Upsc prelims-2018-19-complete1

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UPSC Prelims eLearning Programme (UeP) 2019
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Last year, it started as an effort to deliver quality service to people in remotest corner of India. We were
delivering around the Northern region from Jammu and Kashmir to Gujarat. And guess what? More than
50% of our applicants were through UPSC Prelims 2018. The simple reason for this was our hit ratio, about
54 questions were repeated in the Prelims exam, directly or indirectly. We could have further extended our
reach of questions if we look at the notes we provide in our classroom programs. But this was a sole Test
Series performance. There were many lessons learned to make our Test Series programme better. So, we
are here with UPSC eLearning Programme. This goes beyond just an All Indian Test Series offered by many
institutions and will cover some of the most exam-oriented things yet seen in the UPSC market.
There is a reason for introducing an eLearning Programme instead of a typical Test Series. We want to
provide some exclusive content in an organised way with a well – chartered plan. We will be providing not
just a Test Series with detailed explanation but also with one of India’s most detailed Current Affairs
magazine and Value Addition magazines.
What are our Value addition magazines? Well, think about this. Most of the environment section in 2018
went untouched by 99% of India’s institutes. We will be giving out most detailed and environment specific
magazines, similarly we will also be giving some very specific magazines for every topic UPSC is very
particular about.
Another thing in our eLearning Programme is hints and tricks which come from our long examination and
study of UPSC exams. Just for one, do you know all science and Tech questions that have been asked in
UPSC exam had “All are correct” as the right option. Here, we just bought you 2 – 6 marks for free.

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➢ 2018 Selections
➢ UPSC 2018 prelims
We were a new institute back in 2017 with only 4 students to start with. Ya! That’s a journey in itself now.
Still out of these 4 students, 2 finally made to the final list of UPSC. That’s 50% record. Growing in no. in
2018, we planned out in detail to help our students clear every Civil Services Exam (Central and State).
What happened next? Well, 2018 went very well for all our subscribers. While about 50% were through
UPSC Prelims, many had clear multiple State Services Prelims aswell. We await their Mains results but here
are some of our top performer students who have managed to crack atleast two services in a single year
just by self-study along without Test Series.
15 more aspirants

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That’s not all, our state services Test Series were also a hit. Reason? We study each Civil Services Exam
pattern carefully. Here is a take way of what we were able to produce throughout Test Series alone!!
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➢ Features for UPSC Prelims eLearning Programme (UeP) 2019
Now that’s all past and might sound like a bragging blog. So, here’s UPSC eLearning Programme brief to
help you understand how we are taking the preparation a notch up.
✓ Test Series for the entire UPSC General Studies and CSAT Syllabus: - Experience 40 Quality Tests
(30 General Studies + 10 CSAT) in our exclusive Test Series. We are not in the number game which
many institutes are getting into. We believe in quality than in quantity. Hence, here you won’t find an
increasing number every year from 30 to 40 to 50 and more. Our 40 Tests will cover each and every
topic in detail and will help you concentrate on micro aspects of every subject. Each Test has its own
detailed explanation sheet to help you know more about the topic asked in the Test and cover
peripheral information of it.
✓ Current Affairs Magazine: - We are proud of our Current Affairs Magazines because the average exam
coverage is any day more than any other current affairs source you might be reading till now. It also has
many learning features to help you retain better. We are also continuously working to improve them
further. Here see it yourself and feel the difference. (Link of April Magazine)
✓ Test Specific Magazines: - These are only for our Test Series subscribers. There are many tricky
sources that UPSC tends to refer to before preparing an exam paper. We are digging deep into them and
filtering out quality information just for you. In addition, we will be providing you with some informatic
tables to help you learn some static things, which you might have missed during the preparation. They
will be available in your value addition as per the schedule given alongside the Test Series.
✓ Mains practice Questions: - This is something to count in. We don’t believe in preparing for Prelims
and Mains separately as the facts and stats remain same for both. Even more, answer writing helps you
retain things better. Hence, we will be providing a question bank along side each test to help you
practice better.
✓ Mindmaps and Infographics: - A simple way to learn is through Mindmaps and infographics. Here, we
will help you with tricky topics with regular posts just for our subscribers.
✓ Notes for Subjective papers: - We will also be providing you with gist like for N.C.E.R.T etc. These will
be a level - up from any other gist you see in the market. We will be breaking the N.C.E.R.T down to
UPSC relevant facts. Just to help you prepare seamlessly.
✓ Additional Practice Questions: - We will be providing some question banks along side your
preparation just to help you learn more dynamically than ever before. Some get covered in our
magazines, while more will come exclusively just for you. These will be subject specific or general just
to broaden our learning sphere.
✓ Revision Module: - Our Revision Module to begin in mid – Feb will amplify your preparation. Many
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➢ Track record
UPSC Question
1. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823

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3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
KPS Test Series - 507
4. The Spread and development of Education System in India can be credited to which of the following?
1. Lord Macaulay’s Minute
2. The charter Act of 1813
3. Wood’s Despatch of 1854
4. Hunter Education Commission (1882 – 83)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) All are correct
UPSC Question
4. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?
a) All India Home Rule League
b) Hindu Mahasabha
c) South Indian Liberal Federation
d) The Servants of India Society
18. Consider following statements regarding “Indian Home Rule Movement”
1. It was started on the lines of Irish Home Rule Movement
2. Mahatma Gandhi wrote the first source of inspiration for this movement in 1909
3. Its name was changed to Swarajya Sabha in 1921
4. Tilak founded the first Home Rule league at Belgaum in 1916
Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) All are correct
UPSC Question
6. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence(s) of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water table
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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11. The recent NGT orders against riverbed mining in Bhima river bring highlight some environmental challenges
posed by illegal mining. Which of the following are possible challenges?
1. Degradation of Riparian Zone
2. Degradation of Aquatic and Terrestrial function of rivers
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC Question
7. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:
1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
60. Consider the following statements regarding the water holding capacity of soil
1. Higher the percentage of silt and clay sized particles, the higher the water holding capacity.
2. A saturated soil tends to be saline over a period of time.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC Questions
9. “3D printing” has applications in which of the following?
1. Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacturing of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry

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4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data Processing technologies
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 5 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
98. Consider the following statements regarding ‘3D Printing technology’
1. Customised objects can be created according to the preference of an user
2. 3D Printing can be used to create physical, electronic and eatable goods
3. Organs for living beings can be created using bio – inks.
Choose the correct statement(s) from the option given below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
12. Consider the following statements:
1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one – third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and
Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Consider following statements regarding ‘Coral Reefs’
1. Coral Reefs are called the rainforests of the sea for the diversity they hold in themselves.
2. There are no deep water or cold water coral reefs in the world.

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a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC Question
14. With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:
Institution Founder
1. Sanskrit College at Benaras - William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa - Warren Hastings
3. Fort William College - Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
52. Who established the Sanskrit College at Benaras in 1791?
a) Warren Hastings
b) Jonathan Duncan
c) Richard Wellesley
d) J.E.D. Bethune
UPSC Questions
16. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange etc.
d) The metallic money in circulation in a country
5. Which one of the following is not a Legal Tender money in India?
a) A Rs. 5 coin with approved markings
b) A Rs. 100 note with RBI specified security features

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c) A Rs. 1000 cheque given by person A to person B
d) None of these is correct
UPSC Questions
21. After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non – Santhal
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Consider following statements regarding the ‘Santhal Rebellion’ during the British Raj in 1855-56
1. It was an uprising mainly against the Zamindari system being imposed in Santhal areas.
2. The rebellion was led by four Murmu brothers – Sidhu, Kanhu, Chand and Bhairav.
3. Post – war Santhal Pargana was created by Santhal Pargana Tenancy Act to safeguard Santhal areas.
4. Charles Dickens has written about the incidence in daily newspaper Household Words.
Choose the correct option
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
22. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th
century was the
a) Increase in the export if Indian handicrafts
b) Growth in the number of Indian owned factories
c) Commercialization of Indian agriculture
d) Rapid increase in the urban population
KPS Test Series – 507
95. Which one of the following was the economic impact of British Rule in India
1. Cheap and machine made imports flooded the Indian market after the Charter Act of 1813
2. It lead to decline of cities and led to the process of ruralisation.
3. The loss of traditional livelihood was accompanied by a process of industrialisation in India.

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a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) Only 3
UPSC Questions
23. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a
particular State, then
a) The Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
b) The powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
d) The President can make laws relating to that State.
64. Consider following statements regarding the Article 356 of the Indian Constitution
1. The President can only use this Article of the report by the Governor of the state
2. If a state fails to comply with any direction from Centre, it can become a ground for Emergency under Article
365
3. State Emergency can be extended to a maximum period of 5 years with the approval of Parliament every six
months
4. The President has the power to either suspend or dissolve the State legislature and vest its powers to the
Parliament.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
25. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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73. In which of the following industry can GPS technology be employed?
1. Locating position during hiking
2. Mining industry
3. Banking and ATM operations
4. Precise Timing around the clock
Choose the correct option from below
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
28. The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
a) Exoplanets
b) Cryptocurrency
c) Cyber attacks
d) Mini Satellites
7. The recently seen cyber term ‘WannaCry’ is related to?
a) Anti – Virus
b) Ransomware
c) Windows Update
d) Trojan Horse
UPSC Questions
31. Consider the following events:
1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India
2. India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
a) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
c) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
d) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

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27. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Baking system
1. The first bank of India was the Bank of Hindustan established in 1770
2. Imperial Bank of India was formed in 1921 by merger of three Banks
3. The Jatakas mention of existence of loan deeds in Ancient India
Choose the correct Statement(s) from the options given below
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
32. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the
Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd
Amendment to the Constitution
b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
c) Article 21 and the freedom guaranteed in Part III
d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th
Amendment to the Constitution
17. ‘The right to Privacy’ as highlighted by the Supreme Court in its recent judgement can be directly derived from
which Article of the Indian Constitution
a) Article 14
b) Article 21
c) Article 25
d) Article 30
UPSC Questions
34. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Manipur
c) Meghalaya
d) Nagaland
21. Which of the following National park and wildlife sanctuary is not located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh?
a) Namdapha National Park
b) Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary
c) Pakke Tiger Reserve

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d) Mouling National Park
UPSC Questions
35. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to
launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed
from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV MK III is a four – staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and
the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 only
52. Consider the following statements regarding GSLV MK III launch vehicle of ISRO
1. It is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle
2. It has a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage with a payload capacity of 8000 kg
3. It is about 45 mt in height with 500 tonnes of weight
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
39. Consider the following:
1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only

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c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
88. Which of the following is the agent of pollination
1. Bird
2. Bee
3. Wind
4. Water
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
40. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1. ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of
the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the
Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) had recently issued regulations that required food
companies selling organic produce to get certified from both the authorities — National Programme for
Organic Production (NPOP) or the Participatory Guarantee System for India (PGS-India).
2. The FSSAI has introduced the ‘Jaivik Bharat’ logo to identify foods as organic.
Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
UPSC Questions
42. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhabit water loss?
1. Hard and Waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
a) 2 and 3 only

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b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Consider the following statements regarding plant adaptation in desert areas
1. Plants have deeper roots for water conservation
2. Plants have smaller leaves to conserve surface area
3. Some plants become fully active during the night period
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 1
c) 1 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
43. As per the NSSO 70th
Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following
statements:
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60% belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60% of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from
sources other than agricultural activities.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
84. Which of the following findings in not correct according to NSSO 70th
Round on rural households
1. More than 50% farm households in the country are in debt.
2. The average highest outstanding loan is highest in Kerala.
3. The major channel of loan is through banks and institutions.
Choose the correct option given below
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
44. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the
government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts
whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the
country.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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54. Consider following statements regarding National Green Tribunal (NGT)
1. It is a statutory body which handles disposal of the cases pertaining to environmental issues.
2. It has been inspired from Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
3. Its origin lies in the UNCED of 1992 in Rio De Janerio
Choose the correct Statement(s) from the options given below
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All are correct
89. Consider following Statements regarding Central Pollution Control Board
1. It is a statutory body under Ministry of Environment, forest and Climate Change.
2. It has seven zonal offices and 15 laboratories.
3. It is the apex organisation in country in the field of pollution control.
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can
be made on it.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Which of the following case is also called the “Ninth Schedule Case”?
a) Namit Sharma Case
b) I.R. Coelho Case
c) S.R. Bommai Case
d) Minerva Mills Case
UPSC Question
46. Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news?
a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to
that bank.
b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for
purchasing goods and services.
c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit
cards.

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d) The incentive given by the government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers
through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
9. Which of the following explains “Merchant Discount Rate”?
a) It is the rate charged to a merchant for payment processing services
b) It is the rate charged to a customer for payment via debit or credit card
c) It is the rate charged to a bank for providing PoS machines to the merchants
d) It is the rate payed by RBI to banks for boosting Digital Payment Gateways
UPSC Questions
47. What is/are the consequence/ consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Supplier
Group’?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of ‘The Treaty on the Non – Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
KPS Test Series – CA01
15. India is not a member of which of the following groups?
a) Australian Group
b) Nuclear Supplier Group
c) Wassenaar Arrangement
d) Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)
UPSC Questions
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a
debt – to – GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the
Central Government and 20% for the State governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the
State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for
raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
76. Consider following statements regarding N.K. Singh Committee guidelines on Fiscal Management
1. It has suggested to use debt as the primary target for fiscal policy.
2. A Fiscal Council should be formed with non – renewable five year term period for Chairperson and members.
3. A 40% limit has been suggested for centre and 20% for the states.
4. Any deviations from targets cannot be more than 1% of GDP in a year
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 2

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d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the issuing Authority.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Aadhaar’ card
1. It is a 12 digit random number issued by the UIDAI to the residents of India
2. Person willing to enrol has to provide minimal demographic and biometric information during the enrolment
3. It is a proof of Indian Citizenship
a) 1 and 3
b) Only 1
c) 1 and 2
d) Only 3
UPSC Questions
54. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?
a) Amnesty International
b) International Court of Justice
c) The office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
d) World Justice Project
11. Which International body releases the ‘Rule of Law Index’?
a) World Justice Project
b) UNESCO
c) World Bank Group
d) Amnesty International
UPSC Questions
55. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
a) Indian Banks Association
b) National Securities Depository Limited
c) National Payments Corporation of India
d) Reserve Bank of India
71. Consider following statements regarding ‘National Payments Corporation of India’
1. It is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India
2. BHIM and Bharat Bill Payment are the projects of NPCI
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2

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d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC Questions
56. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
a) A Bill shall be deemed to a Money Bill if it contains only if it contains only provisions relating to imposition,
abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
c) A Money Bill is concerned with appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of
India.
45. Consider following statements regarding ‘Money Bill’ as mentioned in the Indian Constitution
1. It controls imposition, abolition, remission, alternation or regulation of any tax
2. Appropriation of money from Consolidated Fund of India can only be done through a Money Bill
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC Questions
57. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Consider following statements regarding the election process to the office of President of India
1. Elections are held according to the principle of ‘First past the post’
2. Election results cannot be challenged on the ground of electoral college not being complete
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC Questions
59. Consider the following Countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free – trade partners’ of ASEAN?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

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b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
92. Which of the following country is not part of ‘ASEAN + 6’ free trade agreement talks
a) Australia
b) India
c) China
d) USA
UPSC Questions
61. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of ‘Digital India’ Plan of the Government of India?
1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build
their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi – Fi to many of our schools, public places and
major tourist centres.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
55. Which of the following is not an aim of ‘Digital India’ initiative?
a) To provide easy access to Common Service Centres
b) All citizen entitlements to be portable and available on the cloud
c) To extend digital services to SAARC Countries
d) Citizens not required to physically submit government documents or certificates
UPSC Questions
63. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
a) Federal Legislature
b) Governor General
c) Provincial Legislature
d) Provincial Governor
8. Consider following provisions provided by the Government of India Act, 1935
1. It ended the system of diarchy
2. It provided establishment of a ‘Federation of India’ with both British India and some or all ‘princely states’
3. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court
4. It provided residuary powers to the Governor General of India
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 4

21
c) 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3
UPSC Questions
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the
Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Consider the following statements regarding the conditions under which of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has to
vacate his office
1. He has to vacate office when he resigns by writing to the President of India
2. He has to vacate office when he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha
3. He is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Parliament
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
68. What is ‘Terminal High Altitude Area Defence (THAAD)’, sometimes seen in the news?
a) An Israeli radar system
b) India’s Indigenous anti – missile programme
c) An American Anti – missile system
d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
18. What is ‘Terminal High Altitude Area Defence (THAAD) system’, recently deployed in South Korea?
a) A new aircraft carrier
b) US Bomber aircraft
c) Anti – missile system
d) US made Drone
UPSC Questions
71. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.

22
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None
34. Consider following statements regarding NAVIC or Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)
1. It covers India and a region extending 1500 Km around it.
2. The constellation consists of 7 satellites, 3 in Geosynchronous Orbit and 4 in Geostationary Orbit.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC Questions
73. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following
statements:
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest – resistance to a wide
variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow that plant cross – pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
10. Consider following statements regarding GM Mustard crop developed by University of Delhi
1. It is also known as Dhara Mustard Hybrid 15
2. It has the ability to produce fertile seeds which most GM crops lack.
3. It has been developed using a non – pathogenic soil bacteria.
a) Only 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Question
74. Consider the following pairs:
Terms sometimes seen in news Context/Topic

23
1. Belle II experiment - Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain technology - Digital/cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR – Cas9 - Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
50. What do you understand by Blockchain technology?
a) It is a new DNA inter – linking technology
b) It is a cryptography technology used to list records
c) It is an intra – net technology to provide better internet to rural areas
d) None of the above
81. Consider following statements regarding CRISPR
1. Cas9 is an enzyme that uses CRISPR to recognise and cleave out specific strand of DNA
2. CRISPR can be naturally found in prokaryotic organisms
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPSC Questions
76. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes
your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also
indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making
breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When
you step out of your house and lock the door, all light, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically.
On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if
you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.
In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above
scenario?
a) Border Gateway Protocol
b) Internet of Things
c) Internet Protocol
d) Virtual Private Network
75. Which of the following statements correctly defines the Fourth Industrial Revolution also known as Internet of
Things?
a) It is expansion of online retail commerce into diverse corners of the world
b) It is the network of physical devices with electronic devices.

24
c) It is laying down of broadband cables network across the oceans
d) It is referred to the emerging 5G technology presently being setup in developed countries
UPSC Questions
77. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power traffics are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation on India.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Consider following facts regarding renewable energy in India
1. The renewable energy accounts for less than a quarter of India’s total installed power capacity
2. Major Hydro Power projects are also included while accounting for renewable energy targets
3. India has world’s third largest wind power production in the entire world
4. Solar Energy Corporation of India is responsible for the development of solar energy industry in India.
5. India was the first country in the world to set up a ministry of non – conventional energy.
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 4 and 5
d) 3, 4 and 5
UPSC Questions
78. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th
century were
a) Raw cotton, oil – seeds and opium
b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
100. Which of the following was not a major commodity exported by the British East India Company from the State
of Bengal
a) Saltpetre
b) Indigo
c) Silver
d) Cotton
UPSC Questions
79. Which one the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

25
a) Active all - India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
14. Consider following statements regarding the Champaran satyagraha lead by Mahatma Gandhi
1. It was a protest by the farmers for making the grow opium and indigo forcefully.
2. Gandhiji was accompanied by Brajkishore Prasad, Rajendra Pradad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha and J.B. Kriplani
3. This protest gave Mahatma Gandhi the name ‘Bapu’
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions
85. Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord
Wellesley?
a) To maintain a large standing army at other’s expense
b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
35. Which of the following is correctly matched
Policy Creator/ introduced by
a) Subsidiary Alliance Lord Dalhousie
b) Doctrine of Lapse Lord Wellesley
c) Ring Fence Lord Warren Hastings
d) Equal Federation Lord Canning
UPSC Questions
87. The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ provides open ‘Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. What do you understand by the computer term ‘API’?

26
a) It is a communication protocol and tool for building software.
b) It is a window 10 feature which detects any new malware in the system
c) It is a new integration system which links software and related hardware seamlessly
d) It is a mean of artificial intelligence through which computer picks up your preferences
UPSC Questions
88. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famines/acute
malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
a) Angola and Zambia
b) Morocco and Tunisia
c) Venezuela and Colombia
d) Yemen and South Sudan
12. Which of the following conflict riddled area is incorrectly matched with its country?
Country Area
a) Iraq Idlib
b) Syria Aleppo
c) Yemen Hammam Damt
d) South Sudan Wau
UPSC Questions
89. Regarding Wood’s dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
1. Grants – in – Aid system was introduced
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
4. The Spread and development of Education System in India can be credited to which of the following?
1. Lord Macaulay’s Minute
2. The charter Act of 1813
3. Wood’s Despatch of 1854
4. Hunter Education Commission (1882 – 83)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) All are correct
UPSC Questions

27
90. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and
reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub – rules, by – laws, etc. conferred by the
Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such
delegation?
a) Committee on Government Assurances
b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
c) Rules Committee
d) Business Advisory Committee
33. Match the following Parliamentary Committees with their functions
Parliamentary Committees Functions
A. Business Advisory Committee 1. Considers the matters of procedure and
conduct of business in the House
B. Rules Committee 2. Powers given to the Executives are
properly regulated
C. Committee on Subordinate Legislation 3. Allocates time for the transaction of
legislative
D. General Purpose Committee 4. Other matters not covered by any other
Parliamentary Committee
a. A – 1 B – 3 C – 4 D – 2
b. A – 3 B – 1 C – 2 D – 4
c. A – 4 B – 1 C – 2 D – 4
d. A – 4 B – 2 C – 3 D – 4
UPSC Questions
94. The term “two – state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
a) China
b) Israel
c) Iraq
d) Yemen
79. A popular term ‘Two – State Solution’ in Indian Diplomatic stance is used for which conflict?
a. Iraq – Kurdistan
b. Israel – Palestine
c. Sudan – South Sudan
d. Spain – Catalonia
UPSC Questions
96. India enacted The Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply
with the obligations to

28
a) ILO
b) IMF
c) UNCTAD
d) WTO
20. Geographical Indication (GI Tag), which covers name or sign used on certain products falls under which
international organisation?
a. World Bank Group
b. International Trade Organisation
c. World Trade Organisation
d. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
UPSC Questions
98. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI – enabled bank account.
2. While a chip – pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of
authentication.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Consider following statements regarding BHIM app launched by the government
1. It has been developed by National Payments Corporation of India
2. It also allows sending money to non – UPI based accounts
3. BHIM is available in all 22 official languages of India
a. Only 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
UPSC Questions
100. International Labour Organization’s Convention 138 and 182 are related to
a) Child Labour
b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
c) Regulation of food prices and food security
d) Gender parity at the workplace.
62. The convention of age of employment (138) and worst form of Child Labour (182) recently ratified by India are
related to which international organisation?

29
a. World Trade Organisation
b. UN Human Rights Commission
c. International Labour Organisation
d. UNESCO
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Note: - The dates mentioned below only represent the Date the Tests will be published for a student to appear
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Schedule and Sources
Test no. Date and Day Syllabus Value Addition Magazines
coverage
KPSPT071801 December 29,
2018
Saturday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
Class VI – Social and Political Life I
Class VI – The Earth our Habitat
Class VI – Our Past
Map Work
North America
Current Affairs
May 2018 Current Affairs
KPS Value Addition Magazine 1
KPSPT071802 January 03, 2019
Thursday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
Class VII – Social and Political Life II
Class VII – Our Environment
Class VII – Our Past II
Indian Culture

30
Indian Architecture
Indian Paintings and Handicraft
Map Work
South America
Current Affairs
June 2018 Current Affairs
Tuesday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
Class VIII – Social and Political Life
Class VIII – Resource and Development
Class VIII – Our Past III (Part I and Part II)
Indian Culture
Indian Music, Dance Form, Theatre and
Puppetry
Map Work
Europe
Current Affairs
July 2018 Current Affairs
Sunday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
Class IX – Democratic Politics
Class IX – Contemporary India
Class IX – India & the Contemporary
World I
Class IX – Economics
Indian Culture
Schools of Philosophy
Indian Literature
Science and Technology through ages
Map Work
Africa
Current Affairs
August 2018 Current Affairs
Friday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
Class X – Democratic Politics II
Class X – Contemporary India
Class X – India & Contemporary World II
Class X – Understanding Economic
Development
Indian Culture
Calendars, Fairs and Festivals in India
Martial Art in India
Some important cities of India
Map Work
Asia
Current Affairs
September 2018 Current Affairs
KPSPT071806
CSAT 1
January 23, 2019
Wednesday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
Class XI – Political Theory
Class XI – Fundamentals of Physical
Geography
Class XI – Practical Work in Geography

31
Chapter 7
Class XI – Indian Economic Development
Map Work
Oceania
Current Affairs
October 2018 Current Affairs
Monday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
Class XI – Indian Physical Environment
Class XI – Constitution at Work
Class XI – Living Craft traditions of India
Class XI – Indian Economic Development
Map Work
Artic and Antarctica
Current Affairs
November 2018 Current Affairs
KPSPT071808 February 02, 2019
Saturday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
Class XII – Themes in Indian History Part I
and II
Class XII – Fundamental of Human
Geography
Class XII – Indian Society
Class XII - Contemporary World Politics
Chapter 6
Current Affairs
May to July 2018 Current Affairs
Thursday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
Class XII – Themes in Indian History Part
III
Class XII – India – People and Economy
Class XII – Social Change and
Development in India
Class XII – Introductory Macroeconomics
Current Affairs
August 2018 to October 2018 Current
Affairs
Tuesday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
Class XII – Craft tradition of India
All above NCERTS from Class VI to Class X
Geography
Universe and the Solar System
The Lithosphere
Current Affairs
November 2018 to 20th
December, 2018
Current Affairs
Sunday
Syllabus
N.C.E.R.T
All Above NCERTs for Class XI and XII
Geography
The Atmosphere
The Hydrosphere

32
Resources of the World
Current Affairs
December 2018 Current Affairs
KPSPT071812
CSAT 2
February 22, 2019
Friday
Syllabus
Indian Polity
Historical Background
Salient Features of the Constitution
Basic Structure of the Constitution
Political Science
Theory of State
Theory of Sovereignty, Democracy
Concept of Power, Authority, Legitimacy
Geography
Physiographical region and geological
structure of India
Drainage system and climate of India
Current Affairs
1st
January – 15th
January 2019 Current
Affairs
Wednesday
Syllabus
Indian Polity
Preamble of India
Indian States and Citizenship
Fundamental Rights, DPSPs and
Fundamental Duties
Political Science
Political Culture and Socialism
Concept of Liberty, Equality and Justice
History of India
Stone Age
Indus Valley Civilisation
The Vedic Age
Janpads and Mahajanpads
Rise of Buddhism and Jainism
Geography
Soils, Natural Vegetation and
Environment
Agriculture, Livestock and Marine
resources in India
Current Affairs
1st
January – 25th
January 2019 Current
Affairs
KPSPT071814 March 04, 2019
Monday
Syllabus
Indian Polity
President, Vice-President and Governor
Union and State Executives
History of India
The Maurya Empire and Post – Mauryan
History
Sangam Age
Guptas and Vakatakas
Harshvardhana
Pallavas, Chalukyas and Rashtrakutas
Current Affairs

33
May 2018 to August 2018 Current Affairs
KPSPT071815 March 09, 2019
Saturday
Syllabus
Indian Polity
Parliament and Parliamentary
Committees
State Legislature
Indian Judiciary
History of India
Chola Empire
Spread of Indian Culture
Arab Invasions
Rajput Kingdoms
Current Affairs
1st
February to 15th
February 2019 Current
Affairs
KPSPT071816 March 14, 2019
Thursday
Syllabus
Indian Polity
Special Provisions for some States
Constitutional Amendment
Centre – State and Inter – State Relations
History of India
Delhi Sultanate
Bhakti and Sufi Movement
Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms
Mughal Empire
Marathas
Geography
Mineral and Power resources in India
Industry, Population and Urbanisation
Transport development in India
Current Affairs
1st
February to 25th
February 2019 Current
Affairs
KPSPT071817 March 19, 2019
Tuesday
Syllabus
Indian Polity
Panchayats and Municipals
Constitutional Bodies
Non – Constitutional Bodies
History of India
Foundation of British Rule
Administrative Reforms
Socio-economic changes under British
Rule
The Revolt of 1857
Environment
Biomes and life forms
Biodiversity
Natural resources
Current Affairs
February 2019 Current Affairs
India Year Book
Chapters to be announced later
KPSPT071818 March 24, 2019
Sunday
Syllabus
Indian Polity

34
CSAT 3
Political System of India
National Bodies
E-Governance and Right to Information
History of India
Socio-religious reform movements
Peasant, depressed classes, tribal and
Business class movements
National Struggle till 1905
Environment
Environmental pollution
Global environmental issues and bodies
Indian Laws and Regulations
Current Affairs
September 2018 to December 2018
Current Affairs
India Year Book
KPSPT071819 March 29, 2019
Friday
Syllabus
History of India
National Struggle 1905 till 1947
Post- Independence India
Environment
National Biodiversity
Livestock and Agroforestry of India
International Relations
Theories and Approaches of International
Relations
Current Affairs
1st
March to 25th
March 2019 Current
Affairs
India Year Book
KPSPT071820 April 03, 2019
Wednesday
Syllabus
Indian Economy
Basic of Economy
Indian Economy at Independence
Planning, Market and the State
Demographic transition and its
consequences for development
Science and Tech
Energy and Space Technology
Indian Society
Races, Tribes and Languages of India
International Relations
Diplomacy
The United Nations
Various Regional Organisations
Indian Foreign Policy
Prominent Economic Institution and
Arrangement
Current Affairs
March 2019 Current Affairs
India Year Book

35
KPSPT071821 April 08, 2019
Monday
Syllabus
Indian Economy
Economic Growth and liberalisation of
India
Poverty, Inequality and Unemployment
Health services in India
Indian Economic Sectors
Science and Tech
Information Technology, Defence
Technology
Indian Society
Population profile of India
Urban and Rural India
Current Affairs
January 2019 to March 2019 Current
Affairs
Economic Survey volume I
KPSPT071822 April 13, 2019
Saturday
Syllabus
Indian Economy
India’s External Sector
International Economic Organisation
Inflation and Business Cycle
Indian Finance Market
Science and Tech
Superconductivity, AI, Robotics
Biotechnology
Current Affairs
1st
April to 25th
April 2019 Current Affairs
KPSPT071823 April 18, 2019
Thursday
Syllabus
Indian Economy
Banking and Insurance in India
Security market in India
Tax structure and Public finance in India
N.C.E.R.T
All N.C.E.R.Ts are to be revised
Current Affairs
April 2019 Current Affairs
KPSPT071824
CSAT 4
April 23, 2019
Tuesday
Syllabus
Revision programme
Revision Test of Test 1 to Test 10
Current Affairs
Current Affairs related to Test 1 till Test
10
KPSPT071825
CSAT 5
April 28, 2019
Sunday
Syllabus
Revision programme
Revision Test of Test 11 to 20
Current Affairs

36
20
Economic Survey volume II
KPSPT071826
CSAT 6
May 03, 2019
Friday
Syllabus
Revision programme
Revision Test of Test 1 to 23
Current Affairs
23
Economic Survey volume II
KPSPT071827
CSAT 7
May 08, 2019
Wednesday
Full Length Tests based on UPSC pattern +
Data from Government websites and all
current affairs till test date
KPSPT071828
CSAT 8
May 13, 2019
Monday
KPSPT071829
CSAT 9
May 16, 2019
Thursday
KPSPT071830
CSAT 10
May 19, 2019
Sunday
Additional Note
1. Each test will also cover previously covered topics to keep you in touch with what you have already
read.
2. In each test, few questions will be from the Indian map. This will cover political, physical and cultural
dimensions of India.
3. Special focus will be given to previous year papers. So, keep reading them.

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