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PPSC CHEMISTRY CLASS
Test Session
Chapter: Chemistry of Carbonyl Group
Test No. 20
For more WhatsApp # 0313-7355727
Topics:
1- Introduction, Classification, Structure and Metabolism of Carbohydrates
2- Primary, Secondary and Tertiary structure of proteins
3. Lipids and Their Classification
Introduction, Classification, Structure and Metabolism of Carbohydrates
1. Non-digestible carbohydrates which serve as dietary fibers.
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Cellulose
D. Maltose
2. Which of the following carbohydrates are involved in detoxification?
A. Glucuronic acid
B. Glycogenic acid
C. Uronic acid
D. None of these
3. Which of the following is an example of branched glycan?
A. Glucose
B. Starch
C. Cellulose
D. Glycogen
4. When aldoses oxidize under proper conditions, they may form.
A. Aldonic acid
B. Saccharic acids
C. Uronic acid
D. All of these
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5. Carbohydrates with properties of crystalline nature, water soluble and sweet to taste
called.
A. Monosaccharides
B. Disaccharides
C. Oligosaccharide’s
D. Polysaccharides
6. Non-reducing disaccharides with no free aldehyde or keto group.
A. Sucrose
B. Fructose
C. Glucose
D. All of these
7. Sucrose is hydrolyzed to fructose and glucose by an enzyme which
called_______________.
A. Hydrolase
B. Phosphorylase
C. Ligase
D. Invertase
8. When polysaccharides contain two or more different types of monosaccharide units
or their derivatives called_____________.
A. Heteroglycans
B. Homoglycan
C. Starch
D. All of these
9. Partial hydrolysis of starch by acids or α-amylase (enzyme) produces substances
known as____________.
A. Dextrin
B. Starch
C. Glycogen
D. Pectin
10. Which of the following polysaccharide not fermented by yeast and present in honey?
A. Agar
B. Chitin
C. Pectin
D. Dextrin
11. Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given macromolecules?
a) Protein
b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrate
d) Vitamins
12. In carbohydrates which are the main functional groups are present?
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a) Alcohol & Carboxyl groups
b) Aldehyde & Ketone groups
c) Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
d) Carboxyl groups & Others
13. Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of which type
stereoisomer?
a) L-type
b) D-type
c) neutral
d) racemic mixture
14. Which is the simplest carbohydrate?
a) Dihydroxy acetone
b) Glycerldehyde
c) Glucose
d) Gulose
15. Which of the following is the examples of Epimers?
a) Glucose & Galactose
b) Glucose & Ribose
c) Mannose & Glucose
d) fructose and glucose
16. Which of the following is true about Turanose?
a) Reducing disaccharides of glucose and fructose
b) Non-reducing disaccharide
c) 7-methyl sugar
d) a deoxy sugar
17. Which of the following is not a disaccharide?
a) Sucrose
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Galactose
18. Which sugars are present in Sucrose?
a) Fructose and glucose
b) Glucose and glucose
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c) Glucose and galatose
d) Fructose and galatose
19. Which of the following carbohydrate do not have any essential nutritional value?
a) Sucrose
b) Cellulose
c) Dextrin
d) Glycogen
20. Which of the following will not be reactive towards seliwanoff reagent?
a) Maltose
b) Inulin
c) Fructose
d) Sucrose
21. Acid hydrolysis becomes important in the pulp and paper industry whenever we
process wood fibers below pH 2 or so at elevated temperatures.
a) True
b) False
22. If one treats _________ with 6 % w/w aqueous sulfuric acid under reflux, glucose is
obtained in high yield with little secondary decomposition.
a) Cellulose
b) Fructose
c) Starch
d) Lignin
23. If _________ are treated with strong acid such as 20% sulfuric acid at high
temperatures, they are first hydrolyzed to the component _________
a) Polysaccharides, monosaccharides
b) Monosaccharides, polysaccharides
c) Fructose, cellulose
d) Lignin, pulp
24. One can reduce the reducing end of mono- or polysaccharides by using sodium
borohydride (NaBH4) under _________ conditions at room temperature.
a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Alkaline
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d) Neutral
25. Under conditions of dilute alkali (perhaps 0.1 M NaOH at 100°C) _________ will
slowly undergo a reaction that causes C-2 epimerization (a change in configuration of
the second carbon atom).
a) Polymers
b) Polysaccharides
c) Monosaccharides
d) Fructose
26. What is the name of the question mark area?
a) 25% H2SO4, Reflux
b) 6% H2SO4, Reflux
c) Dilute OH-
d) Maximum Heat
27. What is the name of the question mark area?
a) 25% H2SO4, Reflux
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b) 6% H2SO4, Reflux
c) Dilute OH-
d) Maximum Heat
28. What is the name of the question mark area?
a) 25% H2SO4, Reflux
b) 6% H2SO4, Reflux
c) Dilute OH-
d) Maximum Heat
29. What is the name of the question mark area?
a) 25% H2SO4, Reflux
b) 6% H2SO4, Reflux
c) Dilute OH-
d) Maximum Heat
30. What is the name of the question mark area?
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a) 25% H2SO4, Reflux
b) 6% H2SO4, Reflux
c) Dilute OH-
d) Maximum Heat
31. Stereochemistry is introduced at the aldehyde C atom, there are 2 possible products,
which are known as anomers.
a) Monomers
b) Anomers
c) Monosaccharies
d) Glycosidic
32. The C atom of the aldehyde or ketone is entitled the anomeric C atom.
a) True
b) False
33. The cyclic forms of carbohydrates are represented by Kraft projections.
a) True
b) False
34. The acid- or base-catalyzed conversion of 1 anomer into its equilibrium mixture of
anomers is known _________
a) Optical rotation
b) Muto rotation
c) Hetero rotation
d) Homo rotation
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35. More complex carbohydrates occur in nature when 2 or more simple sugars are
linked altogether. In nature, the linkages are _________ linkages, that’s, acetal or ketal
bonds involving the anomeric carbon of just one of the monosaccharides involved.
These bonds are called _________ linkages.
a) Glycosidic
b) Optical
c) Muto
d) Hydrosilic
36. _________ linkages of compounds in aqueous solution are subject to hydrolysis in
the presence of acid at flow back temp.
a) Glycosidic
b) Optical
c) Muto
d) Hydrosilic
37. What is the name of the compound?
a) D-glucose
b) D-fructose
c) L-glucose
d) 4-O-methyl-D-glucuronic
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38. What is the name of the compound?
a) D-glucose
b) 1-O-methyl-L-glucuronic
c) L-glucose
d) 4-O-methyl-D-glucuronic
39. What is the name of the compound?
a) D-glucose
b) D-fructose
c) L-glucose
d) 4-O-methyl-D-glucuronic
40. What is the name of the compound?
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a) D-glucose
b) D-fructose
c) L-glucose
d) 4-O-methyl-D-glucuronic
41. During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?
a) Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is
lost from its amino group of another amino acid
b) Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is
lost from its amino group of another amino acid
c) Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is
lost from its amino group of another amino acid
d) Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is
lost from its amino group of another amino acid
42. Peptide bond is a _________
a) Covalent bond
b) Ionic bond
c) Metallic bond
d) Hydrogen bond
43. A tripeptide has _________
a) 3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
b) 3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
c) 3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
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d) 3 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds
44. The factor which does not affect pKa value of an amino acid is _________
a) The loss of charge in the α-carboxyl and α-amino groups
b) The interactions with other peptide R groups
c) Other environmental factors
d) Molecular weight
45. Which of the following is a 39-residue hormone of the anterior pituitary gland?
a) Corticotropin
b) Glucagon
c) Insulin
d) Bradykinin
46. The average molecular weight of an amino acid residue in a protein is about
_________
a) 128
b) 118
c) 110
d) 120
47. Which of the following is not the classified form of conjugated proteins?
a) Lipoproteins
b) Glycoproteins
c) Metalloproteins
d) Complete proteins
48. Which part of the amino acid gives it uniqueness?
a) Amino group
b) Carboxyl group
c) Side chain
d) None of the mentioned
49. Which of the following information is responsible to specify the three-dimensional
shape of a protein?
a) The protein’s peptide bond
b) The protein’s amino acid sequence
c) The protein’s interaction with other polypeptides
d) The protein’s interaction with molecular chaperons
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50. Unfolding of a protein can be termed as _________
a) Renaturation
b) Denaturation
c) Oxidation
d) Reduction
51. What are the following is not a factor responsible for the denaturation of proteins?
a) pH change
b) Organic solvents
c) Heat
d) Charge
52. The salt which produces salting out effect during extraction of proteins is?
a) NH4 SO4
b) (NH4)2 SO4
c) (NH4)3 SO4
d) NaCl
53. Mobile phase can be ___________
a) Only solid
b) Only gas
c) Solid or liquid
d) Liquid or gas
54. The pattern on paper in chromatography is called __________
a) Chroming
b) Chroma
c) Chromatograph
d) Chromatogram
55. Which of the following statements about column chromatography is correct?
a) Resolution increases as the length of the column increases
b) Mobile phase is a porous solid material with appropriate chemical properties held in the
column
c) Stationary phase is a buffered solution that percolates through mobile phase
d) Large proteins emerge from the column sooner than small ones
56. Which of the following statements is true about size-exclusion chromatography?
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a) During the separation of a mixture of proteins, protein with smallest molecular weight is
eluted first
b) During the separation of a mixture of proteins, protein with largest molecular weight is
eluted first
c) During the separation of a mixture of proteins, protein with largest molecular weight is
eluted last
d) During the separation of a mixture of proteins, protein with largest molecular weight flow
around the beads
57. Which of the following statements is true about affinity chromatography?
a) During the separation of a mixture of proteins, the protein which does not bind to ligand is
eluted first
b) During the separation of a mixture of proteins, the protein which does not bind to ligand is
eluted last
c) During the separation of a mixture of proteins, the protein which binds to ligand is eluted
first
d) Unwanted proteins are eluted by ligand solution
58. Which of the following statements is true about ion-exchange chromatography?
a) It separates proteins according to their size
b) The column matrix with bound anionic groups is called cationic exchanger
c) The column matrix with bound anionic groups is called anionic exchanger
d) The column matrix with bound cationic groups is called cationic exchanger
59. Which of the following statements is true about SDS polyacrylamide chromatog-
raphy?
a) SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis separates proteins on the basis of size
b) SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis separates proteins on the basis of charge
c) SDS binds to proteins non-covalently with a stoichiometry of around one SDS molecule
per three amino acids
d) SDS binds to proteins non-covalently with a stoichiometry of around one SDS molecule
per one amino acid
60. Which of the following statements is true about two-dimensional electrophoresis?
a) Separates proteins of identical molecular weight, same pI but different charge
b) Separates proteins of different molecular weight and different pI
c) Separates proteins of identical molecular weight that differ in pI
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d) Isoelectric focusing is also termed as two-dimensional electrophoresis
61. Which of the following statements is false?
a) The term activity refers to the total units of enzyme in a solution
b) The specific activity is a measure of enzyme purity
c) Specific activity increases during purification of an enzyme and becomes maximal and
constant when the enzyme is pure
d) Specific activity decreases during purification of an enzyme and becomes maximal and
constant when the enzyme is pure
62. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
b) Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimension-
al structure
c) Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
d) Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein
View Answer
63. Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?
a) Frederick Sanger
b) Mendel
c) Watson and Francis Crick
d) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
64. Two chains of amino acids in an insulin molecule are held together by __________
a) Sulfide bridges
b) Disulfide bridges
c) Peptide bond
d) Covalent linkage
65. Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic,
hydrogen and __________
a) Sulfide
b) Disulfide
c) Covalent
d) Peptide
View Answer
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66. Hemoglobin is a __________
a) Monomer
b) Dimer
c) Trimer
d) Tetramer
67. Which of the following is false?
a) The two main types of secondary structure are the α helix and β pleet structures
b) α helix is a right handed coiled strand
c) The hydrogen bonding in a β-sheet is between strands rather than within strands
d) The hydrogen bonding in a β-sheet is within strands rather than between strands
68. Native state of a protein can be disrupted by __________
a) Temperature
b) pH
c) Removal of water
d) Presence of hydrophilic surfaces
69. Which of the following is true?
a) The disulfide bridges formed by reduction of the sulfhydryl groups on cysteine stabilizes
protein tertiary structure
b) The disulfide bridges formed by oxidation of the sulfhydryl groups on cysteine destabilizes
protein tertiary structure
c) The disulfide bridges formed by oxidation of the sulfhydryl groups on cysteine stabilizes
protein tertiary structure
d) The disulfide bridges formed by reduction of the sulfhydryl groups on cysteine destabilizes
protein tertiary structure
70. Identify the wrong statement.
a) Hemoglobin is a globular protein
b) Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
c) Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
d) Collagen is a fibrous protein
71. In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by __________
a) Hydrophobic interactions
b) Polar interactions
c) Hydrogen bonding
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d) None of the mentioned
72. Amino acids sequence in DNA can be determined by the order of their _________
a) rRNA
b) tRNA
c) Nucleotides
d) mRNA
73. Which of the following is a Sanger’s reagent?
a) 1-fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene
b) 1-fluoro-2, 3-dinitrobenzene
c) 1-fluoro-2, 4-trinitrobenzene
d) 1-fluoro-2, 3-trinitrobenzene
74. The amino acid sequences of thousands of different proteins from many species have
been determined using principles first developed by?
a) Edman
b) Sanger
c) Mendel
d) Watson and Crick
75. Which of the following compound is not involved in Edman degradation?
a) Phenylisothiocyanate
b) CF3 COOH
c) FDNB
d) Phenylthiocarbonyl
76. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Oxidation of cysteine residue with performic acid is done to break disulfide bond in pro-
teins
b) Reduction of cysteine residue with dithiothreitol is done to break disulfide bond in proteins
c) Reduction of cysteine residue with performic acid is done to break disulfide bond in pro-
teins
d) Reduced cysteine is further acetylated by iodoacetate
77. Cleaving of peptide chain is done by _________
a) Trypsin
b) Tyrosine
c) Tryptophan
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d) Arginine
78. Which of the following is the correct order of sequencing?
a) Cleaving, sequencing and ordering
b) Sequencing, ordering and cleaving
c) Ordering, cleaving and sequencing
d) Ordering, sequencing and cleaving
79. Edman degradation is used for _________
a) Identifying N-terminal amino acids
b) Identifying C-terminal amino acids
c) Identifying amino acid
d) Identifying carbohydrates
80. What best summarizes the MALDI method by which gas phase ions are produced
for mass spectrometry?
a) Sample is hit by a low energy xenon beam
b) Sample is forced through a narrow capillary tube and the solvent rapidly evaporates
c) Sample is embedded in a crystalline matrix and bombarded by laser beams
d) Sample is heated and then bombarded by electrons
81. Fibroin is rich in ________
a) Alanine and Glycine
b) Alanine
c) Glycine
d) Pro
82. Which of the following bonds are not involved in tertiary type of protein structure?
a) Disulfide bond
b) Hydrogen bonding
c) Salt bridges
d) Hydrophilic interactions
83. Which of the following does not possess a quaternary structure?
a) Myoglobin
b) Lactate dehydrogenase
c) Immunoglobin M
d) Creatine Phospho Kinase
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84. Which of the following is abundantly found in collagen?
a) Glycine
b) Serine
c) Alanine
d) Tryptophan
85. Which of the following is first determined as oligomer?
a) Myoglobin
b) Collagen
c) Keratin
d) Hemoglobin
86. Which of the following is false?
a) Lysozyme has S-S linkage
b) Ribonuclease has S-S linkage
c) Heme group in cytochrome c is covalently linked to the protein on two sides
d) Ribonuclease has SH-SH linkage
87. Which of the following enzyme is secreted by the pancreas?
a) Ribonuclease
b) Lysozyme
c) Cytochrome c
d) Myoglobin
88. Which of the following is a component of mitochondria?
a) Ribonuclease
b) Lysozyme
c) Cytochrome c
d) Myoglobin
89 Which of the following serves as bactericidal agent?
a) Ribonuclease
b) Lysozyme
c) Cytochrome c
d) Myoglobin
View Answer
90. Which of the following is false about fibrous protein?
a) It is in rod or wire like shape
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b) Keratin and collagen are the best examples
c) Hemoglobin is the best example
d) It provides structural support for cells and tissues
Lipids and Their Classification
91.Which of the following is false about lipids?
a) They are either strongly hydrophobic or amphipathic
b) They are more soluble in water
c) Extraction of lipids from tissues require organic solvents
d) They are insoluble in water
92.Which would move faster in thin layer chromatography?
a) Beeswax
b) Phosphatidylinositol
c) Cholesterol
d) Steroid
93.In which type of chromatography, solvents of increasing polarity are passed through
a column of silica gel?
a) High performance liquid chromatography
b) Thin layer chromatography
c) Adsorption chromatography
d) Gas-liquid chromatography
94.Phosphatidylinositol, phosphatidylglycerol and phosphatidylserine are easily sepa-
rated by __________
a) Absorption chromatography
b) TLC
c) HPLC
d) Gas-liquid chromatography
95.For the determination of fatty acid composition, transesterification is done in a warm
aqueous solution of __________
a) KCl+methanol
b) KOH+methanol
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c) NaOH+methanol
d) H2O+methanol
View Answer
96.A mixture of fatty acyl methyl esters are separated based on __________
a) Charge
b) Chain length and degree of saturation
c) Molecular weight
d) Ionic size
97.Which technique is preferred in the separation of fatty acyl methyl esters from a
mixture?
a) Gas-liquid chromatography
b) Absorption chromatography
c) TLC
d) Centrifugation
98.The dye used in TLC for detecting separated lipids by spraying the plate is
__________
a) Mordant
b) Alizarin
c) Rhodamine
d) Fuchsin
99.Which of the following is not a phospholipase?
a) A
b) C
c) D
d) K
100.In which type of chromatography lipids are carried up a silica gel coated pate by a
rising solvent front, less polar travels farther than the more polar ones?
a) Absorption chromatography
b) Thin layer chromatography
c) Gas-liquid chromatography
d) HPLC