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Introduction to Quantum
Theory of Angular Momentum

1
Angular Momentum
 AM

begins to permeate QM when you
move from 1-d to 3-d
 This discussion is based on postulating
rules for the components of AM
 Discussion is independent of whether
spin, orbital angular momenta, or total
momentum.

2
Definition
An angular momentum, J, is a linear
operator with 3 components (Jx, Jy, Jz)
whose commutation properties are defined
as

 

J × J = iJ

3
Or in component form

ˆ ˆ
 J y , J z  = J y J z − J z J y = iJ x


ˆ ˆ
 J z , J x  = J z J x − J x J z = iJ y


ˆ ˆ
 J x , J y  = J x J y − J y J x = iJ z



4
Convention
Jz is diagonal
For example:

 1 0 
Jz = 
 0 − 1

2

1 0 0 


J z =  0 0 0 
 0 0 − 1



5
Therefore

J z j m = m j m
Where |jm> is an eigenket
h-bar m is an eigenvalue
For a electron with spin up

1 1
1 1 1
J z ,+
= +  ,+
2 2
2 2 2
Or spin down

1 1
1 1 1
J z ,− = −  ,−
2 2
2 2 2
6
Definition

J =J +J +J
2

2
x

2
y

2
z

These Simple Definitions
have some major
consequences!

7
THM

[J , J ] = 0
2

i

where i = x, y, z

Proof:

 J 2 , J x  =  J x2 , J x  +  J y2 , J x  +  J z2 , J x 

 
 
 

Recall [ A, BC ] = [ A, B ] C + B [ A, C ]
Jx, J 2  = [ Jx, J y ] J y + J y [ Jx, J y ] + [ Jx, Jz ] Jz + Jz [ Jx, Jz ]


 J x , J 2  = iJ z J y + J y (iJ z ) + ( −iJ y ) J z + J z (−iJ y )


Jz , J 2  = 0



QED
8
Raising and Lowering Operators
Lowering Operator

J = J x − iJ y
Raising Operator

J = J x + iJ y
+

9
Product of J and J +
JJ+ = J x + J y − iJ y J x + iJ x J y
2

2

JJ = J x + J y + i[ J x , J y ]
+

2

2

JJ = J x + J y − J z
+

2

2

and obviously ,
J J = J x + J y + J z
+

2

2

10
Fallout
JJ + J J = 2( J x + J y )
+

+

2

2

JJ + J J = 2( J − J z )
+

+

2

2

1
2
+
+
(JJ + J J) + J z = J 2
2
and the difference,
[ J,J+ ] = −2J z
11
Proof that J is the lowering operator
J z J jm = J z ( J x − iJ y ) jm
J z J jm = ( J z J x − iJ z J y ) jm
from 1st definition, J z J y = J y J z + iJ x
J z J j m = [( J x J z + iJ y ) − i ( J y J z + iJ x )] j m
and J z j m = m j m
J z J j m = [(mJ x + iJ y ) − (imJ y + iJ x )] j m
J z J j m = (m − 1)( J x − iJ y ) j m
J z J j m = (m − 1) J j m
J z J j m = (m − 1) j m − 1

It is a lowering operator
since it works on a state
with an eigenvalue, m, and
produces a new state with
eigenvalue of m-1
12
[J2,Jz]=0 indicates J2 and Jz are
simultaneous observables
J 2 j m =  2λ j m
2

2

(J x + J y ) j m = (J − J ) j m
2

2
z

( J x + J y ) j m = ( λ −  m ) j m
2

2

2

2

2

Since Jx and Jy are Hermitian, they must have real
eigenvalues so λ-m2 must be positive!

λ is both an upper and LOWER limit to m!
13
Let msmall=lower bound on m and
let mlarge=upper bound on m
J+ j mlarge = 0

J j msmall = 0

JJ+ j mlarge = 0

J J j msmall = 0
+

( J + J + J z ) j msmall = 0
2
x

2
y

( J 2 − J z2 + J z ) j msmall = 0
2
J 2 j msmall =  2 (msmall − msmall ) j msmall

2
2
( J x + J y − J z ) j mlarge = 0

( J 2 − J z2 − J z ) j mlarge = 0
2
J 2 j mlarge =  2 (m large + m large ) j m large

2
msmall − m small = ml2arg e + m l arg e

msmall

1 + ml arg e
=
 − ml arg e

mlarge cannot any larger

14
Final Relation
2
J 2 j mlarge =  2 (m large + m large ) j m large

J 2 j mlarge =  2 m large (m large + 1) j m large
and for msmall
J 2 j msmall =  2 msmall (msmall − 1) j msmall
msmall = −mlarge
J 2 j msmall =  2 (− mlarge )(− mlarge − 1) j msmall
J 2 j msmall =  2 mlarge (mlarge + 1) j msmall
So the eigenvalue is mlarge*(mlarge +1) for any value of m

J

2

j m =  j ( j + 1) j m
2

15
Four Properties
1) J

2

j m = j ( j + 1) j m
2

2) m = − j , − j + 1,  , j − 1, j
3) Exactly (2 j + 1) values possible
4) Since (2 j + 1) = integer , then
j = 0 , 1 , 1 , 3 , 2 ,
2
2
16
Conclusions
 As

a result of property 2), m is called the
projection of j on the z-axis
 m is called the magnetic quantum
number because of the its importance in
the study of atoms in a magnetic field
 Result 4) applies equally integer or halfinteger values of spin, or orbital angular
momentum
17
END OF LECTURE 1

18
Matrix Elements of J
j m′ J 2 j m =  2 j ( j + 1)δ m ,m′
j m′ J z j m = mδ m ,m′
J j m = c j m −1

Indicates a diagonal
matrix

and j m ( J 2 − J z2 + J z ) j m = c

j m J+ = c* j m − 1

2

j m ( j ( j + 1) 2 −  2 m 2 +  2 m) j m = c
2

( j ( j + 1) − m 2 + m) 2 = c

but J J = ( J − J + J z )

2

c = ( j + m)( j − m + 1) 2

jm J J jm =c c= c
+

+

*

2

2
z

2

2

19
Theorems
J j m = ( j + m)( j − m + 1)  j m − 1
and
J+ j m = ( j − m)( j + m + 1)  j m + 1
And we can make matrices of the eigenvalues, but these matrices are
NOT diagonal

j m − 1 J j m = ( j + m)( j − m + 1) δ m ,m −1
and
j m + 1 J+ j m = ( j − m)( j + m + 1)  δ m,m +1

20
Fun with the Raising and Lowering
Operators

J = J x − iJ y
J = J x + iJ y
+

J+ J
Jx =
2

+

⇒

( J - J )i
Jy =
2
+

21
A matrix approach to Eigenvalues
If j=0, then all elements are zero! B-O-R-I-N-G!
j= 1/2

1
11
= 
 0
22
 

final m

1 −1  0
= 
1
2 2
 

1 −1 1 1
 1 1  1 1 
J
=  +  − + 1
2 2
2 2
 2 2  2 2 
1 −1 1 1
J
=
2 2
2 2
and
1 1 + 1 −1
J
=
2 2
2 2

m1

m2

1
2

−1
2

Initial m

m1
m2
so

1
0
2
−1

2

0
0

Therefore,
 0 0
J = 
1 0




What does
J + look like?
22
Using our relations,
Answer:

0 1
J = 
0 0



+

J + J+   0 1 
Jx =
= 
1 0

2
2

and
(J − J )i   0 − i 
Jy =
= 
i 0 

2
2

and finally ,
+

Jz =

 1 0 

 0 − 1

2


3 2  1 0 

J2 =
0 1

4 


Pauli Spin Matrices

0 1
σx =
1 0



0 − i
σy =
i 0 



1 0 
σz =
 0 − 1




23
J=1, An Exercise for the Students
Hint:

1
 
11 =  0 
 0
 

0
 
1 0 = 1
0
 

 0
 
1 −1 =  0 
1
 

 0 0 0


J = 2  1 0 0 
 0 1 0



24
Rotation Matices
 We

want to show how to rotate
eigenstates of angular momentum
 First, let’s look at translation
 For a plane wave:
ψ ( x) = e ik x x for 1 − d
px
since k x =
then for 3 − d

 
(r ⋅ p)
i

ψ (r ) = e 
25
A translation by a distance, A, then
looks like

 
ψ (r − a ) = e

  
( r − a )⋅ p
i



= ψ ( r )e

 
a⋅ p
−i


translation operator

Rotations about a given axis commute, so a
finite rotation is a sequence of infinitesimal
rotations
Now we need to define an operator for rotation
that rotates by amount, θ, in direction of θ
26
So
ˆ ˆ
if θ = x, then θ x J x
so a rotation operator looks like :
ˆ
U ( n, θ ) = e


ˆ
(θ n )⋅ J
−i


Where n-hat points along the axis of rotation
Suppose we rotated through an angle φ about the z-axis

U ( z, φ ) = e

φJ z
−i

27
Using a Taylor (actually Maclaurin)
series expansion
x 2 x3
e = 1+ x + + +
2! 3!
so
x

U ( z, φ ) j m = e

− iφJ z


jm
n

n
 − iφ  J z
U ( z, φ ) j m = ∑ 
jm

  n!
n =0 
∞

but

J zn j m = ( m ) j m
n

 − iφ  ( m )
U ( z, φ ) j m = ∑ 

  n!
n =0 
∞

n

n

jm

U ( z , φ ) j m = e −iφm j m
so
U ( z , φ ) = e −imφ
28
What if φ = 2π?
U ( z ,2π ) j m = e −2πim j m
U ( z ,2π ) j m = ± j m

"+" for j = 0, 1, 2, 3, 

1 3 5 7
"−" for j = , , , , 
2 2 2 2
The naïve expectation is

that thru 2π and no
change.
This is true only if j=
integer. This is called
symmetric
BUT for ½ integer, this
is not true and is called
anti-symmetric

29
Let j=1/2 (for convenience it could
be any value of j)
 0 1


2 1 0


  0 1    0 1  2  1 0 2 
2
 
= 
= 1
Jx = 
2 1 0 2 1 0 4 0 1 4

 



3  0 1 
4 
3
4
 Jx = 1
Jx = 
8 1 0
16


Jx =

− iθ 1
( J x )n
n!
n =0 
∞

U ( x, θ ) = ∑

iθ
U ( x, θ ) = 1 −
2

 0 1  θ 2  1 0  iθ 3  0 1  θ 4  1 0 

 1 0  − 2 2 2!  0 1  + 233!  1 0  + 2 4 4!  0 1  + 
















 1 0 
θ2
θ4
1 − 2 + 4 + 
U ( x, θ ) = 
 0 1  2 2! 2 4!





 0 1  θ θ 3
θ5
 − 3 + 5 + 
− i
 1 0  2 2 3! 2 5!





30
Using the sine and cosine relation

so

x3 x5
sin x = x − + +  and
3! 5!

θ

 cos
2
U ( x, θ ) = 
 i sin θ

2


x2 x4
cos x = 1 − + + 
2! 4!

θ
− i sin 
2  and if θ = 2π , U ( x,2π ) = − 1 0 

0 1

θ 


cos 
2 

And it should be no surprise, that a rotation of β around the y-axis is

β

cos

2
U ( y, β ) = 
 sin β

2


β

2
β
cos 

2 

− sin

31
Consequences





If one rotates around y-axis, all real numbers
Whenever possible, try to rotate around zaxis since operator is a scalar
If not possible, try to arrange all non-diagonal
efforts on the y-axis
Matrix elements of a rotation about the y-axis
are referred to by

d m′ m ( β )
j

32
And

d mj′ m ( β ) ≡ j m′ U ( y, β ) j m

Example :
1
11
= 
 0
22
 
then

β

 cos
2
d 1 1 ( β ) = (1 0 ) 
β
 sin
22

2

1
2

1
2

d 1 1 ( β ) = cos
22

β

2  1 
 
β  0 
cos  
2 

− sin

β
2

Wigner’s Formula (without proof)

β
β
(− 1) k (cos ) 2 j + m− m '− 2 k (sin ) m '− m+ 2 k
2
2
d mj′ m ( β ) = ( j + m)!( j − m)!( j + m' )!( j − m)'!∑
k ( j − m'− k )!( j + m − k )!( k + m'− m)! k!
33
Certain symmetry properties of d functions are useful
in reducing labor and calculating rotation matrix

j
j
d m m ' ( β ) = (−1) m − m ' d m ' m ( β )

d

j
−m' −m

d

j
m'm

−1

(β )

(π − β ) = (−1)

1

∫d

(β ) = d

j
m'm

j
m m'

(β ) d

j'
m m'

j −m'

d

j
m'm

(β )

2
( β ) d (cos β ) =
δ j j'
2 j +1

34
Coupling of Angular Momenta
 We

wish to couple J1 and J2

 

J1 + J 2 = J 3

 From

Physics 320 and 321, we know
j1 − j2 ≤ j3 ≤ j1 + j2
      
2 + 3 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

 But

since Jz is diagonal, m3=m1+m2
35
Coupling cont’d





The resulting eigenstate
is called
And is assumed to be
capable of expansion of
series of terms each of
with is the product of 2
angular momentum
eigenstates conceived of
riding in 2 different
vector spaces
Such products are called
“direct products”

j3 m3

j1 m1 j2 m2
36
Coupling cont’d






The separateness of
spaces is most apparent
when 1 term is orbital
angular momentum and
the other is spin
Because of the
separateness of spaces,
the direct product is
commutative
The product is
sometimes written as

j1 m1 ⊗ j2 m2
37
Proof of commutative property
Let

c = a ⊗b = a b

cc = a b a b = a a b b
cc = b b a a = b a b a
c = b a = b ⊗a

38
The expansion is written as
j j
j3 m3 = ∑ Cm11 m22 j3 j1 m1 j2 m2
m1

C

j1 j2 j3
m1 m2

Is called the Clebsch-Gordan coefficient
Or Wigner coefficient
Or vector coupling coefficient

Some make the C-G coefficient look like an inner product, thus
j j
Take j3 m3 = ∑ Cm11 m22 j3 j1 m1 j2 m2

and multiply by j1 m1 j2 m2

m1

and thus

j j
j1 j2 j3 m1 m2 j3 m3 = Cm11 m22 j3

39
A simple formula for C-G
coefficients
j j
Cm11 m22 j3 =

( j3 + j1 − j2 )!( j3 − j1 + j2 )!( j1 + j2 − j3 )!( j3 − m3 )!( j3 + m3 )!( 2 j3 − 1) ×
( −1) k + j2 + m2 ( j3 + j2 − m1 − k )! ( j1 − m1 + k )!
∑ ( j − j + j − k )! ( j + m − k )! k! (k + j − j − m )!
k
3
1
2
3
3
1
2
3

•Proceeds over all integer values of k
•Begin sum with k=0 or (j1-j2-m3) (which ever is larger)
•Ends with k=(j3-j1-j2) or k=j3+m3 (which ever is smaller)
•Always use Stirling’s formula log (n!)= n*log(n)

Best approach: use a table!!!
40
What if I don’t have a table?
And I’m afraid of the “simple” formula?
Well, there is another path… a 9-step
path!

41
9 Steps to Success
1.

Get your values of j1 and j2

2.

Identify possible values of j3

3.

Begin with the “stretched cases” where
j1+j2=j3 and m1=j1, m2=j2 , and m3=j3, thus |j3
m3>=|j1 m1>|j2 m2>

4.

From J3=J1+J2,, it follows that the
lowering operator can be written as
J 3=J 1+J 2
42
9 Steps to Success, cont’d
5.
6.
7.
8.

Operate J 3|j3 m3>=(J 1+J 2 )|j1 m1>|j2 m2>
Use

j m − 1 J j m = ( j + m)( j − m + 1)

Continue to lower until j3=|j1-j2|, where m1=-j1 , m2=
-j2, and m3= -j3
Construct |j3 m3 > = |j1+j2 -1 j1+j2-1> so that it is
orthogonal to |j1+j2 j1+j2-1>
Adopt convention of Condon and Shortley,
if j1 > j2 and m1 > m2 then
Cm1 m2j1 j2 j3 > 0
(or if m1 =j1 then coefficient positive!)
43
9 Steps to Success, cont’d
9.

Continue lowering and orthogonalizin’ until
complete!

Now isn’t that easier?
And much simpler…
You don’t believe me… I’m hurt.
I know! How about an example?
44
A CG Example: j1 =1/2 and j2 =1/2
Step 1

Step 2

Step 3

1 1
In CG speak :
⊗
2 2
so
1 1
1 1
j3 = +
j3 = −
2 2
2 2
The stretched case is
11
11 3 =
22

1

11
22

2

45
Steps 4 and 5 and
j m −1 J j m =
6->
J3 11 3 = ( J + J2 )
1

11
22

1

11
22

=J
1
2

11
22

11
22

1

( j + m)( j − m + 1)

+ J2
2

11
22

1

11
22

2

One step at a time 
J3 11 3 = (1 + 1)(1 − 1 + 1) 1 0 3 = 2 1 0

3

Now J only operates on space 1 stuff and J2 only operates on space 2 stuff so
1
J
1

11
22

1

11
22

11
11
J2
22 1 22

= 1
2

= 1
2

1 −1
2 2
11
22

11
22

2

1 −1
2 2

2

1

1

so
2 1 0 3 = 1
10 3 =

1 −1
2 2

1  1 −1

2 2 2


1

1

11
22

11
22

+ 1
2

+
2

11
22

11
22

1

1

1 −1
2 2

1 −1
2 2

2




2

46
Step 7—Keep lowering
J3 1 0 3 = (1 + 0)(1 − 0 + 1) 1 − 1 3 = 2 1 − 1 3
J
1

1 −1
2 2

1

11
22

1 −1
11
J2
2 2 1 22

=0
2

= 1
2

11
22

1

1 −1
2 2

2

so
2 1 − 1 3 =

  1 −1

2 2 2


2 1 − 1
2 1 − 1 3 =
2 2 2

1

1 −1
2 2

1

1 −1
2 2

+
2

1 −1
2 2

1

As low as
we go

2

1 −1 3 =

1

1 −1
2 2

1 −1
1 −1
= 2
2 2
2 2




2
1 −1
2 2 2

1 −1
2 2

1

47
An aside to simplify notation
11
Let
= +
22

and

1 −1
= −
2 2

Now we have derived 3 symmetric states

11 = + +
1
(− + + + −
10 =
2
1−1 = − −

)

Note these are also
symmetric from the
standpoint that we can
permute space 1 and space
2
Which is 1? Which is 2?
“I am not a number; I am a
free man!”
48
The infamous step 8


“Construct |j3 m3 > = |j1+j2 -1 j1+j2-1> so
that it is orthogonal to |j1+j2 j1+j2-1>”

j1+j2=1 and j1+j2-1=0 for this case so we
want to construct a vector orthogonal
to |1 0>
 The new vector will be |0 0>


49
Performing Step 8
10 =

(

1
−1+ 2+ +1−
2

2

)

An orthogonal vector to this could be

−1+ 2− +1−

2

or

+1− 2− −1+

2

Must obey Condon and Shortley: if m1=j1,, then positive value
j1=1/2 and |+> represents m= ½ , so only choice is

(

1
00 =
+1− 2− −1+
2

2

)
50
Step 9– The End
11 = + +
1
(− + + + −
10 =
2
1−1 = − −

)

These three symmetric states
are called the “triplet” states.
They are symmetric to any
permutation of the spaces

00 =

(

1
+1− 2− −1+
2

2

)

This state is anti-symmetric
and is called the “singlet”
state. If we permute space 1
and space 2, we get a wave
function that is the negative of
the original state.

51
A CG Table look up Problem
Part 1—
Two particles of spin 1 are at rest in a
configuration where the total spin is 1
and the m-component is 0. If you
measure the z-component of the second
particle, what values of might you get
and what is the probability of each zcomponent?
52
CG Helper Diagram

j1 ⊗ j2
m1

j3
m3

m2
C
It is understood that a “C” means
square root of “C” (i.e. all radicals
omitted)
53
Solution to Part 1
 Look

at 1 x 1 table
 Find j3 = 1 and m3 = 0
 There

3 values under these
m1

m2

1
0

-1
0

1/2
0

-1

1

-1/2
54
So the final part
m2

C

Prob

-1

1/2

½

0

0

0

1

-1/2

½

55
Part 2
An electron is spin up in a state, ψ5 2 1 ,
where 5 is the principle quantum
number, 2 is orbital angular momentum,
and 1 is the z-component.
If you could measure the angular
momentum of the electron alone, what
values of j could you get and their
probabilities?
56
Solution
 Look

at the 2 x ½ table since electron is spin
½ and orbital angular momentum is 2
 Now find the values for m1=1 and m2=1/2
 There

are two values across from these:
 4/5 which has j3 = 5/2
 -1/5

which has j3 = 3/2

 So

j3=5/2 has probability of 4/5

 So

j3 = 3/2 has probability of 1/5
57

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Momentum sudut total

  • 1. Introduction to Quantum Theory of Angular Momentum 1
  • 2. Angular Momentum  AM begins to permeate QM when you move from 1-d to 3-d  This discussion is based on postulating rules for the components of AM  Discussion is independent of whether spin, orbital angular momenta, or total momentum. 2
  • 3. Definition An angular momentum, J, is a linear operator with 3 components (Jx, Jy, Jz) whose commutation properties are defined as    J × J = iJ 3
  • 4. Or in component form ˆ ˆ  J y , J z  = J y J z − J z J y = iJ x   ˆ ˆ  J z , J x  = J z J x − J x J z = iJ y   ˆ ˆ  J x , J y  = J x J y − J y J x = iJ z   4
  • 5. Convention Jz is diagonal For example:  1 0  Jz =   0 − 1  2  1 0 0    J z =  0 0 0   0 0 − 1   5
  • 6. Therefore J z j m = m j m Where |jm> is an eigenket h-bar m is an eigenvalue For a electron with spin up 1 1 1 1 1 J z ,+ = +  ,+ 2 2 2 2 2 Or spin down 1 1 1 1 1 J z ,− = −  ,− 2 2 2 2 2 6
  • 7. Definition J =J +J +J 2 2 x 2 y 2 z These Simple Definitions have some major consequences! 7
  • 8. THM [J , J ] = 0 2 i where i = x, y, z Proof:  J 2 , J x  =  J x2 , J x  +  J y2 , J x  +  J z2 , J x          Recall [ A, BC ] = [ A, B ] C + B [ A, C ] Jx, J 2  = [ Jx, J y ] J y + J y [ Jx, J y ] + [ Jx, Jz ] Jz + Jz [ Jx, Jz ]    J x , J 2  = iJ z J y + J y (iJ z ) + ( −iJ y ) J z + J z (−iJ y )   Jz , J 2  = 0   QED 8
  • 9. Raising and Lowering Operators Lowering Operator J = J x − iJ y Raising Operator J = J x + iJ y + 9
  • 10. Product of J and J + JJ+ = J x + J y − iJ y J x + iJ x J y 2 2 JJ = J x + J y + i[ J x , J y ] + 2 2 JJ = J x + J y − J z + 2 2 and obviously , J J = J x + J y + J z + 2 2 10
  • 11. Fallout JJ + J J = 2( J x + J y ) + + 2 2 JJ + J J = 2( J − J z ) + + 2 2 1 2 + + (JJ + J J) + J z = J 2 2 and the difference, [ J,J+ ] = −2J z 11
  • 12. Proof that J is the lowering operator J z J jm = J z ( J x − iJ y ) jm J z J jm = ( J z J x − iJ z J y ) jm from 1st definition, J z J y = J y J z + iJ x J z J j m = [( J x J z + iJ y ) − i ( J y J z + iJ x )] j m and J z j m = m j m J z J j m = [(mJ x + iJ y ) − (imJ y + iJ x )] j m J z J j m = (m − 1)( J x − iJ y ) j m J z J j m = (m − 1) J j m J z J j m = (m − 1) j m − 1 It is a lowering operator since it works on a state with an eigenvalue, m, and produces a new state with eigenvalue of m-1 12
  • 13. [J2,Jz]=0 indicates J2 and Jz are simultaneous observables J 2 j m =  2λ j m 2 2 (J x + J y ) j m = (J − J ) j m 2 2 z ( J x + J y ) j m = ( λ −  m ) j m 2 2 2 2 2 Since Jx and Jy are Hermitian, they must have real eigenvalues so λ-m2 must be positive! λ is both an upper and LOWER limit to m! 13
  • 14. Let msmall=lower bound on m and let mlarge=upper bound on m J+ j mlarge = 0 J j msmall = 0 JJ+ j mlarge = 0 J J j msmall = 0 + ( J + J + J z ) j msmall = 0 2 x 2 y ( J 2 − J z2 + J z ) j msmall = 0 2 J 2 j msmall =  2 (msmall − msmall ) j msmall 2 2 ( J x + J y − J z ) j mlarge = 0 ( J 2 − J z2 − J z ) j mlarge = 0 2 J 2 j mlarge =  2 (m large + m large ) j m large 2 msmall − m small = ml2arg e + m l arg e msmall 1 + ml arg e =  − ml arg e mlarge cannot any larger 14
  • 15. Final Relation 2 J 2 j mlarge =  2 (m large + m large ) j m large J 2 j mlarge =  2 m large (m large + 1) j m large and for msmall J 2 j msmall =  2 msmall (msmall − 1) j msmall msmall = −mlarge J 2 j msmall =  2 (− mlarge )(− mlarge − 1) j msmall J 2 j msmall =  2 mlarge (mlarge + 1) j msmall So the eigenvalue is mlarge*(mlarge +1) for any value of m J 2 j m =  j ( j + 1) j m 2 15
  • 16. Four Properties 1) J 2 j m = j ( j + 1) j m 2 2) m = − j , − j + 1,  , j − 1, j 3) Exactly (2 j + 1) values possible 4) Since (2 j + 1) = integer , then j = 0 , 1 , 1 , 3 , 2 , 2 2 16
  • 17. Conclusions  As a result of property 2), m is called the projection of j on the z-axis  m is called the magnetic quantum number because of the its importance in the study of atoms in a magnetic field  Result 4) applies equally integer or halfinteger values of spin, or orbital angular momentum 17
  • 19. Matrix Elements of J j m′ J 2 j m =  2 j ( j + 1)δ m ,m′ j m′ J z j m = mδ m ,m′ J j m = c j m −1 Indicates a diagonal matrix and j m ( J 2 − J z2 + J z ) j m = c j m J+ = c* j m − 1 2 j m ( j ( j + 1) 2 −  2 m 2 +  2 m) j m = c 2 ( j ( j + 1) − m 2 + m) 2 = c but J J = ( J − J + J z ) 2 c = ( j + m)( j − m + 1) 2 jm J J jm =c c= c + + * 2 2 z 2 2 19
  • 20. Theorems J j m = ( j + m)( j − m + 1)  j m − 1 and J+ j m = ( j − m)( j + m + 1)  j m + 1 And we can make matrices of the eigenvalues, but these matrices are NOT diagonal j m − 1 J j m = ( j + m)( j − m + 1) δ m ,m −1 and j m + 1 J+ j m = ( j − m)( j + m + 1)  δ m,m +1 20
  • 21. Fun with the Raising and Lowering Operators J = J x − iJ y J = J x + iJ y + J+ J Jx = 2 + ⇒ ( J - J )i Jy = 2 + 21
  • 22. A matrix approach to Eigenvalues If j=0, then all elements are zero! B-O-R-I-N-G! j= 1/2 1 11 =   0 22   final m 1 −1  0 =  1 2 2   1 −1 1 1  1 1  1 1  J =  +  − + 1 2 2 2 2  2 2  2 2  1 −1 1 1 J = 2 2 2 2 and 1 1 + 1 −1 J = 2 2 2 2 m1 m2 1 2 −1 2 Initial m m1 m2 so 1 0 2 −1  2 0 0 Therefore,  0 0 J =  1 0    What does J + look like? 22
  • 23. Using our relations, Answer: 0 1 J =  0 0    + J + J+   0 1  Jx = =  1 0  2 2  and (J − J )i   0 − i  Jy = =  i 0   2 2  and finally , + Jz =  1 0    0 − 1  2  3 2  1 0   J2 = 0 1  4   Pauli Spin Matrices 0 1 σx = 1 0    0 − i σy = i 0     1 0  σz =  0 − 1    23
  • 24. J=1, An Exercise for the Students Hint: 1   11 =  0   0   0   1 0 = 1 0    0   1 −1 =  0  1    0 0 0   J = 2  1 0 0   0 1 0   24
  • 25. Rotation Matices  We want to show how to rotate eigenstates of angular momentum  First, let’s look at translation  For a plane wave: ψ ( x) = e ik x x for 1 − d px since k x = then for 3 − d    (r ⋅ p) i  ψ (r ) = e  25
  • 26. A translation by a distance, A, then looks like   ψ (r − a ) = e    ( r − a )⋅ p i   = ψ ( r )e   a⋅ p −i  translation operator Rotations about a given axis commute, so a finite rotation is a sequence of infinitesimal rotations Now we need to define an operator for rotation that rotates by amount, θ, in direction of θ 26
  • 27. So ˆ ˆ if θ = x, then θ x J x so a rotation operator looks like : ˆ U ( n, θ ) = e  ˆ (θ n )⋅ J −i  Where n-hat points along the axis of rotation Suppose we rotated through an angle φ about the z-axis U ( z, φ ) = e φJ z −i  27
  • 28. Using a Taylor (actually Maclaurin) series expansion x 2 x3 e = 1+ x + + + 2! 3! so x U ( z, φ ) j m = e − iφJ z  jm n n  − iφ  J z U ( z, φ ) j m = ∑  jm    n! n =0  ∞ but J zn j m = ( m ) j m n  − iφ  ( m ) U ( z, φ ) j m = ∑     n! n =0  ∞ n n jm U ( z , φ ) j m = e −iφm j m so U ( z , φ ) = e −imφ 28
  • 29. What if φ = 2π? U ( z ,2π ) j m = e −2πim j m U ( z ,2π ) j m = ± j m "+" for j = 0, 1, 2, 3,  1 3 5 7 "−" for j = , , , ,  2 2 2 2 The naïve expectation is that thru 2π and no change. This is true only if j= integer. This is called symmetric BUT for ½ integer, this is not true and is called anti-symmetric 29
  • 30. Let j=1/2 (for convenience it could be any value of j)  0 1   2 1 0     0 1    0 1  2  1 0 2  2   =  = 1 Jx =  2 1 0 2 1 0 4 0 1 4       3  0 1  4  3 4  Jx = 1 Jx =  8 1 0 16   Jx = − iθ 1 ( J x )n n! n =0  ∞ U ( x, θ ) = ∑ iθ U ( x, θ ) = 1 − 2  0 1  θ 2  1 0  iθ 3  0 1  θ 4  1 0    1 0  − 2 2 2!  0 1  + 233!  1 0  + 2 4 4!  0 1  +                   1 0  θ2 θ4 1 − 2 + 4 +  U ( x, θ ) =   0 1  2 2! 2 4!       0 1  θ θ 3 θ5  − 3 + 5 +  − i  1 0  2 2 3! 2 5!     30
  • 31. Using the sine and cosine relation so x3 x5 sin x = x − + +  and 3! 5! θ   cos 2 U ( x, θ ) =   i sin θ  2  x2 x4 cos x = 1 − + +  2! 4! θ − i sin  2  and if θ = 2π , U ( x,2π ) = − 1 0   0 1  θ    cos  2  And it should be no surprise, that a rotation of β around the y-axis is β  cos  2 U ( y, β ) =   sin β  2  β  2 β cos   2  − sin 31
  • 32. Consequences     If one rotates around y-axis, all real numbers Whenever possible, try to rotate around zaxis since operator is a scalar If not possible, try to arrange all non-diagonal efforts on the y-axis Matrix elements of a rotation about the y-axis are referred to by d m′ m ( β ) j 32
  • 33. And d mj′ m ( β ) ≡ j m′ U ( y, β ) j m Example : 1 11 =   0 22   then β   cos 2 d 1 1 ( β ) = (1 0 )  β  sin 22  2  1 2 1 2 d 1 1 ( β ) = cos 22 β  2  1    β  0  cos   2  − sin β 2 Wigner’s Formula (without proof) β β (− 1) k (cos ) 2 j + m− m '− 2 k (sin ) m '− m+ 2 k 2 2 d mj′ m ( β ) = ( j + m)!( j − m)!( j + m' )!( j − m)'!∑ k ( j − m'− k )!( j + m − k )!( k + m'− m)! k! 33
  • 34. Certain symmetry properties of d functions are useful in reducing labor and calculating rotation matrix j j d m m ' ( β ) = (−1) m − m ' d m ' m ( β ) d j −m' −m d j m'm −1 (β ) (π − β ) = (−1) 1 ∫d (β ) = d j m'm j m m' (β ) d j' m m' j −m' d j m'm (β ) 2 ( β ) d (cos β ) = δ j j' 2 j +1 34
  • 35. Coupling of Angular Momenta  We wish to couple J1 and J2    J1 + J 2 = J 3  From Physics 320 and 321, we know j1 − j2 ≤ j3 ≤ j1 + j2        2 + 3 = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5  But since Jz is diagonal, m3=m1+m2 35
  • 36. Coupling cont’d    The resulting eigenstate is called And is assumed to be capable of expansion of series of terms each of with is the product of 2 angular momentum eigenstates conceived of riding in 2 different vector spaces Such products are called “direct products” j3 m3 j1 m1 j2 m2 36
  • 37. Coupling cont’d    The separateness of spaces is most apparent when 1 term is orbital angular momentum and the other is spin Because of the separateness of spaces, the direct product is commutative The product is sometimes written as j1 m1 ⊗ j2 m2 37
  • 38. Proof of commutative property Let c = a ⊗b = a b cc = a b a b = a a b b cc = b b a a = b a b a c = b a = b ⊗a 38
  • 39. The expansion is written as j j j3 m3 = ∑ Cm11 m22 j3 j1 m1 j2 m2 m1 C j1 j2 j3 m1 m2 Is called the Clebsch-Gordan coefficient Or Wigner coefficient Or vector coupling coefficient Some make the C-G coefficient look like an inner product, thus j j Take j3 m3 = ∑ Cm11 m22 j3 j1 m1 j2 m2 and multiply by j1 m1 j2 m2 m1 and thus j j j1 j2 j3 m1 m2 j3 m3 = Cm11 m22 j3 39
  • 40. A simple formula for C-G coefficients j j Cm11 m22 j3 = ( j3 + j1 − j2 )!( j3 − j1 + j2 )!( j1 + j2 − j3 )!( j3 − m3 )!( j3 + m3 )!( 2 j3 − 1) × ( −1) k + j2 + m2 ( j3 + j2 − m1 − k )! ( j1 − m1 + k )! ∑ ( j − j + j − k )! ( j + m − k )! k! (k + j − j − m )! k 3 1 2 3 3 1 2 3 •Proceeds over all integer values of k •Begin sum with k=0 or (j1-j2-m3) (which ever is larger) •Ends with k=(j3-j1-j2) or k=j3+m3 (which ever is smaller) •Always use Stirling’s formula log (n!)= n*log(n) Best approach: use a table!!! 40
  • 41. What if I don’t have a table? And I’m afraid of the “simple” formula? Well, there is another path… a 9-step path! 41
  • 42. 9 Steps to Success 1. Get your values of j1 and j2 2. Identify possible values of j3 3. Begin with the “stretched cases” where j1+j2=j3 and m1=j1, m2=j2 , and m3=j3, thus |j3 m3>=|j1 m1>|j2 m2> 4. From J3=J1+J2,, it follows that the lowering operator can be written as J 3=J 1+J 2 42
  • 43. 9 Steps to Success, cont’d 5. 6. 7. 8. Operate J 3|j3 m3>=(J 1+J 2 )|j1 m1>|j2 m2> Use j m − 1 J j m = ( j + m)( j − m + 1) Continue to lower until j3=|j1-j2|, where m1=-j1 , m2= -j2, and m3= -j3 Construct |j3 m3 > = |j1+j2 -1 j1+j2-1> so that it is orthogonal to |j1+j2 j1+j2-1> Adopt convention of Condon and Shortley, if j1 > j2 and m1 > m2 then Cm1 m2j1 j2 j3 > 0 (or if m1 =j1 then coefficient positive!) 43
  • 44. 9 Steps to Success, cont’d 9. Continue lowering and orthogonalizin’ until complete! Now isn’t that easier? And much simpler… You don’t believe me… I’m hurt. I know! How about an example? 44
  • 45. A CG Example: j1 =1/2 and j2 =1/2 Step 1 Step 2 Step 3 1 1 In CG speak : ⊗ 2 2 so 1 1 1 1 j3 = + j3 = − 2 2 2 2 The stretched case is 11 11 3 = 22 1 11 22 2 45
  • 46. Steps 4 and 5 and j m −1 J j m = 6-> J3 11 3 = ( J + J2 ) 1 11 22 1 11 22 =J 1 2 11 22 11 22 1 ( j + m)( j − m + 1) + J2 2 11 22 1 11 22 2 One step at a time  J3 11 3 = (1 + 1)(1 − 1 + 1) 1 0 3 = 2 1 0 3 Now J only operates on space 1 stuff and J2 only operates on space 2 stuff so 1 J 1 11 22 1 11 22 11 11 J2 22 1 22 = 1 2 = 1 2 1 −1 2 2 11 22 11 22 2 1 −1 2 2 2 1 1 so 2 1 0 3 = 1 10 3 = 1 −1 2 2 1  1 −1  2 2 2  1 1 11 22 11 22 + 1 2 + 2 11 22 11 22 1 1 1 −1 2 2 1 −1 2 2 2    2 46
  • 47. Step 7—Keep lowering J3 1 0 3 = (1 + 0)(1 − 0 + 1) 1 − 1 3 = 2 1 − 1 3 J 1 1 −1 2 2 1 11 22 1 −1 11 J2 2 2 1 22 =0 2 = 1 2 11 22 1 1 −1 2 2 2 so 2 1 − 1 3 =   1 −1  2 2 2  2 1 − 1 2 1 − 1 3 = 2 2 2 1 1 −1 2 2 1 1 −1 2 2 + 2 1 −1 2 2 1 As low as we go 2 1 −1 3 = 1 1 −1 2 2 1 −1 1 −1 = 2 2 2 2 2    2 1 −1 2 2 2 1 −1 2 2 1 47
  • 48. An aside to simplify notation 11 Let = + 22 and 1 −1 = − 2 2 Now we have derived 3 symmetric states 11 = + + 1 (− + + + − 10 = 2 1−1 = − − ) Note these are also symmetric from the standpoint that we can permute space 1 and space 2 Which is 1? Which is 2? “I am not a number; I am a free man!” 48
  • 49. The infamous step 8  “Construct |j3 m3 > = |j1+j2 -1 j1+j2-1> so that it is orthogonal to |j1+j2 j1+j2-1>” j1+j2=1 and j1+j2-1=0 for this case so we want to construct a vector orthogonal to |1 0>  The new vector will be |0 0>  49
  • 50. Performing Step 8 10 = ( 1 −1+ 2+ +1− 2 2 ) An orthogonal vector to this could be −1+ 2− +1− 2 or +1− 2− −1+ 2 Must obey Condon and Shortley: if m1=j1,, then positive value j1=1/2 and |+> represents m= ½ , so only choice is ( 1 00 = +1− 2− −1+ 2 2 ) 50
  • 51. Step 9– The End 11 = + + 1 (− + + + − 10 = 2 1−1 = − − ) These three symmetric states are called the “triplet” states. They are symmetric to any permutation of the spaces 00 = ( 1 +1− 2− −1+ 2 2 ) This state is anti-symmetric and is called the “singlet” state. If we permute space 1 and space 2, we get a wave function that is the negative of the original state. 51
  • 52. A CG Table look up Problem Part 1— Two particles of spin 1 are at rest in a configuration where the total spin is 1 and the m-component is 0. If you measure the z-component of the second particle, what values of might you get and what is the probability of each zcomponent? 52
  • 53. CG Helper Diagram j1 ⊗ j2 m1 j3 m3 m2 C It is understood that a “C” means square root of “C” (i.e. all radicals omitted) 53
  • 54. Solution to Part 1  Look at 1 x 1 table  Find j3 = 1 and m3 = 0  There 3 values under these m1 m2 1 0 -1 0 1/2 0 -1 1 -1/2 54
  • 55. So the final part m2 C Prob -1 1/2 ½ 0 0 0 1 -1/2 ½ 55
  • 56. Part 2 An electron is spin up in a state, ψ5 2 1 , where 5 is the principle quantum number, 2 is orbital angular momentum, and 1 is the z-component. If you could measure the angular momentum of the electron alone, what values of j could you get and their probabilities? 56
  • 57. Solution  Look at the 2 x ½ table since electron is spin ½ and orbital angular momentum is 2  Now find the values for m1=1 and m2=1/2  There are two values across from these:  4/5 which has j3 = 5/2  -1/5 which has j3 = 3/2  So j3=5/2 has probability of 4/5  So j3 = 3/2 has probability of 1/5 57