Question 1
1.
Macroeconomics examines:
A.
employment, output, and inflation.
B.
pricing, profit maximization, and utility maximization.
C.
the behavior of individual households, businesses, and government units.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 2
1.
When economists refer to unemployed resources they mean unutilized:
A.
land.
B.
labor.
C.
capital.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 3
1.
Being unemployed can:
A.
cause a person to alter spending patterns and lifestyle.
B.
affect a person's self-esteem and relationships with others.
C.
cause a person to experience depression and other psychological or physiological problems.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 4
1.
Unemployment that occurs when people voluntarily quit their jobs to look for other work, or enter the workforce and are looking for a job, is called:
A.
structural unemployment.
B.
frictional unemployment.
C.
cyclical unemployment.
D.
systematic unemployment.
1 points
Question 5
1.
Unemployment that is due to a decrease in the demand for workers with a certain skill because of technological change is:
A.
frictional.
B.
cyclical.
C.
structural.
D.
seasonal.
1 points
Question 6
1.
The labor force includes all persons:
A.
capable of working, regardless of their age.
B.
who are working, regardless of their age.
C.
16 years of age and older who are working.
D.
16 years of age and older who are working or actively seeking work.
1 points
Question 7
1.
A person who has dropped out of the labor force after a long and unsuccessful search for a job is:
A.
a discouraged worker.
B.
frictionally unemployed.
C.
structurally unemployed.
D.
still included in the unemployment statistics.
1 points
Question 8
1.
The unemployment rate that results when cyclical unemployment is eliminated is the:
A.
full employment rate.
B.
frictional rate.
C.
natural rate.
D.
voluntary rate.
1 points
Question 9
1.
Inflation refers to:
A.
an increase in the general level of prices.
B.
a high price for every good and service.
C.
a high average price for all goods and services.
D.
an increase in the price of every good and service.
1 points
Question 10
1.
Income stated in terms of current dollars is:
A.
money, or nominal, income.
B.
a good measure of purchasing power in a period of severe inflation.
C.
effective income.
D.
real income.
1 points
Question 11
1.
Potential winners from inflation are always:
A.
savers.
B.
lenders.
C.
individuals on fixed incomes.
D.
none of the above.
1 points
Question 12
1.
Demand-pull inflation occurs when:
A.
the supply of money is falling.
B.
taxes are increasing.
C.
the cost of factor inputs is increasing.
D.
the economy is operating at or close to full employment.
1 points
Question 13
1.
Cost-push inflation can result from:
A.
poor productivity.
B.
limited availability of resources.
C.
strong bargaining power of resource owners.
D.
all of the above.
1 po ...
Top of FormThe basic reason we study economics is because materi.docxedwardmarivel
Top of Form
The basic reason we study economics is because material wants and needs are:
A.
limited but resources are not.
B.
unlimited and so are resources.
C.
unlimited but resources are not.
D.
limited and so are resources.
1 points
Question 2
Economics is concerned with:
A.
limiting individuals' wants so that our scarce resources will not be used up.
B.
using scarce resources to satisfy virtually limitless material wants and needs.
C.
earning as much money as possible.
D.
using as many workers as possible to produce any given level of output.
1 points
Question 3
The cost of a purchase or decision measured by what is given up to make the purchase or carry out the decision is its:
A.
overhead cost.
B.
opportunity cost.
C.
hidden cost.
D.
sunk cost.
1 points
Question 4
The factor of production that organizes economic activity and bears the risk of success or failure in a business venture is:
A.
labor.
B.
capital.
C.
entrepreneurship.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 5
The incomes received by the four factors of production are:
A.
rents, profit sharing, dividends, and net income.
B.
rents, salaries, dividends, and net income.
C.
capital gains, wages, dividends, and net income.
D.
rents, wages, interest, and profits.
1 points
Question 6
Wages are earned by:
A.
entrepreneurs.
B.
suppliers of labor.
C.
owners of capital.
D.
owners of land.
1 points
Question 7
Interest is earned by:
A.
owners of land.
B.
suppliers of labor.
C.
entrepreneurs.
D.
owners of capital.
1 points
Question 8
Rents are earned by:
A.
owners of capital.
B.
suppliers of labor.
C.
entrepreneurs.
D.
owners of land.
1 points
Question 9
Profits are earned by:
A.
entrepreneurs.
B.
owners of capital.
C.
owners of land.
D.
suppliers of labor.
1 points
Question 10
Economic theories are:
A.
always expressed in terms of mathematical equations.
B.
actions, such as tax cuts, to change economic conditions.
C.
formal explanations of the relationships between economic variables.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 11
Economic policies:
A.
are guides to change economic conditions.
B.
have consequences that vary from policy to policy.
C.
are based on the value judgments of the persons forming the policies.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 12
Which of the following can be used to express economic theories?
A.
Words.
B.
Graphs.
C.
Mathematical equations.
D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 13
A line that slopes upward on a graph indicates that the variables measured on the graph are:
A.
always increasing but never decreasing.
B.
directly related.
C.
inversely related.
D.
unrelated.
1 points
Question 14
A line that slopes downward on a graph indicates that the variables measured on the graph are:
A.
unrelated.
B.
inversely related.
C.
always decreasing but never increasing.
D.
directly related.
1 points
Question 15
Two variables are directly related when:
A.
one variable decreases as the other ...
Final ExamQuestion 1 Which of the following does not shift the.docxmydrynan
Final Exam
Question 1
Which of the following does not shift the aggregate demand curve?
Choose one answer.
a. an increase in the supply of money
b. an increase in GDP in Japan
c. a decrease in taxes
d. a decrease in the price level
Question 2
is anything that serves as a medium of exchange.
is anything that is widely accepted as a means of payment.
occurs when goods are exchanged directly for other goods.
a consistent means of measuring the value of things.
an item that holds value over time.
the sum of all past federal deficits, minus any surpluses.
The actions of a central bank, currency board or other regulatory committee that determine the size and rate of growth of the money supply, which in turn affects interest rates.
the use of government expenditures and taxes to influence the level of economic activity.
Any government program that tends to reduce fluctuations in GDP automatically
Question 3
Indicate whether each of the following is a topic of microeconomics or macroeconomics:
The impact of higher oil prices on the production of steel
The increased demand in the last 15 years for exotic dietary supplements
The surge in aggregate economic activity that hit much of Asia late in the early 2000s
The sharp increases in U.S. employment and total output that occurred between 2003 and 2007
The impact of preservation of wilderness areas on the logging industry and on the price of lumber
Question 4
Adam Smith used the metaphor of the invisible hand to explain how _________.
Choose one answer.
a. markets mismatch buyers and sellers
b. the butcher and the baker are benevolent
c. people acting in their own self-interest promote the interest of society as a whole
d. the production possibilities frontier illustrates efficient outcomes
Question 5
Which of the following would be a macroeconomic question?
Choose one answer.
a. What is the relationship between inflation and unemployment?
b. How many computer programmers will be demanded by firms next year?
c. How many automobiles will be produced next year?
d. What percentage of workers belongs to a union?
Question 6
Which of the following wrote The General Theory of Employement, Interest, and Money?
Choose one answer.
a. John Maynard Keynes
b. Karl Marx
c. Adam Smith
d. Milton Friedman
Question 7
This is an example of an Economic Indicator
Choose one answer.
a. Unemployment Rate
b. GDP
c. The inflation rate
d. All of the above
Question 8
Money is _________.
Choose one answer.
a. anything that is regularly used in economic transactions or exchanges
b. necessary to conduct economic transactions
c. facilitates specialization in production
d. anything that has value
Question 9
To be defined as unemployed a person must _________.
Choose one answer.
a. not have a job
b. not have a job and must have looked for work at some time
c. not have a job and must be actively looking ...
Question 1Inflation is defined as an increase inthe real w.docxmakdul
Question 1
Inflation is defined as an increase in
the real wages of workers.
real GDP.
the average price level.
the prices of all consumer products.
the prices of basic necessities.
Question 2
During periods of high inflation,
people want to hold on to as much money as possible.
the purchasing power of money is decreasing.
nobody has any incentive to work and earn income.
nominal interest rates are likely to be low.
nobody wants to buy goods and services.
Question 3
Gross domestic product is officially measured by adding together the:
quantity of each good and service produced by U.S. residents.
market value of all final goods and services produced within the borders of a nation.
quantity of goods and services produced by companies owned by U.S. citizens.
the amount of money spent by every person in the entire country.
market value of all final goods and services produced by domestic companies.
Question 4
In double-entry GDP accounting,
the value of output produced must equal the value of resource payments generated in producing that output.
government is not counted because most of government spending is for transfer payments.
payments to resources must equal the value of goods sold to households.
inventories are counted twice, once as investment and once as output.
intermediate goods are counted twice, once as a type of output themselves and once as part of final outp
Question 5
Jamal lost his job as a shipbuilder during 2004. His shipyard never reopened, and so his very specialized skills are no longer in demand. Jamal's unemployment is best classified as
cyclical.
structural.
seasonal.
frictional.
voluntary.
Question 6
Real GDP means GDP
adjusted for the effects of inflation.
that does not change from year to year.
corrected for changes in the quality of goods and services over time.
valued at the prices at which goods are actually sold.
adjusted for negative effects like pollution.
Question 7
Which of the following is the best example of an investment as defined by economists?
A household's purchase of 100 shares of Apple computer stock.
A firm's purchase of 100 shares of General Electric stock.
A firm's purchase of a bond issued by General Mills.
An individual’s purchase of a U.S. savings bond.
A firm buying personal computers for its secretarial staff.
Question 8
According to the expenditure approach, the largest component of GDP is:
government spending.
proprietor's income.
net interest.
personal consumption expenditures.
compensation of employees.
Question 9
Which of the following people would be officially counted as unemployed?
A person who works only 5 hours per week for pay.
A full-time college student who chooses not to have a paying job.
A family member who works 20 hours per week in the family business without pay.
A jobless high-school graduate who is actively looking for work.
A soldier who has left their job in the U.S. for an oversea ...
7-1
Macroeconomics
Instructor: Jen Dinsmore Hanson
Homework Assignment
Chapter 7
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Each of the following is an indirect tax except the _____ tax.
A. gasoline
B. telephone
C. corporate income
D. excise
2. The fastest growing source of federal tax revenue is the _____ tax.
A. personal income
B. corporate income
C. payroll
D. excise
3. Which statement is false?
A. About seven percent of federal government spending goes toward interest on the national
debt.
B. Over eighty percent of local taxes comes from property taxes.
C. The federal government will spend over $3.8 trillion this fiscal year.
D. None of these statements is false.
4. Which statement is true?
A. The Social Security tax is progressive.
B. An excise tax on cigarettes is regressive.
C. A sales tax is a direct tax.
D. None is true.
5. The sales tax is the most important source of _____ government revenue.
A. federal
B. state
C. local
6. Most sales taxes are ___________; most excise taxes are _________.
A. progressive, progressive
B. regressive, regressive
C. progressive, regressive
D. regressive, progressive
7-2
7. According to Adam Smith, each of these was an economic role of government except
A. protecting society from violence and invasion.
B. protecting individuals from oppression.
C. erecting public works which would not be in the interest of private individuals to erect.
D. redistributing some income from the rich to the poor.
8. Compared to people earning $150,000 a year, people earning $300,000 pay _________
Social Security taxes.
A. less
B. the same
C. slightly more
D. twice as much
9. Statement I: Social Security benefits are financed entirely by taxes that workers pay.
Statement II: Social Security benefits are a government transfer payment.
A. Statement I is true and statement II is false.
B. Statement II is true and statement I is false.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
10. Excise taxes are
A. really income taxes in disguise.
B. profits taxes on major corporations.
C. per-unit taxes on specific goods.
D. percentage taxes on sales revenues.
E. the second most important source of federal revenue.
11. Which of the following is NOT an example of a transfer payment?
A. The salaries received by social workers employed by the federal government.
B. Food stamps.
C. Unemployment compensation.
D. Social security payments.
E. Payments under the Aid to Families with Dependent Children program.
12. If your taxable income rises from $27,000 to $47,000, and the taxes you pay rise from
$15,000 to $20,000, your marginal tax rate is
A. 15 percent.
B. 25 percent.
C. 35 percent.
D. 45 percent.
13. An example of a tax that is generally regarded to be progressive is
A. the federal income tax.
B. the excise tax on gasoline.
C. the state sales tax.
D. the payroll tax.
.
Top of FormThe basic reason we study economics is because materi.docxedwardmarivel
Top of Form
The basic reason we study economics is because material wants and needs are:
A.
limited but resources are not.
B.
unlimited and so are resources.
C.
unlimited but resources are not.
D.
limited and so are resources.
1 points
Question 2
Economics is concerned with:
A.
limiting individuals' wants so that our scarce resources will not be used up.
B.
using scarce resources to satisfy virtually limitless material wants and needs.
C.
earning as much money as possible.
D.
using as many workers as possible to produce any given level of output.
1 points
Question 3
The cost of a purchase or decision measured by what is given up to make the purchase or carry out the decision is its:
A.
overhead cost.
B.
opportunity cost.
C.
hidden cost.
D.
sunk cost.
1 points
Question 4
The factor of production that organizes economic activity and bears the risk of success or failure in a business venture is:
A.
labor.
B.
capital.
C.
entrepreneurship.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 5
The incomes received by the four factors of production are:
A.
rents, profit sharing, dividends, and net income.
B.
rents, salaries, dividends, and net income.
C.
capital gains, wages, dividends, and net income.
D.
rents, wages, interest, and profits.
1 points
Question 6
Wages are earned by:
A.
entrepreneurs.
B.
suppliers of labor.
C.
owners of capital.
D.
owners of land.
1 points
Question 7
Interest is earned by:
A.
owners of land.
B.
suppliers of labor.
C.
entrepreneurs.
D.
owners of capital.
1 points
Question 8
Rents are earned by:
A.
owners of capital.
B.
suppliers of labor.
C.
entrepreneurs.
D.
owners of land.
1 points
Question 9
Profits are earned by:
A.
entrepreneurs.
B.
owners of capital.
C.
owners of land.
D.
suppliers of labor.
1 points
Question 10
Economic theories are:
A.
always expressed in terms of mathematical equations.
B.
actions, such as tax cuts, to change economic conditions.
C.
formal explanations of the relationships between economic variables.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 11
Economic policies:
A.
are guides to change economic conditions.
B.
have consequences that vary from policy to policy.
C.
are based on the value judgments of the persons forming the policies.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 12
Which of the following can be used to express economic theories?
A.
Words.
B.
Graphs.
C.
Mathematical equations.
D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 13
A line that slopes upward on a graph indicates that the variables measured on the graph are:
A.
always increasing but never decreasing.
B.
directly related.
C.
inversely related.
D.
unrelated.
1 points
Question 14
A line that slopes downward on a graph indicates that the variables measured on the graph are:
A.
unrelated.
B.
inversely related.
C.
always decreasing but never increasing.
D.
directly related.
1 points
Question 15
Two variables are directly related when:
A.
one variable decreases as the other ...
Final ExamQuestion 1 Which of the following does not shift the.docxmydrynan
Final Exam
Question 1
Which of the following does not shift the aggregate demand curve?
Choose one answer.
a. an increase in the supply of money
b. an increase in GDP in Japan
c. a decrease in taxes
d. a decrease in the price level
Question 2
is anything that serves as a medium of exchange.
is anything that is widely accepted as a means of payment.
occurs when goods are exchanged directly for other goods.
a consistent means of measuring the value of things.
an item that holds value over time.
the sum of all past federal deficits, minus any surpluses.
The actions of a central bank, currency board or other regulatory committee that determine the size and rate of growth of the money supply, which in turn affects interest rates.
the use of government expenditures and taxes to influence the level of economic activity.
Any government program that tends to reduce fluctuations in GDP automatically
Question 3
Indicate whether each of the following is a topic of microeconomics or macroeconomics:
The impact of higher oil prices on the production of steel
The increased demand in the last 15 years for exotic dietary supplements
The surge in aggregate economic activity that hit much of Asia late in the early 2000s
The sharp increases in U.S. employment and total output that occurred between 2003 and 2007
The impact of preservation of wilderness areas on the logging industry and on the price of lumber
Question 4
Adam Smith used the metaphor of the invisible hand to explain how _________.
Choose one answer.
a. markets mismatch buyers and sellers
b. the butcher and the baker are benevolent
c. people acting in their own self-interest promote the interest of society as a whole
d. the production possibilities frontier illustrates efficient outcomes
Question 5
Which of the following would be a macroeconomic question?
Choose one answer.
a. What is the relationship between inflation and unemployment?
b. How many computer programmers will be demanded by firms next year?
c. How many automobiles will be produced next year?
d. What percentage of workers belongs to a union?
Question 6
Which of the following wrote The General Theory of Employement, Interest, and Money?
Choose one answer.
a. John Maynard Keynes
b. Karl Marx
c. Adam Smith
d. Milton Friedman
Question 7
This is an example of an Economic Indicator
Choose one answer.
a. Unemployment Rate
b. GDP
c. The inflation rate
d. All of the above
Question 8
Money is _________.
Choose one answer.
a. anything that is regularly used in economic transactions or exchanges
b. necessary to conduct economic transactions
c. facilitates specialization in production
d. anything that has value
Question 9
To be defined as unemployed a person must _________.
Choose one answer.
a. not have a job
b. not have a job and must have looked for work at some time
c. not have a job and must be actively looking ...
Question 1Inflation is defined as an increase inthe real w.docxmakdul
Question 1
Inflation is defined as an increase in
the real wages of workers.
real GDP.
the average price level.
the prices of all consumer products.
the prices of basic necessities.
Question 2
During periods of high inflation,
people want to hold on to as much money as possible.
the purchasing power of money is decreasing.
nobody has any incentive to work and earn income.
nominal interest rates are likely to be low.
nobody wants to buy goods and services.
Question 3
Gross domestic product is officially measured by adding together the:
quantity of each good and service produced by U.S. residents.
market value of all final goods and services produced within the borders of a nation.
quantity of goods and services produced by companies owned by U.S. citizens.
the amount of money spent by every person in the entire country.
market value of all final goods and services produced by domestic companies.
Question 4
In double-entry GDP accounting,
the value of output produced must equal the value of resource payments generated in producing that output.
government is not counted because most of government spending is for transfer payments.
payments to resources must equal the value of goods sold to households.
inventories are counted twice, once as investment and once as output.
intermediate goods are counted twice, once as a type of output themselves and once as part of final outp
Question 5
Jamal lost his job as a shipbuilder during 2004. His shipyard never reopened, and so his very specialized skills are no longer in demand. Jamal's unemployment is best classified as
cyclical.
structural.
seasonal.
frictional.
voluntary.
Question 6
Real GDP means GDP
adjusted for the effects of inflation.
that does not change from year to year.
corrected for changes in the quality of goods and services over time.
valued at the prices at which goods are actually sold.
adjusted for negative effects like pollution.
Question 7
Which of the following is the best example of an investment as defined by economists?
A household's purchase of 100 shares of Apple computer stock.
A firm's purchase of 100 shares of General Electric stock.
A firm's purchase of a bond issued by General Mills.
An individual’s purchase of a U.S. savings bond.
A firm buying personal computers for its secretarial staff.
Question 8
According to the expenditure approach, the largest component of GDP is:
government spending.
proprietor's income.
net interest.
personal consumption expenditures.
compensation of employees.
Question 9
Which of the following people would be officially counted as unemployed?
A person who works only 5 hours per week for pay.
A full-time college student who chooses not to have a paying job.
A family member who works 20 hours per week in the family business without pay.
A jobless high-school graduate who is actively looking for work.
A soldier who has left their job in the U.S. for an oversea ...
7-1
Macroeconomics
Instructor: Jen Dinsmore Hanson
Homework Assignment
Chapter 7
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Each of the following is an indirect tax except the _____ tax.
A. gasoline
B. telephone
C. corporate income
D. excise
2. The fastest growing source of federal tax revenue is the _____ tax.
A. personal income
B. corporate income
C. payroll
D. excise
3. Which statement is false?
A. About seven percent of federal government spending goes toward interest on the national
debt.
B. Over eighty percent of local taxes comes from property taxes.
C. The federal government will spend over $3.8 trillion this fiscal year.
D. None of these statements is false.
4. Which statement is true?
A. The Social Security tax is progressive.
B. An excise tax on cigarettes is regressive.
C. A sales tax is a direct tax.
D. None is true.
5. The sales tax is the most important source of _____ government revenue.
A. federal
B. state
C. local
6. Most sales taxes are ___________; most excise taxes are _________.
A. progressive, progressive
B. regressive, regressive
C. progressive, regressive
D. regressive, progressive
7-2
7. According to Adam Smith, each of these was an economic role of government except
A. protecting society from violence and invasion.
B. protecting individuals from oppression.
C. erecting public works which would not be in the interest of private individuals to erect.
D. redistributing some income from the rich to the poor.
8. Compared to people earning $150,000 a year, people earning $300,000 pay _________
Social Security taxes.
A. less
B. the same
C. slightly more
D. twice as much
9. Statement I: Social Security benefits are financed entirely by taxes that workers pay.
Statement II: Social Security benefits are a government transfer payment.
A. Statement I is true and statement II is false.
B. Statement II is true and statement I is false.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
10. Excise taxes are
A. really income taxes in disguise.
B. profits taxes on major corporations.
C. per-unit taxes on specific goods.
D. percentage taxes on sales revenues.
E. the second most important source of federal revenue.
11. Which of the following is NOT an example of a transfer payment?
A. The salaries received by social workers employed by the federal government.
B. Food stamps.
C. Unemployment compensation.
D. Social security payments.
E. Payments under the Aid to Families with Dependent Children program.
12. If your taxable income rises from $27,000 to $47,000, and the taxes you pay rise from
$15,000 to $20,000, your marginal tax rate is
A. 15 percent.
B. 25 percent.
C. 35 percent.
D. 45 percent.
13. An example of a tax that is generally regarded to be progressive is
A. the federal income tax.
B. the excise tax on gasoline.
C. the state sales tax.
D. the payroll tax.
.
1. Carolyn spends $2.50 for a hamburger at a restaurant. Which.docxjackiewalcutt
1. Carolyn spends $2.50 for a hamburger at a restaurant. Which of the following would be included in the gross domestic product?
A) The $2.50 Carolyn spends for the hamburger
B) The price the restaurant paid for the meat in the hamburger
C) The price the restaurant paid for the bun
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
2. Most goods and services included in the U.S. gross domestic product are bought by
A) businesses in the United States
B) state, local, and federal governments in the United States
C) people and businesses in other nations
D) consumers in the United states
E) none of the above
3. Which of the following makes an adjustment for both inflation and population change?
A) the consumer price index
B) the unemployment rate
C) real GDP per capita
D) final goods and services
E) all of the above
4. A nation’s standard of living will rise if
A) GDP and population increase at the same rate
B) real GDP per capita increases
C) population increases more than GDP
D) production and consumption decrease
E) all of the above
5. Productivity is
A) a measure of the total amount of goods manufactured.
B) a measure of how much output is produced per unit of input.
C) an unimportant statistic commonly ignored by economists.
D) an important measure of how the U.S. economy is doing.
E) B and D.
6. A nation’s productivity is directly affected by
A) the education of its labor force.
B) the amount of physical capital used.
C) the level of innovation used.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
7. A farmer produces wheat and sells it for $.50. A miller buys the wheat, grinds it into flour, and sells the flour for $1.00. A baker buys the flour, produces a loaf of bread, and sells it to a consumer for $2.00. The amount added to gross domestic product in this example is
A) 50 cents
B) $1.00
C) $2.00
D) $3.50
E) none of the above
8. In the U.S. economy, the total value of goods and services produced per year is measured by
A) the gross domestic product.
B) the consumer price index.
C) the productivity of labor.
D) the Dow Jones Industrial Average.
E) none of the above
9. Which of the following best summarizes the key elements used to calculate the gross domestic product (GDP) of the United States using the expenditure approach?
A) business inventories, net imports, balance of payments
B) disposable income, consumer spending, housing starts
C) unemployment, factory wages, personal consumption, personal income
D) consumer spending, business investment, government spending, net exports
E) none of the above
10. A recession is said to occur when real gross domestic product (GDP) declines for a period of at least
A) two days
B) two weeks
C) two months
D) two quarters
E) two years
11. The consumer price index (CPI) is used to measure
A) inflation.
B) productivity.
C) gross domestic product.
D) structural unemployment.
E) all of the above
12. Which of the following best describes the difference between GDP and real GDP?
A) unlike GDP, real GDP measures only the val ...
1. The problem of scarcity is confronted by industrialized soc.docxjackiewalcutt
1. The problem of scarcity is confronted by:
industrialized societies only.
poor societies only.
societies governed by communist philosophies only.
all societies.
2. Margo spends $10,000 on one year's college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
$10,000.
whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
3.
Use the following figure to answer questions 3-4:
Look at the above figure. If the economy is operating at point Y and its relevant production possibility frontier is curve 1, this means that:
the economy is at full employment and is efficient.
the economy is less than fully employed.
the economy is not efficient.
economic growth is not possible in the future.
4. Look at the above figure. The movement from curve 1 to curve 2 indicates:
a growing ability of the economy to produce capital and consumer goods.
going from unemployment to full employment.
a decrease in the factors of production.
a shift of the production possibility frontier toward producing fewer goods.
5. An increase in the price of hamburger would probably result in ________ in the demand for hamburger buns.
a decrease
an increase
no change
random fluctuations
6. After graduation from college, you might have an increase in your income from a new job. If, as a result, you decide that you will purchase more T-bone steak and less hamburger, then for you hamburger would be considered:
a normal good.
a substitute good.
a complementary good.
an inferior good.
7.
Use the following figure to answer question 7:
Look at the above figure. A factor that may have changed supply from S1 to S2 is:
better technology in the production of gasoline.
increased demand.
lower labor productivity in gasoline production.
increased prices of substitutes for gasoline.
8. Us the following to answer question 8:
Refer to the above table. If the price of chocolate-covered peanuts is $0.80, there is:
a surplus of 140 bags per month.
a shortage of 140 bags per month.
a surplus of 70 bags per month.
a shortage of 70 bags per month.
9. Use the following to answer question 9:
Look at the above figure. A temporary price of $2 in this market would result in:
a surplus of 4,000 bushels and we would expect prices to rise.
a shortage of 8,000 bushels and we would expect prices to rise.
a shortage of 10,000 bushels and we would expect prices to fall.
a surplus of 10,000 bushels and we would expect prices to fall.
10. In the market for tacos, you observe that the equilibrium price and quantity have increased. This can be caused onl ...
Amidst such difficult domestic and external
conditions, the Government’s revenue
mobilization efforts have been successful in
the first eight months of 2021
Extra Credit
1. A “natural monopoly” exists when
A company creates a monopoly because it has an important patent
A company naturally creates a monopoly because it was more innovative than other competitors
One company can serve a market less costly than two or more firms.
2. True or False? Most public utilities are considered to be natural monopolies.
3. The presence of very large fixed costs and relatively low variable costs typically results in
A. Average costs declining throughout the relevant range of demand
B. A natural monopoly
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
4. An example of a Public Utility would be
Walmart
El Paso Electric Co.
Congress
Microsoft
5. The Public Interest Theory of regulation suggests
Government regulates to promote social economic welfare (as economists would prescribe)
Government regulates to promote their own welfare
Government should not regulate at all
None of the above
6. True or False? Stigler’s Economic Theory of Regulation suggests that people in government are self-interested individuals.
Suppose a power plant generates an additional 10 mWh of electricity for a profit of $100,000. This additional production also creates pollution damages to others equivalent to $120,000. From society’s view, the efficient decision is not to generate the additional power.
7. True or False? Under the Coase Theorem without transactions costs, the efficient decision will be made when the public has the right to receive damage payments.
8. True or False? Under the Coase Theorem without transactions costs, the efficient decision will be made when the power plant has the right to pollute.
9. True or False? If the market causing a negative externality has a property right to do so, the Coase Theorem would suggest that those being harmed would organize and make a payment to stop or limit the market activity.
10. The presence of transaction costs in the “real world” may
Give a rationale for government regulation.
Ensure that the Coase Theorem efficiency results always prevail.
Make it easy to organize people against a polluting company.
11. Why is it rational for groups affected by regulation to expend resources to influence regulatory decisions?
Government’s power of coercion may be used to redistribute wealth between groups of people.
Government will do what is best for the public interest.
Government regulation should be eliminated.
12. “Taxation by Regulation” (Richard Posner) suggests that regulation is used for what purpose?
Help airlines and other regulated industries.
Cross-subsidize certain markets or market segments.
Increase the general fund (tax revenues) directly collected by the government.
Protect the environment.
13. True or False? The “Capture Theory” of regulation is an extreme (polar) case of the Economic Theory of Regulation.
14. Which of the following is not an assumption under Professor Stigler’s “Economic Theory of Regulation”?
All actors in a political-economy are self-int.
Question 11. 1) _________ economies are the most effective at pr.docxIRESH3
Question 1
1. 1) _________ economies are the most effective at promoting economic growth.
a.
Command
b.
Closed
c.
Open
d.
Inflationary
3 points
Question 2
1. 1) Limiting the immigration of highly educated professionals hurts U.S. economic growth because
a.
it restricts the supply of high human capital workers and the new ideas they could potentially generate.
b.
it restricts the knowledge base of the workforce.
c.
immigrants always cost less to hire than native workers do.
d.
both a. and b.
3 points
Question 3
1. 1) Economic growth is positively related to all of the following except
a.
import tariffs.
b.
the rate of investment.
c.
the rate of saving.
d.
the growth of technology.
3 points
Question 4
1. 1) Supply-side inflation can be caused by a continual
a.
increase in aggregate demand while aggregate supply remains unchanged.
b.
decrease in aggregate supply while aggregate demand remains unchanged.
c.
increase in aggregate supply while aggregate demand remains unchanged.
d.
decrease in aggregate demand while aggregate supply significantly decreases.
3 points
Question 5
1. 1) The aggregate demand curve would shift to the right as a result of
a.
a drop in the foreign exchange value of a dollar.
b.
tax increases.
c.
a drop in the price level.
d.
a decrease in the amount of money in circulation.
3 points
Question 6
1. 1) The total of all planned real expenditures in the economy is
a.
aggregate GDP.
b.
aggregate consumption.
c.
aggregate spending.
d.
aggregate demand.
3 points
Question 7
1. 1) Consider this statement: “Persistent inflation in a growing economy is possible only if the aggregate demand curve shifts rightward over time at a faster pace than the rightward progression of the long-run aggregate supply curve.” This statement is describing:
a.
demand-side inflation.
b.
supply-side inflation.
c.
demand- and supply-side inflation.
d.
neither demand- nor supply-side inflation.
3 points
Question 8
1. 1) Which of the following best exemplifies Say’s Law?
a.
The more you consume the less additional satisfaction you receive from additional consumption of the good.
b.
A decrease in the price of a good leads to larger amounts of the good being purchased.
c.
The production of a $4000 Plasma TV set creates demand for other goods and services valued at $4000.
d.
Increases in labor eventually lead to smaller and smaller increases in output.
3 points
Question 9
1. 1) All of the following will shift the short-run aggregate supply curve and long-run aggregate supply curve except for
a.
a depletion of raw materials.
b.
a temporary change in raw materials.
c.
decreased competition.
d.
increased education and training for the labor force.
3 points
Question 10
1. 1) The LRAS curve is vertical because unemployment is at its ________________.
a.
natural rate
b.
frictional rate
c.
cyclical rate
d.
structural rate
3 points
Question 11
1. 1) Which of the following facto ...
Kantian ethics, and Utilitarianism. Choose the theory that you thi.docxtawnyataylor528
Kantian ethics, and Utilitarianism. Choose the theory that you think is better out of these two and briefly describe it. Then discuss why you think this is the better of these two theories.
Can you think of a moral rule that all cultures follow (that you are aware of)? If so, what is this rule and why does every culture practice this moral rule? If not, do you think that there is a moral rule that every culture should practice? What does your answer say about cultural relativism and why?
Choose one of the following theorists - Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau, or Rawls - and briefly describe their views of human nature and their version of the social contract. Then, explain why you chose to discuss this theorist in particular.
One of the biggest objections to Virtue Ethics is that there is no consensus on what counts as a virtue. List two qualities that you believe are virtuous and explain why you feel this way. Given this, do you think that there are any general criteria we can use to decide whether an action is virtuous or not? Why?
Do you think that we have a moral obligation to treat animals well? Why or why not? Does our moral obligation include not eating them?
Moral antirealism, or moral non-objectivism, claims that here are no objective moral rules. If such theories are true, is there any way that we could determine whether something is 'good' or 'bad'? If so, how? If not, why? Finish your post by explaining your views on the idea of moral non-objectivism - do you agree or disagree with this theory? Does it have any merit in its claims?
To what extent have your choices in life been a result of free will? Given this, which theory do you agree with most and why: fatalism, determinism, or existentialism?
FINC 340 INVESTMENTS
FINAL EXAMINATION_04
DIRECTIONS: Here is the Final Examination Question Sheet. Please submit your Final Examinaiton Answer Sheet to your Final Examination Folder.
Please submit your Midterm Examination MS Word format with the following file name: LastNameFirstInitial_MidtermExamAnswerSheet.docx. For example, if you name is John Smith, the file name of your Answer Sheet should be SmithJ_MidtermExamAnswerSheet.docx.
NAME: _____________________________________
Quiz Number
Question
Answer
1
A company has paid $2 per share in dividends for the past several years and plans to continue to do so indefinitely. If an investor’s required return is 13%, what is the most she should pay for a share of this firm’s stock?
A:$15.38
B:$20.00
C:$22.60
D:$26.13
E:$65.00
2
Bond mutual funds offer the following advantages over direct investment in bonds EXCEPT:
A:Better diversification
B:Transaction cost economies
C:Buy and sell individual bonds at individual investor’s discretion
D:Reinvestment of intermediate cash flows
E:Better liquidity
3
A $1,000 par value bond with a 5% coupon that pays interest semiannually and matures in 2 ½ years and has a current price of $977. What is the annualized yield to maturity?
A:3.0%
B:4 ...
Multiple Choice Questions1. ____ is the primary goal of bu.docxrosemarybdodson23141
Multiple Choice Questions
1. ____ is the primary goal of business.
A. Charity
B. Profit
C. Bureaucracy
D. Quality
E. Strategy
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-01 Define basic concepts such as business; product; and profit.
2. Which of the following is NOT a product?
A. A Dell personal computer
B. A veterinarian's treatment of a pet's injuries
C. A lawyer's advice in a divorce case
D. A checkup by a doctor
E. A business profit
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-01 Define basic concepts such as business; product; and profit.
3. Which of the following is an example of an intangible product?
A. A movie DVD
B. A sandwich
C. A sports car
D. A music concert
E. Jewelry
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-01 Define basic concepts such as business; product; and profit.
4. Which of the following is a similarity between businesses and nonprofit organizations?
A. Both do not have to abide by government regulations.
B. Both are unaffected by political or social change.
C. Both of them engage in management and finance activities.
D. Both of them do not need to adapt to technological changes.
E. Both aim to maximize financial returns for their owners.
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-01 Define basic concepts such as business; product; and profit.
5. All the groups that have an interest in an organization's success and outcomes are known as the organization's ____.
A. agencies
B. stakeholders
C. owners
D. investors
E. shareholders
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-01 Define basic concepts such as business; product; and profit.
6. Which of the following is a force within an organization's control that has an impact on the business's daily operations?
A. Employees
B. Regulatory environment
C. Competition
D. Political environment
E. Technology
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-02 Identify the main participants and activities of business and explain why studying business is important.
7. Which of the following is true of the responsibilities of the people involved in a business?
A. Finance is concerned with acquiring, developing, and using human effectively and efficiently.
B. Marketing refers to all activities concerned with obtaining money for the firm and using it effectively.
C. Nonprofit organizations include all the functions that businesses do, except for the marketing function.
D. Management is not involved in the day-to-day functions of production and manufacturing.
E. It is the primary responsibility of the owners to provide financial resources for the operation of the business.
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-02 Identify the main participants and activities of business and explain why studying business is important.
8. The functions of organizing, staffing, planning, and controlling are most closely associated with:
A. managers.
B. assembly line workers.
C. investment advisors.
D. stockbrokers.
E. direct sales executives.
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-02 Identify t.
To find economic profit from accounting profit, it is necessary to.docxedwardmarivel
To find economic profit from accounting profit, it is necessary to
Select one:
A. subtract dividends.
B. add depreciation expense.
C. subtract the opportunity cost of capital.
D. add retained earnings.
Question 2
The present value of expected future profits will _____ if the discount rate increases and will_____ if expected future profits increase.
Select one:
A. increase; not change
B. increase; increase
C. not change; decrease
D. decrease; increase
E. decrease; decrease
Question 3
Managerial economics draws upon all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. finance
B. microeconomics
C. accounting
D. marketing
E. sociology
Question 4
Managers may make decisions that are not consistent with the goals of stockholders. This is referred to as the _____ problem.
Select one:
A. principal-agent
B. economic disincentive
C. incentive-compromise
D. efficiency-inefficiency
E. equilibrium
Question 5
Marginal revenue can be defined as the:
Select one:
A. percent increase in total revenue resulting from a one percent increase in output
B. increase in total revenue resulting from a one unit increase in output
C. total revenue divided by output
D. average revenue multiplied by output
E. average revenue multiplied by output divided by 4
Question 6
The cross-price elasticity of demand is defined as the:
Select one:
A. percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in the good's price
B. percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in a different good's price
C. percentage change in a good's price divided by the percentage change in a different good's price
D. change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the change in its price
E. change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the change in income
Question 7
Consumer surplus is defined as:
Select one:
A. the quantities of a good or service that bring equal utility to the consumer
B. the quantity of a good or service that is utility maximizing for the consumer
C. the difference between what a consumer is willing to pay and what he or she actually pays for a good or service
D. the difference between the market price and the marginal cost of producing a good or service
E. none of the above
Question 8
The demand for a product is more inelastic the:
Select one:
A. longer the time period covered
B. lower the average income of consumers
C. better the available substitutes
D. poorer the available substitutes
Question 9
If one day it was discovered that lime juice caused cancer, which of the following would likely result?
Select one:
A. The supply curve of lime juice would shift to the right.
B. The demand curve for lime juice would shift to the right.
C. The demand curve for lime juice would shift to the left.
D. The supply curve of lime juice would shift to the left.
Question 10
The demand curve's usual slope implies that consumers:
Select one:
A. buy more as the price of a good is increased
B. buy mo ...
Question 1 of 402.5 PointsThe idea behind the pollution tax eq.docxIRESH3
Question 1 of 40
2.5 Points
The idea behind the pollution tax equal to the external cost per unit of pollution is to __________ .
A. increase the social benefit to be above the marginal cost
B. internalize the externality
C. allow the firm to evade external costs
D. drive polluting firms out of developed countries
Question 2 of 40
2.5 Points
Markets that have external costs will produce __________ output than the socially efficient level, whereas markets that have external benefits will produce __________ output than the socially efficient level.
A. less; less
B. more; more
C. more; less
D. less; more
Question 3 of 40
2.5 Points
If a producer is imposing an external cost on society, the best response would be to __________ .
A. lower the producer's taxes to offset pollution
B. increase the production
C. internalize the externality
D. subsidize the producer
Question 4 of 40
2.5 Points
Jamal and Lauren live in the countryside 30 minutes from a city in Virginia. They moved there because they wanted to enjoy the fresh air. After a year of living in their house, the 200 acres that surround their neighborhood were zoned for an industrial property. A paper mill was built on the land and now emits strong gases that can be smelled from miles away. The paper mill's emission of gases is an example of a(n. __________ .
A. public good
B. good that imposes an external cost
C. good that provides an external benefit
D. efficient good
Question 5 of 40
2.5 Points
Once a firm is forced to consider an external cost, the price of its product will __________ .
A. increase and output will decrease
B. increase and output will increase
C. decrease and output will decrease
D. decrease and output will increase
Question 6 of 40
2.5 Points
Which of the following would be an example of an external benefit?
A. More people start to ride the bus and as a result air pollution is reduced.
B. Firms are able to reduce their costs of production by using a more efficient technology.
C. The government requires polluting firms to pay a special tax.
D. A firm has just gotten permission to open a landfill on property that is adjacent to your home.
Question 7 of 40
2.5 Points
The study of external costs is a major concern of __________ .
A. labor economics
B. international economics
C. environmental economics
D. macroeconomists
Question 8 of 40
2.5 Points
Which of the following is an example of an external cost?
A. a loud, crying baby in a public restaurant
B. emissions of methane into the atmosphere
C. a homeowner who likes to mow the lawn at 7 a.m. on Saturday morning
D. all of the above
Question 9 of 40
2.5 Points
The biggest problem with using a tax as a way to solve an externality problem is that __________ .
A. the tax sometimes increases the external cost
B. damages must be estimated in financial terms to determine the correct level of the tax
C. the firm will pas ...
PreparationGo to httpwww.excelsior.edumediaoelstutoringSm.docxIRESH3
Preparation:
Go to: http://www.excelsior.edu/media/oels/tutoring/Smarthinking/new1/Excelsior_ST_intro_0613.htm
Now complete the following:
After you have used the Smarthinking service, write a short paragraph on your experience with Smarthinking.
What did you like or dislike about it? Was it helpful?
Submit your paragraph in a Word document in the assignment. Be sure to check your content and spelling before you submit.
.
Practice Nurses will be comfortable having discussions about dea.docxIRESH3
Practice
Nurses will be comfortable having discussions about death, and will collaborate with the care teams to ensure that patients and families have current and accurate information about the possibility or probability of a patient’s impending death.
Education
Basic and specialist End-of-Life Nursing Education Consortium (ELNEC) resources will be available.
Research
Support the use of evidence-based and ethical care, and support decision-making for care at the end of life.
Administration
Promote work environments in which the standards for excellent care extend through the patient’s death and into post-death care for families.
-from each subcategory of practice, education, research and administration above, 1) describe how the APRN can provide effective care in end of life management.
Minimum 300 words,
3 references no more than 5 years
APA Style
no plagiarism
.
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1. Carolyn spends $2.50 for a hamburger at a restaurant. Which.docxjackiewalcutt
1. Carolyn spends $2.50 for a hamburger at a restaurant. Which of the following would be included in the gross domestic product?
A) The $2.50 Carolyn spends for the hamburger
B) The price the restaurant paid for the meat in the hamburger
C) The price the restaurant paid for the bun
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
2. Most goods and services included in the U.S. gross domestic product are bought by
A) businesses in the United States
B) state, local, and federal governments in the United States
C) people and businesses in other nations
D) consumers in the United states
E) none of the above
3. Which of the following makes an adjustment for both inflation and population change?
A) the consumer price index
B) the unemployment rate
C) real GDP per capita
D) final goods and services
E) all of the above
4. A nation’s standard of living will rise if
A) GDP and population increase at the same rate
B) real GDP per capita increases
C) population increases more than GDP
D) production and consumption decrease
E) all of the above
5. Productivity is
A) a measure of the total amount of goods manufactured.
B) a measure of how much output is produced per unit of input.
C) an unimportant statistic commonly ignored by economists.
D) an important measure of how the U.S. economy is doing.
E) B and D.
6. A nation’s productivity is directly affected by
A) the education of its labor force.
B) the amount of physical capital used.
C) the level of innovation used.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
7. A farmer produces wheat and sells it for $.50. A miller buys the wheat, grinds it into flour, and sells the flour for $1.00. A baker buys the flour, produces a loaf of bread, and sells it to a consumer for $2.00. The amount added to gross domestic product in this example is
A) 50 cents
B) $1.00
C) $2.00
D) $3.50
E) none of the above
8. In the U.S. economy, the total value of goods and services produced per year is measured by
A) the gross domestic product.
B) the consumer price index.
C) the productivity of labor.
D) the Dow Jones Industrial Average.
E) none of the above
9. Which of the following best summarizes the key elements used to calculate the gross domestic product (GDP) of the United States using the expenditure approach?
A) business inventories, net imports, balance of payments
B) disposable income, consumer spending, housing starts
C) unemployment, factory wages, personal consumption, personal income
D) consumer spending, business investment, government spending, net exports
E) none of the above
10. A recession is said to occur when real gross domestic product (GDP) declines for a period of at least
A) two days
B) two weeks
C) two months
D) two quarters
E) two years
11. The consumer price index (CPI) is used to measure
A) inflation.
B) productivity.
C) gross domestic product.
D) structural unemployment.
E) all of the above
12. Which of the following best describes the difference between GDP and real GDP?
A) unlike GDP, real GDP measures only the val ...
1. The problem of scarcity is confronted by industrialized soc.docxjackiewalcutt
1. The problem of scarcity is confronted by:
industrialized societies only.
poor societies only.
societies governed by communist philosophies only.
all societies.
2. Margo spends $10,000 on one year's college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
$10,000.
whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
3.
Use the following figure to answer questions 3-4:
Look at the above figure. If the economy is operating at point Y and its relevant production possibility frontier is curve 1, this means that:
the economy is at full employment and is efficient.
the economy is less than fully employed.
the economy is not efficient.
economic growth is not possible in the future.
4. Look at the above figure. The movement from curve 1 to curve 2 indicates:
a growing ability of the economy to produce capital and consumer goods.
going from unemployment to full employment.
a decrease in the factors of production.
a shift of the production possibility frontier toward producing fewer goods.
5. An increase in the price of hamburger would probably result in ________ in the demand for hamburger buns.
a decrease
an increase
no change
random fluctuations
6. After graduation from college, you might have an increase in your income from a new job. If, as a result, you decide that you will purchase more T-bone steak and less hamburger, then for you hamburger would be considered:
a normal good.
a substitute good.
a complementary good.
an inferior good.
7.
Use the following figure to answer question 7:
Look at the above figure. A factor that may have changed supply from S1 to S2 is:
better technology in the production of gasoline.
increased demand.
lower labor productivity in gasoline production.
increased prices of substitutes for gasoline.
8. Us the following to answer question 8:
Refer to the above table. If the price of chocolate-covered peanuts is $0.80, there is:
a surplus of 140 bags per month.
a shortage of 140 bags per month.
a surplus of 70 bags per month.
a shortage of 70 bags per month.
9. Use the following to answer question 9:
Look at the above figure. A temporary price of $2 in this market would result in:
a surplus of 4,000 bushels and we would expect prices to rise.
a shortage of 8,000 bushels and we would expect prices to rise.
a shortage of 10,000 bushels and we would expect prices to fall.
a surplus of 10,000 bushels and we would expect prices to fall.
10. In the market for tacos, you observe that the equilibrium price and quantity have increased. This can be caused onl ...
Amidst such difficult domestic and external
conditions, the Government’s revenue
mobilization efforts have been successful in
the first eight months of 2021
Extra Credit
1. A “natural monopoly” exists when
A company creates a monopoly because it has an important patent
A company naturally creates a monopoly because it was more innovative than other competitors
One company can serve a market less costly than two or more firms.
2. True or False? Most public utilities are considered to be natural monopolies.
3. The presence of very large fixed costs and relatively low variable costs typically results in
A. Average costs declining throughout the relevant range of demand
B. A natural monopoly
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
4. An example of a Public Utility would be
Walmart
El Paso Electric Co.
Congress
Microsoft
5. The Public Interest Theory of regulation suggests
Government regulates to promote social economic welfare (as economists would prescribe)
Government regulates to promote their own welfare
Government should not regulate at all
None of the above
6. True or False? Stigler’s Economic Theory of Regulation suggests that people in government are self-interested individuals.
Suppose a power plant generates an additional 10 mWh of electricity for a profit of $100,000. This additional production also creates pollution damages to others equivalent to $120,000. From society’s view, the efficient decision is not to generate the additional power.
7. True or False? Under the Coase Theorem without transactions costs, the efficient decision will be made when the public has the right to receive damage payments.
8. True or False? Under the Coase Theorem without transactions costs, the efficient decision will be made when the power plant has the right to pollute.
9. True or False? If the market causing a negative externality has a property right to do so, the Coase Theorem would suggest that those being harmed would organize and make a payment to stop or limit the market activity.
10. The presence of transaction costs in the “real world” may
Give a rationale for government regulation.
Ensure that the Coase Theorem efficiency results always prevail.
Make it easy to organize people against a polluting company.
11. Why is it rational for groups affected by regulation to expend resources to influence regulatory decisions?
Government’s power of coercion may be used to redistribute wealth between groups of people.
Government will do what is best for the public interest.
Government regulation should be eliminated.
12. “Taxation by Regulation” (Richard Posner) suggests that regulation is used for what purpose?
Help airlines and other regulated industries.
Cross-subsidize certain markets or market segments.
Increase the general fund (tax revenues) directly collected by the government.
Protect the environment.
13. True or False? The “Capture Theory” of regulation is an extreme (polar) case of the Economic Theory of Regulation.
14. Which of the following is not an assumption under Professor Stigler’s “Economic Theory of Regulation”?
All actors in a political-economy are self-int.
Question 11. 1) _________ economies are the most effective at pr.docxIRESH3
Question 1
1. 1) _________ economies are the most effective at promoting economic growth.
a.
Command
b.
Closed
c.
Open
d.
Inflationary
3 points
Question 2
1. 1) Limiting the immigration of highly educated professionals hurts U.S. economic growth because
a.
it restricts the supply of high human capital workers and the new ideas they could potentially generate.
b.
it restricts the knowledge base of the workforce.
c.
immigrants always cost less to hire than native workers do.
d.
both a. and b.
3 points
Question 3
1. 1) Economic growth is positively related to all of the following except
a.
import tariffs.
b.
the rate of investment.
c.
the rate of saving.
d.
the growth of technology.
3 points
Question 4
1. 1) Supply-side inflation can be caused by a continual
a.
increase in aggregate demand while aggregate supply remains unchanged.
b.
decrease in aggregate supply while aggregate demand remains unchanged.
c.
increase in aggregate supply while aggregate demand remains unchanged.
d.
decrease in aggregate demand while aggregate supply significantly decreases.
3 points
Question 5
1. 1) The aggregate demand curve would shift to the right as a result of
a.
a drop in the foreign exchange value of a dollar.
b.
tax increases.
c.
a drop in the price level.
d.
a decrease in the amount of money in circulation.
3 points
Question 6
1. 1) The total of all planned real expenditures in the economy is
a.
aggregate GDP.
b.
aggregate consumption.
c.
aggregate spending.
d.
aggregate demand.
3 points
Question 7
1. 1) Consider this statement: “Persistent inflation in a growing economy is possible only if the aggregate demand curve shifts rightward over time at a faster pace than the rightward progression of the long-run aggregate supply curve.” This statement is describing:
a.
demand-side inflation.
b.
supply-side inflation.
c.
demand- and supply-side inflation.
d.
neither demand- nor supply-side inflation.
3 points
Question 8
1. 1) Which of the following best exemplifies Say’s Law?
a.
The more you consume the less additional satisfaction you receive from additional consumption of the good.
b.
A decrease in the price of a good leads to larger amounts of the good being purchased.
c.
The production of a $4000 Plasma TV set creates demand for other goods and services valued at $4000.
d.
Increases in labor eventually lead to smaller and smaller increases in output.
3 points
Question 9
1. 1) All of the following will shift the short-run aggregate supply curve and long-run aggregate supply curve except for
a.
a depletion of raw materials.
b.
a temporary change in raw materials.
c.
decreased competition.
d.
increased education and training for the labor force.
3 points
Question 10
1. 1) The LRAS curve is vertical because unemployment is at its ________________.
a.
natural rate
b.
frictional rate
c.
cyclical rate
d.
structural rate
3 points
Question 11
1. 1) Which of the following facto ...
Kantian ethics, and Utilitarianism. Choose the theory that you thi.docxtawnyataylor528
Kantian ethics, and Utilitarianism. Choose the theory that you think is better out of these two and briefly describe it. Then discuss why you think this is the better of these two theories.
Can you think of a moral rule that all cultures follow (that you are aware of)? If so, what is this rule and why does every culture practice this moral rule? If not, do you think that there is a moral rule that every culture should practice? What does your answer say about cultural relativism and why?
Choose one of the following theorists - Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau, or Rawls - and briefly describe their views of human nature and their version of the social contract. Then, explain why you chose to discuss this theorist in particular.
One of the biggest objections to Virtue Ethics is that there is no consensus on what counts as a virtue. List two qualities that you believe are virtuous and explain why you feel this way. Given this, do you think that there are any general criteria we can use to decide whether an action is virtuous or not? Why?
Do you think that we have a moral obligation to treat animals well? Why or why not? Does our moral obligation include not eating them?
Moral antirealism, or moral non-objectivism, claims that here are no objective moral rules. If such theories are true, is there any way that we could determine whether something is 'good' or 'bad'? If so, how? If not, why? Finish your post by explaining your views on the idea of moral non-objectivism - do you agree or disagree with this theory? Does it have any merit in its claims?
To what extent have your choices in life been a result of free will? Given this, which theory do you agree with most and why: fatalism, determinism, or existentialism?
FINC 340 INVESTMENTS
FINAL EXAMINATION_04
DIRECTIONS: Here is the Final Examination Question Sheet. Please submit your Final Examinaiton Answer Sheet to your Final Examination Folder.
Please submit your Midterm Examination MS Word format with the following file name: LastNameFirstInitial_MidtermExamAnswerSheet.docx. For example, if you name is John Smith, the file name of your Answer Sheet should be SmithJ_MidtermExamAnswerSheet.docx.
NAME: _____________________________________
Quiz Number
Question
Answer
1
A company has paid $2 per share in dividends for the past several years and plans to continue to do so indefinitely. If an investor’s required return is 13%, what is the most she should pay for a share of this firm’s stock?
A:$15.38
B:$20.00
C:$22.60
D:$26.13
E:$65.00
2
Bond mutual funds offer the following advantages over direct investment in bonds EXCEPT:
A:Better diversification
B:Transaction cost economies
C:Buy and sell individual bonds at individual investor’s discretion
D:Reinvestment of intermediate cash flows
E:Better liquidity
3
A $1,000 par value bond with a 5% coupon that pays interest semiannually and matures in 2 ½ years and has a current price of $977. What is the annualized yield to maturity?
A:3.0%
B:4 ...
Multiple Choice Questions1. ____ is the primary goal of bu.docxrosemarybdodson23141
Multiple Choice Questions
1. ____ is the primary goal of business.
A. Charity
B. Profit
C. Bureaucracy
D. Quality
E. Strategy
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-01 Define basic concepts such as business; product; and profit.
2. Which of the following is NOT a product?
A. A Dell personal computer
B. A veterinarian's treatment of a pet's injuries
C. A lawyer's advice in a divorce case
D. A checkup by a doctor
E. A business profit
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-01 Define basic concepts such as business; product; and profit.
3. Which of the following is an example of an intangible product?
A. A movie DVD
B. A sandwich
C. A sports car
D. A music concert
E. Jewelry
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-01 Define basic concepts such as business; product; and profit.
4. Which of the following is a similarity between businesses and nonprofit organizations?
A. Both do not have to abide by government regulations.
B. Both are unaffected by political or social change.
C. Both of them engage in management and finance activities.
D. Both of them do not need to adapt to technological changes.
E. Both aim to maximize financial returns for their owners.
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-01 Define basic concepts such as business; product; and profit.
5. All the groups that have an interest in an organization's success and outcomes are known as the organization's ____.
A. agencies
B. stakeholders
C. owners
D. investors
E. shareholders
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-01 Define basic concepts such as business; product; and profit.
6. Which of the following is a force within an organization's control that has an impact on the business's daily operations?
A. Employees
B. Regulatory environment
C. Competition
D. Political environment
E. Technology
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-02 Identify the main participants and activities of business and explain why studying business is important.
7. Which of the following is true of the responsibilities of the people involved in a business?
A. Finance is concerned with acquiring, developing, and using human effectively and efficiently.
B. Marketing refers to all activities concerned with obtaining money for the firm and using it effectively.
C. Nonprofit organizations include all the functions that businesses do, except for the marketing function.
D. Management is not involved in the day-to-day functions of production and manufacturing.
E. It is the primary responsibility of the owners to provide financial resources for the operation of the business.
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-02 Identify the main participants and activities of business and explain why studying business is important.
8. The functions of organizing, staffing, planning, and controlling are most closely associated with:
A. managers.
B. assembly line workers.
C. investment advisors.
D. stockbrokers.
E. direct sales executives.
Hint: Learning Objective: 01-02 Identify t.
To find economic profit from accounting profit, it is necessary to.docxedwardmarivel
To find economic profit from accounting profit, it is necessary to
Select one:
A. subtract dividends.
B. add depreciation expense.
C. subtract the opportunity cost of capital.
D. add retained earnings.
Question 2
The present value of expected future profits will _____ if the discount rate increases and will_____ if expected future profits increase.
Select one:
A. increase; not change
B. increase; increase
C. not change; decrease
D. decrease; increase
E. decrease; decrease
Question 3
Managerial economics draws upon all of the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. finance
B. microeconomics
C. accounting
D. marketing
E. sociology
Question 4
Managers may make decisions that are not consistent with the goals of stockholders. This is referred to as the _____ problem.
Select one:
A. principal-agent
B. economic disincentive
C. incentive-compromise
D. efficiency-inefficiency
E. equilibrium
Question 5
Marginal revenue can be defined as the:
Select one:
A. percent increase in total revenue resulting from a one percent increase in output
B. increase in total revenue resulting from a one unit increase in output
C. total revenue divided by output
D. average revenue multiplied by output
E. average revenue multiplied by output divided by 4
Question 6
The cross-price elasticity of demand is defined as the:
Select one:
A. percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in the good's price
B. percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in a different good's price
C. percentage change in a good's price divided by the percentage change in a different good's price
D. change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the change in its price
E. change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the change in income
Question 7
Consumer surplus is defined as:
Select one:
A. the quantities of a good or service that bring equal utility to the consumer
B. the quantity of a good or service that is utility maximizing for the consumer
C. the difference between what a consumer is willing to pay and what he or she actually pays for a good or service
D. the difference between the market price and the marginal cost of producing a good or service
E. none of the above
Question 8
The demand for a product is more inelastic the:
Select one:
A. longer the time period covered
B. lower the average income of consumers
C. better the available substitutes
D. poorer the available substitutes
Question 9
If one day it was discovered that lime juice caused cancer, which of the following would likely result?
Select one:
A. The supply curve of lime juice would shift to the right.
B. The demand curve for lime juice would shift to the right.
C. The demand curve for lime juice would shift to the left.
D. The supply curve of lime juice would shift to the left.
Question 10
The demand curve's usual slope implies that consumers:
Select one:
A. buy more as the price of a good is increased
B. buy mo ...
Question 1 of 402.5 PointsThe idea behind the pollution tax eq.docxIRESH3
Question 1 of 40
2.5 Points
The idea behind the pollution tax equal to the external cost per unit of pollution is to __________ .
A. increase the social benefit to be above the marginal cost
B. internalize the externality
C. allow the firm to evade external costs
D. drive polluting firms out of developed countries
Question 2 of 40
2.5 Points
Markets that have external costs will produce __________ output than the socially efficient level, whereas markets that have external benefits will produce __________ output than the socially efficient level.
A. less; less
B. more; more
C. more; less
D. less; more
Question 3 of 40
2.5 Points
If a producer is imposing an external cost on society, the best response would be to __________ .
A. lower the producer's taxes to offset pollution
B. increase the production
C. internalize the externality
D. subsidize the producer
Question 4 of 40
2.5 Points
Jamal and Lauren live in the countryside 30 minutes from a city in Virginia. They moved there because they wanted to enjoy the fresh air. After a year of living in their house, the 200 acres that surround their neighborhood were zoned for an industrial property. A paper mill was built on the land and now emits strong gases that can be smelled from miles away. The paper mill's emission of gases is an example of a(n. __________ .
A. public good
B. good that imposes an external cost
C. good that provides an external benefit
D. efficient good
Question 5 of 40
2.5 Points
Once a firm is forced to consider an external cost, the price of its product will __________ .
A. increase and output will decrease
B. increase and output will increase
C. decrease and output will decrease
D. decrease and output will increase
Question 6 of 40
2.5 Points
Which of the following would be an example of an external benefit?
A. More people start to ride the bus and as a result air pollution is reduced.
B. Firms are able to reduce their costs of production by using a more efficient technology.
C. The government requires polluting firms to pay a special tax.
D. A firm has just gotten permission to open a landfill on property that is adjacent to your home.
Question 7 of 40
2.5 Points
The study of external costs is a major concern of __________ .
A. labor economics
B. international economics
C. environmental economics
D. macroeconomists
Question 8 of 40
2.5 Points
Which of the following is an example of an external cost?
A. a loud, crying baby in a public restaurant
B. emissions of methane into the atmosphere
C. a homeowner who likes to mow the lawn at 7 a.m. on Saturday morning
D. all of the above
Question 9 of 40
2.5 Points
The biggest problem with using a tax as a way to solve an externality problem is that __________ .
A. the tax sometimes increases the external cost
B. damages must be estimated in financial terms to determine the correct level of the tax
C. the firm will pas ...
Similar to Question 1 1. Macroeconomics examinesA.employment, out.docx (20)
PreparationGo to httpwww.excelsior.edumediaoelstutoringSm.docxIRESH3
Preparation:
Go to: http://www.excelsior.edu/media/oels/tutoring/Smarthinking/new1/Excelsior_ST_intro_0613.htm
Now complete the following:
After you have used the Smarthinking service, write a short paragraph on your experience with Smarthinking.
What did you like or dislike about it? Was it helpful?
Submit your paragraph in a Word document in the assignment. Be sure to check your content and spelling before you submit.
.
Practice Nurses will be comfortable having discussions about dea.docxIRESH3
Practice
Nurses will be comfortable having discussions about death, and will collaborate with the care teams to ensure that patients and families have current and accurate information about the possibility or probability of a patient’s impending death.
Education
Basic and specialist End-of-Life Nursing Education Consortium (ELNEC) resources will be available.
Research
Support the use of evidence-based and ethical care, and support decision-making for care at the end of life.
Administration
Promote work environments in which the standards for excellent care extend through the patient’s death and into post-death care for families.
-from each subcategory of practice, education, research and administration above, 1) describe how the APRN can provide effective care in end of life management.
Minimum 300 words,
3 references no more than 5 years
APA Style
no plagiarism
.
PrejudiceAlthough related, stereotypes and prejudice are separ.docxIRESH3
Prejudice
Although related, stereotypes and prejudice are separate entities.
Prejudice
is holding negative feelings for a group of people, or even a particular person, and is often considered the “emotional component to intergroup attitudes” (Levy & Hughes, 2009, p. 24). As mentioned in the previous week,
stereotyping
is the “cognitive process of intergroup attitudes,” generally referring to associating attributes to a particular group (Levy & Hughes, 2009, p. 24). The presence of stereotypes or intergroup bias leads to prejudiced behavior in some instances. When prejudice behavior does occur, the individual’s emotional response often plays a role.
For this Discussion, review the media
Prejudice
and consider how the emotions and stereotyping of the people in the media impacted their prejudiced behavior.
Reference:
Levy, S. R., & Hughes, J. M. (2009). Development of racial and ethnic prejudice among children. In T. D. Nelson (Ed.),
Handbook of prejudice, stereotyping, and discrimination
(pp. 23–42). New York, NY: Psychology Press.
With these thoughts in mind:
Post by Day 4
a brief interpretation of the events in the media. Then, describe any prejudiced behavior you observed and explain two ways the emotions of hte people in the media may have impacted their prejudiced behavior and why. Next, explain how the prejudice you observed in the media reinforced or disconfirmed stereotype content. Finally, explain how this information helps us understand the maintenance of group attitudes over time and situation.
Bottom of Form
·
Media: Laureate Education, Inc. (Executive Producer). (2011).
Prejudice
.
Baltimore, MD: Author.
(Click on the television screen once the video opens in a new window. “The Company” will appear on the television image.)
Note:
While the content within this media piece references Week 11, it is intended for Week 10 in this course.
·
o
Transcript
Readings
·
Course Text:
Handbook of Prejudice, Stereotyping, and Discrimination
·
o
Chapter 2, "Development of Racial and Ethnic Prejudice Among Children"
o
Chapter 14, "Intergroup Emotions Theory"
o
Chapter 15, "How Our Dreams of Death Transcendence Breed Prejudice, Stereotyping, and Conflict: Terror Management Theory"
·
Article: Devine, P. G. (1989). Stereotypes and prejudice: Their automatic and controlled components.
Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 56
(1), 5–18. Retrieved from the Walden Library using the PsycINFO database.
.
PowerPoint1.Apple effects on Samsung·8 slides·Refe.docxIRESH3
PowerPoint
1.
Apple effects on Samsung
·
8 slides
·
References or Citation (MLA)
2.
Global, Ethics and Security Management
·
8 slides and 1 video
·
References or Citation (MLA)
.
PowerPoint with 10 slides and speaker notes with 75-150 words per .docxIRESH3
PowerPoint with 10 slides and speaker notes with 75-150 words per slide
The Medical Staff Coordinator has requested that you prepare a 10 slide PowerPoint presentation on one of the following topics to discuss with the incoming residents. The Medical Staff Coordinator has also requested you maintain a neutral position, discussing the legal and ethical issues surrounding the topic. You are also asked to use research (at least 2 sources) to substantiate your discussion.
Choose one of the following topics of contemporary ethical dilemmas.
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
Organ Donations
Human Genetics
Euthanasia
Assisted Suicide
Stem Cell Research
Abortion
.
preferences
Document Viewer
Turnitin
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Processed on: 28-Oct-2014 8:41 AM CDT
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Submitted: 1
1
By Renu Kumar
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9%
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include quoted
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exclude small matches
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mode:
6% match (Internet from 18-Jun-2014)
http://www.antiessays.com
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Goines, Lisa Hagler, Louis. "Noise pollution: a modern plague.", Southern Medical Journal, March 2007 Issue
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Running head: THE EFFECTS OF POPULATION DENSITY AND NOISE The Effects of Population Density and Noise
Renu Kumar
PSY/460
November 3, 2013 Christine Hander The
Effects of Population Density and Noise Population density and noise
can have many
effects
on individuals.
Population density
is
the
amount
of
people, which live in a particular area. Along with population density, comes noise; noise is typically an unwanted distraction. In this paper the subject to discuss is
the concepts of territoriality, privacy, and personal space; examine how the concepts of territoriality, privacy, and personal space have become increasingly important as
populations become
denser; clarify the effect nature has on individuals living in urban environments, describe the concept of noise and examine the effect it has on individuals; and examine strategies that can be used to reduce noise in the workplace or in the living environment. Concepts of
Territoriality,
Privacy, and Personal Space
Territories are areas
marked and defended by
their owners
and
often
used for life- sustaining activities
(Territoriality, 2004). The most common example of a person's territory would be his or her home because one tends to personalize and defend what is theirs. A person identifies themselves with his or her territory and any threat to that territory feels like a threat to themselves (Territoriality, 2004). A person feels connected to his or her territory and sees it as a means to satisfying his or her needs within society. Privacy is the selective control of access to oneself and group (Privacy, 2004). A person has the ability to decide who to allow in his or her territory or personal space. A person's
personal space
describes
the emotionally tinged zone around the .
Precedents Set By George WashingtonGeorge Washington was aware tha.docxIRESH3
Precedents Set By George Washington
George Washington was aware that many of his actions would be regarded as precedents. Here are three precedents that Washington established:
Washington created the first Presidential Cabinet. Who was on the Cabinet, and what Departments did they represent? Who is on the Cabinet today, and what Departments do they represent?
Washington was the first President to leave office after two terms. Is that precedent still followed today? Why or why not?
Washington was the first to establish foreign policy, and issued the Proclamation of Neutrality. What situation did this proclamation address? What agency advises the President on foreign policy today? What is the role of this agency?
Be sure to include where you got your information. For example, include web site addresses. Must be a page and half.
.
Predictors of Abusive Supervision Supervisor Perceptions of Deep.docxIRESH3
“Predictors of Abusive Supervision: Supervisor Perceptions of Deep
-Level Dissimilarity, Relationship Conflict, and
Subordinate Performance,” by Bennett Tepper, Sherry Moss, and
Michelle Duffy.
Write your critique in standard essay form. Begin with an introduction that defines the subject of your critique and your
point of view. You will need to identify and explain the author's ideas. Include specific passages that support your
description of the author's point of view. Offer your own opinion. Explain what you think about the argument. Defend your
point of view by raising specific issues or aspects of the argument. Describe several points with which you agree or
disagree and include specific passages from the article (you may summarize, quote, or paraphrase) that provide evidence
for your point of view. Explain how the passages support your opinion. Conclude your critique by summarizing your
argument and re-emphasizing your opinion. Your critique should be at least two full pages in length, using 12-point
double-spaced Times Roman font using APA format.
.
Pre-Lab QuestionsWhat major event occurs during interphase.docxIRESH3
Pre-Lab Questions
What major event occurs during interphase?
A person, residing in a location where they are exposed to the sun often, develops a mutation in some of their skin cells resulting in cancer. Consider whether their offspring will be born with the same mutation. Use scientific evidence to support your answer.
Experiment 1: Following Chromosomal DNA Movement through Meiosis
Data Tables and Post-Lab Assessment
Part 1 - Meiotic Division Beads Diagram without Crossing Over
Prophase I
Metaphase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I
Prophase II
Metaphase II
Anaphase II
Telophase II
Cytokinesis
Part 2:
Meiotic Division Beads Diagram
with Crossing Over
Prophase I
Metaphase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I
Prophase II
Metaphase II
Anaphase II
Telophase II
Cytokinesis
Post-Lab Questions
1.
What is the ploidy of the DNA at the end of meiosis I? What about at the end of meiosis II?
2.
How are meiosis I and meiosis II different?
3.
Why do you use non-sister chromatids to demonstrate crossing over?
4.
What combinations of alleles could result from a crossover between BD and bd chromosomes?
5.
How many chromosomes were present when meiosis I started?
6.
How many nuclei are present at the end of meiosis II? How many chromosomes are in each?
7.
Identify two ways that meiosis contributes to genetic recombination.
8.
Why is it necessary to reduce the number of chromosomes in gametes, but not in other cells?
9.
Blue whales have 44 chromosomes in every cell. Determine how many chromosomes you would expect to find in the following:
Sperm Cell:
Egg Cell:
Daughter Cell from Meiosis I:
Daughter Cell from Meiosis II:
10.
Research and find a disease that is caused by chromosomal mutations. When does the mutation occur? What chromosomes are affected? What are the consequences?
11.
Diagram what would
happen if sexual reproduction took place for four generations using diploid (2n) cells.
Experiment 2: The Importance of Cell Cycle Control
Data
Post-Lab Questions
1.
Record your hypothesis from Step 1 in the Procedure section here.
2.
What do your results indicate about cell cycle control?
3.
Suppose a person developed a mutation in a somatic cell which diminishes the performance of the body’s natural cell cycle control proteins. This mutation resulted in cancer, but was effectively treated with a cocktail of cancer-fighting techniques. Is it possible for this person’s future children to inherit this cancer-causing mutation? Be specific when you explain why or why not.
4.
Why do cells which lack cell cycle control exhibit karyotypes which look physically different than cells with normal cell cycle.
5.
What are HeLa cells? Why are HeLa cells appropriate for this experiment?
.
Pre-Lab QuestionsUse the following classificatio.docxIRESH3
Pre-Lab Questions
Use the following classifications to determine which organism is least related out of the three. Explain your rationale.
Table 2: Classifications
Classification Level
American Green Tree Frog
European Fire- Bellied Toad
Eastern Newt
Domain
Eukarya
Eukarya
Eukarya
Kingdom
Animalia
Animalia
Animalia
Phylum
Chordata
Chordata
Chordata
Class
Amphibia
Amphibia
Amphibia
Order
Anura
Anura
Caudata
Family
Hylidae
Bombinatoridae
Salamandridae
Genus
Tursipops
Bombina
Notophthalmus
Species
cinerea
bombina
viridescens
How has DNA sequencing affected the science of classifying organisms?
You are on vacation and see an organism that you do not recognize. Discuss what possible steps you can take to classify it.
Exercise 1: Dichotomous Key Practice
Table 3: Dichotomous Key Results
Organism
Binomial Name
i
ii
iii
iv
v
vi
vii
viii
ix
x
xi
xii
xiii
Post-Lab Questions
What do you notice about the options of each step as they go from number one up?
How does your answer from Que
stion 1 relate to the Linnaean classification system?
Exercise 2: Classification of Organisms
Data Tables and Post-Lab Assessment
Table 2: Key Characteristics of Some Organisms
Organism
Kingdom
Domain
Defined Nucleus
Motile
Cell Wall
Photosynthesis
Unicellular
E. coli
Yes
Yes
Protozoa
Yes
Yes
Yes
Mushroom
Yes
Yes
Sunflower
Yes
Yes
Yes
Bear
Yes
Yes
Figure 4:
Exercise 2 - Classification of Organisms Flow Chart
Post-Lab Questions
Did this series of questions correctly organize each organism? Why or why not?
What additional questions would you ask to further categorize the items
within
the kingdoms (Hint: think about other organisms in each of the kingdoms and what makes them different than the examples used here)?
What questions would you have asked instead of the ones that you answered above when classifying the organisms?
.
Pre-Lab QuestionsNitrogen fixation is a natural process by whi.docxIRESH3
Pre-Lab Questions
Nitrogen fixation is a natural process by which inert or unreactive forms of nitrogen are transformed into usable nitrogen. Why is this process important to life?
Given when you have learned about the hydrogen bonding shared between nucleic acids in DNA, which pair is more stable under increasing heat: adenine and thymine, or cytosine and guanine? Explain why.
Which of the following is not an organic molecule; Methane (CH
4
), Fructose (C
6
H
12
O
6
), Ethanol (C
6
H
12
O), or Ammonia (NH
3
)? How do you know?
Experiment 1: Testing for Proteins
Data Tables and Post-Lab Assessment
Table 1: A Priori Predictions
Table 1: A Priori Predictions
Sample
Will There be Protein Present?
Initial Color
Final Color
1 - Albumin
Solution
2 - Gelatin
.
Pre-AssignmentWrite a 3-4 page paper (not counting cover page and .docxIRESH3
Pre-Assignment
Write a 3-4 page paper (not counting cover page and refeence page) that addresses your view on the following:
1. Why do you think people protest?
2. What aspects of movements do you feel reflect a democratic character and democratic processes?
3. Why do you think some movements, notably the U.S.Civil Rights Movement, are widely celebrated and others are feared?
4. Why do you think protesters sometimes become violent, and does it help or hurt their cause?
5. In your opinion, are conventional tactics like rallies and marches more effective; why or why not?
Course textbook using: Eitzen, D. Stanley & Stewart, Kenneth (2007).
Solution
s to social problems from the bottom up:
successful social movements
.
Pearson Education, Inc. [ISBN-10: 0205468845]
.
PowerPoint Length 6 slides (excluding title and reference slid.docxIRESH3
PowerPoint Length:
6 slides (excluding title and reference slides) and speaker notes of 200 words per slide
A key component of an effective workplace is the ability of the groups to successfully collaborate. Choose a work group within your organization. Using a model of organizational improvement, plan a development project for this group. Include responses to the following in your presentation:
Describe the group, its purpose (work function), how this group fits into the overall organization, its reporting relationships, and its key stakeholders.
How will you gather data (interviews, questionnaires, or group discussions) from the group and any key stakeholders?
Describe the type of data that you will need to design your development plan.
How will you diagnose the level of functioning for the group?
Give a few examples of developmental activities that you would use for various levels of functioning that are based on your diagnosis.
How would you communicate the progress of the group to both group members and key stakeholders?
4ip
.
Practice Before IRS Please respond to the followinghttpwww..docxIRESH3
Practice Before IRS"
Please respond to the following:
http://www.irs.gov/Tax-Professionals/Enrolled-Agents/Circular-230-Disciplinary-Proceedings
,
analyze the persons / parties that the disciplinary proceedings are applicable too. Based on your analysis, propose at least two (2) other persons / parties that you would add. Provide support for your proposal.
Analyze Section 10.82 disciplinary proceedings for expedited suspension. Based on your analysis, give your opinion as to whether or not the expedited suspension rules are an effective deterrent to violators. Justify your response.
.
PPT about fair use advertisement case in bisiness law.Introduce pr.docxIRESH3
PPT about fair use advertisement case in bisiness law.
Introduce presenter and case.
What is the subject of the case?
Highest Court which heard case.
Relevant facts stated concisely.
Outcome of case.
Court’s reasoning explained clearly.
Historical context explained. At least date.
Update of law.
.
Prejudice, Stereotypes, and DiscriminationIn many cases, prejudice.docxIRESH3
Prejudice, Stereotypes, and Discrimination
In many cases, prejudice stems from the unknown. As individuals, we tend to migrate toward those who may look like us, act like us, and think like us. As a result, it may be difficult for us to open our minds and embrace those whose values, beliefs, and overall sense of self differ from our own.
For this assignment, compose a paper that is three to four pages in length. In your paper, discuss the impacts of prejudice, stereotypes, and discrimination in the context of social psychology. Be sure to address the following points:
1. Define and describe the following terms: prejudice, stereotype, discrimination, and ingroup vs. outgroup. Based on your own experiences in the social world, can you relate to any of these terms? Do you identify with a particular term? Why or why not?
2. Examine the social, cognitive, and societal origins of prejudice and stereotypes. Be sure to include specific information regarding categorization, such as ingroup favoritism and the outgroup homogeneity effect, norms, competition for resources, and social inequalities. Of the categories presented, which do you think are the most significant in our society and in your particular community?
3. Analyze the influences that promote stereotyping, and offer strategies to reduce prejudice. What are the consequences of stereotyping and discrimination? Who does this behavior hurt, and in what ways does it hurt them? Are we inadvertently creating self-fulfilling prophecies in our society? If so, how can we take steps to improve attitudes, judgments, and behaviors?
Your paper must include an introduction, a thesis statement, and a conclusion. Your completed assignment should be three to four pages in length (excluding title and reference pages), include a minimum of three references, and follow APA guidelines as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
.
Preparation•Review the document titled City of Charlottesville 20.docxIRESH3
Preparation
•Review the document titled “City of Charlottesville 2010 Annual Comprehensive Plan” located in the course shell. Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
1.
Review the “City of Charlottesville 2010 Annual Comprehensive Plan” and then complete Exercise 1 on page 152 using Exhibits C and D in the Annual Report and Table 9.4 on page 148. Change the title headers to the agency name. Save the Excel File as the agency’s name and include the Multiyear Plan.
2.
Analyze the comparison of ratios.
3.
Analyze the measures of liquidity.
4.
Analyze the long-term solvency.
5.
Analyze asset management rations.
.
PowerPoint presentationImagine that you are a consultant for a.docxIRESH3
PowerPoint presentation
Imagine that you are a consultant for an organization, and they want you to work on developing their core values. The organization would like their core values to reflect key attributes of their culture.
Select an organization, such as a company, community group, or nonprofit organization.
Create a 10- to 12-Microsoft® PowerPoint® slide presentation describing cultural, research-based models and how they help clarify the organization's core values.
Include at least three credible, peer-reviewed references.
Format the citations in your presentation consistent with APA guidelines.
.
PowerPoint PresentationImagine that you are at your job discussi.docxIRESH3
PowerPoint Presentation
Imagine that you are at your job discussing how much you are learning throughout your Sociology of Sport class.This has
led some of them to ask you to present the newfound knowledge to your monthly
“brown bag lunch”
group at work.
Create a PowerPoint presentation to share with your colleagues that discusses the three major theories found in Unit I:
1. Cultural theories
2. Interactionist theories
3. Structural theories
Include the following information regarding the theories:
What is known about the theory
Major focus of the analysis
Major concepts used
Related research studies
Please make sure to have a title slide with the title of the slideshow and your name, slides that are relevant for this
presentation, and a closing reference slide. You can also use the slide notes at the bottom of each slide as well, but it is
not required. Also, be creative with your slides.
You are required to have
at least six (6) slides
not including the title slide and reference slide. Please be creative with your
presentation through the use of colors, pictures, and other graphics.
Use your own words, and include citations for sources. In addition, consider utilizing the Success Center to help with
your presentation.
.
Biological screening of herbal drugs: Introduction and Need for
Phyto-Pharmacological Screening, New Strategies for evaluating
Natural Products, In vitro evaluation techniques for Antioxidants, Antimicrobial and Anticancer drugs. In vivo evaluation techniques
for Anti-inflammatory, Antiulcer, Anticancer, Wound healing, Antidiabetic, Hepatoprotective, Cardio protective, Diuretics and
Antifertility, Toxicity studies as per OECD guidelines
Instructions for Submissions thorugh G- Classroom.pptxJheel Barad
This presentation provides a briefing on how to upload submissions and documents in Google Classroom. It was prepared as part of an orientation for new Sainik School in-service teacher trainees. As a training officer, my goal is to ensure that you are comfortable and proficient with this essential tool for managing assignments and fostering student engagement.
Macroeconomics- Movie Location
This will be used as part of your Personal Professional Portfolio once graded.
Objective:
Prepare a presentation or a paper using research, basic comparative analysis, data organization and application of economic information. You will make an informed assessment of an economic climate outside of the United States to accomplish an entertainment industry objective.
Read| The latest issue of The Challenger is here! We are thrilled to announce that our school paper has qualified for the NATIONAL SCHOOLS PRESS CONFERENCE (NSPC) 2024. Thank you for your unwavering support and trust. Dive into the stories that made us stand out!
Unit 8 - Information and Communication Technology (Paper I).pdfThiyagu K
This slides describes the basic concepts of ICT, basics of Email, Emerging Technology and Digital Initiatives in Education. This presentations aligns with the UGC Paper I syllabus.
Acetabularia Information For Class 9 .docxvaibhavrinwa19
Acetabularia acetabulum is a single-celled green alga that in its vegetative state is morphologically differentiated into a basal rhizoid and an axially elongated stalk, which bears whorls of branching hairs. The single diploid nucleus resides in the rhizoid.
June 3, 2024 Anti-Semitism Letter Sent to MIT President Kornbluth and MIT Cor...Levi Shapiro
Letter from the Congress of the United States regarding Anti-Semitism sent June 3rd to MIT President Sally Kornbluth, MIT Corp Chair, Mark Gorenberg
Dear Dr. Kornbluth and Mr. Gorenberg,
The US House of Representatives is deeply concerned by ongoing and pervasive acts of antisemitic
harassment and intimidation at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). Failing to act decisively to ensure a safe learning environment for all students would be a grave dereliction of your responsibilities as President of MIT and Chair of the MIT Corporation.
This Congress will not stand idly by and allow an environment hostile to Jewish students to persist. The House believes that your institution is in violation of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, and the inability or
unwillingness to rectify this violation through action requires accountability.
Postsecondary education is a unique opportunity for students to learn and have their ideas and beliefs challenged. However, universities receiving hundreds of millions of federal funds annually have denied
students that opportunity and have been hijacked to become venues for the promotion of terrorism, antisemitic harassment and intimidation, unlawful encampments, and in some cases, assaults and riots.
The House of Representatives will not countenance the use of federal funds to indoctrinate students into hateful, antisemitic, anti-American supporters of terrorism. Investigations into campus antisemitism by the Committee on Education and the Workforce and the Committee on Ways and Means have been expanded into a Congress-wide probe across all relevant jurisdictions to address this national crisis. The undersigned Committees will conduct oversight into the use of federal funds at MIT and its learning environment under authorities granted to each Committee.
• The Committee on Education and the Workforce has been investigating your institution since December 7, 2023. The Committee has broad jurisdiction over postsecondary education, including its compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, campus safety concerns over disruptions to the learning environment, and the awarding of federal student aid under the Higher Education Act.
• The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is investigating the sources of funding and other support flowing to groups espousing pro-Hamas propaganda and engaged in antisemitic harassment and intimidation of students. The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is the principal oversight committee of the US House of Representatives and has broad authority to investigate “any matter” at “any time” under House Rule X.
• The Committee on Ways and Means has been investigating several universities since November 15, 2023, when the Committee held a hearing entitled From Ivory Towers to Dark Corners: Investigating the Nexus Between Antisemitism, Tax-Exempt Universities, and Terror Financing. The Committee followed the hearing with letters to those institutions on January 10, 202
How to Make a Field invisible in Odoo 17Celine George
It is possible to hide or invisible some fields in odoo. Commonly using “invisible” attribute in the field definition to invisible the fields. This slide will show how to make a field invisible in odoo 17.
Honest Reviews of Tim Han LMA Course Program.pptxtimhan337
Personal development courses are widely available today, with each one promising life-changing outcomes. Tim Han’s Life Mastery Achievers (LMA) Course has drawn a lot of interest. In addition to offering my frank assessment of Success Insider’s LMA Course, this piece examines the course’s effects via a variety of Tim Han LMA course reviews and Success Insider comments.
A Strategic Approach: GenAI in EducationPeter Windle
Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies such as Generative AI, Image Generators and Large Language Models have had a dramatic impact on teaching, learning and assessment over the past 18 months. The most immediate threat AI posed was to Academic Integrity with Higher Education Institutes (HEIs) focusing their efforts on combating the use of GenAI in assessment. Guidelines were developed for staff and students, policies put in place too. Innovative educators have forged paths in the use of Generative AI for teaching, learning and assessments leading to pockets of transformation springing up across HEIs, often with little or no top-down guidance, support or direction.
This Gasta posits a strategic approach to integrating AI into HEIs to prepare staff, students and the curriculum for an evolving world and workplace. We will highlight the advantages of working with these technologies beyond the realm of teaching, learning and assessment by considering prompt engineering skills, industry impact, curriculum changes, and the need for staff upskilling. In contrast, not engaging strategically with Generative AI poses risks, including falling behind peers, missed opportunities and failing to ensure our graduates remain employable. The rapid evolution of AI technologies necessitates a proactive and strategic approach if we are to remain relevant.
1. Question 1
1.
Macroeconomics examines:
A.
employment, output, and inflation.
B.
pricing, profit maximization, and utility maximization.
C.
the behavior of individual households, businesses, and
government units.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 2
1.
When economists refer to unemployed resources they mean
unutilized:
A.
land.
B.
labor.
C.
capital.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
2. Question 3
1.
Being unemployed can:
A.
cause a person to alter spending patterns and lifestyle.
B.
affect a person's self-esteem and relationships with others.
C.
cause a person to experience depression and other psychological
or physiological problems.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 4
1.
Unemployment that occurs when people voluntarily quit their
jobs to look for other work, or enter the workforce and are
looking for a job, is called:
A.
structural unemployment.
B.
frictional unemployment.
C.
cyclical unemployment.
D.
systematic unemployment.
1 points
Question 5
3. 1.
Unemployment that is due to a decrease in the demand for
workers with a certain skill because of technological change is:
A.
frictional.
B.
cyclical.
C.
structural.
D.
seasonal.
1 points
Question 6
1.
The labor force includes all persons:
A.
capable of working, regardless of their age.
B.
who are working, regardless of their age.
C.
16 years of age and older who are working.
D.
16 years of age and older who are working or actively seeking
work.
1 points
Question 7
1.
A person who has dropped out of the labor force after a long
4. and unsuccessful search for a job is:
A.
a discouraged worker.
B.
frictionally unemployed.
C.
structurally unemployed.
D.
still included in the unemployment statistics.
1 points
Question 8
1.
The unemployment rate that results when cyclical
unemployment is eliminated is the:
A.
full employment rate.
B.
frictional rate.
C.
natural rate.
D.
voluntary rate.
1 points
Question 9
1.
Inflation refers to:
A.
5. an increase in the general level of prices.
B.
a high price for every good and service.
C.
a high average price for all goods and services.
D.
an increase in the price of every good and service.
1 points
Question 10
1.
Income stated in terms of current dollars is:
A.
money, or nominal, income.
B.
a good measure of purchasing power in a period of severe
inflation.
C.
effective income.
D.
real income.
1 points
Question 11
1.
Potential winners from inflation are always:
A.
savers.
B.
6. lenders.
C.
individuals on fixed incomes.
D.
none of the above.
1 points
Question 12
1.
Demand-pull inflation occurs when:
A.
the supply of money is falling.
B.
taxes are increasing.
C.
the cost of factor inputs is increasing.
D.
the economy is operating at or close to full employment.
1 points
Question 13
1.
Cost-push inflation can result from:
A.
poor productivity.
B.
limited availability of resources.
C.
strong bargaining power of resource owners.
7. D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 14
1.
Price indexes:
A.
were developed to provide jobs for out-of-work statisticians
during the Great Depression.
B.
are used solely by academics to explain abstract theories.
C.
are used by government policymakers, businesses, workers, and
households in their economic decision-making process.
D.
have little real world applicability.
1 points
Question 15
1.
Inflation coming from the buyers' side of the market is:
A.
demand-pull inflation.
B.
caused by too few buyers in the market.
C.
caused by output increasing faster than spending.
D.
8. none of the above.
1 points
Question 16
1.
A business cycle is:
A.
the period of time from the organization of a business until it
ceases operations.
B.
the order and timing of steps that must be completed to produce
a product.
C.
the amount of time required to exhaust an economy's inventory
of goods.
D.
a recurring period of growth and decline in an economy's real
output.
1 points
Question 17
1.
The phase of the business cycle where real GDP, or output,
reaches its maximum is the:
A.
trough.
B.
peak.
C.
expansion.
9. D.
limit.
1 points
Question 18
1.
The phase of the business cycle where real GDP, or output, is
contracting is the:
A.
recovery.
B.
recession.
C.
peak.
D.
trough.
1 points
Question 19
1.
Aggregate, or total, spending is the combined spending for new
goods and services of all:
A.
households, businesses, government units, and foreign buyers.
B.
households and businesses.
C.
households.
D.
households, businesses, and government units.
10. 1 points
Question 20
1.
Over time, the most stable spending in the economy is:
A.
purchases by foreign buyers.
B.
business investment spending.
C.
household personal consumption expenditures.
D.
government purchases of goods and services.
1 points
Question 21
1.
Considering only the household sector, an economy will:
A.
contract as spending from transfers and borrowing, and savings
and taxes increase.
B.
expand as spending from transfers and borrowing, and savings
and taxes increase.
C.
contract as spending from transfers and borrowing increases,
and expand as savings and taxes increase.
D.
expand as spending from transfers and borrowing increases, and
contract as savings and taxes increase.
11. 1 points
Question 22
1.
Spending by businesses on newly produced goods such as
machinery, buildings, and the like, is termed:
A.
a leakage.
B.
business consumption expenditures.
C.
investment spending.
D.
production spending.
1 points
Question 23
1.
A decrease in interest rates would:
A.
have no effect on investment decisions.
B.
make investment projects less attractive.
C.
make more investment projects attractive.
D.
make investment spending as stable as personal consumption
expenditures.
1 points
Question 24
12. 1.
A country's net exports are equal to:
A.
this year's exports minus last year's exports.
B.
exports minus imports.
C.
total production minus imports.
D.
imports minus exports.
1 points
Question 25
1.
If the levels of output, income, and employment have increased,
there has been:
A.
less leaked from the spending stream than has been injected.
B.
nothing leaked from, or injected into, the spending stream.
C.
as much leaked from the spending stream as has been injected.
D.
more leaked from the spending stream than has been injected.
1 points
Question 26
1.
The larger change in total output that results from a change in
nonincome-determined spending is caused by the:
13. A.
multiplier effect.
B.
re-spending effect.
C.
circular-flow effect.
D.
expansion effect.
1 points
Question 27
1.
Fiscal policy involves:
A.
taxes.
B.
transfer payments.
C.
government purchases.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 28
1.
The difference between fiscal and monetary policy is fiscal
policy:
A.
is used to restrain an economy, while monetary policy is used to
14. stimulate an economy.
B.
focuses on government spending and taxing, while monetary
policy focuses on saving and borrowing.
C.
is used to stimulate an economy, while monetary policy is used
to restrain an economy.
D.
focuses on saving and borrowing, while monetary policy
focuses on government spending and taxing.
1 points
Question 29
1.
The primary cause of changes in the level of economic activity
is changes in:
A.
total spending.
B.
imports and exports.
C.
government tax and expenditure policies.
D.
none of the above.
1 points
Question 30
1.
When injections into the spending stream are greater than
leakages, the level of economic activity will:
15. A.
remain unchanged.
B.
increase.
C.
increase and then decrease.
D.
decrease.
1 points
Question 31
1.
A good or service that is provided for all of society, and no one
is excluded from its use, is called:
A.
a public good.
B.
a private good.
C.
an entitlement.
D.
a necessity.
1 points
Question 32
1.
Since 1985, the largest percentage of federal expenditures has
been for:
A.
transfer payments.
16. B.
interest payments.
C.
financial assistance.
D.
purchases of goods and services.
1 points
Question 33
1.
On which of the following has the federal government primarily
relied as a source of revenue since 1985?
A.
Corporations.
B.
State governments.
C.
Households.
D.
Foreign governments.
1 points
Question 34
1.
A personal income tax that takes 5% of incomes under $50,000,
15% of incomes between $50,000 and $100,000, and 25% of
incomes over $100,000 is an example of:
A.
an excise tax.
17. B.
a proportional tax.
C.
a regressive tax.
D.
a progressive tax.
1 points
Question 35
1.
Which of the following is a regressive tax?
A.
The federal individual income tax.
B.
A state tax of 5 percent of earned income.
C.
A local tax of $75.00 per person per year for fire protection.
D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 36
1.
Which of the following is a proportional tax?
A.
A 5 percent sales tax on food.
B.
The federal personal income tax.
C.
18. A 2 percent earnings tax on income.
D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 37
1.
The federal personal income tax is a:
A.
proportional tax.
B.
progressive tax.
C.
regressive tax.
D.
consumption tax.
1 points
Question 38
1.
A tax base is the:
A.
minimum tax an individual must pay.
B.
object on which a tax is levied.
C.
multiplier used to determine the amount of tax due.
D.
minimum tax rate an individual can qualify for.
19. 1 points
Question 39
1.
The change in government payments for unemployment
compensation that occurs as the economy moves into a
recession is an example of:
A.
automatic stabilization.
B.
a tax incentive program.
C.
monetary policy.
D.
discretionary fiscal policy.
1 points
Question 40
1.
When a government's total expenditures equal its total revenues
it is operating with a:
A.
deficit budget.
B.
surplus budget.
C.
balanced budget.
D.
full employment budget.
1 points
20. Question 41
1.
A surplus in the federal budget should cause:
A.
inflation and employment to increase.
B.
no change in economic activity.
C.
an increase in economic activity.
D.
a decrease in economic activity.
1 points
Question 42
1.
Public choice is the study of:
A.
how resources are transformed into outputs.
B.
the economic motives and attitudes of voters and public
officials, and their effects on government decision-making.
C.
public enterprises.
D.
how government activities affect the economy.
1 points
Question 43
1.
When the federal government borrows money:
21. A.
it publicly announces the amount it intends to raise.
B.
it borrows from those lenders that offer funds at the lowest
interest rates.
C.
potential lenders submit applications stating how much they are
willing to lend, and at what rates.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 44
1.
Crowding out occurs when government borrowing reduces:
A.
savings by households and businesses.
B.
borrowing by households and businesses.
C.
income-determined spending by households and businesses.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 45
1.
One of the most significant changes brought about by the Tax
Reform Act of 1986 was to:
22. A.
increase bracket creep.
B.
abolish the corporate income tax.
C.
reduce the number of federal individual income tax brackets and
the maximum tax rate.
D.
require that the federal budget be balanced by 1997.
1 points
Question 46
1.
For something to be considered money it must:
A.
have a high intrinsic value.
B.
have the backing of government.
C.
be generally accepted as a medium of exchange.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 47
1.
If the general level of prices in the U.S. decreased:
A.
money would become more of a medium of exchange.
23. B.
money would become a less effective measure of the value of
goods and services.
C.
the economy would move to a barter system.
D.
the value of money would increase.
1 points
Question 48
1.
The value of money:
A.
decreases with inflation.
B.
increases over time.
C.
increases with inflation.
D.
is constant over time.
1 points
Question 49
1.
The narrowest definition of the U.S. money supply is:
A.
M1.
B.
M3.
24. C.
currency in circulation.
D.
M2.
1 points
Question 50
1.
In the U.S., a penny is token money because the value of the
metal in the penny is:
A.
less than 1 cent.
B.
greater than 1 cent.
C.
equal to 1 cent.
D.
determined by the supply and demand for pennies.
1 points
Question 51
1.
Demand deposits are:
A.
certificates of deposit payable in less than 30 days.
B.
checking account balances.
C.
savings accounts plus credit union share drafts.
25. D.
any type of account or deposit that can be kept at a commercial
bank.
1 points
Question 52
1.
The velocity of money is:
A.
the number of times the money supply is turned over in a year
relative to GDP.
B.
the number of times the money supply is turned over in a year
relative to taxes.
C.
how fast money comes off the printing presses.
D.
the number of times the money supply is used in a year for
household purchases.
1 points
Question 53
1.
The ease of converting an asset to its value in cash or spendable
funds is its:
A.
liquidity.
B.
cash-equivalence.
C.
velocity.
26. D.
conversion factor.
1 points
Question 54
1.
Money is created:
A.
only when the U.S. Treasury prints more money.
B.
when commercial banks and other financial depository
institutions make loans.
C.
when the U.S. gold supply is increased.
D.
only when the U.S. Secretary of the Treasury decides to do so.
1 points
Question 55
1.
Commercial banks:
A.
make loans to businesses and individuals.
B.
provide various services, such as selling traveler's checks.
C.
offer demand deposit and other accounts to businesses and
individuals.
D.
27. all of the above.
1 points
Question 56
1.
Membership in the Federal Reserve is required of:
A.
national banks.
B.
state chartered banks.
C.
all financial depository institutions.
D.
none of the above.
1 points
Question 57
1.
Geographically the Federal Reserve System is made up of:
A.
50 districts - one for each state.
B.
one central bank in Washington, D.C. and 12 branches.
C.
12 districts.
D.
four districts - North, South, East, and West.
1 points
Question 58
1.
28. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal
Reserve Banks?
A.
Examine the operations of commercial banks that are members
of the Federal Reserve System.
B.
Provide the means for putting coins and paper money into or out
of circulation.
C.
Act as fiscal agent for the U.S. government.
D.
Hold demand deposits for, and make loans to, businesses and
households.
1 points
Question 59
1.
The growth of mutual funds has:
A.
caused an outflow of deposits from financial depository
institutions.
B.
prompted some financial depository institutions to offer mutual
fund services of their own.
C.
both of the above.
D.
none of the above.
1 points
29. Question 60
1.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A.
Mutual funds compete with commercial banks and other
financial depository institutions for households' deposits.
B.
A holding company is a corporation that owns controlling
shares of stock in other corporations.
C.
The Economic Stabilization Act was passed to extend the time
limits of the Federal Reserve.
D.
Interstate banking is not allowed in the United States.
1 points
Question 61
1.
The primary determinant of the overall level of economic
activity is:
A.
government regulation.
B.
total spending by households, businesses, government, and
foreign buyers.
C.
consumer confidence.
D.
the size of the money supply.
30. 1 points
Question 62
1.
Given the equation of exchange, MV = PQ, increasing the
money supply when the economy is operating at less than full
employment should primarily increase:
A.
total output.
B.
the price level.
C.
unemployment.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 63
1.
A financial depository institution's reserve account balance plus
vault cash equal its:
A.
in-house reserves.
B.
required reserves.
C.
excess reserves.
D.
actual reserves.
1 points
31. Question 64
1.
Excess reserves are equal to:
A.
required reserves minus vault cash.
B.
required reserves divided by the reserve requirement.
C.
actual reserves minus vault cash.
D.
actual reserves minus required reserves.
1 points
Question 65
1.
A financial depository institution can make new loans up to the
value of its:
A.
deposits.
B.
required reserves.
C.
excess reserves.
D.
actual reserves.
1 points
Question 66
1.
With a reserve requirement of 20 percent, the money multiplier
32. would be:
A.
0.8.
B.
5.
C.
0.2.
D.
20.
1 points
Question 67
1.
If excess reserves in the depository institutions system are
increased by $10 million and the reserve requirement is 10
percent, then the total money supply could increase by up to:
A.
$100 million.
B.
$10 million.
C.
$1 million.
D.
cannot determine with available information.
1 points
Question 68
1.
The interest rate is:
33. A.
the price paid to lenders for making loans.
B.
the price paid by borrowers to borrow money.
C.
calculated as a percentage of the amount borrowed.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 69
1.
Monetary policy involves changing:
A.
tax and expenditures laws to influence economic activity.
B.
banking laws to influence economic activity.
C.
the money supply to influence economic activity.
D.
employment laws to influence economic activity.
1 points
Question 70
1.
Which of the following would coincide with an easy money
policy?
A.
Decreasing the money supply.
34. B.
Decreasing spending.
C.
Increasing excess reserves.
D.
Increasing interest rates.
1 points
Question 71
1.
Which of the following is NOT a tool of monetary policy?
A.
Automatic stabilization.
B.
Open market operations.
C.
Changes in the reserve requirement.
D.
Discount rate changes.
1 points
Question 72
1.
The discount rate is the interest rate charged by:
A.
banks to other banks.
B.
banks to their best customers.
C.
35. the Federal Reserve to financial depository institutions.
D.
none of the above.
1 points
Question 73
1.
Open Market Operations are the buying and selling of:
A.
U.S. government securities by the Treasury.
B.
high-grade corporate securities by the Federal Reserve.
C.
Federal Reserve securities by the Federal Reserve.
D.
U.S. government securities by the Federal Reserve.
1 points
Question 74
1.
Crowding out occurs when borrowing by:
A.
households reduces borrowing by businesses and government.
B.
businesses reduces borrowing by households and government.
C.
government reduces borrowing by households and businesses.
D.
all of the above constitute crowding out.
36. 1 points
Question 75
1.
A financial depository institution's reserve requirement is a
specified percentage of:
A.
required reserves that must be kept as actual reserves.
B.
actual reserves that must be kept at a Federal Reserve bank.
C.
excess reserves that must be backed by required reserves.
D.
deposits that must be kept as actual reserves.
1 points
Question 76
1.
The conclusions and policy implications of an economic model
are influenced by the:
A.
data that are analyzed in the model.
B.
assumptions on which the model is built.
C.
choice of variables described in the model.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 77
37. 1.
The popularly accepted theory prior to the Great Depression
that says the economy will automatically adjust to full
employment is:
A.
classical economics.
B.
mercantilism.
C.
Keynesian economics.
D.
supply-side economics.
1 points
Question 78
1.
Which of the following is an assumption of the classical school?
A.
savings equal investment.
B.
wage and prices are flexible.
C.
supply creates its own demand.
D.
all of the above are assumptions of the classical school.
1 points
Question 79
1.
In Keynesian economics, the key to understanding how total
38. spending can be more or less than current production is the role
played by:
A.
business investment spending.
B.
government transfer payments.
C.
net exports.
D.
business inventories.
1 points
Question 80
1.
The concept of controlling the level of economic activity by
purposefully influencing the size of the spending stream is most
closely associated with:
A.
John Maynard Keynes.
B.
Milton Friedman.
C.
James Mill.
D.
Adam Smith.
1 points
Question 81
1.
Which of the following is NOT an assumption of new classical
39. economics?
A.
an economy operating in the long run at an unemployment rate
that is higher than the natural rate.
B.
a downward sloping aggregate demand curve.
C.
free markets.
D.
flexible wages and prices.
1 points
Question 82
1.
According to new classical economics, the aggregate demand
curve for an economy is downward sloping because of the:
A.
wealth effect.
B.
interest rate effect.
C.
foreign trade effect.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 83
1.
The reasoning behind the new classical argument that the
effects of macroeconomic policies might be distorted by the
40. adjustment of business and household behaviors in anticipation
of policymakers' strategies is based on:
A.
the private sector effect.
B.
rational expectations.
C.
classical economic theory.
D.
the supply-side effect.
1 points
Question 84
1.
The school of thought that holds that, in the macroeconomy,
prices and wages are inflexible, or "sticky," downward is:
A.
classical economics.
B.
new classical economics.
C.
new Keynesian economics.
D.
all of the above.
1 points
Question 85
1.
A typical monetarist would favor:
41. A.
free markets and proper control over the money supply.
B.
regulated markets and detailed control over the money supply.
C.
free markets and no control over the money supply.
D.
regulated markets and no control over the money supply.
1 points
Question 86
1.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the
current state of thinking about the macroeconomy?
A.
No theory of the macroeconomy is necessary because there are
good theories that explain the behavior of businesses and
households, whose actions drive the macroeconomy.
B.
Over time, economists have been unable to develop any theory
that helps us understand the behavior of the macroeconomy.
C.
There is almost complete agreement among economists that the
classical model fully and accurately portrays the
macroeconomy.
D.
There are several theories focusing on different variables that
help us understand the behavior of the macroeconomy.
1 points
Question 87
42. 1.
Classical economics holds that a market economy will tend to
operate at full employment when:
A.
the government runs deficit budgets.
B.
exports are greater than imports.
C.
it is free of government intervention.
D.
the money supply grows at an increasing rate.
1 points
Question 88
1.
Which of the following schools of thought would argue that an
economy could persistently operate well below full
employment?
A.
The classical school.
B.
The new classical school.
C.
The new Keynesian school.
D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 89
1.
43. The Phillips curve that shows a tradeoff between the rate of
unemployment and the rate of inflation is:
A.
downward sloping.
B.
upward sloping.
C.
upward sloping at low rates of unemployment and downward
sloping at high rates of unemployment.
D.
downward sloping at low rates of unemployment and upward
sloping at high rates of unemployment.
1 points
Question 90
1.
Assumptions:
A.
are a key component of a model.
B.
are conditions held to be true in a model.
C.
influence the conclusions derived from the model.
D.
all of the above.