The document provides clues for various medical topics in a question-and-answer format. It includes clues about bacteria, diseases, drugs, enzymes, vaccines, HLA antigens, laboratory values, pathologies, and other topics. The clues are in the form of short phrases, acronyms, or word patterns to help remember key information.

1. Pass Program Clues “ You ain’t told me squat till you tell me the CLUE!!!”

2. What are the 5 bacteria causing Heart Block? Lyme Disease Salmonella typhii (typhoid) Chagas Disease (Whipple’s) Legionella Diptheria Lets Stop Doing Long Contractions

3. What bacteria cause Reiter’s Syndrome? Shigella IBD Crohn’s Chlamydia Yersina Reiter & Crohn Saw Yersina and got Chlamyia

4. What are the Low Complement bugs causing Cryoglobuniemia? Influenzae Adenovirus Mycoplasma Hepatitis C EBV I AM HE

5. What are the drugs induced SLE? Hydralazine INH Phenytoin Procainamide Penicillamine Ethosuximide H I PPPE

6. What are the drugs that Blast the BM? AZT Benzene Chloramphenicol Vinblastine Vinblastine Anilate Bone Cells

7. What are the Comma Shaped bugs? Vibrio Campylobacter Listeria H. pylori Campylobacter Has Very Long Comma Genes

8. What is the cresent shaped protozoa? Giardia lamblia

9. What bacteria looks like Chinese letters? Corynebacter

10. What are the TB Rx? Rifampin Pyrazinamide INH Ethambutanol Streptomycin R E S P I

11. What are the 6 Low Complement assocs. with Nephrotic Syndrome? Serum Sickness PSGN SLE SBE Cryoglobinemia MPGN II

12. What drugs Induce p450? BAG 4 CPR QTS Car Grabs Queens Tets to Rev Up Alcoholic doing drugs and stinking up car Barbiturates Alcohol Griseofulvin Carbamazapine Rifampin Quinidine Tetracycline Sulfa drugs

13. What drugs Inhibit p450? I Do SMACK Quinolones INH Dapsone Spirolactones Macrolides Amiodarone Cimetidine Ketoconazole Quinilones

14. What drugs are P450 Dependent? Warfarin Estrogen Phenytoin Theophylline Digoxin Theo came from war & dig inside WDEPT taking Estrogen & now is Phenytoin

15. What disease is a Neutophil Deficiency? CGD

16. What is another name for CGD? Chronic Granulomatous disease NADPH Oxidase deficiency

17. What are the Side effects of Statins? Myositis Hepatitis Increased liver enzymes

18. What are the painful genital Lesions? Chancroid Herpes Lymphogranuloma inguinale

19. What is the painful chancroid lesion due to? Hemophilus ducreyi

20. What are the 4 hormones with disulfide bonds? Prolactin Insulin Inhibin GH I PIG on BONDS

21. What are the Hookworms? Necatur americanis Enterobius vermicularis Ankylostoma duodenale Trichuris trichurium Ascaris lumbercoides Strongyloides Hooks AS NEAT

22. What are the X-Linked enzyme Deficiencies? G6-PD CGD Pyruvate dehydrogenase Def. Fabry’s Hunter’s Lesch-nyhan Lesch-Nyhan Hunter Puts Fabrys on G6 Clothes

23. What diseases do we screen for at birth? Please Check Before Going Home PKU CAH(Congential Adrenal Hyperplasia) Biotinidase Galactosemia Hypothyroidism

24. HLA-Antigens HLA-DR2 = Narcolepsy, Allergy, Goodpasture’s, MS HLA-DR3 = DM, Chronic Active Hepatitis, Sjogren’s, SLE, Celiac Sprue HLA-DR3 & 4 = IDDM(Type I) HLA-DR4 = Rheumatoid Arthritis, Pemphigus Vulgaris HLA-DR5 = JRA, Pernicious Anemia HLA-DR7 = Nephrotic Syndrome(Steroid induced)

25. HLA-Antigens HLA-DR 3 & B8= Celiac Disease HLA-A3= Hemochromatosis(chromo. 6, point mut.-cysteine>tyrosine) HLA-B8= MG HLA-B13= Psoriasis HLA-B27= Psoriais(only if w/arthritis) Ankylosing Spondylitis, IBD, Reiter’s, Postgonococcal Arthritis HLA-BW 47= 21 alpha Hydroxylas def.(Vit.D)

26. What are the actions of Steroids? Kills helper T-cells & eosinophils Inhibits Macrophage migration Inhibits Mast cell degranulation Inhibits Phospholipase A Stimulates protein synthesis Stablizes endothelium

27. What are the causes of Monocytosis? Salmonella (typhoid) TB EBV Listeria Syphillis

28. E. Coli is the most common cause of what? UTI Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis Abdominal abscess Cholecystitis Ascending cholangitis Appendicitis

29. What are the one dose treatments for Gonorrhea? Ceftriaxone Cefixime Cefoxine Ciprofloxin Oflaxacin Gatifolxacin

30. What is the one dose treatment for Chlamydia? Azithromycin

31. What are the “Big Mama” anaerobes? Strep bovis Clostridium melanogosepticus Bacteriodes fragilis

32. What are the “Big Mama” Rx? Clindamycin Metranidazole Cefoxitin

33. What “big mama” bugs are associated with colon cancer? Strep. Bovis Clostridium melanogosepticus

34. What do you see in the serum with low volume state? K+? Decreases Na+? Decreases Cl-? Decreases pH? Increases BP? Increases

35. What are psammoma bodies? Calcified CA’s

36. In what diseases are Psammoa Bodies present? Papillary carcinoma of the Thyroid Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary Meningioma Mesothelioma

37. What are the Urease (+) Bacteria? Proteus Pseudomonas Ureaplasma urealyticum Nocardia species Cryptococcus neoformans H. pylori

38. What types of stones are formed from Proteus? Struvite (90%)

39. What type of motility do Proteus have? swarming

40. What are 5 indications of Surgery? Intractable pain Hemorrhage (massive) Obstruction (from scarring) Perforation

41. What drugs cause Cardiac Fibrosis? Adriamycin (Doxyrubicin) Phen-fen

42. What drug is used to tx cardiac fibrosis? Dozaroxsin

43. What is the MCC of any ….penia? #1 = Virus #2 = Drugs

44. What is seen in the Salmonella Triad? High Fever Rose spots (rash) Intestinal fire

45. What drugs cause Myositis? Rifampin INH Predinsone Statins

46. What are the 7 Gram -encapsulated bacteria? Some Strange Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules Salmonella Strep. Pneumo (gr+) Klebsiella H. influenza Pseudomonas Neisseria Cryptococcus

47. What is the Jones Criteria for Rheumatic Fever? SubQ nodules Polyarthritis Erythema marginatum Carditis Chorea

48. What are the causes of Eosinophilla? Neoplasms Allergies/Asthma Addison’s Dz Collagen Vascular Dz Parasites

49. What are the Risk Factors for Liver CA? Hep B,C,D Aflatoxin Vinyl chloride Ethanol Carbon Tetrachloride Anyline Dyes Smoking Hemochromatosis Benzene Schistomiasis

50. What are the 9 Live Vaccines? Measles Mumps Rubella Oral Polio (sabin) Rotavirus Small pox BCG Yellow fever Varicella

51. What are the Killed Vaccines? SIR Hep A Salk (polio) Influenza Rubella Hepatitis A

52. What are the IgA Nephropathies? Henoch-Schoenlein P. (HSP) Alport’s Berger’s

53. What are the Drugs that cause Autoimmune hemolytic anemia? PCN α -methyldopa Cephalosporins Sulfa PTU Anti-malarials Dapsone

54. What are the drugs that cause Autoimmune thrombocytopenia? ASA Heparin Quinidine

55. What are the enzymes that show after an MI? Troponin I CKMB LDH

56. What is the first MI enzyme to appear? Troponin I Appears Peaks Gone 2 hrs 2 days 7 days

57. What is the 2 nd MI enzyme to appear? CK-MB Appears Peaks Gone 6 hrs 12 hrs 24 hrs

58. What is the 3 rd MI enzyme to appear? LDH Appears Peaks Gone 1 day 2 days 3 days

59. What bacteria have Silver Stains? Legionella Pneumocysitis carinii H. pylori Bartonella henseslae (lymph node) Candida (yeast)

60. What are the sulfa containing drugs? Sulfonamides Sulfonylurea Celebrex

61. What is another name for celebrex? Celecoxib

62. What type of inhibitor is Celebrex? COX 2 specific

63. What COX-2 specific drug can you give to a pt with sulfa allergy? Vioxx (Rofecoxib)

64. What drugs inhibit dihydrofolate reductase? Pyremethamin/Sulfadiazine Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole

65. What drugs cause Pulmonary Fibrosis? Bleomycin Bulsufan Amiodarone Tocainide

66. What are the macrophage deficiency diseases? Chediak-Higashi NADPH-oxidase deficiency

67. What are the SE of Loops and Thiazides? Hyperglycemia Hyperuricemia Hypovolemia Hypokalemia

68. What are the SE of Loop diuretics? OH DANG Ototoxicity Hypokalemia Dehydration Allergy Nephritis (interstitial) Gout

69. What are the only 3 Pansystolic Murmurs and when are they heard? MR TR VSD Decrease on inspiration (^exp) Increase on inspiration Decrease on inspiration (^exp)

70. Macrophages in various organs Brain Lung Liver Spleen Kidney Lymph nodes Skin Bone CT Mircoglia Type I pneumocyte Kupffer cell RES Mesangial Dendritic Langerhans Osteoclasts Histiocytes or Giant cells or Epithelioid cells

71. What are the 7 Rashes of the Palms & Soles? TSS Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Coxsackie A (Hand/Foot & mouth dz) Kawasaki Syphillis Scarlet Fever Staph Scalded Skin Syndrome

72. What is seen in every restrictive lung dz and low volume state? Tachypnea Decrease pCO2 Decrease pO2 Increase pH

73. What are the different 2 nd messenger systems? cAMP cGMP IP3/DAG Ca:Calmodulin Ca+ Tyrosine kinase NO

74. What is the clue for cAMP? It is the 90% Sympathetic CRH (cortisol) Catabolic

75. What is the clue for cGMP? Parasympathetic Anabolic

76. What are the clues for IP3/DAG? Neurotransmitter GHRH All hypothalamic hormones xc cortisol Used by what and for what? Smooth muscle for contraction

77. What is the clue for Ca:Calmodulin? Used by smooth muscle for contraction by distention

78. What is the clue for Ca+? Used by Gastrin only

79. What is the clue for Tyrosine Kinase? Used by Insulins Used by ALL growth factors

80. What is the clue for NO? Nitrates Viagra ANP LPS

81. What are the T & B cell deficiencies? WAS SCID CVID HIV HTLV-1

82. What are the CLUES for WAS? Thrombocytopenia IL-4 Infection Eczema Decrease IgM IgE???

83. What are the CLUES for SCID? Framshift/Nonsense mutation Adenosine deaminase deficiency T-cell>B-cell Bacterial infections Fungal infections

84. What are the CLUES for CVID? Late onset Frameshift/Missense mutation Tyrosine Kinase deficiency

85. What are the CLUES for HIV & HTLV-1? T-cell>B-cell CD4 rich Brain Testicles Cervix Blood vessels

86. What are the inhibitors of Complex 1 of the ETC? Amytal Rotenone

87. What are the inhibitors of Complex 2 of the ETC? Malonate

88. What are the inhibitors of Complex 3 of the ETC? Antimycin D

89. What are the inhibitors of Complex 4 of the ETC? CN- CO Chloramphenicol

90. What are the inhibitors of Complex 5 of the ETC? Oligomycin

91. What are the ETC chemical uncouplers? DNP Free Fatty acids Aspirin

92. What type of uncoupler is Aspirin? Physical uncoupler

93. What are the 4 sources of Renal Acid? Plasma Urea cycle Collecting ducts Glutaminase

94. What is the one dose tx for Hemophilus ducreyi? Azithromycin 1 gram po Ceftriazone 250 mg im

95. What is the one dose tx for Chlaymdia? Azithromycin 1 gram po

96. What is the one dose tx for Candidiasis? Ketoconazole 150mg

97. What is the one dose tx for Vaginal Candidiasis? Difluccan 1 pill

98. What is the one dose tx for Trichomonas? Metronidazole 2 grams

99. What is the one dose tx for Gardnerella? Metronidazole 2 grams

100. What are the 3 cephalosporins & doses used as one dose treatments for Gonorrhea? Ceftriaxone 250 mg im Cefixime 400 mg po Cefoxitin 400 mg po

101. What are the 3 Quinolones & doses used as one dose treatments for Gonorrhea? Ciprofloxacin 500 mg po Ofloxacin 400 mg po Gatifloxacin 400 mg im

102. What are the 4 enzymes needed to break down glycogen? Phosphorylase (Pi) Debranching enzyme Alpha-1,6 –Glucosidase Phosphatase

103. What are the 2 enzymes needed to make glycogen? Glycogen synthase Branching enzyme

104. What are the branching enzymes? Glycogen alpha-1,4 glycosyl transferase Glycogen alpha-1,6 glycosyl transferase

105. What is the rate limiting enzyme in the break down of glycogen? Phosphorylase (Pi)

106. What values do you see in obstructive pulmonary dz? pO2? Normal pCO2? Normal or increased pH? Decreased

107. What values do you see in restrictive pulmonary dz? pO2? Decreased pCO2? Decreased pH? Increased

108. What type of acidosis do you see with obstructive pulmonary dz? Respiratory acidosis

109. What are the Lysosomal Storage Disease & what is the deficiency? Fabry’s Krabbe’s Gaucher’s Niemann – Pick Tay-Sachs Metachromatic leukodystrophy Hurler’s Hunter’s α – galactosidase Galactosylceramide β – glucocerebrosidase Sphingomyelinase Hexosaminidase Arylsulfatase α – L – iduronidase Iduronidase sulfatase

110. What dz’s are associated with HLA B27? Psoriasis Ankylosing spondylitis IBD (Ulcerative colitis) Reiter’s Syndrome

111. What HLA is Psorisis w/RA associated with? HLA-13

112. What are the Glycogen Storage Diseases & the deficiency? Von Gierke’s Pompe’s Cori’s McArdle’s Glucose – 6 – phosphate α – 1 – 4 glucosidase Debranching enzyme Glycogen phosphorylase

113. What are 6 places of the TCA cycle where amino acids feed in/out? Pyruvate? Glycine Alanine Serine Acetyl CoA ? Phenylalanine Isoleucine Threonine Tryptophan Lysine Leucine

114. What are 6 places of the TCA cycle where amino acids feed in/out? Alpha-KG ? Glutamate Glutamine Succinyl CoA? Phenylalanine Tryptophan Tyrosine

115. What are 6 places of the TCA cycle where amino acids feed in/out? Fumerate ? Proline Oxaloacetate? Aspartate Asparigine

116. What are the 4 steps of B-oxidation? Oxidation – 7 NADH – 21 ATP Hydration Oxidation - 7FADH – 14 ATP Thiolysis – 8 AcCoA – 96ATP 131 ATP – 2 (to bring it in)

117. What are the blood gases in neuromuscular disease (= restrictive blood gases)? pO2? Decreased pCO2? Decreased PCWP? Decreased (b/c it’s a pressure problem) Respiratory Rate? Increased pH? Increased SZ? Increased

118. What are 5 Hormones produced by small cell (oat cell) lung CA? ACTH ADH PTH TSH ANP

119. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-smith Anti cardiolipin Anti-ds DNA SLE

120. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti – histone? Drug induced SLE

121. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-topoisomerase? PSS (Progressive Systemic Sclerosis)

122. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti TSH receptors? Graves

123. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-centromere? CREST

124. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-GBM? Goodpasture’s

125. What does Goodpastures have antibody to? Type IV collagen

126. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-mitochondria? Primary biliary cirrhosis

127. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-hair follicle? Alopecia areata

128. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-IgG? Rheumatoid arthritis

129. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-myelin receptors? MS

130. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-gliaden? Anti-gluten? Celiac sprue

131. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-islet cell receptor? DM Type I

132. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-melanocyte? Viteligo

133. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-ACh receptor? MG

134. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-ribonuclear protein? Mixed Connective Tissue dz (MCTD)

135. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-parietal cell receptor? Pernicious anemia

136. What does Pernicious Anemia have antibody to? Intrinsic factor

137. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-epidermal anchoring protein receptors? Pemphigus vulgaris

138. What does Pemphigus vulgaris have antibody to? Intercelluar junctions of epidermal cells

139. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-epidermal basement membrane protein? Bullous pemphigoid

140. What do you see with bullous pemphigoid? IgG sub-epidermal blisters Oral blisters

141. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-platelet? ITP

142. What does ITP have antibody to? Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

143. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-thyroglobulin? Anti-microsomal? Hashimoto’s

144. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-smooth muscle? Anti-scl-70? Scleroderma

145. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-rho (SS-A)? Anti-la? Sjogren’s

146. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? Anti-proteinase? C-ANCA? Wegener’s

147. What Autoimmune Disease has the following Autoimmune Antibodies? P-ANCA? Polyarteritis nodosa

148. What antigen & immunoglobulin is Polyarteritis nodosa associated with? Hepatitis B antigen IgM

149. What are the viruses that directly cause CA and which CA do they cause? Papilloma virus ? Cervical CA EBV ? Burkitts Nasopharyngeal CA HepB & C ? Liver CA HIV ? Kaposi’s Sarcoma

150. What are the 7 Nephrotic Patterns seen with every Vasculitis? Clot in front of renal artery? Renal artery stenosis Clot off whole renal artery? Renal failure Inflamed glomeruli? Glumerulo nephritis Clot in papilla? Papillary necrosis Clot off medulla? Interstitial nephritis Clot off pieces of nephron? Focal segmental GN (HIV, drug use association) Clot off lots of nephrons? Rapidly Progressive GN

151. What is the most common nephrotic disease seen in kids and when does it occur? Min. change disease 2 wks post URI

152. What is the most common vasculitity leading to rapidly progressive glomerulonephrosis? Goodpasture’s

153. What is the most common malignant renal tumor in children? Wilm’s tumor

154. What is the most common malignant renal tumor in adults? Adenocarcinoma

155. What is the most common renal mass? Cyst

156. What is the most common renal disease in Blacks/Hispanics? Focal Segmental GN

157. What is the most common nephrotic disease in adults? Membranous GN

158. Thrombolytics & Inhibitors What does tPA, Streptokinase, Urokinase inhibit? Aminocaproic acid What doe Warfarin inhibit? Vitamin K What does Heparin inhibit? Protamine Sulfate

159. What is the dosage of tPA? IV push? 20mg Drip? 40mg

160. What is the dosage for Streptokinase? IV push? 750K Drip? 750K

161. What is Urokinase used for? Used ONLY for such things as: Feeding tubes Central lines Fistulas

162. What is Alopecia Areata? Loss of a patch of hair

163. What is Alopecia Totalis? Loss of ALL hair on head “bald”

164. What is Alopecia Universalis? Loss of hair on entire body “hairless”

165. What is Loffler syndrome? Pneumonitis with endocarditis = pulmonary infiltrate with severe eosinophilia

166. What is Loffler syndrome also known as? PIE syndrome

167. What are the 5 Parasites associated with Loffler Syndrome? Necator americanus Ankylostoma duodenale Shistosomiasis Strongyloides Ascaris lumbricoides

168. What happens when a patient is on prednisone for > 7 days? Immunocompromised

169. What are 2 enzymes used by B12? Homocystine methyl transferase Methyl malonyl-coA mutase

170. What does Mitochondrial inheritance mean? No male transmission All females pass it on

171. Who are 4 pt’s who would be susceptable to pseudomonas and staph infxns? Burn patients Cystic fibrosis DM Neutropenic patients

172. In a neutropenic patient, what do you cover for? cover 1x for Staph aureus during 1st week cover 2x for Pseudo after 2nd week

173. What are the 3 main concepts causing a widened S2 splitting? Increased pO2 Delayed opening/closing of the pulmonary value Increased volume in the right ventricle

174. What are causes for a widened S2 splitting? Blood transfusion Increased Tidal Volume Giving O2 Right sided heart failure Pregnancy due to increase volume IV fluids ASD/VSD Deep breathing Hypernateremia SIADH Pulmonary regurge Pulmonary stenosis Right bundle branch block

175. What are the 8 common cavities of blood loss? P ericardium I ntracranial M ediastinum P leural cavity T highs R etroperitoneum A bdominal cavity P elvis

176. What is the special list for Penicillin? Gram + Basement membrane suppressor Works on simple anaerobes The #1 cause of anaphylaxis Causes interstial nepritits Causes nonspecific rashes Acts as a hapten causing hemolytic anemia

177. What is the #1 cause of anaphylaxis? Penicillin

178. What are the Chron’s Gifts? Granuloma Ileum Fistula Transmural Skip Lesion

179. What are the negative-stranded RNA Clues? Prodromal period before symptoms = 1-3 weeks Why is there a prodromal period? Because must switch to positive stranded before replication

180. What are the clues for positive stranded RNA? Symptoms within 1 week or less EXCEPTIONS : Hanta Ebola Yellow fever They are -ve stranded = don’t have to switch to positive before replicating

181. What are the Most common cyanotic heart diseases? Transposition of the great arteries Tetrology of Fallot Truncus Arteriosus Tricuspid Atresia Total anomalous pulmunary Venous Return Hypoplastic Left heart syndrome Ebstein’s anomaly Aortic atresia Pulmonary atresia

182. What cyanotic heart disease is – boot shaped? Tetrology of Fallot

183. What cyanotic heart disease is associated with mom taking lithium during pregnancy? Ebstein’s Anomaly

184. What things make the membrane less likely to depolarize? Hypokalemia Hypermagnesemia Hypercalcemia (except atrium) Hypernatremia

185. What things make the membrane more likely to depolarize? Hyperkalemia Hypomagnasemia Hypocalcemia (except atrium) Hyponatremia

186. What is Plan F? T P P – Thiamin – B1 L ipoic Acid – B4 Co A – Pantothenic acid – B5 F AD – Riboflavin – B2 N AD – Niacin – B3

187. What are the 8 x-linked inherited diseases? Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia CGD (NADPH def) DMD Color Blindness G6PD Hemophilia Lesch-Nyhan Vit D resist. Rickets (X-linked dominant) Fabrys Hunters

188. What are the 7 B-cell deficiencies? Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia CVID (Common Variant Imm. Def) Leukemias Lymphomas SCID WAS Job Buckley Syndrome

189. What is the Tyrosine kinase deficiency? Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

190. What are the B-cell deficiencies with T-cell overlap? SCID WAS Job Buckley Syndrome

191. What are the 4 itchiest rashes? Scabies Lichen Planus Urticaria Dermatitis Herpetiformis

192. Tumor Markers/Oncongenes I L-myc? Small cell lung Ca C-myc? Promyelocytic leukemia (Burkitt’s lymphoma) N-myc? Neuroblastoma Small cell lung CA C-able? CML ALL

193. Tumor Markers/Oncongenes II C-myb? Colon CA AML C-sis ? Osteosarcoma Glioma Fibrosarcoma

194. Tumor Markers/Oncongenes III C-erb B2? Epidermal growth factor receptors CSF-1 ? Breast

195. Tumor Markers/Oncongenes IV Erb-B2? Breast CA Ovarian CA Gastric CA Ret? Medullary CA of thyroid Men II & III Papillary carcinoma

196. Tumor Markers/Oncongenes V Ki-ras? Lung CA Colon CA Bcl-2? Burkitts Follicular lymphoma Erb? Retinoblastoma

197. What are 6 Hormones produced by the placenta? hCG Inhibin Human placental lactogen (HPL) Oxytocin (drug lactation, pit gland prod it also) Progesterone Estrogen Relaxin

198. What is cancer grading? Severity of microscopic change Degree of differentiation

199. What is cancer staging? Degree of dissemination of tumor What the surgeon sees

200. What are the rashes associated with cancer and what cancer are they associated with? Urticaria/Hives? Any CA, especially lymphoma Pagets Ds (ulcers around nipples) Seborrheic keratosis (waxy warts)? Colon CA HIV if sudden increase in number Normal with aging

201. What are the rashes associated with cancer and what cancer are they associated with? Actinic keratosis? Dry scaly plaques on sun-exposed skin Squamous Cell CA of skin Dermatomyositis? violacious, heliotropic rash, malar area Colon CA

202. What are the rashes associated with Cancer and the cancer they are associated with? Akanthosis nigricans? dark lines in skin folds Any visceral CA End organ damage Erythema nodosum? ant aspect of legs, tender nodules Anything granulomatous NOT assoc. w/ bacteria

203. What is carried by HDL? Apo E Apo A Apo CII L-CAT lecithin cholesterol acetyl transferase Cholesterol from periphery to liver

204. What is carried by VLDL? Apo B-100 Apo E Apo C II Triglcyerides (95%) Cholesterol (5%)

205. What is carried by IDL? Apo B-100 Apo E Apo CII Triglycerides (< VLDL) Cholesterol (>VLDL)

206. What is carried by LDL? Apo B-100 Cholesterol from liver to tissue NOT a good thing!!!!!

207. What do chylomicrons carry? Apo A Apo B-48 Apo E Apo C II Triglycerides from: GI to liver (25% of the time) GI to endothelium (75% of the time)

208. Which lipoprotein carries the most cholesterol? LDL

209. Where are the AVMs? Clue = HEAL Heart? Machinery murmur Elbow? Fistula from dialysis in renal disease Abdomen/Brain? Von Hippel-Lindau = clot off with coils Increase incidence of Renal cell CA on chrom 3 Lungs? Osler Weber Rendu Syndrome

210. What is the Ranson’s criteria for acute pancreatitis ( at admission )? Glucose > 200 Age > 55 LDH >350 AST > 250 WBC > 16,000

211. What is the Ranson’s criteria for acute pancreatitis ( at less than 48 hrs)? Calcium <8 mg/dl HCT drop > 10% O2 < 60 (PaO2) Base deficit > 4 BUN > 5 mg/dl Sequestration > 6L

212. What 2 diseases is pilocarpine used for? CF Glaucoma Painful, red, teary eye

213. What is dysguzia? Problem with sense of taste

214. What are 3 causes of dysgusia? Metronidazole Clarithromycin Zinc deficiency

215. What is the triad of Carcinoid syndrome? Flushing Wheezing diarrhea

216. What do you measure for carcinoid syndrome? Serotonin 5-HIAA

217. Where are the 2 most common places a carcinoid tumor is found? Pancreas Ileum

218. What are the phage mediated toxins? Mnemonic : BEDS Botulinum Erythrogenic toxin from strep pyogenes Diptheria Salmonella Has O antigen

219. What is the story used to remember the segmented RNA viruses? I sprayed ORTHO on my BUNYA at the ARENA down in REO to kill SEGMENTED WORMS

220. Name the 3 major types of adhesion molecules ICAMs Integrins Selectins

221. What does IgCam do? Bind proteins

222. What do integrins do? Stop the leukocytes

223. What do selectins do? Bind carbohydrates Mediate the rolling to slow leukocytes down

224. What are the functions of adhesion molecules? Homing of lymphocytes tells lymphocytes where to go Inflammation Cell-cell interaction

225. Primary allergic response is due to what? Contact

226. What cells are present in the first 3 days? Neutrophils The next cells to show up are? B-cells What do B-cells make? IgM

227. What day does IgM show up? Three IgM peaks at what day? 14 When does IgM leave? In 2 months

228. What shows up in 2 wks (14 days)? IgG When does IgG peak? In 2 months When does IgG leave? In 1 year

229. What is Secondary Allergic response is due to? MEMORY

230. What shows up at day 3? IgG with 5x concentration Has the highest affinity When does IgG peak? In 5 years When does IgG leave? In 10 years

231. What Ig has the hightest affinity? IgG

232. What are the risk factors for Esophageal/Gastric CA? Smoking Alcohol Nitrites Japanese

233. What are the risk factors for bladder CA? Smoking Aniline dyes Benzene Aflatoxin Cyclophosphamide Schistosomiasis 2 diseases: Von Hippel-Lindau Tubular sclerosis

234. What is the NBT test? Nitro Blue Tetrazolium test What is it used for? Screening CGD What does a –ve test indicate? +ve for the disease

235. What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Howell-Jolly? Sickle cell Heinz? G-6-P-D Zebra? Niemann pick

236. What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Donovan? Leishmaniasis Mallory? Alcoholism Negri? Rabies

237. What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Councilman? Yellow fever Call-exner? Ovarian tumors granulosa origin

238. What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Lewy? Parkinsons Pick? Pick’s disease Barr body? Normal female

239. What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Aschoff? Rheumatic fever Cowdry type A inclusions? Herpes virus Auer rods? AML

240. What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Globoid? Krabbe’s lysosomal storage disease Russell? Multiple myeloma

241. What disease corresponds with the following inclusion bodies? Schiller-Duvall? Yolk sac tumor Basal bodies? Only found in smooth mm

242. What are the 4 types of hypersensitivities? Mnemonic? ACID Type I Anaphylaxis/Atopic Type II Cytotoxic (Humoral) Type III Immune complex mediation Type IV Delayed hypersensitivity/Cell mediated

243. What are the Characteristics of Type I hypersensitivity? Atopic IgE (Asthma) binds to mast cell IgA activates IP3 cascade degrading mast cells

244. What are the Characteristics of Type II hypersensitivity? Humoral What are examples of type II? Rh disease Goodpastures Autoimmune hemolytic Anemia All Autoimmune diseases except RA and SLE

245. What are the Characteristics of Type III hypersensitivity? Ag-Ab complement What are examples of Type III? RA SLE Vasculitides Some GN?

246. What are the Characteristics of Type IV hypersensitivity? Cell mediated What are examples of Type IV? TB skin test Contact dermatitis Transplant rejection

247. What structures have no known function? Appendix Epithalamus Palmaris longus muscle Pancreatic polypeptide hormones in F-cells

248. What diseases can progress to RPGN? Goodpastures Wegeners DM HTN

249. What are causes of papillary necrosis? Vasculitis AIDS

250. Cytic fibrosis Questions? Tx? Pilocarpine also used for glaucoma Test used to detect CF? Pilocarpine sweat test What ion does this test measure? Cl- Definitive presence of disease has a test value of what? >60

251. Cytic fibrosis Questions? What is the value in a normal person? <20 What is the value in a heterozygous person? 30 – 60 What chromosome is the CF gene on? Chrom 7 What Second messenger is used? IP3/DAG

252. What are the gram +ve spore formers? Bacillus anthracis Clostridium perfringens Clostridium tetani Clostridium melangosepticus What is the chemical in spores? Calcium dipocholinate

253. What does strep mutans ferment? Lactic acid

254. What type of receptors do all sphincters in the body have? Alpha-receptors

255. Strep. Salivarius ag is used for what test? Cold agglutinin testing IgM

256. Types of amyloid found in various Systemic amyloidoses: AA amyloid? Chronic active disease AL amyloid from Ig light chain? Myeloma

257. Types of amyloid found in various Systemic amyloidoses: Beta 2 microglobulin? Chronic hemodialysis AA amyloid from SAA? Nephrotic hereditary forms eg. Mediterranean fever

258. Types of amyloid found in various Systemic amyloidoses: Pre-albumin/transthyretin? Cardiomyopathic hereditary forms senile systemic amyloidosis Neuropathic hereditary syndromes

259. Types of amyloid found in various Local amyloidoses: ANP fibrils are caused by? Senile cardiac amyloisosis Cerebral amyloid in Alzheimer’s disease/Down’s? Cerebral amyloidosis

260. Types of amyloid found in various Local amyloidoses: Calcitonin precursors? Medullary CA of thyroid AL from light chains? Isolated, massive, nodular deposits lung, skin, urogenital tract

261. What type of dementia do you get in Pick’s dis? Frontotemporal dementia

262. Describe Pick’s disease Atrophy of frontal and temporal cortex with sparing of remaining neocortical regions

263. What 3 things do Pick bodies contain? Altered neurofilaments Tau protein ubiquitin

264. What drugs can cause a disulfiram reaction? Mnemonic? CLAM Chloramphenicol Lactams Cefamandole Cefoperazone Antabuse disulfiram Metronidazole

265. What is the mode of action of the Clostridium botulinum toxin? Prevents pre-synaptic release of Ach How do babies get it? From spores in honey or molasses How do adults get it? From canned food

266. What are 3 Toxins of Bacillus? Lethal factor – (black necrosis) Protective factor Edema factor

267. Who has Poly-D Glutamic acid? Anthracis Cereus

268. Name that B-blocker: B1-selective? A – M Non-selective? N – Z Exceptions? Carbetalol and Labetolol are non-selective

269. What are the 4 facts of Fanconi Syndrome? Problem in proximal tubule Can’t reabsorb Low energy state causing anemia Can be due to old tetracycline

270. Where is glutaminase found? In the collecting duct of the kidney What does glutmainase help the kidney absorb? Ammonia if the liver fails

271. Name 3 anatomical spots where renal stones get stuck: Hilum Pelvic brim Entering the bladder

272. Renal failure is the most common cause of death in what 3 diseases? SLE Endometrial CA Cervical CA

273. What is the rate-limiting enzyme in the urea cycle? Carbamoyl synthase I Where is it found 90% of the time? Liver Where is it found 10% of the time? Collecting duct of the kidney

274. What type of charge does heparin have? -ve charge

275. What type of charge does protamine sulfate have? +ve charge What is it used for? Reversing the effects of heparin

276. What is commonly seen in all vasculitides? T-cells and macrophages Schistocytes Decreased platelets Decreased RBCs Bleeding from mucosal surfaces Bleeding from skin and GI Petechiae Ecchymoses

277. What happens if you expose the blood to the basement membrane? The following deveop: Clots DIC Pulmonary embolism DVT MI Stroke

278. Signs and symptoms in all vasculitides Tachypnea and SOB Most common cause of death? Heart failure

279. What is the MOA of Erythromycin? Inhibits the translocation step of ribosomal protein synthesis

280. What is the MOA of Chloramphenicol? Inhibits ribosomal peptidyl transferase in prokaryotes

281. What is the MOA of Puromycin? Inhibits elongation by binding to “A” site and prematurely terminating chain growth in pro and eukaryotes

282. What is the MOA of Streptomycin? Causes misreading of code during initiation in prokaryotes

283. What is the MOA of Tetracycline? Prevents binding of aminoacyl-t-RNA to ribosome on prokaryotes therefore inhibiting initiation

284. What is the MOA of Cyclohexamide? Inhibits ribosomal peptidyl transferase in eukaryotes cell wall inhibitor

285. What is the MOA of Rifampin? Blocks B-subunit of RNA polymerase Prophylaxis for contacts of N. meningitidis

286. What is the MOA of Vancomycin? Cell wall inhibitor Binds irreversibly to Phopholipase carrier Bacteriacidal Covers all gram +ves Linezolid

287. What is the MOA of Warfarin? Blocks vitamin k dependent gamma-carboxylation of prothrombin and factors 2, 7, 9, 10, proteins C & S

288. What is the MOA of Clindamycin? Blocks translation by binding the 50S subunit

289. Hemolytic properties of Streptococcus: What type of hemolysis is alpha hemolysis? Partial hemolysis What color is it’s zone? Green What type of hemolysis is beta-hemolysis? Complete hemolysis

290. Hemolytic properties of Streptococcus: What color is it’s zone Clear eg. Streptokinase What type of hemolysis is gamma-hemolysis? No hemolysis What color is it’s zone? Red

291. What are the 5 notable things about RTA I? High urine PH (??????not sure about this) Acidosis UTI s Stones Babies die < 1 yr old

292. What are 3 notable things about RTA II? Acidosis urine PH = 2, normal is 5-6 Hypokalmia Patients have NO carbonic anhydrase

293. What are 3 notable things about RTA III? It is a combination of RTA I & III Normal urine pH Hypokalemia

294. What are 3 notable things about RTA IV? Seen in diabetics Hyperkalemia NO aldosterone b/c JG apparatus has infarcted

295. What are the members of Streptococcus Group D? Viridans Mutans Sanguis Salivarius Bovis

296. What Steptococcus has green pigment? Viridans

297. What Streptococcus causes SBE? Viridans

298. What Streptococcus causes cavities? Mutans

299. What do you see in Nephritic Syndrome? HTN Hematuria RBC casts

300. What do you see in Nephrotic Syndrome? Increase Edema Increase Lipidemia Increase Cholesterolemia Increase Coagulability Decrease serum Albumin Increase urinary Albumin

301. What is the #1 cause of Sinusitis, Otitis, Bronchitis, Pneumonia? Strep. Pneumo What is the #2 cause? Hemophilus influenza What is the #3 cause? Neisseria meningitides

302. What is the #1 method to paralyze cilia? Viruses Which are secondary to what? Bacterial infections What is the #2 method to paralyze cilia? Smoking

303. If you develop gastroenteritis within 8hrs of eating what are the most common likely bugs? Staph aureus Clostridium perfringens Bacillus cereus….from what? Fried rice

304. Gastroenteritis within 8hrs of eating what toxin? Preformed

305. What does Clostridum tetani inhibit? Release of glycine from spinal cord What physical finding would you see? Lock jaw What is the tx? Antitoxin and Toxoid Where is it injected? Injected in different areas of body

306. The Most common cause of UTI is? E. coli Followed by? Proteus Followed by? Klebsiella

307. The most frequent cause of UTI in females between 5-10? Staph saprophyticus Why? They stick things in themselves 18-24 yoa? Staph saprophyticus Why? Because they stick things inside themselves Why no UTI’s after 24? Because women are use to penises and Staph saprophyticus lives on penis (becomes part of normal flora).

308. Staph aureus is the most common cause of what bone disease? Osteomyelitis Because of what? Collagenase

309. What is the Most Common cause of infections one week post burn injury? Staph. aureus

310. What is the triad of SSSS? Shock Rash Hypotension

311. Most common cause of UTI? E. coli Then? Proteus Then? Klebsiella

312. Newborn meningitis is caused by? Group B Strep (agalactiae) E. coli Listeria

313. What is normal rectal flora from mom Group B Strep (Strep. Agalactiae) E. coli Listeria

314. What is associated with colon CA? Clostridium melanogosepticus Strep bovis What color pigment is produced? Black

315. What Ig do you look for with affinity? IgG What about Avidity? IgM

316. What is transduction Virus inject it’s DNA into bacteria

317. What is transformation? Virus injects it’s DNA into it bacteria in a hospital or nursing home setting, then becomes deadly.

318. Conjuction occurs only with what? Bacteria with Pili

319. What causes mutiple cerebral abscesses in newborns? Citrobacter

320. What are the 2 gram –ves that are strict anaerobes? Hemophilus influenza Neisseria

321. What type of complement problem do you have in recurrent infections with encapsulated organisms? C3

322. What does complement fight against? Gram negative bacteria

323. What do you see in serum with prerenal failure and what are the values? BUN >20 Fractional Na+ excertion <1% Creatine >40

324. What do you see in Renal failure and what are the values? BUN 10-15 Fractional Na+ excretion >2% Creatinine <20

325. What is the extravasation order? Pavementing Margination Diapediesis Migration

326. What is the rate limiting enzyme for Glycolysis? PFK-1

327. What is the rate limiting enzyme of Gluconeogenesis? Pyruvate Carboxlyase

328. If treating a disease that initiates the cell mediated response, what are you treating first? Viral If resistant to tx, what next? Fungal Mycobacterium Protozoa Parasite Neoplasm

329. What bugs can you pick up during birth? Step. Group B Strep agalactiae Strep. Pneumonia Herpes simplex virus Neisseria gonorrhea Chlyamydia

330. What is another name for Adenoma sebaceum? Perivascular angiofibromata

331. What is another name for Addison’s? Primary Adrenocoritcal Insufficiency

332. What is another name for Alkaptonuria? Ochronosis

333. What is another name for Churg-Strauss? Allergic Granulomatosis Angiitis

334. What is another name for Craniopharyngioma? Ameloblastoma What is Ameloblast? Tooth material

335. What is another name for Chrons? Regional enteritis Granulomatous ileitis Ileocolitis

336. What is another name for DeQuervain’s? Subacute Granulomatous Thyroiditis

337. What is another name for Intraductal Ca? Comedo Ca

338. What is another name for I-Cell Disease? Mucolipidosis II

339. What is another name for Kawassaki Disease? MLNS Mucocutaneous Lymph Node Syndrome

340. What is another name for Leydig cells? Interstitial cells

341. What is another name for Sertoli cells? Sustentacular cells

342. What is another name for Temporal arteritis? Giant cell arteritis (granulomatous)

343. What is another name for Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia? Hyperviscosity syndrome

344. HHV I causes? Oral Trigeminal ganglia

345. HHV II causes? Genital Sacral plexus

346. HHV III causes? Varicella zoster

347. HHV IV causes? EBV Mononucleosis Burkitt’s

348. HHV V causes? CMV Inclusion bodies

349. HHV VI causes? Roseola Duke Disease Exanthem subitum

350. HHV VII causes? Pityriasis rosea

351. HHV VIII causes? Kaposi’s sarcoma

352. Answer the following questions about Coumadin/Warfarin. What is the MOA? Interferes with normal synthesis and gama carboxylation of Vit. K dependent clotting factors via vitamin K antagonism. Is it long or short acting? Long half-life 8-10 hours to act

353. Answer the following questions about Coumadin/Warfarin. Clinical use? Chronic anticoagulation Contra-indication? Pregnancy because it can cross the placenta

354. Answer the following questions about Coumadin/Warfarin. What pathway does it affect? Extrinsic pathway What does it do to PT? Prolongs PT

355. Answer the following questions about Coumadin/Warfarin. What are the toxicities? Bleeding Teratogenic Drug-drug interactions How is it activatied? Tissue activated

356. Answer the following questions about Coumadin/Warfarin. Administration? po

357. What are the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors? II VII IX X Protein C Protein S

358. Answer the following questions about Heparin. What is the MOA? Catalyzes the activation of antithrombin III Decreases thrombin and Xa Is it long or short acting? Short half-life Acts immediately

359. Answer the following questions about Heparin. Clinical use? Immediate anticoagulation of pulmonary embolism, stroke, angina, MI, DVT. Contra-indication? Can be used during pregnancy because it does not cross the placenta

360. Answer the following questions about Heparin. What pathway does it affect? Intrinsic pathway What value should you follow? PTT

361. Answer the following questions about Heparin. What are the toxicities? Bleeding Thrombocytopenia Drug-drug interactions How is it activatied? Blood activated

362. Answer the following questions about Heparin. Administration? I.V. Drug of choice for what? DVT

363. Answer the following questions about Heparin. What is good about the newer low-molecular-weight heparins? They act more on Xa Have better bioavailability Have 2 to 4 times longer half life Can be administered subcutaneously and without laboratory monitoring.

364. What do you use for rapid reversal of heparinization? Protamine sulfate

365. How do you treat Lead Poisoning? Dimercaprol

366. How do you treat Benzodiazepine poisoning? Flumazenil

367. How do you treat Anticholinesterase poisoning? Pralidoxime

368. How do you treat Iron poisoning? Deferoxamine

369. How do you treat Opioid poisoning? Naloxene

370. How do you treat Barbituate poisoning? Bicarbonate Doxapram

371. What does Doxapram do? Activates the respiratory center in the brain

372. What is the treatment for Hypercholesterolemia? Provostatin Atrovastatin Lovastatin Simvastatin

373. What statin is renally excreted? Provastatin

374. What statins do you have to follow liver enzymes every 3 months? Atrovastatin Lovastatin Simvastatin

375. What do statins inhibit? HMG-CoA reductase When is it most active? 8:00pm on

376. If statins are insufficient what do you add? Cholestipol Cholestyramine If nothing works what do you give? Probucol Niacin

377. What are the side effects of Niacin? Flushing Itching

378. What 2 statins bind bile salts? Cholestipol Cholestyramine

379. What are 4 causes of severe pain (in order)? 1.Pancreatitis Due to What? ETOH 2.Kidney stones Due to What? Alcohol

380. What are 4 causes of severe pain (in order)? 3.AAA How is this described? Ripping pain down back 4.Ischemic bowel What is symptom? Bloody diarrhea

381. What are 5 causes of SIADH? Small cell Ca of lung Increased intracranial pressure Pain (most common) Drugs Hypoxic Lung Disease/Restrictive Lung disease

382. What drug causes SIADH? Carbamazepine

383. What are the cells of neural crest origin? Parafollicular cells of thyroid Odontoblasts (predentin) Pseudounipolar cells Spiral membrane of heart Chromaffin cells All Ganglion cells (Schwann, Adrenal medulla) Melanocytes Laryngeal/Tracheal cartilage

384. What are the triple repeat diseases? Huntington’s Fragile X Myotonic Dystrophy Prauder Willie Spinal/bulbar muscular atrophy (Fredicks ataxia)

385. How do you determine the maximum sinus rate? 220 - age

386. What are the 3 low volume states with acidosis rather than alkalosis? RTA Diarrhea Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

387. What are the causes of Croup & Bronchiolities? Parainfluenza Adenovirus Influenza RSV

388. What is asthma in a child less than 2 called? Bronchiolitis

389. What are the 4 D’s of Pellagra? Diarrhea Dermatitis Dementia Death

390. What are the uric acid stones? Cysteine Ornithine Lysine Arginine

391. What is happening in the Atrium? Phase 0? Depolarization Phase 1? No name Phase 2? Plateau phase (A-V node)

392. What is happening in the Atrium? Phase 3? Repolarization Phase 4? Automaticity (S-A node)

393. What do Na+ channels do to the EKG? Wider QRS

394. What does Ca+ do to the EKG? Wider P-wave Longer PR interval

395. What are the types of kidney stones? Calcium oxalate (phosphate) stones Struvite stones Uric acid stones Cysteine stones Oxalate stones

396. What percent of kidney stones are calcium oxalate? 80%

397. If you find oxalate stones in the following what should you think of? 3 y/o white male? CF 5 y/o black male? Celiac Sprue

398. If you find oxalate stones in the following what should you think of? Adult male? Whipple’s Adult male or female? Crohn’s

399. If oxalate stones found in CF what is the most common cause? In 0-20 y/o? Malabsorptin What age do they die? Young

400. Answer the following questions about pseudogout? What type of crystals are present? Calcium pyrophosphate Where are they found? Joint spaces

401. Answer the following questions about pseudogout? Who gets it? Older patients M=F Tx? Colchicine

402. What are the most common non-cyanotic heart disease? VSD ASD PDA Coarctation

403. What murmur increases on expiration? VSD Mitral

404. What murmur has fixed wide splitting? ASD

405. What murmur has bounding pulses? PDA

406. What gives you differenital pulses? Coarctation

407. What is increased incidence in Turners? Coarctation

408. What are 4 enzymes never seen in glycolysis? Pyruvate carboxylase PEP carboxykinase F-1,6 dPhosphatase G-6-Phosphatase

409. What are 3 enzymes seen ONLY in glycolysis? Hexokinase PFK-1 Pyruvate kinase

410. What are 2 hormones that are acidophilic? Prolactin GH

411. What are the partially acid fast Gram +ve? Nocardia

412. What are the partially acid fast Protozoa? Cryptosporidium

413. What are the septic emboli of SBE? Mycotic aneurysm Roth spots Janeway lesions Osler’s nodes Splinter hemorrhages Endocarditis

414. Where are the following lesions found? Janeway lesions? Toes Osler’s nodes? Fingers Roth spots? Retina

415. What is the most common cause of endocarditis? Strep. viridans

416. What causes microsteatosis? Acetaminophen Reye Syndrome Pregnancy

417. What causes macrosteatosis? Alcohol

418. What are 2 bacteria that release elastase? Staph. Aureus Pseudomonas

419. What are the 2 bacteria with toxins that inhibit EF-2? Pseudomonas Diptheria

420. How does Diptheria work? It ADP ribosylates EF2 inhibiting protein synthesis Is it Gram +/-? + Where and how does it get its exotoxin? From virus via transduction

421. How does Diptheria work? What does it cause? Heart block What do you give for Tx? Antitoxin Never scrape membrane

422. What are the different types of Emphysema and their causes? Bullous? Staph aureus Pseudomonas Centroacinar? Smoking

423. What are the different types of Emphysema and their causes? Distalacinar? Aging Panacinar? Alpha-1 antitrypsin def

424. What are the stages of erythropoiesis? 4 mo gestation? Yolk sac 6 mo gestation? Spleen, liver, flat bones

425. What are the stages of erythropoiesis? 8 mo gestation? Long bones 1 yr old? Long bones

426. If long bones become damaged after 1 yr what takes over? Spleen can resume erythropoieses causing splenomegaly

427. What ions correspond with the following EKG? P-wave? Ca+ QRS complex? Na+ S-T? Ca+

428. What ions correspond with the following EKG? T-wave? K+ U-wave? Na+

429. What do Na+ channel blockers do to the EKG? QRS

430. What do Ca+ channel blockers do to the EKG? Widens P-wave PR interval longer

431. P.P. Clue 4 Bio Stat A D Sensitivity A/A+C Specificity D/B+D PPV A/A+B NPV D/C+D OR AD/BC RR (A/All) / (C/All) AR (A/All) - (C/All) Sensitivity: Truly D iseased People Specificity: Truly W ell People + Predictive Value: Test + ve With DZ - Predictive Value: Tested – ve w/o DZ OR: Odds Ratio RR: Relative Risk AR: Attributed Risk Always in the numerator A&D ALL B+D A+C C+D C _ A+B B + W D

432. In EKG P-wave Represents? Atrium contraction Phase zero Calcium

433. In EKG P-R Interval means? AV Node Phase 2 Sodium

434. In EKG Q-Wave means? Septum Phase 2 Sodium

435. In EKG R-upstoke means? Anterior wall Phase 2 Sodium

436. In EKG S-down stroke means? Posterior wall Phase 2 Sodium

437. In EKG S-T Interval means? Ventricle Phase 2 Calcium

438. In EKG T-wave means? Ventricle Phase 3 Potassium

439. In EKG U-wave means Ventricle Phase 4 Sodium

440. 4 DZ associated with HLA-DR 2? Narcolepsy Allergy (hay fever) Goodpasture MS

441. 5 DZ associated with HLA-DR 3? DM Chronic active Hepititis Sjogrens SLE Celiac sprue

442. DZ associated with HLA-DR 3&4? IDDM (DM Type 1)

443. DZ associated with HLA-DR 4? Rheumatoid Arthritis Pemphigus Vulgaris

444. DZ associated with HLA-DR 5 JRA (JUV RA) Pernicious anemia

445. DZ associated with HLA-DR 7? Nephrotic syndrome (Steroid induced)

446. DZ associated with HLA-DR 3 and HLA-B 8? Celiac Disease

447. DZ Associated with HLA-A3? Hemochromatosis chromosome 6 point mutation Cystine to Tyrosine

448. DZ Associated with HLA-A 3? Myasthenia gravis

449. DZ Associated with HLA-B 13? Psoriasis

450. 5 DZ Associated with HLA-B 27? Psoriasis only if with arthritis Ankylosing Spondylities IBD Ulcerative Cholitis Reiter’s Post gonococcal arthritis

451. DZ Associated to HLA-BW 47 21 alpha hydroxylase deficiency Vit. D

452. Facts about Diphtheria ADP ribosylates EF-2 Stops cell synthesis Gr +ve Gets exotoxin from virus via transduction Heart block Its toxoid therefore give antitoxin

453. MCC of Pneumonia in 6wks to 18 yrs? RSV (infants only) Mycoplasma Chlamydia pneumonia Strep pneumonia

454. MCC Pneumonia in 18 yrs to 40 yrs of age? Mycoplasma Chlamydia pneumonia Strep. Pneumonia

455. MCC of Pneumonia in 40 yrs to 65 yrs of age? Strep pneumonia H. influenza Anaerobes

456. MCC of pneumonia in the Elderly? Strep pneumonia Viruses Anaerobes H.influenza Gr –ve rods

457. What are 4 Clues for IgA? Monomer in blood Dimer in secretion Located on mucosal surface Found in secretion

458. What are Clues for IgD? Only functions as surface marker for Mature B-Cell

459. What are Clues for IgE? Immediate hypersensitivity/anaphylaxis Parasite defense Worms Fc region binds to mast cells and basophils Allergies Does Not fix complement

460. What are Clues for IgG? Highest affinity Memory respond at day 3 five times the concentration Peaks in 5 years last for 10 years Opsonizes Activates complement 2 nd to show up in primary response Only one to show up for secondary respond Most abundant Ig in newborn Antigenic differences in heavy chain and site of di-sulfide bond 4 subclasses G1 to G4

461. What are Clues for IgG1? Crosses placenta due to fc portion

462. What are Clues for IgG2? Most common sub-class deficiency Patient susceptible to encapsulated organisms

463. What are Clues for IgG3? Most memory antibody

464. What are Clues for IgG4? Only IgG NOT fixing complement

465. What are Clues for IgM? Responds in primary response Most efficient in agglutination and complement fixation Defenses against bacteria and viruses

466. What do Macrophages release? MHC II

467. What does TH1 secrete? IL-2 IF- Gamma

468. What does TH2 Secrete? IL-4 IL-5 IL-6 IL-10

469. What does TH-0 secrete? TH-1 TH-2

470. MHC-1 are also called what? CD8 CD8 becomes T-cytotoxic cells

471. All T-Cells express what? CD-3 For what? Signal transduction CD-2 For what? Adherence

472. What do CD-4 cells Become? T helper cells

473. What do CD-8 cells Become? T cytotoxic cells

474. Neutrophils produce what enzymes and what is their action? Myeloperoxidase NADPH Will kill ALL Gr+ve Ex..Hydrogen peroxide kills gr+

475. What do T-cells stimulate? Clue 4x7=28 CD-4 B-7 CD-28

476. What are the Clues for Type-1 Hyperlipidemia? Increased Chylomicron Deficiency of Lipoprotein lipase enzyme Defect in liver only

477. What are the Clues for type-2 hyperlipedimia? Increased LDL Two types IIa and IIb Type IIa Receptor deficiency for LDL or missing B-100 Type II-b (LDL and VLDL problems) enzyme deficiency for LDL at adipose. Receptor problem for VLDL. Most common in General Population

478. What are the Clues for type-3 Hyperlipedimia? Increased IDL Receptor problem for APO-E

479. What are the Clues for Type-4 hyperlipedimia? Increased VLDL Lipoprotein lipase enzyme deficiency at adipose tissue

480. What are the Clues for Type-5 hyperlipedimia? Combination of Types 1&4 Increased Chylomicron and VLDL Enzyme and receptor deficiency at C-II Most common in diabetics

481. What is a Xanthoma? Deposition of Cholesterol on elbows Can cause what? CAD

482. What is a Xanthelasma? Deposition of Triglycerides on eyelids, face Can cause what? Pancreatitis

483. Description of Rashes

484. ERYTHEMA MARGINATUM Little red spots w/ bright red margins Sandpapery RF- Jones critera

485. ERYTHEMIA CHRONICUM MIGRANS Lymes disease Target lesions (bulls eye)

486. MEASLES Morbiliform rash Preceded by cough conjunctiivitis

487. ROSEOLA Fever x 2 day Followed by rash ONLY ONE WITH RASH FOLLOWING FEVER (HHV 6)

488. ERYTHEMA NODOSUM Anterior aspect of leg Redness Tender nodules

489. Erythema multiforme Red macules, target lesions Causes: allergy, viruses Mild: MCC virus, #2 drugs (sulfas) Moderate: Stevens-Johnsons Syndrome Severe: Toxic epidermal necrolysis , skin peels off

490. SEBORRHEIC DERMATITIS Scaly skin with oily shine on headline

491. SEBORRHEIC KERATOSIS Stuck on warts Due to aging

492. PSORIASIS HLA-B27 Extensor surfaces Silvery white plaques Scaly skin Pitted nails

493. VARICELLA ZOSTER HHV 3 STAGES Red macules Papules Vesicles Pustules then scabs Different stages may appear at same time

494. DERMATITIS HERPATIFORMIS Rash and blisters on ant. thighs Assoc. with diarrhea Assoc. with flare up of celiac sprue

495. TYPHOID FEVER SEEN WITH SALMONEALLA INFXN Rose spots assoc. with intestinal fire

496. DERMATOMYOSITIS Heliotropic rash

497. ERYSIPELAS Reddened area on skin w/ raised borders DOES NOT BLANCH

498. TINEEA CRURIS Redness Itchy groin

499. PITYRIASIS ROSEA Herald patch= dry skin patches that follow skin lines HHV 7

500. TINEA VERSICOLOR Hypopigmented macules on upper back Presents in a V pattern A.K.A. upside down christmas tree Tx: Griseofulvin

501. What do you see in SCABIES? Linear excoriations on belt line and finger webs What is the tx? Lindane Permethrin

502. What is a T-CELL DEFICIENCY? DiGeorges What ion imbalance will they have? Hypokalemia What did not form? 3 rd and 4 th pharyngeal pouch What chromosome? Deletion on chromosome 22

503. T-CELL DEFICIENCY HIV Also B-cell but less so

504. What is MYCOSIS FUNGOIDES? NOT A FUNGUS Non-Hodgkins form of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

505. What is the job of CHYLOMICRONS? Transport TG’s from GI to liver and endothelium

506. What is the job of VLDL? Transports TG’s from liver to adipose

507. What is the job of IDL? Transports TG’s from adipose to tissue

508. What is special about LDL’s? ONLY ONE THAT CARRIES CHOLESTEROL

509. What do you develop with HYPERTRIGLYCERIDEMA? XANTHELASMA Where are they located? On eyelids and eyebrows

510. What do you develop with HYPERCHOLESTEROLEMIA? Xanthomas Where are they located? elbows

511. Where is VLDL made? ONLY ONE MADE IN THE LIVER

512. What are IDL AND LDL formed from? ARE BREAK DOWN PRODUCTS OF VLDL

513. What are the clues for HEMOPHILIUS INFLUENZA? Gram -/+? Pleomorphic gram (-) rods What pattern? “ school of fish pattern” What type is most common? Type A 80%

514. What are the clues for HEMOPHILIUS INFLUENZA? Capsule or no capsule? non-encapsulated Invasive or non invasive? non-invasive

515. What are the clues for HEMOPHILIUS INFLUENZA? Most common cause of what? Sinusitis Otitis Bronchitis

516. What are the clues for HEMOPHILIUS INFLUENZA? What is the 2 nd most common type? TYPE B 20% Encapsulated or non encapsulated? Encapsulated What does it have in its capsule? Polyribosyl phosphate in capsule Contains IgA protease

517. What are the clues for HEMOPHILIUS INFLUENZA? Invasive or non invasive? Invasive What does it cause most often? #1 cause of epiglottitis What are the signs of epiglottitis? Stridor Fever Thumb sign on xray

518. What are the most common causes of MENINGITIS corresponding with the following ages? 0-2 months? #1. Group B strep (agalactiae) #2. E. coli #3. Listera

519. What are the most common causes of MENINGITIS corresponding with the following ages? 2 Months- 10 years? #1. strep pneumonia #2. n. meningitides (adolescent years only)

520. What are the most common causes of MENINGITIS corresponding with the following ages? 10yrs- 21 yrs? #1. n. meningitides

521. What are the most common causes of MENINGITIS corresponding with the following ages? > 21 years old? #1 S. pneumoniae

522. Answer the following about the Strep. Pneumonia vaccine. At what age is it given? Given at 2,4,6 months What strain does it cover? Covers 23 strains (98% cases)

523. Answer the following about the Strep. Pneumonia vaccine. Indications? Anyone> 65y/o Anyone splenectomized Sickle cell anemia Anyone with end-organ damage CF RF Nephrotic Syndrome

524. STREP PYOGENES is the most common cause of what? MCC of all throat infections #2 MCC of all what? Skin infections except lines

525. What are the STAPHYLOCOCCUS PIGMENTS? St. aureus? Gold pigment St. epidermidis? White pigment St. saprophyticus? No pigment

526. What is the clue for RUSTY COLORED SPUTUM? Strep. Pneumonia pneumococcus

527. Clues for GENERAL INFECTIONS Skin Infections? Say Staph. Aureus Throat Infections? Say Strep. Pyogenes Small Intestine Infections? Say E. coli

528. What disease is a NEUTROPHIL DEFICIENCY & T,B cell deficiency? Job Syndrome: IL-4 Hyper IgE What do they look like? Red hair Fair complexion Female

529. What are the NEUTROPHIL DEFICIENCY? NADPH-OXIDASE DEF (CGD) NEUTROPENIA MYLOPEROXIDASE Job-Buckley Syndrome

530. What Hepatitis B antigen is found with an acute/recent infection? HbC antigen HbS antigen

531. What Hepatitis B antigen & antibody is found with an acute/recent infection? HbC antigen HbS antigen HbC antibody

532. What Hepatitis B antigen is found with Recent immunization within the past 2wks? HbS antigen ONLY

533. What Hepatitis B antibody is found with Recent immunization two wks after and can be due to vaccination immunity from a long time ago? HbS antibody ONLY

534. What Hepatitis B antibody & antigen is found with past disease but now immune? HbC antibody HbS antibody HbS antigen

535. What Immunogloblin is found in Hepatitis B immunity? IgG

536. What Hepatitis B antigen/antibody is found in the chronic carrier state? HbS antigen for >6months Can be with or without HbS antibody

537. What Hepatitis B antigen is found with the infectious state? HbE antigen

538. What Hepatitis B antibody is found with the non-infectious state? HbE antibody

539. If patient has recovered from Hepatitis B what antigen will they have? NEGATIVE HbS antigen

540. If patient is a chronic carrier what antigen will they have? POSITIVE HbS antigen

541. What does the “window period” build in Hepatitis B? HbE antibody IgM HbC antibody What disappears? HbS antigen

542. What is the incubation period for Hepatitis B? 4 to 26 wks Average @ 8wks

543. How long is the acute disease period in Hepatitis B? 4 to 12 wks

544. How long is the convalescence period in Hepatitis B? 4 to 20 wks

545. How long is the recovery period for Hepatitis B? YEARS

546. Answer the following about HIV? MC infection? CMV MCC of death? PCP What is p41 used for? Just a marker

547. Answer the following questions about HIV? What does Gp120 do? Attachment to CD4 What is Pol used for? Integration What is reverse transcriptase used for? Transcription What are p17 & p24 antigens used for? Assembly

548. Answer the following questions about HIV? What is the normal CD4 count? 800-1200 What can the CD4 count be up to in children? 1500 When do you begin treating with 2 nucleotide inhibitors and 1 protease inhibitor? <500 (child at 750)

549. Answer the following questions about HIV? AIDS is defined as a CD4 count of what? <200 With a CD4 count of <200 what do you tx for? PCP What do you treat for when CD count is <100? Mycobacterium aviam intracellular

550. What are the Antioxidants? Vitamin E #1 Vitamin A Vitamin C Betakertine

551. What is Vitamin A a cofactor for? Parathyroid Along with what other cofactor? Mg+

552. Too much Vitamin A will cause what? Hyperparathyroid Increase Ca+ Decrease Phosphate What will be the symptoms? Goans Moans Bones Stones

553. Too much Vitamin A will cause what? Pseudotumor Cerebri Increase CSF production from Chorichoid Plexus

554. What is the only cause of ICP that does not cause herniation? Pseucotumor cerebri

555. What does Vitamin A deficiency cause? Nightvision problems/nightblindness Hypoparathyroidism Decrease Ca+ Increase Phosphate

556. What is Vitamin B1? THIAMINE What do you get with a decrease in thiamine? Beri Beri What is the most common cause in US? ETOH

557. What do you get with Vitamin B1 deficiency? Wet Berry Berry With heart failure Dry Berry Berry Without heart failure

558. What do you get with Vitamin B1 deficiency? Wernicke’s Encephalopathy Wernicke’s Korsakoff

559. What is Wernicke’s Encephalopathy? Alcoholic thymine deficiency of the Temporal Lobe

560. What is Wernicke’s Korsakoff?

561. What needs B1 as a Cofactor? 3 Dehydrogenases Pyruvate dehydrogenase Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Branch chain amino acid dehydrogenase Transketolase

562. What is B2 Riboflavin What is a physical sign of this deficiency? Angular stomatitis Angular cheliosis Corneal Neurovasculazations

563. What is the best source of B2? Milk Also from FAD

564. What is B3? Niacin What is the clue? Diarrhea Dermatitis Dementia Death

565. What is the disease that presents like B3 deficiency? Hartnup Disease What is deficient in this disease? Tyrptophan What is typtophan needed for? Needed for niacin formation

566. What is B4? Lipoic acid What is the deficiency caused by this vitamin? Not one

567. What is B5? Pantothenic acid What is the deficiency caused by this vitamin? You guessed it…nothing

568. What is B6? Pyridoxine What is the deficiency caused by this vitamin? Neuropathy Seizures Who do you need to give B6 to? Patient on INH

569. What type of anemia is seen with B6 Deficiency? Sideroblastic

570. What needs B6 as a cofactor? ALL transaminases

571. What is B12? Cyanocobalamine What is the deficiency caused by this vitamin? Pernicious anemia Neuropathy

572. What is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency? Pernicious anemia

573. What 2 enzymes are needed for synthesis of B12? Methylmalonyl CoA Mutase Homocysteine Methyl Transferase

574. Deficiency in Methylmalonyl CoA Mutase leads to what? Neuropathy Why? Because it recycles myelin

575. Deficiency in Homocystiene Methyl Transferase leads to what? Megaloblastic anemia What else is this enzyme needed for? Nucleotide synthesis

576. When is ANGULARE STOMATOSIS seen? VITAMIN B2- RIBOFLAVIN deficiency

577. What are the 4 D’S of pellegra? DIARRHEA DERMATITIS DEMENTIA DEATH

578. What causes a NEUROPATHY WHEN DEFICIENT & also needs TRANSAMINASE? PYRIDOXINE B6

579. What vitamin is deficient with PERNICIOUS ANEMIA & NEUROPATHY? B12 CYANOCOBALAMINE

580. What is the first vitamin to run out with disease of rapidly dividing cells? Folate

581. What type of anemia is seen with Folate deficiency? Megaloblastic anemia With neuropathy? NO NEUROPHATHY What else is Folate used for? Nucleotide synthase (THF)

582. What is another name for Vitamin C? Ascorbate acid

583. What is Vitamin C needed for? Collagen synthesis

584. What happens with Vitamin C deficiency? Scurvy

585. What is the CLUE for Scurvy? Bleeding gums Bleeding hair follicles

586. What is the most common cause of Vitamin C deficiency? Diet deficient in citrus fruit Diet deficient in green vegetables Over cooked green vegetables

587. What does Vitamin D do with Ca+? Controls Ca+ Absorbes Ca+ from GI Reabsorbs Ca+ in Kidneys Controls osteoblastic activity

588. What does Vitamin D deficiency cause in Children? Ricketts What does it cause in ADULTS? Osteomalcia

589. What is the CLUE for RICKETTS? Lateral Bowing of the Legs X-linked dominant

590. What is Vitamin E needed for? Hair Skin Eyes Protection against free radicals #1 antioxidant

591. What does a deficiency of Vitamin E cause in newborns? Retinopathy

592. What are the vitamins from GI that are normal flora? Folate Vitamin K 90% Biotin Panothenic acid Helps with absorption of B12

593. What are the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors? 1972 Protein C Protein S Which one has the shortest half-life? Protein C Which one has the 2 nd shortest half-life? 7

594. What are the TRACE elements? Chromium Selenium Manganese Molebdenum Tin

595. What is Chromium needed for? Insulin action

596. What organ needs Selenium? Heart

597. What trace element is an enzyme in glycolsis? Manganese Molebdenum

598. What organ needs Tin? Hair

599. What does a deficiency in Zinc cause? Dysguzia Decrease sperm Dry hair Dry skin

600. Cofactor for ALL Kinases? Mg+

601. Cofactor for ALL Carboxylases? Biotin

602. Cofactor for ALL Transaminases? Pyridoxine B6

603. What is Biotin a cofactor for? ALL carboxylases

604. What is Mg+ a cofactor for? ALL kinases Parathyroid along with Vitamin A

605. What is Ca+ needed for? Muscle contraction Axonal transport 2 nd messengers

606. What tracts are affected due to deficiency in Methyl Malonyl CoA Mutase? Dorsal Columns Cortical Spinal Tracts Why are these affected? Because they are the longest Because they need the most myelin

607. What enzyme does Zanthein Oxidase need? Maganese Molebdenum

608. How are drugs that are bioavailable ALWAYS excreted? By the liver Always Hepatotoxic

609. How are soluble drugs ALWAYS excreted? By the kidney Always nephrotoxic

610. What are the 5 P’S OF COMPARTMENT SYNDROME? Pain Pallor Paresthesia Pulselessness Poikilothermia

611. What are 5 skin infections were Strep. Pyogenes is the number one cause? Lympangitis Impetigo (not bullous) Necrotizing fascitis Erysepelas Scarlet fever

612. What are 5 skin infections were Staph. aureus is the number two cause? Lympangitis Impetigo (not bullous) Necrotizing fascitis Erysepelas Scarlet fever

613. What is the #1 bacteria causing infection associated in shunts and central lines? Staph epidermitis

614. What is the #1 bacteria causing infection in peripheral lines? Staph aureus

615. Why do we need E. COLI in the gut? Absorption of Vit. B12 Synthesis of : -Vitamin K -Biotin -Folate -Pantothenic acid B5

616. Answer the following questions about RESTRICTION ENZYMES? Trypsin cuts where? cuts to R of Arg Lys Chymotrypsin cuts where? cuts to R of bulky aa’s (aromatics) Phe Tyr Trp

617. Answer the following questions about RESTRICTION ENZYMES? Elastase cuts where? Cuts to R of (“SAG”) S er A la G ly CNBr cuts where? Cuts to R of Methionine

618. Answer the following questions about RESTRICTION ENZYMES? Mercaptoethanol cuts where? Cuts to R of: disulfide bonds Cysteine methionine

619. Answer the following questions about RESTRICTION ENZYMES? Aminopeptidase cuts where? Cuts to R of amino acid terminal Caboxypeptidase cuts where? Cuts to L of carboxy terminal

620. What is THE ONLY LIVE VACCINE INDICATED IN AIDS PATIENTS? MMR

621. What VACCINE is NOT GIVEN IF pt. is Allergic to EGG? MMR & INFLUENZA

622. What VACCINE is NOT GIVEN IF patient HAS YEAST ALLERGIES? Hepatitis B

623. What 3 VACCINES DROP OUT AFTER 6 YEARS OF AGE? Hib Diphtheria Pertussis

624. What is the MC STRAIN OF STREP PYOGENES TO CAUSE GN? Strain 12

625. What 2 substances are in NEUTROPHILS? Myeloperoxidase NADPH Oxidase

626. MACROPHAGES CONTAIN what SUBSTANCE? NADPH Oxidase Which means they only kill what? Kills only G -ve

627. What do MACROPHAGES SECRETE? IL-1 IL-6??

628. What DRUGS CAUSE PAINFUL NEUROPATHY? DDI>DDC Pancreatitis

629. What are the MITOCHONDRIAL DISEASES? Leigh’s Disease What is another name? Subacute necrotizing encephalomyelopathy What are the signs & symptoms? Progressively decreasing IQ Seizure Ataxia What is the deficiency? Cytochrome oxidase deficiency

630. What are the MITOCHONDRIAL DISEASES? Leber’s Hereditary Optic Atrophy (LHON) They all die

631. What is the ONLY G +ve WITH ENDOTOXIN? Listeria What part is toxic? Lipid A Does it cross the placenta? Yes

632. What does Listeria activate? T-cells & Macrophages, therefore, have granulomas

633. What are the Associations in contracting the Listeria bug? Raw cabbage Spoiled milk Migrant workers

634. What are the PERIODS OF RAPID GROWTH/RAPIDLY DIVIDING CELLS? Birth – 2 months 4 – 7 years old Puberty

635. What is THE ONLY IMMUNE DEFICIENCY WITH LOW CALCIUM and Increase Phosphate? DiGeorge’s Syndrome

636. What are the BASIC AMINO ACIDS? Lysine Arginine

637. What are the ACIDIC AMINO ACIDS? Glutamate Aspartate

638. What are the Ketogenic + Glucogenic Amino Acids? Phenylalanine Isoleucine Trptophan Threonine

639. What are the AROMATIC AMINO ACIDS? Phenylalanin Tyrosine Tryptophan

640. What are the AMINO ACIDS with DISULFIDE BONDS? Met Cyst

641. What are the “KINKY” AMINO ACID? Proline

642. What are the SMALLEST AMINO ACID? Gly

643. What are the AMINO ACIDS with O-BONDS? Serine Threonine Tyrosine

644. What are the AMINO ACIDS with N-BONDS? Asparagine Glutamine

645. What are the BRANCHED-CHAIN AMINO ACIDS? Leu Iso Val

646. What are the KETOGENIC AMINO ACIDS? Leu Lys

647. What CONDITIONS are ASSOCIATED WITH HLA-B27? Psoriasis (with arthritis) Ankylosing Spondylitis Irritable Bowel Syndrome Reiter’s Syndrome

648. What is associated with HLA-B13? Psoriasis with out arthritis

649. What are the ORGANISMS WITH IgA PROTEASE (resistant to IgA) ? Strep. Pneumoniae H. influenza Neisseria catarrhalis

650. What do EOSINOPHILS SECRETE? Histaminase Arylsulfatase Heparin Major Basic Protein

651. What do MAST CELLS SECRETE? In an Acute Reaction? Histamine In a Late Reaction ? SRS-A ECF-A

652. What is the MCC of ATYPICAL PNEUMONIA? 0 – 2 months? chlamydia pneumonia

653. What does chlamydia pneumonia cause? Intersitital pneumonia

654. What is the CLUE for HEART BLOCK? High temperature with NORMAL pulse rate! ( This should never be! Each degree ↑ in temp. -> 10 beats/min ↑ in pulse rate)

655. What are the clues for IL-1? FEVER NONSPECIFIC ILLNESS RECRUITS TH CELLS for LINKING with MHC II COMPLEX SECRETED BY MACROPHAGES

656. What are the clues for IL-2? MOST POTENT OF THE Interleukins RECRUITS EVERYBODY MOST POWERFUL CHEMO-ATTRACTANT MUST BE INACTIVATED When must you inactivate it? PRIOR TO TRANSPLANTATION by cyclosporin SECRETED BY TH1 CELLS

657. What are the clues for IL-3? ENERGIZED MACROPHAGES CAUSES B-CELL PROLIFERATION LABELED BY THYMIDINE (USE POKEWEED MITOGEN OR ENDOTOXIN) SECRETED BY ACTIVATED T CELLS

658. What are the clues for IL-4? B-CELL DIFFERENTIATION RESPONSIBLE FOR CLASS SWITCHING SECRETED BY TH2 CELLS

659. What are the clues for IL-5 thru 14? They do exactly what IL-1 thru IL4

660. What are the clues for IL-10? SUPPRESSES CELL-MEDIATED RESPONSE (tells macrophages and fibroblasts to stay away if bacterial) INHIBITS MAC ACTIVATION

661. What are the clues for IL-12? PROMOTES CELL-MEDIATED RESPONSE (recruits macs & fibroblasts if NOT bacterial) ACTIVATES NK CELLS TO SECRETE IF- γ INHIBITS IL-4 INDUCED IgE SECRETION CHANGES TH CELLS to TH1 CELLS secretes IL-2 & IF- γ -> inhib. TH2, therefore, ↑ host defenses against delayed hypersensitivity

662. What are the clues for IF- α ? Where is it from? LEUKOCYTES ↓ VIRAL REPLICATION AND TUMOR GROWTH ↑ NK ACTVITY secretes perforins and granzymes to kill infected cell ↑ MHC CLASS I & II EXPRESSION ↓ PROTEIN SYNTHESIS translation inhibited, therefore, defective protein synthesis

663. Summary of clues for IF- α ? Increase NK activity Increase MHC class I & II Decrease protein synthesis Decrease viral replication and growth

664. What are the clues for IF-B? Where is it from? FIBROBLASTS Increase NK activity Increase MHC class I & II Decrease protein synthesis Decrease viral replication and growth

665. What are the clues for IF-gama? Where is it from? T-CELLS & NK CELLS ↑ NK ACTIVITY ↑ MHC CLASS I & II ↑ MACROPHAGE ACTIVITY CO-STIMULATES B-CELL GROWTH & DIFFERENTIATION ↓ IgE SECRETION

666. What are the clues for TNF-alpha? Where is it from? MONOCYTES & MACROPHAGES What is another name for TNF-alpha? CACHECTIN INDUCES IL-1 ↑ ADHESION MOLECULES & MHC CLASS I ON ENDOTHELIAL CELLS PYROGEN INDUCES IF- γ SECRETION CYTOTOXIC /CYTOSTATIC EFFECT

667. What are the clues for TNF-beta? Where is it from? T-CELLS What is another name for it? LYMPHOTOXIN CYTOTOXIC FACTOR

668. What are the clues for TGF- α ? Where is it from? SOLID TUMORS (CARCINOMA > SARCOMA) MONOCYTES What is another name for it? TRANSFORMING GROWTH FACTORS

669. What are the clues for TGF- α ? What does it INDUCE? ANGIOGENESIS KERATINOCYTE PROLIFERATION BONE RESORPTION TUMOR GROWTH What is it mainly for? MAINLY FOR TUMOR GROWTH

670. What are the clues for TGF- β ? Where is it from? PLATELETS PLACENTA KIDNEY BONE T & B CELLS

671. What are the clues for TGF- β ? What INDUCES it? FIBROBLAST PROLIFERATION COLLAGEN FIBRONECTIN SYNTHESIS

672. What are the clues for TGF- β ? What INHIBITS it? NK LAK CTL T & B CELL PROLIFERATION

673. What are the clues for TGF- β ? What ENHANCES it? WOUND HEALING ANGIOGENESIS

674. What are the clues for TGF- β ? What does it suppress? SUPPRESSES IR AFTER INFECTION & PROMOTES HEALING PROCESS What is it mainly for? MAINLY FOR WOUND HEALING

675. What does LAK stand for? LYMPHOKINE ACTIVATED KILLER CELLS

676. What does CTL stand for? CYTOTOXIC T-LYMPHOCYTES

677. What does mitochondrial inheritance affect? CNS Heart Skeletal muscle Why does it affect these particular places? Due to uneven cytokinesis during meiosis or oogenesis

678. Answer the following about Mitochondrial diseases? Who are affected? All offspring Who passes the disease? MOM Who has no transmission? Dad

679. Answer the following about Autosomal Recessive inheritance? Who does it show in? Not parents Siblings/uncles may show disease When is onset? Early in life (childhood diagnosis) Is it complete on incomplete penetrance? COMPLETE

680. Answer the following about Autosomal Recessive inheritance? How are they acquired? Almost ALL are inborn error of metabolism When does it occur? Only when both alleles at a locus are mutant

681. Answer the following about Autosomal Recessive inheritance? How is it transmitted? Horizontal Tm Are there malformations present? Physical malformations are uncommon What type of defect? Enzyme defect

682. Answer the following about Autosomal Dominant inheritance? Who does it affect the most? M=F How does it manifest? Heterozygote state Who can transmit the disease? Both parents

683. Answer the following about Autosomal Dominant inheritance? Where is the new mutation? Often in germ cells of older fathers When is onset? Often delayed (adult diagnosis) Example = Huntington’s

684. Answer the following about Autosomal Dominant inheritance? What is penetrance? Reduced penetrance How is it expressed? Variable expressin Different in each individual

685. Answer the following about Autosomal Dominant inheritance? How is it transmitted? Vertical TM Is there malformation present? Physical malformation common What type of defect? Structural

686. Who is affected in the family with an X-Linked disease? Maternal grandfather Maternal uncle

687. Immune System Time Line for viral & cell-mediated. What happens <24hrs? Swelling What happens at 24 hrs? Neutrophils show up What happens at day 3? Neutrophils peak

688. Immune System Time Line for viral & cell-mediated. What happens at day 4? T cells and Macrophages show up What happens at day 7? Fibroblasts show up What happens in 1 month? Fibroblast peak

689. Immune System Time Line for viral & cell-mediated. What happens at 3-6 months? Fibroblasts are gone

690. What is the general CLUE for any Lysosomal Storage Disease? Lysosomal Inclusion Bodies

691. What are the Lysosomal Storage diseases? Gauchers Fabrys Krabbe Tay Sachs Sandhoffs Hurlers Hunters Neiman Pick Metachromatic Leukodystropy

692. What is missing in Gauchers? Beta-Glucocerberosidase What Accumulates? Glucocebroside Where? Brain Liver Bone Marrow Spleen

693. What are the CLUES for Gauchers? Ask. Jew Gargols Gaucher cells Macrophages looking like Crinkeled paper Erlin myoflask legs Pseudohypertrophy

694. What is missing in Fabrys? Alpha-galactosidase What accumulates? Ceramide Trihexoside

695. What are the CLUES for Fabrys? X-Linked recessive Presents with cataracts as a child Presents with renal failure as a child

696. What is missing in Krabbes? Galactosylceramide B-Galactosidase What accumulates? Galactocerebrosidase Where? Brain

697. What are the CLUES for Krabbes? Early death Globoid bodies Fat cells

698. What is missing in Tay Sachs? Hexoseaminidase A What accumulates? GM2 Ganglioside

699. What is the CLUE for Tay Sachs? Ask. Jews Cherry red macula Death by 3

700. What is missing in Sandhoffs? Hexoseaminadase A & B

701. What is missing in Hurlers? Iduronidase

702. What are the CLUES for Hurlers? Corneal Clouding Mental Retardation

703. What is missing in Hunters? Iduronate Sulfatase

704. What are the CLUES for Hunters? Mild mental retardation No corneal clouding Mild form of Hurlers X-linked recessive

705. What is missing in Niemann Picks? Spingomyelinase What accumulates? Spingomyelin Cholesterol

706. What are the CLUES for Niemann Picks? Zebra bodies Cherrry red macula Die by 3

707. What is missing in Metachromatic Leukodystrophy? Arylsulfatase A

708. What is the CLUE for Metachromatic Leukodystrophy? Visual Disturbance Presents like MS in 5 to 10 years of age

709. What are the Glycogen Storage Diseases? Von Gierkes Andersons Corys McCardles Pompes Hers

710. What is deficient in Von Gierkes? G-6-Pase Deficiency

711. What is the CLUE for Von Gierkes? Big Liver Big Kidney Severe hypoglycemia Can NEVER raise their blood sugar

712. What is deficient in Andersons? Branching enzyme deficiency

713. What is the CLUE for Andersons? Glycogen will be ALL LONG chains on liver biopsy

714. What is missing in Corys? Debranching enzyme

715. What is the CLUE for Corys? Glycogen from liver biopsy will be ALL SHORT branches

716. What is missing in McCardles? Muscle phosporalase

717. What is the CLUE for McCardles? Severe muscle cramps when exercising High CPK

718. What is missing in Pompes? Cardiac alpha-1,4 glucocydase

719. What is the CLUE for Pompes? Heart problems Die early

720. What is missing in Hers? Liver phosphoralase

721. What is the CLUE for Hers? Big Liver NO big kidney

722. Pagets disease is associated with what cancer? Intraductal Ca

723. What MUST you rule out with a decrease AVO2? AV Fistula Vasodilation

724. What diseases have a cherry red macula? Tay Sachs Sandhoffs Niemann Pick

725. What is translocation 9;22? CML

726. What is translocation 11;22? Ewing’s sarcoma

727. What is translocation 8;14? Burketts lymphoma

728. What is translocation 14;18? Follicular lymphoma

729. What are the causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy? Sarcoid Amyloid Hemochromatosis Cancer Fibrosis Thanks STAN!!

730. What are the CLUES for Vasulitis or Intravascular Hemolysis? Shistocytes Burr cells Helmet cells

731. What is the CLUE for Extravascular Hemolysis? Splenomagely

732. Where is Glucose 6-Pase present? Adrenal Liver

733. What is the Heinz body CLUE? G6PD

734. If you see the CLUE basophilic stippling, what should you be thinking? Lead poisoning

735. What are the Microcytic Hypochromic Anemias? Iron deficiency Anemia of Chronic disease Lead poisoning Hemoglobinopathy Thallasemia’s Sideroblastic anemia

736. What is primary sideroblastic anemia due to? Genetic AD

737. What is secondary Sideroblastic anemia due to? Blood transfusions

738. What are the Microcytic Hyperchromic Anemia’s? Hereditary Spherocytosis

739. What are the Normocytic Normochromic Anemia’s? Acute hemorrhage Anemia of Chronic Disease Hypothyrodism Early Renal Failure

740. What are the Macrocytic anemia’s? Folate deficiency B12 deficiency Reticulocytosis ETOH Hemolytic Anemias Chemo Treatment Anticonvulsants Myelodysplasia

741. What are the anticonvulsants causing a Macrocytic Anemia? Phenytoin Ethusuximide Carbamyazapine Valproate

742. What anemia is caused by blood transfusions? Sideroblastic anemia

743. What is the problem if you see Eliptocytes? Something is wrong with the RBC membrane Extravascular Heridatary Ellitocytosis Increased RET count

744. What disease do you get if you have an EXCESS in Cu+? Wilson’s Disease

745. What is the CLUE for Wilson’s Disease? Hepato/Lenticular Degeneration Kayser Fleishner Rings Copper in eyes Hepato = Liver Lenticular = Movement problem

746. What is Copper needed for? Collagen synthesis

747. What disease manifest with Cu+ deficiency? Minky Kinky Hair Syndrome

748. What are the plasma catecholamines? Epinephrine Norepinephrine Dopamine

749. What are Plasma Catecholamines derived from? Tyrosine

750. A patient with episodic HTN leading to headache with arrhythmias leading to palpitations most likely is diagnosed with? Adrenal Pheochromocytoma

751. What is the MOA for Fluroquinolones? Blocks DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) Inhibits p450

752. What do Fluroquinolones cover? All Gram + including staph auerus All Gram – Atypicals

753. What are the atypicals? Chlamydia Ureoplasma Mycoplasma Legionella

754. What induces Gluconeogensis? Cortisol Epinephrine Glucagon

755. What is Dermatan Sulfate? Glycosaminoglycan chain that helps form proteoglycans

756. What is Hyaluronic Acid? Glycosaminoglycan chain that helps form proteoglycans

757. What is the MOA of Methotrexate? Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase Inhibits DNA synthesis in the S phase of cycle. Prevents reduction of folic acid needed to produce THF

758. What are THF derivatives used in? Purine nucleotide synthesis Methylation of dUMP to for dTMP

759. What happens when Dihydrofolate Reductase is inhibited? Obstructs one carbon methylation which deprives DNA polymerase of essential substrates

760. What diseases present as Failure to Thrive? CF Galactosemia

761. In general, what should you always associate Hemolytic Anemia’s with? Defects in Glycolysis Defects in Hexose Monophosphate Shunt

762. What is required for the conversion of Homocysteine to Methionine? B12

763. What is required for the conversion of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl CoA? B12

764. What is required for the degradation of cystathionine? Vitamin B6

765. What does the hydroxalation of Purines require? Vitamin C

766. When does the carboxyalation of Glutamic acid occurs and what is required for this carboxyalation? Occurs in the synthesis of Blood Clotting factors Requires Vitamin K

767. Decarboxylation of alpha-ketoacids requires what? Thiamine

768. Synthesis of 1,25-d-hydroxycholecalciferol requires what? Vitamin D

769. Synthesis of Rhodopsin requires what? Vitamin A

770. Pyruvate Decarboxylase requires what as a cofactor? Thiamine

771. What is CN1? Olfactory What is its function? Sensory for smell What if lesioned? Anosmia Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Cribriform plate What does it innervate? Nasal Cavity

772. What is CN2? Optic What is its function? Sensory for sight What if lesioned? Anopsia Visual field defect Loss of light reflex with CN III Only nerve affected by MS

773. Cont. CN2 Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Optic Canal What does it innervate? Orbit

774. What is CN3? Occulomotor What are the functions? Motor Moves the eyeball in ALL directions Adduction Most important action (MR) Constricts the pupil (Spincter Pupillae) Accomodates (Cililary Muscle) Raises eyelid (Levator Palpebrae)

775. Cont. CN 3 What if lesioned? Diplopia Loss of parallel gaze Dilated pupil Loss of light reflex Loss of near response Ptosis

776. Cont. CN 3 Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Superior Orbital Fissure What does it innervate? Orbit

777. What is CN 4? Trochlear What is its function? Motor Superior Oblique Depresses and abducts the eyeballs Intorts

778. Cont. CN 4 What if lesioned? Weakness looking down w/ adducted eye Trouble going down stairs Head tilts away from lesioned side Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Superior Orbital Fissure

779. Cont. CN 4 What does it innervate? Orbit

780. What is CN 5? Trigeminal

781. What are the different branches of CN 5? V1? Opthalmic V2? Maxillary V3? Mandibular

782. What is the function of CN V1? Mixed General sensation (touch, pain, temperature) of the forehead, scalp, & cornea What if lesioned? Loss of general sensation of the forehead/scalp Loss of blink reflex w/ VII Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Superior orbital Fissure Ophthalmic division

783. Cont. CN V1 What does it innervate? Orbit Scalp

784. What is the function of CN V2? Mixed General sensation of Palat, Nasal cavity, Maxillary face, and Maxillary teeth What if lesioned? Loss of general sensation in skin over maxilla & maxillary teeth

785. Cont. CN V2 Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Foramen Rotundum What does it innervate? Pterygopalatine Leaves by openings to face, oral & nasal cavity

786. What is the function of CN V3? What is its function? Mixed General sensation of anterior 2/3 of tongue, mandibular face & mandibular teeth Motor Muscles of Mastication and anterior belly of digastric, mylohyoid, tensor tympani, tensor palati

787. Cont. CN V3 What if lesioned? Loss of general sensation in skin over mandible, mandibular teeth, tongue, weakness in chewing Jaw deviation to weak side Trigeminal neuralgia Intractable pain in V2 or V3 territory

788. Cont. CN V3 Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Foramen Ovale What does it innervate? Infratemporal Fossa

789. What is CN VI? Abducens What is its function? Motor Lateral rectus Abducts eye

790. Cont. CN VI What if lesioned? Diplopia Internal strabismus Loss of parallel gaze Pseudoptosis Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Superior orbital fissure What does it innervate? Orbit

791. What is CN VII? Facial What is its function? Mixed To muscles of facial expression Posterior belly of diagastric Stylohyoid & Stapedius Tastes anterior 2/3 of tongue/palate Salivates (submandibular & sublingual glands) Tears (Lacrimal glands) Makes mucous (nasal & palatine glands)

792. Cont. CN VII What if lesioned? Corner of mouth droops Can’t close eye Can’t wrinkle forehead Loss of blink reflex Hypeacusis Loss or alteration of taste (ageusia) Eye dry and red Bell Palsy Lesion of nerve in facial canal

793. Cont. CN VII Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Internal Auditory meatus What does it innervate? Face Nasal & oral cavity Branches leave skull in stylomastoid foramen, petrotympanic fissure, or Hiatus of facial canal

794. What is CN VIII? Vestibulocochlear What is its function? Sensory Hears Linear acceleration (Gravity) Angular acceleration (Head Turning)

795. Cont. CN VIII What if lesioned? Loss of Balance Nystagmus Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Internal Auditory Meatus What does it innervate? Inner ear

796. What is CN IX? Glossopharyngeal What is its function? Mixed Sense Pharynx Carotid sinus/body Salivates (parotid glands) Tastes and senses posterior 1/3 of tongue

797. Cont. CN IX What is its function? To one muscle only (stylopharyngeus) What if lesioned? Loss of Gag Reflex with X Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Jugular Foramen

798. Cont. CN IX What does it innervate? Neck Pharynx/Tongue

799. What is CN X? Vagus What is its function? Mixed To muscles of palate & pharynx for swallowing except tensor palate (V) & Stylopharynegeus (IX) To all muscles of Larynx (phonates) Senses Larynx & Laryngopharynx Senses Larynx & GI tract To GI tract smooth muscle & glands in forgut & midgut

800. Cont. CN X What if lesioned? Nasal speech Nasal regurgitation Dysphagia Palate drop Uvula points away from pathology Hoarseness/fixed vocal cord Loss of gag reflex w/ IX Loss of cough reflex

801. Cont. CN X Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Jugular Foramen What does it innervate? Neck Pharynx/Larynz Thorax/Abdo

802. CN X – Sympathetics to Head What is its function? Motor Raises eyelid (superior tarsal muscle) Dilates pupil Innervates sweat glands of face & scalp Constricts blood vessels in head

803. Cont. CN X What if lesioned? Horner syndrome Eyelid droop (ptosis) Constricted pupil (miosis) Loss of sweating (anhydrosis) Flushed face

804. Cont. CN X Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Carotid canal on internal carotid artery What does it innervate? Orbit Face Scalp

805. What is CN XI? Accessory What is its function? Turns head to opposite side sternocleidomastoid Elevates & Rotates scapula Trapezius

806. Cont. CN XI What if lesioned? Weakness turning head to opposite side Shoulder droop Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Jugular Foramen What does it innervate? Neck

807. What is CN XII? Hypoglossal What is its function? Moves tongue What if lesioned? Tongue points toward pathology on protrusion

808. What is CN XII? Where does it Exit/Enter the Cranium? Hypoglossal Canal What does it innervate? Tongue

809. What are the muscles of mastication? Temporalis Masseter Medial Pterygoids Lateral Pterygoids

810. What part of the brain deals with problem solving? Frontal Lobe

811. What happens if there is a lesion to the Optic nerve? Unilateral Blindness

812. What happens if there is a lesion to the Optic Chiasm? Bitemporal Hemianopia

813. What is a Berry Aneurysm due to in the Circle of Willis? SUBARACHNOID Hemorrhage

814. What is a CLUE for SUBARACHNOID Hemorrhage? The worse headache of my life

815. What effect does Pernicious Anemia have on the nervous system? Causes degeneration of the posterior columns Causes degeneration of the CST Loss of proprioception Upper motor neuron defect

816. What does the diencephalon originate from? Forebrain

817. What originates from the Diencephalon? Thalamus 3 rd Ventricle

818. Where does the Telencephalon originate from? Forebrain Prosencephalon

819. What originates from the Telencephalon? Cerebral Hemispheres Lateral Ventricles

820. What originates from the Mesencephalon? Midbrain Aqueduct

821. What originates from the Hindbrain? Metencephalon Myerencephalon

822. What originates from the Metencephalon? Pons Cerebrum

823. What originates from the Myerencephalon? Medulla

824. What does the Jugular Foramen contain? CN IX CN X CN XI Internal Jugular Vein Spinal accessory nerves

825. What does the Foramen Spinosum contain? Middle menningeal artery Branch of the maxillary artery

826. What does the Foramen Ovale contain? CN V3

827. What does the Foramen Magnum contain? Vertebral arteries Brain stem Spinal roots of CN XI Spinal cord

828. What does the Optic Canal contain? Opthalmic artery Central retinal vein CN II

829. What does the Hypoglossal Canal contain? CN XII Hypoglossal nerve

830. What does the Carotid Canal contain? Internal Carotid artery

831. What does the Posterior Condylar Canal contain? Large Emissary Vein

832. What are signs of an UPPER motor neuron damage? + Babinski sign Spastic Paralysis Hyperactive Deep Tendon Reflexes

833. What are signs of a lower motor neuron defect? Atrophy Fasciullations Flaccid Paralysis Loss of deep tendon reflexes

834. What does it mean to see a physis on radiograph? Means the skeleton is not fully mature

835. When does Physis disappear? Once growth is complete

836. What is a nonunion fracture? Fracture that does not heal with in 6 months

837. What does Malunion mean? A fracture that heals in an Abnorman position

838. What is a characteristic feature of cancellous (spongy) bone? Trabeculae

839. Which CN’s control eye movement? CN III Oculomotor nerve CN IV Trochlear nerve CN VI Abducens nerve

840. What CN is responsible for turning the head and shrugging the shoulders? CN XI Accessory nerve

841. What CN has sensory fibers for Face and Motor fibers for muscles of mastication? CN V Tigeminal Nerve

842. What CN controls tongue movement? CN XII Hypoglossal nerve

843. What CN controls sensory fibers for Vison CN II Optic nerve

844. What CN senses fiber for smelling? CN I Olfactory

845. What does the Mesenteric Artery Supply? Distal 1/3 of transverse colon Descending colon Sigmoid colon Upper Portion of Rectum

846. What does the Superior Mesenteric Artery Supply? Duodenum Jejunum Ileum Cecum Appendix Ascending colon Proximal 2/3 of transverse colon

847. What does the common Iliac artery supply? Pelvis Perineum Leg

848. What does the Celiac trunck give rise to? Left gastric artery Splenic artery Common hepatic artery

849. What do the Left. Gastric Artery, Splenic Artery, & Common Hepatic artery supply? Esophagusa Stomach Duodenum Liver Gallbladder Pancreas

850. If there is a lesion in the frontal lobe will you have motor or sensory defects? Motor

851. If patient has a visual field defect with cognitive Distrubance, what part of the brain will be affected? Temporal or Partial Lobe