South University
Virginia Beach Campus
ECO2071
Name: ____________________________________________
Score: ______________
Select the CORRECT answer to each question. Each question is worth 2 points.
1. Economics is the study of how society manages its
a.
limited wants and unlimited resources.
b.
unlimited wants and unlimited resources.
c.
limited wants and limited resources.
d.
unlimited wants and limited resources.
2. The terms equality and efficiency are similar in that they both refer to benefits to society. However they are different in that
a.
equality refers to uniform distribution of those benefits and efficiency refers to maximizing benefits from scarce resources.
b.
equality refers to maximizing benefits from scarce resources and efficiency refers to uniform distribution of those benefits.
c.
equality refers to everyone facing identical tradeoffs and efficiency refers to the opportunity cost of the benefits.
d.
equality refers to the opportunity cost of the benefits and efficiency refers to everyone facing identical tradeoffs.
3. Senator Bright, who understands economic principles, is trying to convince workers in her district that trade with other countries is beneficial. Senator Bright should argue that trade can be beneficial
a.
only if it allows us to obtain things that we couldn't make for ourselves.
b.
because it allows specialization, which increases total output.
c.
to us if we can gain and the others involved in the trade lose.
d.
in only a limited number of circumstances because others are typically self-interested.
4. A direct or positive relationship exists between a country's
a.
productivity and its standard of living.
b.
amount of government spending and its productivity.
c.
total population and its average citizen’s income.
d.
rate of population growth and the extent of its trade with other countries.
5. Economists, like mathematicians, physicists, and biologists,
a.
make use of the scientific method.
b.
try to address their subject with a scientist’s objectivity.
c.
devise theories, collect data, and then analyze these data in an attempt to verify or refute their theories.
d.
All of the above are correct.
6. Which of the following is an example of a positive, as opposed to normative, statement?
a.
Inflation is more harmful to the economy than unemployment is.
b.
If welfare payments increase, the world will be a better place.
c.
Prices rise when the government prints too much money.
d.
When public policies are evaluated, the benefits to the economy of improved equality should be considered more important than the costs of reduced efficiency.
7. Which of the following is an example of a normative, as opposed to positive, statement?
a.
Universal health care would be good for U.S. citizens.
b.
An increase in the cigarette tax would cause a decrease in the number of smokers.
c.
A decrease in the minimum wage would decrease unemployment.
d.
A law requiri.
Exam1. Economics is aa. social science that studies g.docxSANSKAR20
Exam
1. Economics is a:
a. social science that studies goods with no alternative uses.
b. natural science that studies goods with no alternative uses.
c. social science concerned chiefly with how people choose among alternatives.
d. social science concerned chiefly with reasons why society has unlimited resources.
2. Scarcity exists when:
a. a choice must be made among two or more alternatives.
b. we face the notion of "all other things unchanged."
c. countries and people find themselves facing poverty.
d. the notions of normative economics come into play.
3. A free good is:
a. also a scarce good.
b. a relatively abundant good.
c. a good with no opportunity cost.
d. a good with relatively low opportunity cost.
4. Suppose that voters in your community pass a one-cent sales tax increase to fund education, knowing full well they will have to forgo other goods they typically consume. This primarily addresses the economic question of:
a. How will each good be produced?
b. For whom shall the goods be produced?
c. Why will the resources be used to produce goods?
d. What goods and services should a society produce?
5. A factor of production that has been produced for use in the production of other goods and services is:
a. labor.
b. money.
c. capital.
d. natural resources.
6. The textbook classifies technology as _______ and entrepreneurs as _______ .
a. knowledge; persons who seek profit by finding new ways to organize factors of production
b. capital; labor
c. labor skills; capital
d. a factor of production; a factor of production
7. The production possibilities curve represents the fact that:
a. the economy will automatically end up at full employment.
b. an economy's productive capacity increases proportionally with its population.
c. if all resources of an economy are being used efficiently, more of one good can be produced only if less of another good is produced.
d. economic production possibilities have no limit.
8. An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in producing a particular good if it:
a. can produce more of all goods than another economy.
b. can produce less of all goods than another economy.
c. has the highest cost for producing that good.
d. has the lowest cost for producing that good.
9. A negative relationship between the quantity demanded and price is called the law of ______.
a. demand
b. diminishing marginal returns
c. market clearing
d. supply
10. If people demand more of product A when the price of B falls, then A and B are:
a. not related.
b. substitutes.
c. complements.
d. inferior.
11. The primary difference between a change in demand and a change in the quantity demanded is:
a. a change in demand is a movement along the demand curve, and a change in quantity demanded is a shift in the demand curve.
b. a change in quantity demanded is a movement along the demand curve, and a change in demand is a shift in the demand curve.
c. both a change i ...
Instructions use a RED scantron and bubble in your answers. T.docxdirkrplav
Instructions: use a RED scantron and bubble in your answers. Turn in your
scantron along with your typed answers to the written portion of the exam.
1. When private ownership rights are well-defined and enforced, owners
a. can ignore the wishes of others, without bearing the cost.
b. have little incentive to take care of things.
c. can do anything they want with their property.
d. can be held accountable for damage to others through misuse of their
property.
2. Criteria for rationing goods and resources must be established because of
a. the law of comparative advantage.
b. the use of capitalism as a form of economic organization.
c. the inability of politicians to develop efficient forms of economic organization.
d. scarcity imposed by nature.
3. When we say the cost of production is $50, what is meant according to economic
principles?
a. A firm had to spend $50 in order to purchase the resources required to make the
good or service.
b. A value to society of this good or service was $50, so its cost is said to be $50.
c. A firm could have made something else with the resources that was worth $50 in
the market.
d. $50 represents the maximum willingness to pay from market participants.
4. For markets to be efficient in production, what must be true?
e. All profitable opportunities must be exhausted
f. No firm is doing something where MC>MB
g. All of the above
h. None of the above
Use the production possibilities data below for Honduras and Nicaragua to answer the
following question(s).
Table 2-2
Honduras
Oranges Apples
0 16
1 12
2 8
3 4
4 0
Nicaragua
Oranges Apples
0 8
1 6
2 4
3 2
4 0
5. Refer to Table 2-2. Which of the following is correct?
a. Honduras has the comparative advantage in both goods.
b. Nicaragua has the comparative advantage in oranges.
c. Honduras has the comparative advantage in oranges.
d. It would be impossible for Honduras and Nicaragua to gain from trade.
Figure 2-2
6. Which of the following would most likely cause the production possibilities curve for
breadfruit and fish to shift outward from AA to BB in Figure 2-2?
a. a decrease in the labor force of the country
b. a sudden change in consumer preferences for more fish and less breadfruit
c. a major technological advance
d. a decrease in the capital stock
Figure 2-10
7. Refer to Figure 2-10. A movement from point C to point D could be caused by
a. unemployment.
b. a decrease in society's preference for bananas.
c. fewer resources available for production of bananas.
d. All of the above are correct.
8. Which of the following results in more elastic demand?
a. Fewer substitutes
b. Less time in which to respond to a price spike
c. A higher proportion of income spent on the good
d. Good considered a luxury good rather than a necessity
9. Two points on a demand curve are P=60,Q=10 and P=30,Q=30. What is the elasticit.
Exam1. Economics is aa. social science that studies g.docxSANSKAR20
Exam
1. Economics is a:
a. social science that studies goods with no alternative uses.
b. natural science that studies goods with no alternative uses.
c. social science concerned chiefly with how people choose among alternatives.
d. social science concerned chiefly with reasons why society has unlimited resources.
2. Scarcity exists when:
a. a choice must be made among two or more alternatives.
b. we face the notion of "all other things unchanged."
c. countries and people find themselves facing poverty.
d. the notions of normative economics come into play.
3. A free good is:
a. also a scarce good.
b. a relatively abundant good.
c. a good with no opportunity cost.
d. a good with relatively low opportunity cost.
4. Suppose that voters in your community pass a one-cent sales tax increase to fund education, knowing full well they will have to forgo other goods they typically consume. This primarily addresses the economic question of:
a. How will each good be produced?
b. For whom shall the goods be produced?
c. Why will the resources be used to produce goods?
d. What goods and services should a society produce?
5. A factor of production that has been produced for use in the production of other goods and services is:
a. labor.
b. money.
c. capital.
d. natural resources.
6. The textbook classifies technology as _______ and entrepreneurs as _______ .
a. knowledge; persons who seek profit by finding new ways to organize factors of production
b. capital; labor
c. labor skills; capital
d. a factor of production; a factor of production
7. The production possibilities curve represents the fact that:
a. the economy will automatically end up at full employment.
b. an economy's productive capacity increases proportionally with its population.
c. if all resources of an economy are being used efficiently, more of one good can be produced only if less of another good is produced.
d. economic production possibilities have no limit.
8. An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in producing a particular good if it:
a. can produce more of all goods than another economy.
b. can produce less of all goods than another economy.
c. has the highest cost for producing that good.
d. has the lowest cost for producing that good.
9. A negative relationship between the quantity demanded and price is called the law of ______.
a. demand
b. diminishing marginal returns
c. market clearing
d. supply
10. If people demand more of product A when the price of B falls, then A and B are:
a. not related.
b. substitutes.
c. complements.
d. inferior.
11. The primary difference between a change in demand and a change in the quantity demanded is:
a. a change in demand is a movement along the demand curve, and a change in quantity demanded is a shift in the demand curve.
b. a change in quantity demanded is a movement along the demand curve, and a change in demand is a shift in the demand curve.
c. both a change i ...
Instructions use a RED scantron and bubble in your answers. T.docxdirkrplav
Instructions: use a RED scantron and bubble in your answers. Turn in your
scantron along with your typed answers to the written portion of the exam.
1. When private ownership rights are well-defined and enforced, owners
a. can ignore the wishes of others, without bearing the cost.
b. have little incentive to take care of things.
c. can do anything they want with their property.
d. can be held accountable for damage to others through misuse of their
property.
2. Criteria for rationing goods and resources must be established because of
a. the law of comparative advantage.
b. the use of capitalism as a form of economic organization.
c. the inability of politicians to develop efficient forms of economic organization.
d. scarcity imposed by nature.
3. When we say the cost of production is $50, what is meant according to economic
principles?
a. A firm had to spend $50 in order to purchase the resources required to make the
good or service.
b. A value to society of this good or service was $50, so its cost is said to be $50.
c. A firm could have made something else with the resources that was worth $50 in
the market.
d. $50 represents the maximum willingness to pay from market participants.
4. For markets to be efficient in production, what must be true?
e. All profitable opportunities must be exhausted
f. No firm is doing something where MC>MB
g. All of the above
h. None of the above
Use the production possibilities data below for Honduras and Nicaragua to answer the
following question(s).
Table 2-2
Honduras
Oranges Apples
0 16
1 12
2 8
3 4
4 0
Nicaragua
Oranges Apples
0 8
1 6
2 4
3 2
4 0
5. Refer to Table 2-2. Which of the following is correct?
a. Honduras has the comparative advantage in both goods.
b. Nicaragua has the comparative advantage in oranges.
c. Honduras has the comparative advantage in oranges.
d. It would be impossible for Honduras and Nicaragua to gain from trade.
Figure 2-2
6. Which of the following would most likely cause the production possibilities curve for
breadfruit and fish to shift outward from AA to BB in Figure 2-2?
a. a decrease in the labor force of the country
b. a sudden change in consumer preferences for more fish and less breadfruit
c. a major technological advance
d. a decrease in the capital stock
Figure 2-10
7. Refer to Figure 2-10. A movement from point C to point D could be caused by
a. unemployment.
b. a decrease in society's preference for bananas.
c. fewer resources available for production of bananas.
d. All of the above are correct.
8. Which of the following results in more elastic demand?
a. Fewer substitutes
b. Less time in which to respond to a price spike
c. A higher proportion of income spent on the good
d. Good considered a luxury good rather than a necessity
9. Two points on a demand curve are P=60,Q=10 and P=30,Q=30. What is the elasticit.
The Effect of Social Media on Children and AdolescentsAbstract.docxmehek4
The Effect of Social Media on Children and Adolescents
Abstract
One of the most common activities undertaken by children and adolescents is the use of the social media. This paper examines the social media’s positive and negative effects on children and adolescents. It is an undisputable fact that young people interact with each other through the social media, and it therefore improves children’s interactions with friends and family members, as they are able to maintain communications with them even though they may not see each other face to face (Patrut & Patrut, 150). The social media also enables them to have a wider perspective on issues, as they are able to view other people’s perspectives on certain issues. As a result, the children and adolescents are able to express their opinions, and exchange ideas, something that enhances their self-expression. Nevertheless, the social media also has negative influences on the young minds, some which go on to affect them even in their adult lives. For instance, (Margalit, 188) discusses that the social media exposes young people to harmful content that might be obscene or inappropriate in nature. Additionally, the social media may occupy too much of a child’s time, making them lose interest in other social activities. This could lead to a deterioration of their mental and physical health in case of addiction to the social media. The implications of these findings suggest that the social media contains positive attributes, but caution should be taken when children to prevent negative influences on children.
Works Cited
Margalit, Malka. Lonely children and adolescents: Self-perceptions, social exclusion, and hope. Springer Science & Business Media, 2010.
Patrut, Monica, and Bogdan Patrut, eds. Social media in higher education: Teaching in Web 2.0. IGI Global, 2013.
1. The demand for a product is the amount that
a. buyers purchase in the market
b. buyers are willing to purchase at a given price
c. sellers are willing to sell at a particular price
d. buyers are willing and able to purchase at alternative prices
e. buyers are able to purchase at a specific price
2. The law of demand says that the lower the price of a good, other things constant,
a. the smaller the demand for that good
b. the larger the demand for that good
c. the smaller the quantity demanded of that good
d. the larger the quantity demanded of that good
e. the smaller the real income of consumers and the lower the quantity demanded of that good
3. The law of demand assumes that as the price of a good increases,
a. people recognize that its price may be even higher in the future, so they buy now rather than later
b. consumers tend to shift their purchases to relatively cheaper substitutes
c. people will buy less of it in the hope that the good will be cheaper in the future
d. the consumer’s money income increases, and he or she is less able to buy all goods, including the
good who ...
1. The market for ice cream isa.a monopolistic market.b.a h.docxjackiewalcutt
1. The market for ice cream is
a. a monopolistic market.
b. a highly competitive market.
c. a highly organized market.
d. both (b) and (c) are correct.
2.An increase in quantity demanded
a. results in a movement downward and to the right along a fixed demand curve.
b. results in a movement upward and to the left along a fixed demand curve.
c. shifts the demand curve to the left.
d. shifts the demand curve to the right.
Figure 3
3. Refer to Figure 3. At a price of $15,
a. quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
b. there is a shortage.
c. there is an excess demand.
d. All of the above are correct.
Figure 4
The diagram below pertains to the supply of paper in university markets.
4. Refer to Figure 4. All else equal, an increase in the use of laptop computers for note-taking would cause a move
a. from x to y.
b. from y to x.
c. from SA to SB.
d. from SB to SA.
5. When demand is inelastic the price elasticity of demand is
a. less than 1, and price and total revenue will move in the same direction.
b. less than 1, and price and total revenue will move in opposite directions.
c. greater than 1, and price and total revenue will move in the same direction.
d. greater than 1, and price and total revenue will move in opposite directions.
6. A price floor will be binding only if it is set
a. equal to the equilibrium price.
b. above the equilibrium price.
c. below the equilibrium price.
d. either above or below the equilibrium price.
7. When a tax is placed on the buyers of cell phones,
a. the size of the cell phone market and the price paid by buyers both decrease.
b. the size of the cell phone market decreases, but the price paid by buyers increases.
c. the size of the cell phone market increases, but the price paid by buyers decreases.
d. the size of the cell phone market and the price paid by buyers both increase.
8. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. For all firms, marginal revenue equals the price of the good.
b. Only for competitive firms does average revenue equal the price of the good.
c. Marginal revenue can be calculated as total revenue divided by the quantity sold.
d. Only for competitive firms does average revenue equal marginal revenue.
9. When a profit-maximizing firm is earning profits, those profits can be identified by
a. P Q.
b. (MC - AVC) Q.
c. (P - ATC) Q.
d. (P - AVC) Q.
Scenario
Consider a transportation corporation named C.R. Evans that has just completed the development of a new subway system in a medium-sized town in the Northwest. Currently, there are plenty of seats on the subway, and it is never crowded. Its capacity far exceeds the needs of the city. After just a few years of operation, the shareholders of C.R. Evans experienced incredible rates of return on their investment, due to the profitability of the corporation.
10. Refer to Scenario above: C.R. Evans will continue to be a monopolist in the subway transportation industry only ...
3Final ExaminationBAM 223 Principles of EconomicsM.docxtamicawaysmith
3
Final Examination
BAM 223 Principles of Economics
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
An economic ________ is a simplified version of some aspect of economic life used to analyze 1.
an economic issue.
variablea.
marketb.
modelc.
trade-off d.
Scenario 1-2
Suppose a hat manufacturer currently sells 2,000 hats per week and makes a profit of
$5,000 per week. The plant owner observes, “Although the last 300 hats we produced and
sold increased our revenue by $1,000 and our costs by $1,100, we are still making an
overall profit of $5,000 per week so I think we’re on the right track. We are producing the
optimal number of hats.”
Refer to Scenario 1-2. Had the firm not produced and sold the last 300 hats, would its profit 2.
be higher or lower, and if so by how much?
Its profit will be $1,100 higher. a.
Its profit will be $1,000 lower. b.
Its profit will be $100 lower.c.
Its profit will be $100 higher. d.
The term market in economics refers to: 3.
a place where money changes hands.a.
a legal institution where exchange can take place.b.
a group of buyers and sellers of a product and the arrangement by which they come c.
together to trade.
an organization which sells goods and services. d.
Scenario 1-3
Suppose a t-shirt manufacturer currently sells 5,000 t-shirts per week and makes a profit of
$10,000 per week. A manager at the plant observes, “Although the last 400 t-shirts we
produced and sold increased our revenue by $4,000 and our costs by $4,800, we are still
making an overall profit of $10,000 per week so I think we’re on the right track. We are
producing the optimal number of t-shirts.”
Refer to Scenario 1-3. Using marginal analysis terminology, what is another economic term 4.
for the incremental cost of producing the last 400 t-shirts?
marginal costa.
explicit costb.
operating costc.
Any of the above terms are correct.d.
4
Final Examination
BAM 223 Principles of Economics
Suppose the U.S. government encouraged new teachers to take jobs in underperforming 5.
schools by paying the new teachers a $20,000 bonus. These teachers would be exemplifying
the economic idea that:
people respond to economic incentivesa.
people are rationalb.
optimal decisions are made at the marginc.
equity is more important than efficiency d.
Dr. Goldfinger decides to invest in companies which he believes can “improve the 6.
productivity and efficiency” of health care services. How can Dr. Goldfinger strive to achieve
this productive efficiency?
by investing in companies that produce goods and services at the lowest possible costa.
by investing in companies that produce up to the point where the marginal benefit of the b.
last unit produced is equal to the marginal cost of producing it.
by investing in companies that fairly distribute their products and servicesc.
by investing in companies that produce goods and services based on consumer d.
preferences ...
A graph…….a.can be used to show either a positive or neg.docxssuser774ad41
A graph…….
a.
can be used to show either a positive or negative relationship between two variables.
b.
can illustrate both demand and supply.
c.
is used because it is impossible to describe any economic relationship verbally.
d.
all of the above.
e.
both a) and b) are correct.
2.
If less people buy coffee as income declines, then coffee is
a.
a complementary good.
b.
a substitute good.
c.
a normal good.
d.
an inferior good.
3.
Consider that when the price of a good increases, like hamburgers people buy less of that good and less of a complementary good such as ketchup.
Therefore if the price of hamburgers increases,
the quantity demanded of hamburgers will decrease and the demand curve for
ketchup will shift to the left.
the quantity demanded of hamburgers will increase and the demand curve for
ketchup will shift to the left.
the quantity demanded of hamburgers will decrease and the demand curve for
ketchup will shift to the right.
the quantity demanded of hamburgers will increase and the demand curve for ketchup will shift to the right.
4.
If insurance companies are compelled by law to decrease their rates 5% for high-risk drivers, what would be the most likely outcome for high-risk drivers according to supply and demand analysis?
a.
High-risk drivers will be better off since there will be an increase in the supply for insurance.
b.
High-risk drivers will be better off since there will be an increase in the demand for insurance.
c.
Many high-risk drivers may be unable to purchase insurance since the likely outcome of the law may be to cause a shortage of insurance for high-risk drivers.
d.
both b) and c) are correct.
5.
Which of the following forecasts for revenue are correct when the price of x declines?
a.
increased revenue in the price elastic case and decreased revenue in the price inelastic case
b.
decreased revenue in the price elastic case and increased revenue in the price inelastic case
c.
increase in revenue no matter what the elasticity coefficient is
d.
decrease in revenue no matter what the elasticity coefficient is
6.
The demand for food is likely to be more
than the demand for meat.
The relates to the elasticity determinant of
________.
a.
elastic – price relative to income
b.
inelastic – price relative to income
c.
elastic – number of substitutes
d.
inelastic – number of substitutes
7.
If you enjoyed wine so much that the more you had, the better it tasted, then the marginal utility of additional wine would be
a.
positive and declining
b.
negative
c.
zero
d.
increasing
8.
If the demand for corn shifts to the right, it may have been caused by
a.
the price of corn declining.
b.
more people needing corn for recipes.
c.
the price of corn increasing.
d.
both a) and b) are correct.
9.
The paradox of value suggests that one will pay
a. more for water than diamonds.
b. more for a luxury cruise than water.
c. more for .
1.The tax multiplier associated with a $10B reduction in t.docxelliotkimberlee
1.
The tax multiplier associated with a $10B reduction in taxes is _______ the spending multiplier associated with a $10B increase in government spending because __________
a.
the same quantity as / a tax change will either put more income into or out of savings
b.
smaller than / a tax change also involves a change in savings in the first round of spending
c.
larger than / taxes cause more discretionary income to be spent whether it is a tax increase or a tax decrease
d.
smaller than / the tax multiplier is usually very unstable
2.
Each year the Tax Foundation calculates the day of the year the average income earner has to work in order to pay taxes.
This is known as Tax Freedom Day.
Last year’s date, April 26, was three days later than the previous year’s.
The Tax Foundation says this is because of economic growth leading to higher incomes and higher taxes.
This observation makes sense since our income tax system is progressive and therefore ___________.
This is also consistent with ____________.
a.
takes a higher percent of income, the greater one’s income – how automatic stabilizers work
b.
takes a lower percent of income, the greater one’s income – how automatic stabilizers work
c.
takes a higher percent of income, the greater one’s income – the discretionary tools of fiscal policy
d.
takes a lower percent of income, the greater one’s income – monetary policy
3.
A house is a ______________ asset, and therefore this means that it takes ________ to recover its true value in the marketplace.
a.
liquid
-- much time
b.
non-liquid
-- much time
c.
liquid – very little time
d.
non-liquid
-- very little time
4
."An increase in national income increases aggregate demand more than the initial increase in spending."
The preceding statement describes
a.
microeconomic supply and demand curves.
b.
macroeconomic supply and demand curves.
c.
the spending multiplier.
d.
the money multiplier.
e.
both c) and d) are correct.
5.
If the Fed buys $1,000 worth of bonds and the banking multiplier is 8, then
a.
the reserve ratio is 12.5 percent.
b.
the potential money supply increase is greater than $1,000.
c.
there must also be a government spending increase or the Fed would not be buying the bonds.
d.
all of the above.
e.
both a) and b) are correct.
6.
Both fiscal and monetary policy affect the money supply.
a.
true
b.
false
7.
The Fed is considered "autonomous."
In practice this means the Board of Governors
a.
run for reelection every 4 years.
b.
are more insulated from the wishes of the voters than Congress.
c.
are less insulated from the wishes of the voters than Congress.
d.
can do whatever they please since they have lifetime appointments.
8.
Which of the policy combinations given below would consistently work in the direction of decreasing the rate of growth of the money supply?
a.
Raise the discount rate, lower the reserve requirement and engage in open mar.
1.The tax multiplier associated with a $10B reduction in taxes i.docxhyacinthshackley2629
1.
The tax multiplier associated with a $10B reduction in taxes is _______ the spending multiplier associated with a $10B increase in government spending because __________
a.
the same quantity as / a tax change will either put more income into or out of savings
b.
smaller than / a tax change also involves a change in savings in the first round of spending
c.
larger than / taxes cause more discretionary income to be spent whether it is a tax increase or a tax decrease
d.
smaller than / the tax multiplier is usually very unstable
2.
Each year the Tax Foundation calculates the day of the year the average income earner has to work in order to pay taxes. This is known as Tax Freedom Day. Last year’s date, April 26, was three days later than the previous year’s. The Tax Foundation says this is because of economic growth leading to higher incomes and higher taxes.
This observation makes sense since our income tax system is progressive and therefore ___________. This is also consistent with ____________.
a.
takes a higher percent of income, the greater one’s income – how automatic stabilizers work
b.
takes a lower percent of income, the greater one’s income – how automatic stabilizers work
c.
takes a higher percent of income, the greater one’s income – the discretionary tools of fiscal policy
d.
takes a lower percent of income, the greater one’s income – monetary policy
3.
A house is a ______________ asset, and therefore this means that it takes ________ to recover its true value in the marketplace.
a.
liquid -- much time
b.
non-liquid -- much time
c.
liquid – very little time
d.
non-liquid -- very little time
4
."An increase in national income increases aggregate demand more than the initial increase in spending." The preceding statement describes
a.
microeconomic supply and demand curves.
b.
macroeconomic supply and demand curves.
c.
the spending multiplier.
d.
the money multiplier.
e.
both c) and d) are correct.
5.
If the Fed buys $1,000 worth of bonds and the banking multiplier is 8, then
a.
the reserve ratio is 12.5 percent.
b.
the potential money supply increase is greater than $1,000.
c.
there must also be a government spending increase or the Fed would not be buying the bonds.
d.
all of the above.
e.
both a) and b) are correct.
6.
Both fiscal and monetary policy affect the money supply.
a.
true
b.
false
7.
The Fed is considered "autonomous." In practice this means the Board of Governors
a.
run for reelection every 4 years.
b.
are more insulated from the wishes of the voters than Congress.
c.
are less insulated from the wishes of the voters than Congress.
d.
can do whatever they please since they have lifetime appointments.
8.
Which of the policy combinations given below would consistently work in the direction of decreasing the rate of growth of the money supply?
a.
Raise the discount rate, lower the reserve requirement and engage in open market sales.
b.
Lower the discount rate, lower the res.
1. During a recession the economy experiencesa. rising employm.docxadolphoyonker
1. During a recession the economy experiences
a.
rising employment and income.
b.
rising employment and falling income.
c.
rising income and falling employment.
d.
falling employment and income.
2. Most economists use the aggregate demand and aggregate supply model primarily to analyze
a.
short-run fluctuations in the economy.
b.
the effects of macroeconomic policy on the prices of individual goods.
c.
the long-run effects of international trade policies.
d.
productivity and economic growth.
3. The classical dichotomy refers to the separation of
a.
prices and nominal interest rates.
b.
taxes and government spending.
c.
decisions made by the public and decisions made by the government.
d.
real and nominal variables.
4. According to classical macroeconomic theory, changes in the money supply affect
a.
variables measured in terms of money and variables measured in terms of quantities or relative prices
b.
variables measured in terms of money but not variables measured in terms of quantities or relative prices
c.
variables measured in terms of quantities or relative prices, but not variables measured in terms of money
d.
neither variables measured in terms of money nor variables measured in terms of quantities or relative prices
5. Most economists believe that money neutrality
a.
does not hold in the short run.
b.
does not hold in the long run.
c.
does not hold in either the short run or long run.
d.
holds in the short run and the long run.
6. The aggregate demand and aggregate supply graph has
a.
quantity of output on the horizontal axis. Output can be measured by the GDP deflator.
b.
quantity of output on the horizontal axis. Output can be measured by real GDP.
c.
quantity of output on the vertical axis. Output can be measured by the GDP deflator.
d.
quantity of output on the vertical axis. Output can be measured by real GDP.
7. Aggregate demand includes
a.
the quantity of goods and services the government, households, firms, and customers abroad want to buy.
b.
neither the quantity of goods and services the government, households, nor firms want to buy nor the quantity of goods and services customers abroad want to buy.
c.
the quantity of goods and service the government wants to buy, but not the quantity of goods and services households, firms, or customers abroad want to buy.
d.
the quantity of goods and services households and firms want to buy, but not the quantity of goods and services the government wants to buy.
8. Other things the same, a decrease in the price level motivates people to hold
a.
less money, so they lend less, and the interest rate rises.
b.
less money, so they lend more, and the interest rate falls.
c.
more money, so they lend more, and the interest rate rises.
d.
more money, so they lend less, and the interest rate falls.
9. When the dollar depreciates, U.S.
a.
net exports rise, which increases the aggregate quantity.
PAGE 4Multiple-Choice Questions1. The difference betwee.docxalfred4lewis58146
PAGE
4
Multiple-Choice Questions
1. The difference between the short-run and the long-run production function is:
a. three months or one business quarter.
b. the time it takes for firms to change all production inputs.
c. the time it takes for firms to change only their variable inputs.
d. more information is required to answer this question.
2. Which of the following statements about the short-run production function is true?
a. MP always equals AP at the maximum point of MP.
b. MP always equals zero when TP is at its maximum.
c. TP starts to decline at the point of diminishing returns.
d. When MP diminishes, AP is at its minimum point.
e. None of the above is true.
3. Assume a firm employs 10 workers and pays each $15 per hour. Further assume that the MP of the 10th worker is 5 units of output and that the price of the output is $4. According to economic theory, in the short run
a. the firm should hire additional workers
b. the firm should reduce the number of workers employed
c. the firm should continue to employ 10 workers.
d. more information is required to answer this question.
4. A firm using two inputs, X and Y, is using them in the most efficient manner when
a. MPX = MPY
b. PX = PY and MPX = MPY
c. MPX/PY = MPY/PX
d. MPX/MPY = PX/PY
5. Average fixed cost is
a. AC minus AVC
b. TC divided by Q
c. AVC minus MC
d. TC minus TVC
6. Diseconomies of scale can be caused by
a. the law of diminishing returns.
b. bureaucratic inefficiencies.
c. increasing advertising and promotional costs.
d. all of the above.
7. Which of the following cost relationship is not true?
a. AFC = AC - MC
b. TVC = TC - TFC
c. the change in TVC divided by the change in Q = MC
d. the change in TC divided by the change in Q = MC
8. When a firm produces at the point where MR = MC, and the price of its product is higher that the cost per unit, the profit that it is earning is considered to be
a. maximum
b. normal
c. above normal
d. below normal
9. Which of the following is not characteristic of perfect competition?
a. A differentiated product
b. No barriers to entry
c. Large number of buyers
d. Complete knowledge of market price
10. Suppose a firm is currently maximizing its profits (i.e., following the MR = MC rule). Assuming that it wants to continue maximizing its profits, if its fixed costs increase, it should
a. maintain the same price
b. raise its price
c. lower its price
d. not enough information to answer this question
11. Which of the following is true about a monopoly?
a. Its demand curve is generally less elastic than in more competitive markets.
b. It will always earn economic profit.
c. It will charge the highest possible price.
d. It will always be subject to government regulations.
12. If an oligopolistic firm decides to raise its price,
a. other firms will automatically follow.
b. none of the other firms will follow.
c. other firms may follow if it is the price leader.
d. None of the above.
13.
Some of the questions have a image involved. I have attached those .docxboadverna
Some of the questions have a image involved. I have attached those images with the quesiton number as the file name.
1. Which statement is true?
a. Today more workers in the U.S. are members of labor unions than any time in our history
b. Today labor unions are weaker than any time in the last 100 years
c. No major labor union has called a strike since the 1940’s
d. Labor unions are relatively strong in the public (government) sector.
2. Exclusive union strategy involves
a. Increasing the demand for the final product, thereby increasing the demand for labor
b. Restricting the supply of union labor
c. Setting job standards and entry qualifications for members
d. Organizing all workers and bargaining for a wage
e. Negotiating only after a strike has been called
3. An example of an exclusive union would be
a. The Internal Brotherhood of the Teamsters
b. The Communications Workers of America
c. The American Medical Association
4. In which one of these years was labor union membership the highest?
a. 1940
b. 1960
c. 1980
d. 1990
5. Which of the following laws stated that attempts to monopolize conspiracies in restraint of trade, and conspiracies to monopolize were illegal?
a. The Federal Trade Commission Act
b. The Clayton Act
c. The Sherman Antitrust Act
d. All of the Choices
e. None of the Choices
6. Until the passage of the Airline Deregulation Act of 1978, the Civil Aeronautics Board controlled all of the following Except?
a. Fares
b. Assigned routes
c. Profits
d. Entry into the industry
7. The Clayton Act prohibited
A. interlocking directories
B. all forms of monopoly
C. foreign control of US corporations
D. False and deceptive advertising
8. Which statement is true?
a. Microsoft is subject to American antitrust laws but not those of Europe, Asia, or elsewhere
b. Microsoft has never been involved in anti -trust suit
c. The European Commission fined Microsoft over 600 billion for its anticompetitive behavior
d. Microsoft has always gone out of its way to be helpful to its competitors
9. A monopolist operated at the minimum point of her ATC curve
a. Only in the short run
b. Only in the long run
c. In both the short and long run
d. In neither the short nor the long run
10. Which of the following is characteristic of a monopoly?
a. The absence of political power
b. Close substitutes products
c. The ability to make an economic profit in the long run
d. Operating at peak efficiency
11. The firm will charge a price of (image involved)
a. 8
b. 9.65
c. 10.
d. 12.
e. 16
12. Statement I Only natural monopolies are legal in the U.S.
Statement II: Large firms generally operate at peak efficiency
A. Statement I is true and statement II is false
B. Statement II is true and statement I is false
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false
13. The nation’s largest bank has assets over
a. 2.5 billion
b. 25 billion
c. 250 billion
d. 800 billion
e. 1.8 trillion
14. Which statement is true?
A. Our money supply is fixed by law and can be raised b.
To find economic profit from accounting profit, it is necessary to.docxedwardmarivel
To find economic profit from accounting profit, it is necessary to
Select one:
A. subtract dividends.
B. add depreciation expense.
C. subtract the opportunity cost of capital.
D. add retained earnings.
Question 2
The present value of expected future profits will _____ if the discount rate increases and will_____ if expected future profits increase.
Select one:
A. increase; not change
B. increase; increase
C. not change; decrease
D. decrease; increase
E. decrease; decrease
Question 3
Managerial economics draws upon all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. finance
B. microeconomics
C. accounting
D. marketing
E. sociology
Question 4
Managers may make decisions that are not consistent with the goals of stockholders. This is referred to as the _____ problem.
Select one:
A. principal-agent
B. economic disincentive
C. incentive-compromise
D. efficiency-inefficiency
E. equilibrium
Question 5
Marginal revenue can be defined as the:
Select one:
A. percent increase in total revenue resulting from a one percent increase in output
B. increase in total revenue resulting from a one unit increase in output
C. total revenue divided by output
D. average revenue multiplied by output
E. average revenue multiplied by output divided by 4
Question 6
The cross-price elasticity of demand is defined as the:
Select one:
A. percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in the good's price
B. percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in a different good's price
C. percentage change in a good's price divided by the percentage change in a different good's price
D. change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the change in its price
E. change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the change in income
Question 7
Consumer surplus is defined as:
Select one:
A. the quantities of a good or service that bring equal utility to the consumer
B. the quantity of a good or service that is utility maximizing for the consumer
C. the difference between what a consumer is willing to pay and what he or she actually pays for a good or service
D. the difference between the market price and the marginal cost of producing a good or service
E. none of the above
Question 8
The demand for a product is more inelastic the:
Select one:
A. longer the time period covered
B. lower the average income of consumers
C. better the available substitutes
D. poorer the available substitutes
Question 9
If one day it was discovered that lime juice caused cancer, which of the following would likely result?
Select one:
A. The supply curve of lime juice would shift to the right.
B. The demand curve for lime juice would shift to the right.
C. The demand curve for lime juice would shift to the left.
D. The supply curve of lime juice would shift to the left.
Question 10
The demand curve's usual slope implies that consumers:
Select one:
A. buy more as the price of a good is increased
B. buy mo ...
1. The law of demand implies that sellers will offer .docxkarisariddell
1. The law of demand implies that:
sellers will offer less on the market at lower prices.
consumers will buy more at lower prices.
sellers will offer more on the market at higher prices.
consumers are not responsive to price changes.
2. An increase in the demand for gasoline today caused by concerns that gasoline prices will be
higher tomorrow is most likely attributable to a change in:
consumer preferences.
consumer expectations.
income.
prices of other goods.
3. If the price of hamburger decreased, it would probably result in _____ in the demand for
hamburger buns.
random fluctuations
no change
an increase
a decrease
4. A decrease in supply is caused by:
an advancement in the technology for producing the good.
an increase in the price of goods that are used in production.
an increase in the number of producers.
suppliers' expectations of lower prices in the future.
5. Figure: The Demand and Supply of Wheat
Reference: Ref 3-6
(Figure: The Demand and Supply of Wheat) Look at the figure The Demand and Supply of
Wheat. If a price of $8 temporarily exists in this market, a _____ of _____ bushels will
result.
surplus; 6,000
surplus; 4,000
shortage; 2,000
shortage; 4,000
6. If the market for buffalo meat is in equilibrium, the price of buffalo meat will probably
_____ in the near future.
decrease
increase considerably
increase
not change
7. Figure: Four Markets for DVDs
Reference: Ref 3-9
(Figure: Four Markets for DVDs) Look at the figure Four Markets for DVDs. Which of the
graphs illustrates what may happen in the market for DVDs if D1 or S1 is the original curve
and D2 or S2 is the new curve and if the cost of producing DVDs falls?
C
D
A
B
8. Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply II
Reference: Ref 3-11
(Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply II) Look at the figure Shifts in Demand and Supply II.
The graph shows how supply and demand might shift in response to specific events. Suppose
scientists discover that eating pomegranates causes aging. Which panel BEST describes how
this will affect the market for pomegranates?
panel C
panel B
panel D
panel A
9. Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply III
Reference: Ref 3-12
(Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply III) Look at the figure Shifts in Demand and Supply
III. The figure shows how supply and demand might shift in response to specific events.
Suppose consumer incomes increase. Which panel BEST describes how this will affect the
market for designer boots, a normal good?
panel B
panel C
panel A
panel D
10. For consumers, pizza and hamburgers are substitutes. A rise in the price of a pizza causes
_____ in the equilibrium price of a hamburger and _____ in the equilibrium quantity of
hamburgers.
a rise; a decrease
a fall; an increase
a rise; an increase
a fall; a decrease .
Specific Details 1. Security Assessment Report D.docxwilliame8
Specific Details
1. Security Assessment Report
Defining the OS
Brief explanation of operating systems (OS) fundamentals and information systems architectures.
1. Explain the user's role in an OS.
2. Explain the differences between kernel applications of the OS and the applications installed by an organization or user.
3. Describe the embedded OS.
4. Describe how operating systems fit in the overall information systems architecture, of which cloud computing is a emerging, distributed computing network architecture.
Include a brief definition of operating systems and information systems in your SAR.
Other outstanding information
OS Vulnerabilities
1. Explain Windows vulnerabilities and Linux vulnerabilities.
2. Explain the Mac OS vulnerabilities, and vulnerabilities of mobile devices.
3. Explain the motives and methods for intrusion of MS and Linux operating systems.
4. Explain the types of security management technologies such as intrusion detection and intrusion prevention system
5. Describe how and why different corporate and government systems are targets.
6. Describe different types of intrusions such as SQL PL/SQL, XML, and other injections
.
SPECIAL SECTION SEXUAL HEALTH IN GAY AND BISEXUAL MENComp.docxwilliame8
SPECIAL SECTION: SEXUAL HEALTH IN GAY AND BISEXUAL MEN
Complexity of Childhood Sexual Abuse: Predictors of Current Post-
TraumaticStressDisorder,MoodDisorders,SubstanceUse,andSexual
Risk Behavior Among Adult Men Who Have Sex with Men
Michael S. Boroughs1,2 • Sarah E. Valentine1,2 • Gail H. Ironson3 • Jillian C. Shipherd4,5 •
Steven A. Safren1,2,6 • S. Wade Taylor6,7 • Sannisha K. Dale1,2, • Joshua S. Baker6 •
Julianne G. Wilner1 • Conall O’Cleirigh1,2,6
Received: 11 August 2014/Revised: 7 April 2015/Accepted: 10 April 2015/Published online: 10 July 2015
� Springer Science+Business Media New York 2015
Abstract Men who have sex with men (MSM) are the group
mostatriskforHIVandrepresentthemajorityofnewinfections
intheUnitedStates.Ratesofchildhoodsexualabuse(CSA)among
MSM have been estimated as high as 46%. CSA is associated
with increased risk of HIV and greater likelihood of HIV sexual
risk behavior. The purpose of this study was to identify the
relationships between CSA complexity indicators and mental
health, substance use, sexually transmitted infections, and HIV
sexual risk among MSM. MSM with CSA histories (n=162)
whowerescreenedforanHIVpreventionefficacytrialcompleted
comprehensive psychosocial assessments. Five indicators
ofcomplexCSAexperienceswerecreated:CSAbyfamilymember,
CSA withpenetration,CSA withphysicalinjury,CSA withintense
fear,andfirstCSAinadolescence.Adjustedregressionmodelswere
used to identify relationships between CSA complexity and
outcomes.ParticipantsreportingCSAbyfamilymemberwere
at 2.6 odds of current alcohol use disorder (OR 2.64: CI
1.24–5.63), two times higher odds of substance use disorder
(OR 2.1: CI 1.02–2.36), and 2.7 times higher odds of reporting
anSTIinthepastyear(OR2.7:CI1.04–7.1).CSAwithpenetration
wasassociatedwithincreasedlikelihoodofcurrentPTSD(OR
3.17: CI 1.56–6.43), recent HIV sexual risk behavior (OR 2.7:
CI 1.16–6.36), and a greater number of casual sexual partners
(p= 0.02). Both CSA with Physical Injury (OR 4.05: CI 1.9–
8.7) and CSA with Intense Fear (OR 5.16: CI 2.5–10.7) were
related to increased odds for current PTSD. First CSA in ado-
lescencewasrelatedtoincreasedoddsofmajordepressivedis-
order.Thesefindings suggest thatCSA,with one ormorecom-
plexities,createspatternsofvulnerabilitiesforMSM,includingpost-
traumaticstressdisorder,substanceuse,andsexualrisktaking,
and suggests the need for detailed assessment of CSA and the
development of integrated HIV prevention programs that address
mental health and substance use comorbidities.
Keywords Men who have sex with men (MSM) �
Childhoodsexualabuse(CSA)�PTSD�HIV�Sexualorientation
Introduction
Childhood Sexual Abuse: Mental Health and Sexual
Health Consequences
Intheextantliterature,childhoodsexualabuse(CSA)hasemerged
asanon-specificriskfactorforarangeofnegativehealthandmen-
talhealthsequelaeinadults.Forinstance,CSAhasbeenassociated
withmentalhealthproblemssuchasdepressionandpost-traumatic
stress disor.
More Related Content
Similar to South UniversityVirginia Beach CampusECO2071Name ________.docx
The Effect of Social Media on Children and AdolescentsAbstract.docxmehek4
The Effect of Social Media on Children and Adolescents
Abstract
One of the most common activities undertaken by children and adolescents is the use of the social media. This paper examines the social media’s positive and negative effects on children and adolescents. It is an undisputable fact that young people interact with each other through the social media, and it therefore improves children’s interactions with friends and family members, as they are able to maintain communications with them even though they may not see each other face to face (Patrut & Patrut, 150). The social media also enables them to have a wider perspective on issues, as they are able to view other people’s perspectives on certain issues. As a result, the children and adolescents are able to express their opinions, and exchange ideas, something that enhances their self-expression. Nevertheless, the social media also has negative influences on the young minds, some which go on to affect them even in their adult lives. For instance, (Margalit, 188) discusses that the social media exposes young people to harmful content that might be obscene or inappropriate in nature. Additionally, the social media may occupy too much of a child’s time, making them lose interest in other social activities. This could lead to a deterioration of their mental and physical health in case of addiction to the social media. The implications of these findings suggest that the social media contains positive attributes, but caution should be taken when children to prevent negative influences on children.
Works Cited
Margalit, Malka. Lonely children and adolescents: Self-perceptions, social exclusion, and hope. Springer Science & Business Media, 2010.
Patrut, Monica, and Bogdan Patrut, eds. Social media in higher education: Teaching in Web 2.0. IGI Global, 2013.
1. The demand for a product is the amount that
a. buyers purchase in the market
b. buyers are willing to purchase at a given price
c. sellers are willing to sell at a particular price
d. buyers are willing and able to purchase at alternative prices
e. buyers are able to purchase at a specific price
2. The law of demand says that the lower the price of a good, other things constant,
a. the smaller the demand for that good
b. the larger the demand for that good
c. the smaller the quantity demanded of that good
d. the larger the quantity demanded of that good
e. the smaller the real income of consumers and the lower the quantity demanded of that good
3. The law of demand assumes that as the price of a good increases,
a. people recognize that its price may be even higher in the future, so they buy now rather than later
b. consumers tend to shift their purchases to relatively cheaper substitutes
c. people will buy less of it in the hope that the good will be cheaper in the future
d. the consumer’s money income increases, and he or she is less able to buy all goods, including the
good who ...
1. The market for ice cream isa.a monopolistic market.b.a h.docxjackiewalcutt
1. The market for ice cream is
a. a monopolistic market.
b. a highly competitive market.
c. a highly organized market.
d. both (b) and (c) are correct.
2.An increase in quantity demanded
a. results in a movement downward and to the right along a fixed demand curve.
b. results in a movement upward and to the left along a fixed demand curve.
c. shifts the demand curve to the left.
d. shifts the demand curve to the right.
Figure 3
3. Refer to Figure 3. At a price of $15,
a. quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
b. there is a shortage.
c. there is an excess demand.
d. All of the above are correct.
Figure 4
The diagram below pertains to the supply of paper in university markets.
4. Refer to Figure 4. All else equal, an increase in the use of laptop computers for note-taking would cause a move
a. from x to y.
b. from y to x.
c. from SA to SB.
d. from SB to SA.
5. When demand is inelastic the price elasticity of demand is
a. less than 1, and price and total revenue will move in the same direction.
b. less than 1, and price and total revenue will move in opposite directions.
c. greater than 1, and price and total revenue will move in the same direction.
d. greater than 1, and price and total revenue will move in opposite directions.
6. A price floor will be binding only if it is set
a. equal to the equilibrium price.
b. above the equilibrium price.
c. below the equilibrium price.
d. either above or below the equilibrium price.
7. When a tax is placed on the buyers of cell phones,
a. the size of the cell phone market and the price paid by buyers both decrease.
b. the size of the cell phone market decreases, but the price paid by buyers increases.
c. the size of the cell phone market increases, but the price paid by buyers decreases.
d. the size of the cell phone market and the price paid by buyers both increase.
8. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. For all firms, marginal revenue equals the price of the good.
b. Only for competitive firms does average revenue equal the price of the good.
c. Marginal revenue can be calculated as total revenue divided by the quantity sold.
d. Only for competitive firms does average revenue equal marginal revenue.
9. When a profit-maximizing firm is earning profits, those profits can be identified by
a. P Q.
b. (MC - AVC) Q.
c. (P - ATC) Q.
d. (P - AVC) Q.
Scenario
Consider a transportation corporation named C.R. Evans that has just completed the development of a new subway system in a medium-sized town in the Northwest. Currently, there are plenty of seats on the subway, and it is never crowded. Its capacity far exceeds the needs of the city. After just a few years of operation, the shareholders of C.R. Evans experienced incredible rates of return on their investment, due to the profitability of the corporation.
10. Refer to Scenario above: C.R. Evans will continue to be a monopolist in the subway transportation industry only ...
3Final ExaminationBAM 223 Principles of EconomicsM.docxtamicawaysmith
3
Final Examination
BAM 223 Principles of Economics
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
An economic ________ is a simplified version of some aspect of economic life used to analyze 1.
an economic issue.
variablea.
marketb.
modelc.
trade-off d.
Scenario 1-2
Suppose a hat manufacturer currently sells 2,000 hats per week and makes a profit of
$5,000 per week. The plant owner observes, “Although the last 300 hats we produced and
sold increased our revenue by $1,000 and our costs by $1,100, we are still making an
overall profit of $5,000 per week so I think we’re on the right track. We are producing the
optimal number of hats.”
Refer to Scenario 1-2. Had the firm not produced and sold the last 300 hats, would its profit 2.
be higher or lower, and if so by how much?
Its profit will be $1,100 higher. a.
Its profit will be $1,000 lower. b.
Its profit will be $100 lower.c.
Its profit will be $100 higher. d.
The term market in economics refers to: 3.
a place where money changes hands.a.
a legal institution where exchange can take place.b.
a group of buyers and sellers of a product and the arrangement by which they come c.
together to trade.
an organization which sells goods and services. d.
Scenario 1-3
Suppose a t-shirt manufacturer currently sells 5,000 t-shirts per week and makes a profit of
$10,000 per week. A manager at the plant observes, “Although the last 400 t-shirts we
produced and sold increased our revenue by $4,000 and our costs by $4,800, we are still
making an overall profit of $10,000 per week so I think we’re on the right track. We are
producing the optimal number of t-shirts.”
Refer to Scenario 1-3. Using marginal analysis terminology, what is another economic term 4.
for the incremental cost of producing the last 400 t-shirts?
marginal costa.
explicit costb.
operating costc.
Any of the above terms are correct.d.
4
Final Examination
BAM 223 Principles of Economics
Suppose the U.S. government encouraged new teachers to take jobs in underperforming 5.
schools by paying the new teachers a $20,000 bonus. These teachers would be exemplifying
the economic idea that:
people respond to economic incentivesa.
people are rationalb.
optimal decisions are made at the marginc.
equity is more important than efficiency d.
Dr. Goldfinger decides to invest in companies which he believes can “improve the 6.
productivity and efficiency” of health care services. How can Dr. Goldfinger strive to achieve
this productive efficiency?
by investing in companies that produce goods and services at the lowest possible costa.
by investing in companies that produce up to the point where the marginal benefit of the b.
last unit produced is equal to the marginal cost of producing it.
by investing in companies that fairly distribute their products and servicesc.
by investing in companies that produce goods and services based on consumer d.
preferences ...
A graph…….a.can be used to show either a positive or neg.docxssuser774ad41
A graph…….
a.
can be used to show either a positive or negative relationship between two variables.
b.
can illustrate both demand and supply.
c.
is used because it is impossible to describe any economic relationship verbally.
d.
all of the above.
e.
both a) and b) are correct.
2.
If less people buy coffee as income declines, then coffee is
a.
a complementary good.
b.
a substitute good.
c.
a normal good.
d.
an inferior good.
3.
Consider that when the price of a good increases, like hamburgers people buy less of that good and less of a complementary good such as ketchup.
Therefore if the price of hamburgers increases,
the quantity demanded of hamburgers will decrease and the demand curve for
ketchup will shift to the left.
the quantity demanded of hamburgers will increase and the demand curve for
ketchup will shift to the left.
the quantity demanded of hamburgers will decrease and the demand curve for
ketchup will shift to the right.
the quantity demanded of hamburgers will increase and the demand curve for ketchup will shift to the right.
4.
If insurance companies are compelled by law to decrease their rates 5% for high-risk drivers, what would be the most likely outcome for high-risk drivers according to supply and demand analysis?
a.
High-risk drivers will be better off since there will be an increase in the supply for insurance.
b.
High-risk drivers will be better off since there will be an increase in the demand for insurance.
c.
Many high-risk drivers may be unable to purchase insurance since the likely outcome of the law may be to cause a shortage of insurance for high-risk drivers.
d.
both b) and c) are correct.
5.
Which of the following forecasts for revenue are correct when the price of x declines?
a.
increased revenue in the price elastic case and decreased revenue in the price inelastic case
b.
decreased revenue in the price elastic case and increased revenue in the price inelastic case
c.
increase in revenue no matter what the elasticity coefficient is
d.
decrease in revenue no matter what the elasticity coefficient is
6.
The demand for food is likely to be more
than the demand for meat.
The relates to the elasticity determinant of
________.
a.
elastic – price relative to income
b.
inelastic – price relative to income
c.
elastic – number of substitutes
d.
inelastic – number of substitutes
7.
If you enjoyed wine so much that the more you had, the better it tasted, then the marginal utility of additional wine would be
a.
positive and declining
b.
negative
c.
zero
d.
increasing
8.
If the demand for corn shifts to the right, it may have been caused by
a.
the price of corn declining.
b.
more people needing corn for recipes.
c.
the price of corn increasing.
d.
both a) and b) are correct.
9.
The paradox of value suggests that one will pay
a. more for water than diamonds.
b. more for a luxury cruise than water.
c. more for .
1.The tax multiplier associated with a $10B reduction in t.docxelliotkimberlee
1.
The tax multiplier associated with a $10B reduction in taxes is _______ the spending multiplier associated with a $10B increase in government spending because __________
a.
the same quantity as / a tax change will either put more income into or out of savings
b.
smaller than / a tax change also involves a change in savings in the first round of spending
c.
larger than / taxes cause more discretionary income to be spent whether it is a tax increase or a tax decrease
d.
smaller than / the tax multiplier is usually very unstable
2.
Each year the Tax Foundation calculates the day of the year the average income earner has to work in order to pay taxes.
This is known as Tax Freedom Day.
Last year’s date, April 26, was three days later than the previous year’s.
The Tax Foundation says this is because of economic growth leading to higher incomes and higher taxes.
This observation makes sense since our income tax system is progressive and therefore ___________.
This is also consistent with ____________.
a.
takes a higher percent of income, the greater one’s income – how automatic stabilizers work
b.
takes a lower percent of income, the greater one’s income – how automatic stabilizers work
c.
takes a higher percent of income, the greater one’s income – the discretionary tools of fiscal policy
d.
takes a lower percent of income, the greater one’s income – monetary policy
3.
A house is a ______________ asset, and therefore this means that it takes ________ to recover its true value in the marketplace.
a.
liquid
-- much time
b.
non-liquid
-- much time
c.
liquid – very little time
d.
non-liquid
-- very little time
4
."An increase in national income increases aggregate demand more than the initial increase in spending."
The preceding statement describes
a.
microeconomic supply and demand curves.
b.
macroeconomic supply and demand curves.
c.
the spending multiplier.
d.
the money multiplier.
e.
both c) and d) are correct.
5.
If the Fed buys $1,000 worth of bonds and the banking multiplier is 8, then
a.
the reserve ratio is 12.5 percent.
b.
the potential money supply increase is greater than $1,000.
c.
there must also be a government spending increase or the Fed would not be buying the bonds.
d.
all of the above.
e.
both a) and b) are correct.
6.
Both fiscal and monetary policy affect the money supply.
a.
true
b.
false
7.
The Fed is considered "autonomous."
In practice this means the Board of Governors
a.
run for reelection every 4 years.
b.
are more insulated from the wishes of the voters than Congress.
c.
are less insulated from the wishes of the voters than Congress.
d.
can do whatever they please since they have lifetime appointments.
8.
Which of the policy combinations given below would consistently work in the direction of decreasing the rate of growth of the money supply?
a.
Raise the discount rate, lower the reserve requirement and engage in open mar.
1.The tax multiplier associated with a $10B reduction in taxes i.docxhyacinthshackley2629
1.
The tax multiplier associated with a $10B reduction in taxes is _______ the spending multiplier associated with a $10B increase in government spending because __________
a.
the same quantity as / a tax change will either put more income into or out of savings
b.
smaller than / a tax change also involves a change in savings in the first round of spending
c.
larger than / taxes cause more discretionary income to be spent whether it is a tax increase or a tax decrease
d.
smaller than / the tax multiplier is usually very unstable
2.
Each year the Tax Foundation calculates the day of the year the average income earner has to work in order to pay taxes. This is known as Tax Freedom Day. Last year’s date, April 26, was three days later than the previous year’s. The Tax Foundation says this is because of economic growth leading to higher incomes and higher taxes.
This observation makes sense since our income tax system is progressive and therefore ___________. This is also consistent with ____________.
a.
takes a higher percent of income, the greater one’s income – how automatic stabilizers work
b.
takes a lower percent of income, the greater one’s income – how automatic stabilizers work
c.
takes a higher percent of income, the greater one’s income – the discretionary tools of fiscal policy
d.
takes a lower percent of income, the greater one’s income – monetary policy
3.
A house is a ______________ asset, and therefore this means that it takes ________ to recover its true value in the marketplace.
a.
liquid -- much time
b.
non-liquid -- much time
c.
liquid – very little time
d.
non-liquid -- very little time
4
."An increase in national income increases aggregate demand more than the initial increase in spending." The preceding statement describes
a.
microeconomic supply and demand curves.
b.
macroeconomic supply and demand curves.
c.
the spending multiplier.
d.
the money multiplier.
e.
both c) and d) are correct.
5.
If the Fed buys $1,000 worth of bonds and the banking multiplier is 8, then
a.
the reserve ratio is 12.5 percent.
b.
the potential money supply increase is greater than $1,000.
c.
there must also be a government spending increase or the Fed would not be buying the bonds.
d.
all of the above.
e.
both a) and b) are correct.
6.
Both fiscal and monetary policy affect the money supply.
a.
true
b.
false
7.
The Fed is considered "autonomous." In practice this means the Board of Governors
a.
run for reelection every 4 years.
b.
are more insulated from the wishes of the voters than Congress.
c.
are less insulated from the wishes of the voters than Congress.
d.
can do whatever they please since they have lifetime appointments.
8.
Which of the policy combinations given below would consistently work in the direction of decreasing the rate of growth of the money supply?
a.
Raise the discount rate, lower the reserve requirement and engage in open market sales.
b.
Lower the discount rate, lower the res.
1. During a recession the economy experiencesa. rising employm.docxadolphoyonker
1. During a recession the economy experiences
a.
rising employment and income.
b.
rising employment and falling income.
c.
rising income and falling employment.
d.
falling employment and income.
2. Most economists use the aggregate demand and aggregate supply model primarily to analyze
a.
short-run fluctuations in the economy.
b.
the effects of macroeconomic policy on the prices of individual goods.
c.
the long-run effects of international trade policies.
d.
productivity and economic growth.
3. The classical dichotomy refers to the separation of
a.
prices and nominal interest rates.
b.
taxes and government spending.
c.
decisions made by the public and decisions made by the government.
d.
real and nominal variables.
4. According to classical macroeconomic theory, changes in the money supply affect
a.
variables measured in terms of money and variables measured in terms of quantities or relative prices
b.
variables measured in terms of money but not variables measured in terms of quantities or relative prices
c.
variables measured in terms of quantities or relative prices, but not variables measured in terms of money
d.
neither variables measured in terms of money nor variables measured in terms of quantities or relative prices
5. Most economists believe that money neutrality
a.
does not hold in the short run.
b.
does not hold in the long run.
c.
does not hold in either the short run or long run.
d.
holds in the short run and the long run.
6. The aggregate demand and aggregate supply graph has
a.
quantity of output on the horizontal axis. Output can be measured by the GDP deflator.
b.
quantity of output on the horizontal axis. Output can be measured by real GDP.
c.
quantity of output on the vertical axis. Output can be measured by the GDP deflator.
d.
quantity of output on the vertical axis. Output can be measured by real GDP.
7. Aggregate demand includes
a.
the quantity of goods and services the government, households, firms, and customers abroad want to buy.
b.
neither the quantity of goods and services the government, households, nor firms want to buy nor the quantity of goods and services customers abroad want to buy.
c.
the quantity of goods and service the government wants to buy, but not the quantity of goods and services households, firms, or customers abroad want to buy.
d.
the quantity of goods and services households and firms want to buy, but not the quantity of goods and services the government wants to buy.
8. Other things the same, a decrease in the price level motivates people to hold
a.
less money, so they lend less, and the interest rate rises.
b.
less money, so they lend more, and the interest rate falls.
c.
more money, so they lend more, and the interest rate rises.
d.
more money, so they lend less, and the interest rate falls.
9. When the dollar depreciates, U.S.
a.
net exports rise, which increases the aggregate quantity.
PAGE 4Multiple-Choice Questions1. The difference betwee.docxalfred4lewis58146
PAGE
4
Multiple-Choice Questions
1. The difference between the short-run and the long-run production function is:
a. three months or one business quarter.
b. the time it takes for firms to change all production inputs.
c. the time it takes for firms to change only their variable inputs.
d. more information is required to answer this question.
2. Which of the following statements about the short-run production function is true?
a. MP always equals AP at the maximum point of MP.
b. MP always equals zero when TP is at its maximum.
c. TP starts to decline at the point of diminishing returns.
d. When MP diminishes, AP is at its minimum point.
e. None of the above is true.
3. Assume a firm employs 10 workers and pays each $15 per hour. Further assume that the MP of the 10th worker is 5 units of output and that the price of the output is $4. According to economic theory, in the short run
a. the firm should hire additional workers
b. the firm should reduce the number of workers employed
c. the firm should continue to employ 10 workers.
d. more information is required to answer this question.
4. A firm using two inputs, X and Y, is using them in the most efficient manner when
a. MPX = MPY
b. PX = PY and MPX = MPY
c. MPX/PY = MPY/PX
d. MPX/MPY = PX/PY
5. Average fixed cost is
a. AC minus AVC
b. TC divided by Q
c. AVC minus MC
d. TC minus TVC
6. Diseconomies of scale can be caused by
a. the law of diminishing returns.
b. bureaucratic inefficiencies.
c. increasing advertising and promotional costs.
d. all of the above.
7. Which of the following cost relationship is not true?
a. AFC = AC - MC
b. TVC = TC - TFC
c. the change in TVC divided by the change in Q = MC
d. the change in TC divided by the change in Q = MC
8. When a firm produces at the point where MR = MC, and the price of its product is higher that the cost per unit, the profit that it is earning is considered to be
a. maximum
b. normal
c. above normal
d. below normal
9. Which of the following is not characteristic of perfect competition?
a. A differentiated product
b. No barriers to entry
c. Large number of buyers
d. Complete knowledge of market price
10. Suppose a firm is currently maximizing its profits (i.e., following the MR = MC rule). Assuming that it wants to continue maximizing its profits, if its fixed costs increase, it should
a. maintain the same price
b. raise its price
c. lower its price
d. not enough information to answer this question
11. Which of the following is true about a monopoly?
a. Its demand curve is generally less elastic than in more competitive markets.
b. It will always earn economic profit.
c. It will charge the highest possible price.
d. It will always be subject to government regulations.
12. If an oligopolistic firm decides to raise its price,
a. other firms will automatically follow.
b. none of the other firms will follow.
c. other firms may follow if it is the price leader.
d. None of the above.
13.
Some of the questions have a image involved. I have attached those .docxboadverna
Some of the questions have a image involved. I have attached those images with the quesiton number as the file name.
1. Which statement is true?
a. Today more workers in the U.S. are members of labor unions than any time in our history
b. Today labor unions are weaker than any time in the last 100 years
c. No major labor union has called a strike since the 1940’s
d. Labor unions are relatively strong in the public (government) sector.
2. Exclusive union strategy involves
a. Increasing the demand for the final product, thereby increasing the demand for labor
b. Restricting the supply of union labor
c. Setting job standards and entry qualifications for members
d. Organizing all workers and bargaining for a wage
e. Negotiating only after a strike has been called
3. An example of an exclusive union would be
a. The Internal Brotherhood of the Teamsters
b. The Communications Workers of America
c. The American Medical Association
4. In which one of these years was labor union membership the highest?
a. 1940
b. 1960
c. 1980
d. 1990
5. Which of the following laws stated that attempts to monopolize conspiracies in restraint of trade, and conspiracies to monopolize were illegal?
a. The Federal Trade Commission Act
b. The Clayton Act
c. The Sherman Antitrust Act
d. All of the Choices
e. None of the Choices
6. Until the passage of the Airline Deregulation Act of 1978, the Civil Aeronautics Board controlled all of the following Except?
a. Fares
b. Assigned routes
c. Profits
d. Entry into the industry
7. The Clayton Act prohibited
A. interlocking directories
B. all forms of monopoly
C. foreign control of US corporations
D. False and deceptive advertising
8. Which statement is true?
a. Microsoft is subject to American antitrust laws but not those of Europe, Asia, or elsewhere
b. Microsoft has never been involved in anti -trust suit
c. The European Commission fined Microsoft over 600 billion for its anticompetitive behavior
d. Microsoft has always gone out of its way to be helpful to its competitors
9. A monopolist operated at the minimum point of her ATC curve
a. Only in the short run
b. Only in the long run
c. In both the short and long run
d. In neither the short nor the long run
10. Which of the following is characteristic of a monopoly?
a. The absence of political power
b. Close substitutes products
c. The ability to make an economic profit in the long run
d. Operating at peak efficiency
11. The firm will charge a price of (image involved)
a. 8
b. 9.65
c. 10.
d. 12.
e. 16
12. Statement I Only natural monopolies are legal in the U.S.
Statement II: Large firms generally operate at peak efficiency
A. Statement I is true and statement II is false
B. Statement II is true and statement I is false
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false
13. The nation’s largest bank has assets over
a. 2.5 billion
b. 25 billion
c. 250 billion
d. 800 billion
e. 1.8 trillion
14. Which statement is true?
A. Our money supply is fixed by law and can be raised b.
To find economic profit from accounting profit, it is necessary to.docxedwardmarivel
To find economic profit from accounting profit, it is necessary to
Select one:
A. subtract dividends.
B. add depreciation expense.
C. subtract the opportunity cost of capital.
D. add retained earnings.
Question 2
The present value of expected future profits will _____ if the discount rate increases and will_____ if expected future profits increase.
Select one:
A. increase; not change
B. increase; increase
C. not change; decrease
D. decrease; increase
E. decrease; decrease
Question 3
Managerial economics draws upon all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. finance
B. microeconomics
C. accounting
D. marketing
E. sociology
Question 4
Managers may make decisions that are not consistent with the goals of stockholders. This is referred to as the _____ problem.
Select one:
A. principal-agent
B. economic disincentive
C. incentive-compromise
D. efficiency-inefficiency
E. equilibrium
Question 5
Marginal revenue can be defined as the:
Select one:
A. percent increase in total revenue resulting from a one percent increase in output
B. increase in total revenue resulting from a one unit increase in output
C. total revenue divided by output
D. average revenue multiplied by output
E. average revenue multiplied by output divided by 4
Question 6
The cross-price elasticity of demand is defined as the:
Select one:
A. percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in the good's price
B. percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in a different good's price
C. percentage change in a good's price divided by the percentage change in a different good's price
D. change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the change in its price
E. change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the change in income
Question 7
Consumer surplus is defined as:
Select one:
A. the quantities of a good or service that bring equal utility to the consumer
B. the quantity of a good or service that is utility maximizing for the consumer
C. the difference between what a consumer is willing to pay and what he or she actually pays for a good or service
D. the difference between the market price and the marginal cost of producing a good or service
E. none of the above
Question 8
The demand for a product is more inelastic the:
Select one:
A. longer the time period covered
B. lower the average income of consumers
C. better the available substitutes
D. poorer the available substitutes
Question 9
If one day it was discovered that lime juice caused cancer, which of the following would likely result?
Select one:
A. The supply curve of lime juice would shift to the right.
B. The demand curve for lime juice would shift to the right.
C. The demand curve for lime juice would shift to the left.
D. The supply curve of lime juice would shift to the left.
Question 10
The demand curve's usual slope implies that consumers:
Select one:
A. buy more as the price of a good is increased
B. buy mo ...
1. The law of demand implies that sellers will offer .docxkarisariddell
1. The law of demand implies that:
sellers will offer less on the market at lower prices.
consumers will buy more at lower prices.
sellers will offer more on the market at higher prices.
consumers are not responsive to price changes.
2. An increase in the demand for gasoline today caused by concerns that gasoline prices will be
higher tomorrow is most likely attributable to a change in:
consumer preferences.
consumer expectations.
income.
prices of other goods.
3. If the price of hamburger decreased, it would probably result in _____ in the demand for
hamburger buns.
random fluctuations
no change
an increase
a decrease
4. A decrease in supply is caused by:
an advancement in the technology for producing the good.
an increase in the price of goods that are used in production.
an increase in the number of producers.
suppliers' expectations of lower prices in the future.
5. Figure: The Demand and Supply of Wheat
Reference: Ref 3-6
(Figure: The Demand and Supply of Wheat) Look at the figure The Demand and Supply of
Wheat. If a price of $8 temporarily exists in this market, a _____ of _____ bushels will
result.
surplus; 6,000
surplus; 4,000
shortage; 2,000
shortage; 4,000
6. If the market for buffalo meat is in equilibrium, the price of buffalo meat will probably
_____ in the near future.
decrease
increase considerably
increase
not change
7. Figure: Four Markets for DVDs
Reference: Ref 3-9
(Figure: Four Markets for DVDs) Look at the figure Four Markets for DVDs. Which of the
graphs illustrates what may happen in the market for DVDs if D1 or S1 is the original curve
and D2 or S2 is the new curve and if the cost of producing DVDs falls?
C
D
A
B
8. Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply II
Reference: Ref 3-11
(Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply II) Look at the figure Shifts in Demand and Supply II.
The graph shows how supply and demand might shift in response to specific events. Suppose
scientists discover that eating pomegranates causes aging. Which panel BEST describes how
this will affect the market for pomegranates?
panel C
panel B
panel D
panel A
9. Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply III
Reference: Ref 3-12
(Figure: Shifts in Demand and Supply III) Look at the figure Shifts in Demand and Supply
III. The figure shows how supply and demand might shift in response to specific events.
Suppose consumer incomes increase. Which panel BEST describes how this will affect the
market for designer boots, a normal good?
panel B
panel C
panel A
panel D
10. For consumers, pizza and hamburgers are substitutes. A rise in the price of a pizza causes
_____ in the equilibrium price of a hamburger and _____ in the equilibrium quantity of
hamburgers.
a rise; a decrease
a fall; an increase
a rise; an increase
a fall; a decrease .
Similar to South UniversityVirginia Beach CampusECO2071Name ________.docx (20)
Specific Details 1. Security Assessment Report D.docxwilliame8
Specific Details
1. Security Assessment Report
Defining the OS
Brief explanation of operating systems (OS) fundamentals and information systems architectures.
1. Explain the user's role in an OS.
2. Explain the differences between kernel applications of the OS and the applications installed by an organization or user.
3. Describe the embedded OS.
4. Describe how operating systems fit in the overall information systems architecture, of which cloud computing is a emerging, distributed computing network architecture.
Include a brief definition of operating systems and information systems in your SAR.
Other outstanding information
OS Vulnerabilities
1. Explain Windows vulnerabilities and Linux vulnerabilities.
2. Explain the Mac OS vulnerabilities, and vulnerabilities of mobile devices.
3. Explain the motives and methods for intrusion of MS and Linux operating systems.
4. Explain the types of security management technologies such as intrusion detection and intrusion prevention system
5. Describe how and why different corporate and government systems are targets.
6. Describe different types of intrusions such as SQL PL/SQL, XML, and other injections
.
SPECIAL SECTION SEXUAL HEALTH IN GAY AND BISEXUAL MENComp.docxwilliame8
SPECIAL SECTION: SEXUAL HEALTH IN GAY AND BISEXUAL MEN
Complexity of Childhood Sexual Abuse: Predictors of Current Post-
TraumaticStressDisorder,MoodDisorders,SubstanceUse,andSexual
Risk Behavior Among Adult Men Who Have Sex with Men
Michael S. Boroughs1,2 • Sarah E. Valentine1,2 • Gail H. Ironson3 • Jillian C. Shipherd4,5 •
Steven A. Safren1,2,6 • S. Wade Taylor6,7 • Sannisha K. Dale1,2, • Joshua S. Baker6 •
Julianne G. Wilner1 • Conall O’Cleirigh1,2,6
Received: 11 August 2014/Revised: 7 April 2015/Accepted: 10 April 2015/Published online: 10 July 2015
� Springer Science+Business Media New York 2015
Abstract Men who have sex with men (MSM) are the group
mostatriskforHIVandrepresentthemajorityofnewinfections
intheUnitedStates.Ratesofchildhoodsexualabuse(CSA)among
MSM have been estimated as high as 46%. CSA is associated
with increased risk of HIV and greater likelihood of HIV sexual
risk behavior. The purpose of this study was to identify the
relationships between CSA complexity indicators and mental
health, substance use, sexually transmitted infections, and HIV
sexual risk among MSM. MSM with CSA histories (n=162)
whowerescreenedforanHIVpreventionefficacytrialcompleted
comprehensive psychosocial assessments. Five indicators
ofcomplexCSAexperienceswerecreated:CSAbyfamilymember,
CSA withpenetration,CSA withphysicalinjury,CSA withintense
fear,andfirstCSAinadolescence.Adjustedregressionmodelswere
used to identify relationships between CSA complexity and
outcomes.ParticipantsreportingCSAbyfamilymemberwere
at 2.6 odds of current alcohol use disorder (OR 2.64: CI
1.24–5.63), two times higher odds of substance use disorder
(OR 2.1: CI 1.02–2.36), and 2.7 times higher odds of reporting
anSTIinthepastyear(OR2.7:CI1.04–7.1).CSAwithpenetration
wasassociatedwithincreasedlikelihoodofcurrentPTSD(OR
3.17: CI 1.56–6.43), recent HIV sexual risk behavior (OR 2.7:
CI 1.16–6.36), and a greater number of casual sexual partners
(p= 0.02). Both CSA with Physical Injury (OR 4.05: CI 1.9–
8.7) and CSA with Intense Fear (OR 5.16: CI 2.5–10.7) were
related to increased odds for current PTSD. First CSA in ado-
lescencewasrelatedtoincreasedoddsofmajordepressivedis-
order.Thesefindings suggest thatCSA,with one ormorecom-
plexities,createspatternsofvulnerabilitiesforMSM,includingpost-
traumaticstressdisorder,substanceuse,andsexualrisktaking,
and suggests the need for detailed assessment of CSA and the
development of integrated HIV prevention programs that address
mental health and substance use comorbidities.
Keywords Men who have sex with men (MSM) �
Childhoodsexualabuse(CSA)�PTSD�HIV�Sexualorientation
Introduction
Childhood Sexual Abuse: Mental Health and Sexual
Health Consequences
Intheextantliterature,childhoodsexualabuse(CSA)hasemerged
asanon-specificriskfactorforarangeofnegativehealthandmen-
talhealthsequelaeinadults.Forinstance,CSAhasbeenassociated
withmentalhealthproblemssuchasdepressionandpost-traumatic
stress disor.
Specific Formatting Requirements
An appropriately chosen topic and its well treatment should result in a paper about 3,500-4,500 words. Note that it is the quality of the contents that counts, not the length. If your paper is slightly smaller or larger, it will be OK provided that its contents are acceptable. Please do not take advantage of line spacing, font size and margin size options to force a perceived smaller or larger paper. It will not work!
Organization:
Organize your paper in terms of sequentially numbered sections, subsections, and subsubsections, each with an appropriate title. The paper organization may be as follows:
Font Size & Family:Use 11-point or 12-point font size 7 Font Family is Cambria.Line Spacing. You may prepare your paper in 1.5 or double space format. If you choose to prepare in double space format, be sure to single space the title, abstract, itemized and enumerated lists, tables, and the bibliography
Paper Margins:Allow 1-inch margins on all four sides and justify text on both sides.
Tables and Figures:Number all tables, figures, and similar items and use this numbers to explicitly refer to such items. Include a descriptive caption for each table or figure (or similar items). Be sure to use a uniform/consistent approach for citing such items and for presenting their captions.
Example of data
Data analysis
We collected the data from 85 participants that answers all the survey questions.
The following is our analysis for some questions:
Figure 1 Question 1
The purpose of this question is to know how many of the participants drink coffee. The answers show that 64% of the participants drink coffee and 25% does not. The rest of 11% of them do not drink coffee usually.
Figure 2 Question 2
The purpose of this question is to know how much coffee shops or venders crowded and busy in Yanbu. 79% of the participants said that coffee shops are always busy and crowded, other 14% agreed but in sometimes only. The rest of 7% does not see that.
Figure 3 Question 3
The purpose of this question is to know if Yanbu city have enough vending machines. And the result show that yanbu does not have any vender machine or a very few ones. Around 97% of the participants said No.
Figure 4 Question 4
The purpose of this question is to know if anyone does not carry cash that will prevent them from buying coffee. As expected almost 100% will not buy coffee if they don’t have cash.
Figure 5 Question 5
The purpose of this question is to know if the participants used coffee vending machine with cards in yanbu. 75% of the participants have never used it and 22% used only out of yanbu.
Figure 6 Question 6
The purpose of this question is to know if the participants prefer to use coffee vending machine with smart cards. 73% of the participants like the idea and prefer to buy coffee with smart cards. 13% of them have issue with using these cards such as securi.
Species ChoiceFor this homework, you will introduce your course .docxwilliame8
Species Choice
For this homework, you will introduce your course project topic by uploading a brief presentation.
The topic of the course project will be any species native to Texas. The organism should come from one of the four major kingdoms (Protist, Fungus, Plant, or Animal) and be indigenous to Texas.
The organism should
NOT
be a domesticated pet
but rather a species that is native to the local area in Texas
.
Familiarize yourself with the course.
Create a
narrated
PowerPoint presentation
(2-3 slides) and upload it as a file attachment.
Your mini-presentation should include the following:
Your name, date, class name, and Instructor name
Common and scientific names
of the organism. If you need help writing a scientific name, check out this great resource from Chomchalow (2001):
http://www.journal.au.edu/au_techno/2001/oct2001/howto.pdf
Area of residence (city, state, country, etc.)
Why you chose this organism
.
SPECIAL REPORT ONDigital Literacy for Women & Girls.docxwilliame8
SPECIAL REPORT ON
Digital
Literacy
for Women
& Girls
https://www.facebook.com/allwomeninmedia?v=wall
http://www.allwomeninmedia.org
http://www.youtube.com/allwomeninmedia
http://twitter.com/#!/allwomeninmedia
mailto:[email protected]
http://www.att.com
http://www.allwomeninmedia.org
http://www.linkedin.com/groups?gid=150382&sharedKey=1B3E89771FDD
http://www.ciconline.org
ALLIANCE FOR WOMEN IN MEDIA FOUNDATION 1
2011 AlliAnce For Women in mediA
FoundAtion BoArd oF directors
Chair
VALERIE K. BLACKBURN
CBS BROADCASTINg, INC.
LOS ANgELES, CA
Chair-ElECt/ViCE Chair
KAy g. OLIN
LOCAL FOCUS RADIO
ATLANTA, gA
trEasurEr
KRISTEN WELCh
DISCOVERy COMMUNICATIONS, INC.
SILVER SpRINg, MD
trEasurEr-ElECt
SARAh FOSS
LIFT INDUSTRIES, LLC
RIChMOND, VA
immEdiatE Past Chair
SyLVIA L. STROBEL, ESq.
ALLIANCE FOR COMMUNITy MEDIA
MCLEAN, VA
dirECtors
ChRISTINA ANDERSON
NATIONAL CABLE & TELECOMMUNICATIONS
ASSOCIATION
WAShINgTON, DC
LISA C. DOLLINgER
SAN ANTONIO, TX
MIChELLE DUKE
NATIONAL ASSOCIATION OF
BROADCASTERS EDUCATION FOUNDATION
WAShINgTON, DC
CAROL gROThEM
CAMpBELL MIThUN/COMpASS pOINT
MEDIA
MINNEApOLIS, MN
CAROL hANLEy
ARBITRON, INC.
ChICAgO, IL
JONELLE hENRy
C-SpAN
WAShINgTON, DC
LAURIE KAhN
MEDIA STAFFINg NETWORK
SCOTTSDALE, AZ
CORNELIA KOEhL
hARpO, INC.
ChICAgO, IL
BRIDgET LEININgER
CNN
ATLANTA, gA
BONNIE pRESS
NEW yORK, Ny
hEIDI RAphAEL
gREATER MEDIA, INC.
BRAINTREE, MA
DEBORAh J. SALONS, ESq.
DRINKER BIDDLE & REATh
WAShINgTON, DC
KEIShA SUTTON-JAMES
ICBC BROADCAST hOLDINgS, INC.
NEW yORK, Ny
JENNIFER ZEIDMAN BLOCh
gOOgLE
NEW yORK, Ny
Increasing Digital
Opportunity for Women
By Erin M. Fuller, CAE
I
n 1995, Nelson Mandela said that “In the twenty-first century,
the capacity to communicate will almost certainly be a key
human right. Eliminating the distinction between the infor-
mation-rich and information-poor is also critical to elimi-
nating economic and other inequalities…and to improve the life of
all humanity.”
Sadly we are not there yet, and it’s too often women who are short-
changed when it come to access to communications, information,
and technology in particular. The Alliance for Women in Media
Foundation (AWMF) issues this Special Report to shine a light on digital literacy, with
a particular focus on media. This Special Report addresses the gender-based knowledge
divide, with a specific focus on girls, women and workforce training. In absolute terms,
women have less access to and use information and communications technologies less
than men. As a result, a stereotype has been developed that women are rather techno-
phobic, have less interest in, and are less capable using technology. One set of opinions
and explanations for why this is ranges from to the types of toys that children play
with—dolls vs. video games—to software and technology design.
Contrary to those kinds of claims, careful and broad-based statistical tests in 25 dif-
ferent countrie.
Species Diversity Over the long period of time that life has exi.docxwilliame8
Species Diversity
Over the long period of time that life has existed on Earth, there have been a number of important or significant innovations including (but not limited to) endosymbiosis to create mitochondria and chloroplasts; multicellularity; adaptation to land by plants and animals; development of exoskeletons in arthropods, shells in molluscs, and notochords followed by vertebral columns in chordates and vertebrates; and bipedalism in the ancestry of humans. All of these had to come about by natural selection in response to changing environmental forces. After studying the textbook reading assignment, pick one of these significant innovations and describe:
How the innovation appears to have happened
What environmental challenges were met and overcome by this innovation, and
What opportunities were opened for the organism that made this innovation
You must include in your post an example of at least one species and demonstrate that you understand scientific nomenclature by writing the correct binomial of the species name, and showing its hierarchy of classification. The hierarchy is shown from Domain to species. Explain how you use the scientific name to locate the nearest relatives of your chosen species, and provide an example.
.
Speciation is a two-part process.What reflects the two-part proc.docxwilliame8
Speciation is a two-part process.
What reflects the two-part process?
1. Initially identical populations must di-
verge but also interbreed to maintain gene
flow.
2. Initially identical populationsmust evolve
reproductive isolation and then move to dif-
ferent habitats.
3. Initially identical populations must mate
and maintain reproductive isolating mecha-
nisms.
4. Initially identical populations must di-
verge and evolve reproductive isolating mech-
anisms to remain separate.
5. Initially identical populationsmust evolve
mechanisms to diverge and then remain
closely related by reproductive isolating
mechanisms that fail.
.
Special Purpose Districts (SPD) have been relied on heavily in T.docxwilliame8
Special Purpose Districts (SPD) have been relied on heavily in Texas to provide essential goods to local citizens. Given the size of such districts and the local nature of their function, it is often believed that SPD's provide a clear democratic advantage to larger, more broadly defined governments such as a county or the state. However, evidence suggest that individuals seem to participate the least in these types of governments. What is the most significant reasons SPD's garner (gather or collect) such limited attention?
General Guidelines:
-Minimum of 750 words in length.
-Revised and edited.
-Incorporates assigned article, the textbook, and other academic sources to affirm or reject various points.
-Clearly answers the question posed.
-Organized well and concisely written.
-All source material cited.
.
Special Prison Populations (Significant Case)For this assi.docxwilliame8
Special Prison Populations (Significant Case)
For this assignment complete an essay detailing the significance of the case assigned (not a brief, but an essay). Include why the offender was arrested and a brief description of there journey through the criminal justice system. Most significantly, include what effects this case has had on the criminal justice system, if any.
Some states have used civil commitment proceedings to remove habitual sex offenders from society for extended periods of time, often indefinitely. In The United States Supreme Court case of Kansas v. Hendricks (1997) the Court ruled that such laws do not violate the Constitution's double jeopardy or ex post facto clauses. What reasoning did the Court use to arrive at this conclusion? Also, in the case of Kansas v. Hendricks (1997) explain the reasoning the court used to differentiate between a civil commitment and life in prison. Please answer both parts of the question.
1. Need 2 to 3 pages
2. Need to have book
Book title: Corrections Today, 4th Edition
ISBN number: 978-1-337-09185-5
.
SPECIAL NOTE Due to the World Health Organization and Centers for D.docxwilliame8
SPECIAL NOTE: Due to the World Health Organization and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's current recommendations on social distancing, this assignment will be modified. Students will not be expected to conduct an interview or visit a public health organization during the Spring 2020 session. This assignment has been modified for this course session.
Assignment 6.2 Public Health Assessment
Part 1
By now, you should have a firm grasp on why increasing diversity and cultural awareness in public health organizations is critical. You have read, watched, studied, reflected on, and written about many public health initiatives working to improve inclusion and cultural awareness in public health organizations. Now is your opportunity to discover a public health organization that is working to increase diversity and inclusion! We are looking for those “bright spot” organizations that are intentionally working to increase cultural awareness. Research and then identify a public health organization that has implemented strategies, initiatives, or programs with the goal to increase diversity and inclusion. Access the template below and completely answer all questions/prompts. We are looking forward to hearing about the organization you selected and all they are doing in diversity and inclusion!
Part 2
We are living in an unprecedented time in our world with the novel coronavirus COVID-19 becoming a pandemic. There are many instances of how culture has impacted this crisis. Reflect upon this public health crisis and answer the following questions.
Complete the following template with three to five sentences for each question/prompt. Submit a Microsoft Word document. Carefully review the grading rubric for this assignment.
.
Special Events Site Inspection FormSpecial events can encompass .docxwilliame8
Special Events Site Inspection Form
Special events can encompass a wide variety of needs, from open spaces to arenas, from ballrooms to unique venues. Therefore, it is not possible to create an inspection form that includes all possible needs without it becoming ungainly in length. The following items are for consideration of a one location, one day or evening program, including food and beverage, and excluding any overnight guest accommodations.
(Note that the items in italics will be difficult or impossible for you to assess in your site visit – they are included as they would need to be considered prior to any contract were to be signed)
OUTSIDE BUILDING AND GROUNDS OF PROPERTY
* Traffic on main arteries to facility during the starting time of the event?
* Is there both self-service and valet parking? Is it adequate for anticipated crowd? Are there other possible spill-over parking options? Prices?
* Neighborhood – safe? Appealing?
* Building appearance – does it appear well maintained?
* Porte cochere – organized or chaotic? Good signage?
* Valet efficient and welcoming? Are you offered assistance or directions?
* Doors staffed? Doormen friendly and welcoming?
* Is there a loading dock? Truck clearance, maximum truck size & height limits, charges/fees? What are the hours of dock operation?
* Is there a freight elevator needed to access event space? Number, dimensions, weight limits, proximity and route to function space?
PUBLIC SPACES or PRE-FUNCTION SPACE (there may or may not be this space, or it may be outside courtyard area, main dining area of a restaurant, bar, etc., depending upon site)
* Is area comfortable and welcoming? Adequate seating? Noise level? Pleasant lighting?
* Is there a reader board? Is it easy to locate and current?
* Elevators – if needed to access events space, how many, how fast, how clean?
* Signage adequate to find directions?
* How easy will it be to move masses of people?
* Décor, furnishings and colors?
* Is there a cloak room or coat racks available (not important in Florida, but valuable in other climates)?
FACILITY FEATURES:
* Permanent (built-in) Bars/lounges – capacities, atmosphere, hours?
* Portable bar sets – draped tables or designed portable bar unit?
* Size, dimensions, of each room/space available. Suggested capacities. Ceiling height, chandeliers, columns/pillars, décor and color, flooring, dance floor? Floor load limits?
* Number of entrances to event space? Size of the largest entrance?
* Variety of built-in lighting options? Ceiling rigging points for lighting trusses?
* Computer hook-ups? (especially helpful for registration or check-in table)
* Location of temperature controls?
* Proximity to rest rooms? Rest room capacity? Cleanliness?
* Location for a registration area? Are electric and internet available at that location?
* Presence of windows? Do they have black-out curtains?
* Built in stage? Size? Backstage area? Green room? Fly space?
* Presence of air w.
Special NeedsPost initial response by TuedayPost all respons.docxwilliame8
Special Needs
Post initial response by Tueday
Post all responses by Saturday
How does a teacher make modifications and/or accommodations for children with special needs? In particular, how do you believe this can be done in a classroom for grades 1 -3? Focus on three of the following areas and discuss either how you would make a modification in this area, what you have seen other teachers do to make modifications, or what you have done in the past to make a modification.
classroom environment
classroom routines
learning activities
student groupings
teaching strategies
instructional materials
assessments
homework assignments
Lastly, how can we assist students to show social acceptance of their classmates with special needs?
Please title your thread using your name.
Thank you!
This discussion links to the following course objectives:
Put into practice the principal of developmentally appropriate practice.
Analyze the influence the classroom environment,
daily schedule,
and thoughtful planning teachers have on the healthy growth and development of young children
.
Special education teachers often provide training and support to.docxwilliame8
Special education teachers often provide training and support to general education teachers to promote successful inclusive practices in their classrooms. Understanding expectations, facilitating social skills, and designing and evaluating the effectiveness of positive learning environments helps all students, especially those with disabilities, learn and be productive in school.
Create a 12-15 slide digital presentation, to be given to general classroom teachers in a professional development setting, on inclusion and classroom management strategies that can be incorporated into classrooms. Include a title slide, reference slide, and presenter's notes.
The presentation should help the general education teachers build their skills in the following areas:
Identifying realistic expectations for the personal and social behaviors of students with mild to moderate disabilities in a general education inclusive classroom.
Assisting individuals with mild to moderate disabilities to develop their interpersonal skills for educational and other social environments.
Designing learning environments that motivate and encourage active participation in individual and group activities for individuals with and without disabilities.
Organizing, developing, and sustaining learning environments that support positive multicultural experiences.
Using collaborative learning groups and project-based activities to help individuals with and without disabilities practice self-determination and self-advocacy skills.
Support your findings with a 3-5 scholarly resources.
.
Special education teachers are part of the assessment team that dete.docxwilliame8
Special education teachers are part of the assessment team that determines eligibility for special education services. There are 14 major eligibility categories defined by the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA). Special educators must have general knowledge of the guidelines for eligibility, the characteristics, causes, and effects on learning, and how often the disabilities occur within a defined population in order to contribute to team collaboration and consult articulately with staff and parents.
Use the “IDEA Disability Category Comparison Template” to outline information for the categories of disability under IDEA. The first category, Autism, is completed for you.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.
.
Special education teachers are called upon to make legal and eth.docxwilliame8
Special education teachers are called upon to make legal and ethical decisions for children and their families on a regular basis. Often, ethical dilemmas prove much more difficult to resolve than legal ones. How does having a strong personal moral code assist special education teachers in deciding their actions?
.
Speccy-the-prof, please accept the assignment. Answer your questio.docxwilliame8
Speccy-the-prof, please accept the assignment.
Answer your questions in an Excel or Word document. Show all calculations.
Please print your documents to make sure they look presentable (as if you are presenting a report to your CEO, if they don’t look presentable then make necessary formatting adjustments) before submitting / uploading your answers
.
.
Special education provides educational opportunities for students wh.docxwilliame8
Special education provides educational opportunities for students who need additional support to make academic or social progress in schools. All educators need to understand the components of special education because effective special education programs include collaboration with a variety of educators, administrators, and school staff.
.
Special education teachers are part of the assessment team that .docxwilliame8
Special education teachers are part of the assessment team that determines eligibility for special education services. There are 14 major eligibility categories defined by the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA). Special educators must have general knowledge of the guidelines for eligibility, the characteristics, causes, and effects on learning, and how often the disabilities occur within a defined population in order to contribute to team collaboration and consult articulately with staff and parents.
Use the “IDEA Disability Category Comparison Template” to outline information for the categories of disability under IDEA. The first category, Autism, is completed for you.
.
Spearman proposed general intelligence whereas other psychologists s.docxwilliame8
Spearman proposed general intelligence whereas other psychologists such as Gardner and Sternberg proposed multiple intelligence. Pretending that you are a psychologist, how would you define intelligence?
Your answer should be 2 pages, double spaced. Please respond to 2 others.
.
Embracing GenAI - A Strategic ImperativePeter Windle
Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies such as Generative AI, Image Generators and Large Language Models have had a dramatic impact on teaching, learning and assessment over the past 18 months. The most immediate threat AI posed was to Academic Integrity with Higher Education Institutes (HEIs) focusing their efforts on combating the use of GenAI in assessment. Guidelines were developed for staff and students, policies put in place too. Innovative educators have forged paths in the use of Generative AI for teaching, learning and assessments leading to pockets of transformation springing up across HEIs, often with little or no top-down guidance, support or direction.
This Gasta posits a strategic approach to integrating AI into HEIs to prepare staff, students and the curriculum for an evolving world and workplace. We will highlight the advantages of working with these technologies beyond the realm of teaching, learning and assessment by considering prompt engineering skills, industry impact, curriculum changes, and the need for staff upskilling. In contrast, not engaging strategically with Generative AI poses risks, including falling behind peers, missed opportunities and failing to ensure our graduates remain employable. The rapid evolution of AI technologies necessitates a proactive and strategic approach if we are to remain relevant.
The Roman Empire A Historical Colossus.pdfkaushalkr1407
The Roman Empire, a vast and enduring power, stands as one of history's most remarkable civilizations, leaving an indelible imprint on the world. It emerged from the Roman Republic, transitioning into an imperial powerhouse under the leadership of Augustus Caesar in 27 BCE. This transformation marked the beginning of an era defined by unprecedented territorial expansion, architectural marvels, and profound cultural influence.
The empire's roots lie in the city of Rome, founded, according to legend, by Romulus in 753 BCE. Over centuries, Rome evolved from a small settlement to a formidable republic, characterized by a complex political system with elected officials and checks on power. However, internal strife, class conflicts, and military ambitions paved the way for the end of the Republic. Julius Caesar’s dictatorship and subsequent assassination in 44 BCE created a power vacuum, leading to a civil war. Octavian, later Augustus, emerged victorious, heralding the Roman Empire’s birth.
Under Augustus, the empire experienced the Pax Romana, a 200-year period of relative peace and stability. Augustus reformed the military, established efficient administrative systems, and initiated grand construction projects. The empire's borders expanded, encompassing territories from Britain to Egypt and from Spain to the Euphrates. Roman legions, renowned for their discipline and engineering prowess, secured and maintained these vast territories, building roads, fortifications, and cities that facilitated control and integration.
The Roman Empire’s society was hierarchical, with a rigid class system. At the top were the patricians, wealthy elites who held significant political power. Below them were the plebeians, free citizens with limited political influence, and the vast numbers of slaves who formed the backbone of the economy. The family unit was central, governed by the paterfamilias, the male head who held absolute authority.
Culturally, the Romans were eclectic, absorbing and adapting elements from the civilizations they encountered, particularly the Greeks. Roman art, literature, and philosophy reflected this synthesis, creating a rich cultural tapestry. Latin, the Roman language, became the lingua franca of the Western world, influencing numerous modern languages.
Roman architecture and engineering achievements were monumental. They perfected the arch, vault, and dome, constructing enduring structures like the Colosseum, Pantheon, and aqueducts. These engineering marvels not only showcased Roman ingenuity but also served practical purposes, from public entertainment to water supply.
The French Revolution, which began in 1789, was a period of radical social and political upheaval in France. It marked the decline of absolute monarchies, the rise of secular and democratic republics, and the eventual rise of Napoleon Bonaparte. This revolutionary period is crucial in understanding the transition from feudalism to modernity in Europe.
For more information, visit-www.vavaclasses.com
Introduction to AI for Nonprofits with Tapp NetworkTechSoup
Dive into the world of AI! Experts Jon Hill and Tareq Monaur will guide you through AI's role in enhancing nonprofit websites and basic marketing strategies, making it easy to understand and apply.
June 3, 2024 Anti-Semitism Letter Sent to MIT President Kornbluth and MIT Cor...Levi Shapiro
Letter from the Congress of the United States regarding Anti-Semitism sent June 3rd to MIT President Sally Kornbluth, MIT Corp Chair, Mark Gorenberg
Dear Dr. Kornbluth and Mr. Gorenberg,
The US House of Representatives is deeply concerned by ongoing and pervasive acts of antisemitic
harassment and intimidation at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). Failing to act decisively to ensure a safe learning environment for all students would be a grave dereliction of your responsibilities as President of MIT and Chair of the MIT Corporation.
This Congress will not stand idly by and allow an environment hostile to Jewish students to persist. The House believes that your institution is in violation of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, and the inability or
unwillingness to rectify this violation through action requires accountability.
Postsecondary education is a unique opportunity for students to learn and have their ideas and beliefs challenged. However, universities receiving hundreds of millions of federal funds annually have denied
students that opportunity and have been hijacked to become venues for the promotion of terrorism, antisemitic harassment and intimidation, unlawful encampments, and in some cases, assaults and riots.
The House of Representatives will not countenance the use of federal funds to indoctrinate students into hateful, antisemitic, anti-American supporters of terrorism. Investigations into campus antisemitism by the Committee on Education and the Workforce and the Committee on Ways and Means have been expanded into a Congress-wide probe across all relevant jurisdictions to address this national crisis. The undersigned Committees will conduct oversight into the use of federal funds at MIT and its learning environment under authorities granted to each Committee.
• The Committee on Education and the Workforce has been investigating your institution since December 7, 2023. The Committee has broad jurisdiction over postsecondary education, including its compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, campus safety concerns over disruptions to the learning environment, and the awarding of federal student aid under the Higher Education Act.
• The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is investigating the sources of funding and other support flowing to groups espousing pro-Hamas propaganda and engaged in antisemitic harassment and intimidation of students. The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is the principal oversight committee of the US House of Representatives and has broad authority to investigate “any matter” at “any time” under House Rule X.
• The Committee on Ways and Means has been investigating several universities since November 15, 2023, when the Committee held a hearing entitled From Ivory Towers to Dark Corners: Investigating the Nexus Between Antisemitism, Tax-Exempt Universities, and Terror Financing. The Committee followed the hearing with letters to those institutions on January 10, 202
A Strategic Approach: GenAI in EducationPeter Windle
Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies such as Generative AI, Image Generators and Large Language Models have had a dramatic impact on teaching, learning and assessment over the past 18 months. The most immediate threat AI posed was to Academic Integrity with Higher Education Institutes (HEIs) focusing their efforts on combating the use of GenAI in assessment. Guidelines were developed for staff and students, policies put in place too. Innovative educators have forged paths in the use of Generative AI for teaching, learning and assessments leading to pockets of transformation springing up across HEIs, often with little or no top-down guidance, support or direction.
This Gasta posits a strategic approach to integrating AI into HEIs to prepare staff, students and the curriculum for an evolving world and workplace. We will highlight the advantages of working with these technologies beyond the realm of teaching, learning and assessment by considering prompt engineering skills, industry impact, curriculum changes, and the need for staff upskilling. In contrast, not engaging strategically with Generative AI poses risks, including falling behind peers, missed opportunities and failing to ensure our graduates remain employable. The rapid evolution of AI technologies necessitates a proactive and strategic approach if we are to remain relevant.
Model Attribute Check Company Auto PropertyCeline George
In Odoo, the multi-company feature allows you to manage multiple companies within a single Odoo database instance. Each company can have its own configurations while still sharing common resources such as products, customers, and suppliers.
Macroeconomics- Movie Location
This will be used as part of your Personal Professional Portfolio once graded.
Objective:
Prepare a presentation or a paper using research, basic comparative analysis, data organization and application of economic information. You will make an informed assessment of an economic climate outside of the United States to accomplish an entertainment industry objective.
South UniversityVirginia Beach CampusECO2071Name ________.docx
1. South University
Virginia Beach Campus
ECO2071
Name: ____________________________________________
Score: ______________
Select the CORRECT answer to each question. Each question is
worth 2 points.
1. Economics is the study of how society manages its
a.
limited wants and unlimited resources.
b.
unlimited wants and unlimited resources.
c.
limited wants and limited resources.
d.
unlimited wants and limited resources.
2. The terms equality and efficiency are similar in that they
both refer to benefits to society. However they are different in
that
a.
equality refers to uniform distribution of those benefits and
efficiency refers to maximizing benefits from scarce resources.
b.
2. equality refers to maximizing benefits from scarce resources
and efficiency refers to uniform distribution of those benefits.
c.
equality refers to everyone facing identical tradeoffs and
efficiency refers to the opportunity cost of the benefits.
d.
equality refers to the opportunity cost of the benefits and
efficiency refers to everyone facing identical tradeoffs.
3. Senator Bright, who understands economic principles, is
trying to convince workers in her district that trade with other
countries is beneficial. Senator Bright should argue that trade
can be beneficial
a.
only if it allows us to obtain things that we couldn't make for
ourselves.
b.
because it allows specialization, which increases total output.
c.
to us if we can gain and the others involved in the trade lose.
d.
in only a limited number of circumstances because others are
typically self-interested.
4. A direct or positive relationship exists between a country's
a.
productivity and its standard of living.
3. b.
amount of government spending and its productivity.
c.
total population and its average citizen’s income.
d.
rate of population growth and the extent of its trade with other
countries.
5. Economists, like mathematicians, physicists, and biologists,
a.
make use of the scientific method.
b.
try to address their subject with a scientist’s objectivity.
c.
devise theories, collect data, and then analyze these data in an
attempt to verify or refute their theories.
d.
All of the above are correct.
6. Which of the following is an example of a positive, as
opposed to normative, statement?
a.
Inflation is more harmful to the economy than unemployment is.
4. b.
If welfare payments increase, the world will be a better place.
c.
Prices rise when the government prints too much money.
d.
When public policies are evaluated, the benefits to the economy
of improved equality should be considered more important than
the costs of reduced efficiency.
7. Which of the following is an example of a normative, as
opposed to positive, statement?
a.
Universal health care would be good for U.S. citizens.
b.
An increase in the cigarette tax would cause a decrease in the
number of smokers.
c.
A decrease in the minimum wage would decrease
unemployment.
d.
A law requiring the federal government to balance its budget
would increase economic growth.
8. The opportunity cost of an item is
a.
the number of hours that one must work in order to buy one unit
of the item.
5. b.
what you give up to get that item.
c.
always less than the dollar value of the item.
d.
always greater than the cost of producing the item.
9. The producer that requires a smaller quantity of inputs to
produce a certain amount of a good, relative to the quantities of
inputs required by other producers to produce the same amount
of that good,
a.
has a low opportunity cost of producing that good, relative to
the opportunity costs of other producers.
b.
has a comparative advantage in the production of that good.
c.
has an absolute advantage in the production of that good.
d.
should be the only producer of that good.
10. If Shawn can produce donuts at a lower opportunity cost
than Sue, then
a.
Shawn has a comparative advantage in the production of donuts.
6. b.
Sue has a comparative advantage in the production of donuts.
c.
Shawn should not produce donuts.
d.
Shawn is capable of producing more donuts than Sue in a given
amount of time.
11. An increase in the price of a good will
a.
increase demand.
b.
decrease demand.
c.
increase quantity demanded.
d.
decrease quantity demanded.
12. The law of demand states that, other things equal, an
increase in
a.
price causes quantity demanded to increase.
b.
price causes quantity demanded to decrease.
c.
7. quantity demanded causes price to increase.
d.
quantity demanded causes price to decrease.
13. Which of the following changes would not shift the demand
curve for a good or service?
a.
a change in income
b.
a change in the price of the good or service
c.
a change in expectations about the future price of the good or
service
d.
a change in the price of a related good or service
14. The law of supply states that, other things equal, when the
price of a good
a.
falls, the supply of the good rises.
b.
rises, the quantity supplied of the good rises.
c.
rises, the supply of the good falls.
d.
8. falls, the quantity supplied of the good rises.
15. Which of the following changes would not shift the supply
curve for a good or service?
a.
a change in production technology
b.
a change in the price of the good or service
c.
a change in expectations about the future price of the good or
service
d.
a change in input prices
16. Refer to the figure below:
At a price of
a.
$2, there is a surplus of 6 units.
b.
$5, there is a surplus of 25 units.
c.
$5, there is a shortage of $25.
d.
9. $7, there is a surplus of 4 units.
17. Refer to the figure below:
Equilibrium price and quantity are, respectively,
a.
$15 and 200 units.
b.
$25 and 600 units.
c.
$25 and 400 units.
d.
$35 and 200 units.
17. The price elasticity of demand measures how much
a.
quantity demanded responds to a change in price.
b.
quantity demanded responds to a change in income.
c.
price responds to a change in demand.
d.
demand responds to a change in supply.
10. 18. Demand is said to be inelastic if
a.
buyers respond substantially to changes in the price of the good.
b.
demand shifts only slightly when the price of the good changes.
c.
the quantity demanded changes only slightly when the price of
the good changes.
d.
the price of the good responds only slightly to changes in
demand.
19. For a good that is a luxury, demand
a.
tends to be inelastic.
b.
tends to be elastic.
c.
has unit elasticity.
d.
cannot be represented by a demand curve in the usual way.
20. If a 10% decrease in price for a good results in a 20%
increase in quantity demanded, the price elasticity of demand is
a.
11. 0.50.
b.
1.
c.
1.5.
d.
2.
21. A price ceiling is
a.
often imposed on markets in which “cutthroat competition”
would prevail without a price ceiling.
b.
a legal maximum on the price at which a good can be sold.
c.
often imposed when sellers of a good are successful in their
attempts to convince the government that the market outcome is
unfair without a price ceiling.
d.
All of the above are correct.
22. Refer to the figures below:
Panel (a)
Panel (b)
12. A binding price ceiling is shown in
a.
panel (a) only.
b.
panel (b) only.
c.
both panel (a) and panel (b).
d.
neither panel (a) nor panel (b).
24. When a binding price floor is imposed on a market,
a.
price no longer serves as a rationing device.
b.
the quantity supplied at the price floor exceeds the quantity that
would have been supplied without the price floor.
c.
only some sellers benefit.
d.
All of the above are correct.
25. Refer to the figure below:
A price ceiling set at
13. a.
$4 will be binding and will result in a shortage of 8 units.
b.
$4 will be binding and will result in a shortage of 16 units.
c.
$7 will be binding and will result in a surplus of 4 units.
d.
$7 will be binding and will result in a surplus of 8 units.
26. Suppose Lauren, Leslie and Lydia all purchase bulletin
boards for their rooms for $15 each. Lauren's willingness to pay
was $35, Leslie's willingness to pay was $25, and Lydia's
willingness to pay was $30. Total consumer surplus for these
three would be
a.
$15.
b.
$30.
c.
$45.
d.
$90.
26. George produces cupcakes. His production cost is $10 per
dozen. He sells the cupcakes for $16 per dozen. His producer
surplus per dozen cupcakes is
14. a.
$6.
b.
$10.
c.
$16.
d.
$26.
27. Refer to the figure below:
Which area represents total surplus in the market when the price
is P1?
a.
A+B
b.
B+C
c.
C+D
d.
A+B+C+D
29. When a tax is levied on a good, the buyers and sellers of the
good share the burden,
a.
15. provided the tax is levied on the sellers.
b.
provided the tax is levied on the buyers.
c.
provided a portion of the tax is levied on the buyers, with the
remaining portion levied on the sellers.
d.
regardless of how the tax is levied.
30. Taxes cause deadweight losses because taxes
a.
reduce the sum of producer and consumer surpluses by more
than the amount of tax revenue.
b.
prevent buyers and sellers from realizing some of the gains
from trade.
c.
cause marginal buyers and marginal sellers to leave the market,
causing the quantity sold to fall.
d.
All of the above are correct.
31. Patterns of trade among nations are primarily determined by
a.
cultural considerations.
16. b.
political considerations.
c.
comparative advantage.
d.
differences in the income elasticity of demand among nations.
32. If a country allows trade and, for a certain good, the
domestic price without trade is higher than the world price,
a.
the country will be an exporter of the good.
b.
the country will be an importer of the good.
c.
the country will be neither an exporter nor an importer of the
good.
d.
Additional information is needed about demand to determine
whether the country will be an exporter of the good, an importer
of the good, or neither.
33. Suppose Ireland exports beer to China and imports
pineapples from the United States. This situation suggests that
a.
Ireland has a comparative advantage relative to the United
States in producing pineapples, and China has a comparative
advantage relative to Ireland in producing beer.
17. b.
Ireland has a comparative advantage relative to China in
producing beer, and the United States has a comparative
advantage relative to Ireland in producing pineapples.
c.
Ireland has an absolute advantage relative to the United States
in producing pineapples, and China has an absolute advantage
relative to Ireland in producing beer.
d.
Ireland has an absolute advantage relative to China in producing
beer, and the United States has an absolute advantage relative to
Ireland in producing pineapples.
34. Externalities tend to cause markets to be
a.
inefficient.
b.
unequal.
c.
unnecessary.
d.
overwhelmed.
35. When a good is excludable,
a.
one person's use of the good diminishes another person's ability
18. to use it.
b.
people can be prevented from using the good.
c.
no more than one person can use the good at the same time.
d.
everyone will be excluded from using the good.
36. Goods that are not excludable include both
a.
private goods and public goods.
b.
club goods and common resources.
c.
common resources and public goods.
d.
private goods and club goods.
37. In designing a tax system, policymakers have two objectives
that are often conflicting. They are
a.
maximizing revenue and minimizing costs to taxpayers.
b.
efficiency and minimizing costs to taxpayers.
19. c.
efficiency and equity.
d.
maximizing revenue and reducing the national debt.
38. Deadweight losses are associated with
a.
taxes that distort the incentives that people face.
b.
taxes that target expenditures on survivor's benefits for Social
Security.
c.
taxes that have no efficiency losses.
d.
lump-sum taxes.
39. The principle that people should pay taxes based on the
benefits they receive from government services is called the
a.
pay principle.
b.
tax-benefit principle.
c.
government services principle.
d.
20. benefits principle.
40. The argument that each person should pay taxes according
to how well the individual can shoulder the burden is called
a.
the ability-to-pay principle.
b.
the equity principle.
c.
the benefits principle.
d.
regressive.
41. Explicit costs
a.
require an outlay of money by the firm.
b.
include all of the firm's opportunity costs.
c.
include the value of the business owner’s time.
d.
Both b and c are correct.
42. The marginal product of labor is equal to the
21. a.
incremental cost associated with a one unit increase in labor.
b.
incremental profit associated with a one unit increase in labor.
c.
increase in labor necessary to generate a one unit increase in
output.
d.
increase in output obtained from a one unit increase in labor.
43. Refer to the Table below:
Number of Workers
Total Output
Marginal Product
0
0
--
1
30
2
45
3
60
4
50
22. 5
40
What is total output when 2 workers are hired?
a.
15
b.
45
c.
75
d.
120
44. Refer to the Table below:
Number of Workers
Total Output
Marginal Product
0
0
--
1
300
2
500
3
600
4
650
23. What is the marginal product of the third worker?
a.
300 units
b.
200 units
c.
100 units
d.
50 units
45. When the marginal product of an input declines as the
quantity of that input increases, the production function exhibits
a.
increasing marginal product.
b.
diminishing marginal product.
c.
diminishing total product.
d.
Both b and c are correct.
46. Economies of scale occur when a firm’s
a.
marginal costs are constant as output increases.
24. b.
long-run average total costs are decreasing as output increases.
c.
long-run average total costs are increasing as output increases.
d.
marginal costs are equal to average total costs for all levels of
output.
47. At the profit-maximizing level of output,
a.
marginal revenue equals average total cost.
b.
marginal revenue equals average variable cost.
c.
marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
d.
average revenue equals average total cost.
48. A firm in a competitive market has the following cost
structure:
Output
Total Costs
0
$10
1
$12
2
25. $15
3
$19
4
$24
5
$30
6
$37
7
$46
8
$55
9
$65
If the market price is $8, how many units of output should the
firm produce to maximize profit?
a.
5 units
b.
6 units
c.
7 units
d.
8 units
49. Suppose a firm operating in a competitive market has the
following cost curves:
26. If the market price is Pa, in the short run the firm will earn
a.
positive economic profits.
b.
negative economic profits but will try to remain open.
c.
negative economic profits and will shut down.
d.
zero economic profits.
50. A monopoly firm is a price
a.
taker and has no supply curve.
b.
maker and has no supply curve
c.
taker and has an upward-sloping supply curve.
d.
maker and has an upward-sloping supply curve.
51. Refer to the figure below:
What price will the monopolist charge?
a.
A
27. b.
C
c.
K
d.
L
52. Refer to the figure below:
How much output will the monopolist produce?
a.
O
b.
T
c.
W
d.
Z
53. A monopolistically competitive industry is characterized by
a.
many firms selling products that are similar but not identical.
b.
many firms selling identical products.
28. c.
a few firms selling products that are similar but not identical.
d.
a few firms selling highly different products.
54. An agreement among firms in a market about quantities to
produce or prices to charge is called
a.
collusion.
b.
Nash equilibrium
c.
dominant strategy.
d.
behavioral economics.
55. Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
When duopoly firms reach a Nash equilibrium, their combined
level of output is the monopoly level of output.
b.
When oligopoly firms collude, they are behaving as a cartel.
c.
In an oligopoly, self-interest drives the market to the
competitive outcome.
29. d.
An oligopoly is an example of monopolistic competition.
56. Factor markets are different from product markets in an
important way because
a.
equilibrium is the exception, and not the rule, in factor markets.
b.
the demand for a factor of production is a derived demand.
c.
the demand for a factor of production is likely to be upward
sloping, in violation of the law of demand.
d.
All of the above are correct.
57. The marginal product of labor is defined as the change in
a.
output per additional unit of revenue.
b.
output per additional unit of labor.
c.
revenue per additional unit of labor.
d.
revenue per additional unit of output.
30. 58. The characteristics of jobs and workers affect
a.
labor supply.
b.
labor demand.
c.
equilibrium wages.
d.
All of the above are correct.
