter CO2 generated by the fission of U-235 nuclei.
a reservoir for enriching U-235.
Question 3
All of the following statements are true about surface mining except
Strip mining is an example of surface mining.

It accounts for 60% of the coal mined in the U.S.
Surface mining is the most hazardous type of mining for workers.
Surface mining is a less expensive mining process than subsurface
mining.
Mountaintop removal is an example of surface mining.
Question 4
What is a major issue with the type of mining illustrated below?
fluidized-bed combustion
acid precipitation
risk of earthquakes
safety risk to mine employees
land degradation

Question 5
What is a critical difference between surface and subsurface mining?
Surface mining is more expensive than subsurface mining
Surface mining is above ground; subsurface mining is below ground
Surface mining causes less environmental damage than subsurface
mining
Subsurface mining creates acid mine drainage; surface mining does not
Subsurface mining has the potential for dangerous landslides; surface
mining has the potential for cave-ins
Question 6
What legislation provides incentives for utility companies to convert to
clean coal technologies?

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability
Act of 1980
Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977
Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976
Superfund National Priorities Act of 2007
Question 7
What is acid mine drainage?
pollution caused when rainwater seeps through iron sulfide minerals
exposed in mine wastes
photochemical reactions between particulates and water vapor
residue from sulfur and nitrogen compounds found in coal dust

acid precipitation caused by emissions from burning coal
a low pH fuel that is synthesized from natural gas
Question 8
Which of the following activities is mismatched with its environmental
consequence?
surface mining: acid mine drainage polluting rivers
coal-burning electric plants: acid deposition destroying forests
mountaintop removal mining: mine tailings and debris filling valleys
strip mining: oil spills killing wildlife
burning fossil fuels: release of CO2, a potent greenhouse gas
Question 9

Which of the following is an example of high-level radioactive waste?
glassware giving off small amounts of ionizing radiation
paper contaminated by radioactivity
reactor coolant fluid
lab coat used in an area where radioactive material is present
filters from sampling devices that test for radioactive contamination
Question 10
Mountaintop removal is an example of ___ mining.
subsurface
surface
shaft

combustion
integrated
Question 11
Negative environmental impacts from oil and natural gas production
may occur due to
release of oxides in combustion emissions.
accidental spills at extraction sites and during transport.
erosion and landslides during withdrawal of resources.
improper storage and disposal of spent fuel.
unintentional release of methane into atmosphere.
Question 12

What does the Oil Pollution Act of 1990 legislate for environmental
disasters such as the one pictured below?
hazardous pay for clean-up workers
tidal barriers to help prevent the spread of oil slicks
a remediation protocol for impacted wildlife populations
requires that, by 2015, oil be transported by land and not sea
a trust fund that pays to clean up oil spills when the responsible party
cannot
Question 13
Tidal energy cannot become a significant resource worldwide because
the accompanying tidal waves cause too much environmental
destruction.

the equipment required to harness this energy is not yet.
few areas have large enough differences in water level between high and
low tides to make power generation feasible.
sand damages the equipment.
tidal energy can become a significant resource worldwide.
Question 14
The best example of an energy storage element in a solar energy system
is the
natural gas in a propane tank that can be used for cooking.
structural overhang that blocks sunlight in a passively cooled home.
insulated windows in a passively heated solar home.
hot water tank of a solar hot water system.

sun-tracking mirrors in a power tower system.
Question 15
Photovoltaic systems are characterized by all of the following except
directly converting sunlight into electricity.
minimal maintenance.
producing no pollution.
functioning on cloudy or rainy days.
minimal space requirement for large-scale use.
Question 16

Which of the following is a good energy efficiency practice for those
with existing homes?
replace the existing insulation with a higher quality product.
board up windows on the north, east and west sides of the house.
install a gas-burning fireplace in the family room.
pour a concrete foundation between the ground and subfloor of the
home.
dial down the water heater’s thermostat to knock 3-5 percent off your
energy bill.
Question 17
Which of the following is more efficient (90%) than any other energy
source for producing electricity?
hydropower

wind energy
photovoltaic
passive solar
geothermal
Question 18
Which of the following biomass energy sources is incorrectly matched
with its biofuel product?
sugar cane: alcohol
oil used to make French fries: biodiesel
clay: biogas
manure: methane
wood: charcoal

Question 19
Problems associated with large hydropower dams and reservoirs include
all of the following except
relocation of peoples’ homes.
ecosystem destruction.
loss of biodiversity.
air pollution.
disruption of fish migration.
Question 20
All of the following are disadvantages of photovoltaic solar cell
technology except

the manufacturing process requires toxic industrial chemicals.
the amount of land needed to hold the number of solar panels required
for large-scale use.
each panel’s low efficiency at converting solar energy to electricity.
the steadily increasing manufacturing cost per watt over the last 35
years.
the carbon dioxide emissions that contribute to greenhouse gases.
Question 21
Electric meters can run backward for homeowners participating in net
metering. What does this mean?
homeowners receive meter credit for excess energy they generate and
supply to the utility’s power grid
the up front costs for installing renewable energy is recovered by
rewinding the home’s electric meter

if a homeowner uses less energy in one month than the previous month,
then the difference is subtracted from the electric meter
homeowners who voluntarily cut back on air conditioning use are
granted an electric credit
a radio controlled electric meter for remote monitoring allows the utility
company to stop the meter during peak demand periods
Question 22
The disadvantages of using wind energy to generate electricity include
all of the following except
windmills kill birds.
generation of sulfur dioxide, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen oxides.
degradation of an area’s scenic beauty.
tying up large parcels of land.
distance to urban centers where electricity is most needed.

Question 23
What type of solar energy system is illustrated below?
passive solar heating system
photovoltaic solar cell system
solar thermal electric generation
solar-generated hydrogen fuel cell
radiant energy convection solar heating system
Question 24
In rural areas of developing countries, photovoltaic cells are used for all
of the following purposes except

charging batteries.
heating hot water heaters.
providing refrigeration for vaccines.
grinding grain.
pumping water.
Question 25
Which of the following best describes how this geothermal heat pump
works?
the pressure of hot water from a deep well turns a turbine and generates
electricity.
steam separated from hot water pumped from underground turns a
turbine and generates electricity.

water is transferred from a deep well to a coil exposed to solar radiation
to heat the water sufficiently to generate steam, which turns a turbine
and generates electricity.
a pipe with heated oil is sent deep into Earth to initiate a volcanic
eruption then is tapped so that the energy can be used to generate
electricity.
water is transferred from a deep well into a hot water tank, which is kept
at a constant temperature by combustion of natural gas.
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