Nepal Pharmacy Council License Exam Model set II (Pharmacist)Nabin Bist
Nepal Pharmacy Council License Exam Model set II (Pharmacist)
Based on Nepal Pharmacy Council License Syllabus
Prepared By Pramila Ghimire & Nabin Bist
Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions with Answer keysBashant Kumar sah
MCQS, most probable questions compiled from the GPAT old exam questions, old council and LokSewa questions, pharmacology, jurisprudence, pharmaceutics, pharmacognosy, chemistry, hospital pharmacy.
Nepal Pharmacy Council License Exam Model set II (Pharmacist)Nabin Bist
Nepal Pharmacy Council License Exam Model set II (Pharmacist)
Based on Nepal Pharmacy Council License Syllabus
Prepared By Pramila Ghimire & Nabin Bist
Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions with Answer keysBashant Kumar sah
MCQS, most probable questions compiled from the GPAT old exam questions, old council and LokSewa questions, pharmacology, jurisprudence, pharmaceutics, pharmacognosy, chemistry, hospital pharmacy.
Very important multiple choice question on Industrial Microbiology
Subscribe this you tube channel for more videos on Microbiology and MCQs
https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCxqXy8R-dkqodPMXnXvE8pQ
Drug Resistant Tuberculosis Management GuidelineNabin Bist
National Guidelines On Drug Resistant Tuberculosis Management.
National TB programme is moving forward with the vision of TB Free Nepal by 2050 in accordance
with the National Health Policy 2014 and under the strategic direction of the worldwide initiative
to end TB – the End TB Strategy.
The goal of National Strategic Plan 2016-21 is to decrease the TB Incidence rate by 20%, from
2015 to 2021 i.e. to identify additional 20,000 new TB cases by next 5 years.
WHO Pharmaceuticals NEWSLETTER, 2019 - No.3
The WHO Pharmaceuticals Newsletter provides you
with the latest information on the safety of medicines
and legal actions taken by regulatory authorities around
the world. It also provides signals based on information
derived from the WHO global database of individual
case safety reports, VigiBase.
This newsletter also includes updates on Smart Safety
Surveillance (3S) activities in India and Thailand.
World Health Organization Model List of Essential Medicines 21st List 2019Nabin Bist
World Health Organization Model List of Essential Medicines 21st List 2019
WHO updates global guidance on medicines and diagnostic tests to address health challenges, prioritize highly effective therapeutics, and improve affordable access
WHO Pharmaceuticals NEWSLETTER , 2019 No.2.
The WHO Pharmaceuticals Newsletter provides you
with the latest information on the safety of medicines
and legal actions taken by regulatory authorities around
the world. It also provides signals based on information
derived from the WHO global database of individual
case safety reports
NEPAL PHARMACY COUNCIL REGULATION, 2059 (2002)Nabin Bist
NEPAL PHARMACY COUNCIL REGULATION, 2059 (2002)
In exercise of power conferred by Section 36 of the Pharmacy Council Act, 2057 (2000), the
Nepal Pharmacy Council has framed the Rules as follows.
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Tom Selleck Health: A Comprehensive Look at the Iconic Actor’s Wellness Journeygreendigital
Tom Selleck, an enduring figure in Hollywood. has captivated audiences for decades with his rugged charm, iconic moustache. and memorable roles in television and film. From his breakout role as Thomas Magnum in Magnum P.I. to his current portrayal of Frank Reagan in Blue Bloods. Selleck's career has spanned over 50 years. But beyond his professional achievements. fans have often been curious about Tom Selleck Health. especially as he has aged in the public eye.
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Introduction
Many have been interested in Tom Selleck health. not only because of his enduring presence on screen but also because of the challenges. and lifestyle choices he has faced and made over the years. This article delves into the various aspects of Tom Selleck health. exploring his fitness regimen, diet, mental health. and the challenges he has encountered as he ages. We'll look at how he maintains his well-being. the health issues he has faced, and his approach to ageing .
Early Life and Career
Childhood and Athletic Beginnings
Tom Selleck was born on January 29, 1945, in Detroit, Michigan, and grew up in Sherman Oaks, California. From an early age, he was involved in sports, particularly basketball. which played a significant role in his physical development. His athletic pursuits continued into college. where he attended the University of Southern California (USC) on a basketball scholarship. This early involvement in sports laid a strong foundation for his physical health and disciplined lifestyle.
Transition to Acting
Selleck's transition from an athlete to an actor came with its physical demands. His first significant role in "Magnum P.I." required him to perform various stunts and maintain a fit appearance. This role, which he played from 1980 to 1988. necessitated a rigorous fitness routine to meet the show's demands. setting the stage for his long-term commitment to health and wellness.
Fitness Regimen
Workout Routine
Tom Selleck health and fitness regimen has evolved. adapting to his changing roles and age. During his "Magnum, P.I." days. Selleck's workouts were intense and focused on building and maintaining muscle mass. His routine included weightlifting, cardiovascular exercises. and specific training for the stunts he performed on the show.
Selleck adjusted his fitness routine as he aged to suit his body's needs. Today, his workouts focus on maintaining flexibility, strength, and cardiovascular health. He incorporates low-impact exercises such as swimming, walking, and light weightlifting. This balanced approach helps him stay fit without putting undue strain on his joints and muscles.
Importance of Flexibility and Mobility
In recent years, Selleck has emphasized the importance of flexibility and mobility in his fitness regimen. Understanding the natural decline in muscle mass and joint flexibility with age. he includes stretching and yoga in his routine. These practices help prevent injuries, improve posture, and maintain mobilit
Title: Sense of Taste
Presenter: Dr. Faiza, Assistant Professor of Physiology
Qualifications:
MBBS (Best Graduate, AIMC Lahore)
FCPS Physiology
ICMT, CHPE, DHPE (STMU)
MPH (GC University, Faisalabad)
MBA (Virtual University of Pakistan)
Learning Objectives:
Describe the structure and function of taste buds.
Describe the relationship between the taste threshold and taste index of common substances.
Explain the chemical basis and signal transduction of taste perception for each type of primary taste sensation.
Recognize different abnormalities of taste perception and their causes.
Key Topics:
Significance of Taste Sensation:
Differentiation between pleasant and harmful food
Influence on behavior
Selection of food based on metabolic needs
Receptors of Taste:
Taste buds on the tongue
Influence of sense of smell, texture of food, and pain stimulation (e.g., by pepper)
Primary and Secondary Taste Sensations:
Primary taste sensations: Sweet, Sour, Salty, Bitter, Umami
Chemical basis and signal transduction mechanisms for each taste
Taste Threshold and Index:
Taste threshold values for Sweet (sucrose), Salty (NaCl), Sour (HCl), and Bitter (Quinine)
Taste index relationship: Inversely proportional to taste threshold
Taste Blindness:
Inability to taste certain substances, particularly thiourea compounds
Example: Phenylthiocarbamide
Structure and Function of Taste Buds:
Composition: Epithelial cells, Sustentacular/Supporting cells, Taste cells, Basal cells
Features: Taste pores, Taste hairs/microvilli, and Taste nerve fibers
Location of Taste Buds:
Found in papillae of the tongue (Fungiform, Circumvallate, Foliate)
Also present on the palate, tonsillar pillars, epiglottis, and proximal esophagus
Mechanism of Taste Stimulation:
Interaction of taste substances with receptors on microvilli
Signal transduction pathways for Umami, Sweet, Bitter, Sour, and Salty tastes
Taste Sensitivity and Adaptation:
Decrease in sensitivity with age
Rapid adaptation of taste sensation
Role of Saliva in Taste:
Dissolution of tastants to reach receptors
Washing away the stimulus
Taste Preferences and Aversions:
Mechanisms behind taste preference and aversion
Influence of receptors and neural pathways
Impact of Sensory Nerve Damage:
Degeneration of taste buds if the sensory nerve fiber is cut
Abnormalities of Taste Detection:
Conditions: Ageusia, Hypogeusia, Dysgeusia (parageusia)
Causes: Nerve damage, neurological disorders, infections, poor oral hygiene, adverse drug effects, deficiencies, aging, tobacco use, altered neurotransmitter levels
Neurotransmitters and Taste Threshold:
Effects of serotonin (5-HT) and norepinephrine (NE) on taste sensitivity
Supertasters:
25% of the population with heightened sensitivity to taste, especially bitterness
Increased number of fungiform papillae
Ethanol (CH3CH2OH), or beverage alcohol, is a two-carbon alcohol
that is rapidly distributed in the body and brain. Ethanol alters many
neurochemical systems and has rewarding and addictive properties. It
is the oldest recreational drug and likely contributes to more morbidity,
mortality, and public health costs than all illicit drugs combined. The
5th edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
(DSM-5) integrates alcohol abuse and alcohol dependence into a single
disorder called alcohol use disorder (AUD), with mild, moderate,
and severe subclassifications (American Psychiatric Association, 2013).
In the DSM-5, all types of substance abuse and dependence have been
combined into a single substance use disorder (SUD) on a continuum
from mild to severe. A diagnosis of AUD requires that at least two of
the 11 DSM-5 behaviors be present within a 12-month period (mild
AUD: 2–3 criteria; moderate AUD: 4–5 criteria; severe AUD: 6–11 criteria).
The four main behavioral effects of AUD are impaired control over
drinking, negative social consequences, risky use, and altered physiological
effects (tolerance, withdrawal). This chapter presents an overview
of the prevalence and harmful consequences of AUD in the U.S.,
the systemic nature of the disease, neurocircuitry and stages of AUD,
comorbidities, fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, genetic risk factors, and
pharmacotherapies for AUD.
The prostate is an exocrine gland of the male mammalian reproductive system
It is a walnut-sized gland that forms part of the male reproductive system and is located in front of the rectum and just below the urinary bladder
Function is to store and secrete a clear, slightly alkaline fluid that constitutes 10-30% of the volume of the seminal fluid that along with the spermatozoa, constitutes semen
A healthy human prostate measures (4cm-vertical, by 3cm-horizontal, 2cm ant-post ).
It surrounds the urethra just below the urinary bladder. It has anterior, median, posterior and two lateral lobes
It’s work is regulated by androgens which are responsible for male sex characteristics
Generalised disease of the prostate due to hormonal derangement which leads to non malignant enlargement of the gland (increase in the number of epithelial cells and stromal tissue)to cause compression of the urethra leading to symptoms (LUTS
TEST BANK for Operations Management, 14th Edition by William J. Stevenson, Ve...kevinkariuki227
TEST BANK for Operations Management, 14th Edition by William J. Stevenson, Verified Chapters 1 - 19, Complete Newest Version.pdf
TEST BANK for Operations Management, 14th Edition by William J. Stevenson, Verified Chapters 1 - 19, Complete Newest Version.pdf
- Video recording of this lecture in English language: https://youtu.be/lK81BzxMqdo
- Video recording of this lecture in Arabic language: https://youtu.be/Ve4P0COk9OI
- Link to download the book free: https://nephrotube.blogspot.com/p/nephrotube-nephrology-books.html
- Link to NephroTube website: www.NephroTube.com
- Link to NephroTube social media accounts: https://nephrotube.blogspot.com/p/join-nephrotube-on-social-media.html
Lung Cancer: Artificial Intelligence, Synergetics, Complex System Analysis, S...Oleg Kshivets
RESULTS: Overall life span (LS) was 2252.1±1742.5 days and cumulative 5-year survival (5YS) reached 73.2%, 10 years – 64.8%, 20 years – 42.5%. 513 LCP lived more than 5 years (LS=3124.6±1525.6 days), 148 LCP – more than 10 years (LS=5054.4±1504.1 days).199 LCP died because of LC (LS=562.7±374.5 days). 5YS of LCP after bi/lobectomies was significantly superior in comparison with LCP after pneumonectomies (78.1% vs.63.7%, P=0.00001 by log-rank test). AT significantly improved 5YS (66.3% vs. 34.8%) (P=0.00000 by log-rank test) only for LCP with N1-2. Cox modeling displayed that 5YS of LCP significantly depended on: phase transition (PT) early-invasive LC in terms of synergetics, PT N0—N12, cell ratio factors (ratio between cancer cells- CC and blood cells subpopulations), G1-3, histology, glucose, AT, blood cell circuit, prothrombin index, heparin tolerance, recalcification time (P=0.000-0.038). Neural networks, genetic algorithm selection and bootstrap simulation revealed relationships between 5YS and PT early-invasive LC (rank=1), PT N0—N12 (rank=2), thrombocytes/CC (3), erythrocytes/CC (4), eosinophils/CC (5), healthy cells/CC (6), lymphocytes/CC (7), segmented neutrophils/CC (8), stick neutrophils/CC (9), monocytes/CC (10); leucocytes/CC (11). Correct prediction of 5YS was 100% by neural networks computing (area under ROC curve=1.0; error=0.0).
CONCLUSIONS: 5YS of LCP after radical procedures significantly depended on: 1) PT early-invasive cancer; 2) PT N0--N12; 3) cell ratio factors; 4) blood cell circuit; 5) biochemical factors; 6) hemostasis system; 7) AT; 8) LC characteristics; 9) LC cell dynamics; 10) surgery type: lobectomy/pneumonectomy; 11) anthropometric data. Optimal diagnosis and treatment strategies for LC are: 1) screening and early detection of LC; 2) availability of experienced thoracic surgeons because of complexity of radical procedures; 3) aggressive en block surgery and adequate lymph node dissection for completeness; 4) precise prediction; 5) adjuvant chemoimmunoradiotherapy for LCP with unfavorable prognosis.
Couples presenting to the infertility clinic- Do they really have infertility...Sujoy Dasgupta
Dr Sujoy Dasgupta presented the study on "Couples presenting to the infertility clinic- Do they really have infertility? – The unexplored stories of non-consummation" in the 13th Congress of the Asia Pacific Initiative on Reproduction (ASPIRE 2024) at Manila on 24 May, 2024.
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE IN HEALTHCARE.pdfAnujkumaranit
Artificial intelligence (AI) refers to the simulation of human intelligence processes by machines, especially computer systems. It encompasses tasks such as learning, reasoning, problem-solving, perception, and language understanding. AI technologies are revolutionizing various fields, from healthcare to finance, by enabling machines to perform tasks that typically require human intelligence.
Report Back from SGO 2024: What’s the Latest in Cervical Cancer?bkling
Are you curious about what’s new in cervical cancer research or unsure what the findings mean? Join Dr. Emily Ko, a gynecologic oncologist at Penn Medicine, to learn about the latest updates from the Society of Gynecologic Oncology (SGO) 2024 Annual Meeting on Women’s Cancer. Dr. Ko will discuss what the research presented at the conference means for you and answer your questions about the new developments.
Title: Sense of Smell
Presenter: Dr. Faiza, Assistant Professor of Physiology
Qualifications:
MBBS (Best Graduate, AIMC Lahore)
FCPS Physiology
ICMT, CHPE, DHPE (STMU)
MPH (GC University, Faisalabad)
MBA (Virtual University of Pakistan)
Learning Objectives:
Describe the primary categories of smells and the concept of odor blindness.
Explain the structure and location of the olfactory membrane and mucosa, including the types and roles of cells involved in olfaction.
Describe the pathway and mechanisms of olfactory signal transmission from the olfactory receptors to the brain.
Illustrate the biochemical cascade triggered by odorant binding to olfactory receptors, including the role of G-proteins and second messengers in generating an action potential.
Identify different types of olfactory disorders such as anosmia, hyposmia, hyperosmia, and dysosmia, including their potential causes.
Key Topics:
Olfactory Genes:
3% of the human genome accounts for olfactory genes.
400 genes for odorant receptors.
Olfactory Membrane:
Located in the superior part of the nasal cavity.
Medially: Folds downward along the superior septum.
Laterally: Folds over the superior turbinate and upper surface of the middle turbinate.
Total surface area: 5-10 square centimeters.
Olfactory Mucosa:
Olfactory Cells: Bipolar nerve cells derived from the CNS (100 million), with 4-25 olfactory cilia per cell.
Sustentacular Cells: Produce mucus and maintain ionic and molecular environment.
Basal Cells: Replace worn-out olfactory cells with an average lifespan of 1-2 months.
Bowman’s Gland: Secretes mucus.
Stimulation of Olfactory Cells:
Odorant dissolves in mucus and attaches to receptors on olfactory cilia.
Involves a cascade effect through G-proteins and second messengers, leading to depolarization and action potential generation in the olfactory nerve.
Quality of a Good Odorant:
Small (3-20 Carbon atoms), volatile, water-soluble, and lipid-soluble.
Facilitated by odorant-binding proteins in mucus.
Membrane Potential and Action Potential:
Resting membrane potential: -55mV.
Action potential frequency in the olfactory nerve increases with odorant strength.
Adaptation Towards the Sense of Smell:
Rapid adaptation within the first second, with further slow adaptation.
Psychological adaptation greater than receptor adaptation, involving feedback inhibition from the central nervous system.
Primary Sensations of Smell:
Camphoraceous, Musky, Floral, Pepperminty, Ethereal, Pungent, Putrid.
Odor Detection Threshold:
Examples: Hydrogen sulfide (0.0005 ppm), Methyl-mercaptan (0.002 ppm).
Some toxic substances are odorless at lethal concentrations.
Characteristics of Smell:
Odor blindness for single substances due to lack of appropriate receptor protein.
Behavioral and emotional influences of smell.
Transmission of Olfactory Signals:
From olfactory cells to glomeruli in the olfactory bulb, involving lateral inhibition.
Primitive, less old, and new olfactory systems with different path
1. NPC Model Set | Pharmacist|
1. The section 24 of drug act 2035 include…..
a. Sending sample of drug for test by inspector
b. Sending sample of drug for test by analyst
c. Sending sample of drug for test by company
d. All of above
2. Preamble of drug act 2035 does not speak on
a. Storage of drug b. Consuption of drug
c. Clinical trial of drug d. Quality of drug
3. Following are the policy strategy of the national drug policy,1995 except;
a. Drug management b. Manpower development
c. National drug industry d. New drug development
4. After expiray of certificate mentioned in section 11 of drug act 2035, it should be renewed
a. Within 35 days of expirary
b. Within 3 months by paying 25% extra fee.
c. Within 15 days of expirary
d. Both a & b
5. When national list of essential drugs formulated in Nepal?
a. 1976 b. 1987
c. 1986 d. 1998
6. Which of the following is not official Pharmacopeia?
a. Indian Pharmacopeia b. Nepalese Pharmacopeia
c. Chinese Pharmacopeia d. Europen Pharmacopeia
7. Narcotic and poisonous drugs to be kept safe, is related to which section of drug standard regulation
a. Section 33 b. Section 26
c. Section 14 d. Section 30
8. Provision of categraziation of drug is related to which section, according to drug standard regulation
a. Section 17 b. Section 10
c. Section 31 d. Section 5
9. Prohibition of adulteration in `Drug Act 2035` is in section
a. 26 b. 29
c. 30 d. 33
10. According to the pharmacy council act, the term of office of the member nomininated to the
pharmacy coumcil
a. 3years b. 4 Years
c. 2 Years d. 5 Years
11. As per WHO following drug combination are considered as rational, except
a. Trimethoprim + Sulphamethoxazole b. Digitalis + Frusemide
c. Lidocaine + Epinephrine d. Neomycin + Bacitracin
12. Medicine are prescribed in the following part of prescription.
a. Transcription d. Subscription
c. Inscription d. Superscription
13. How many Pharmacopia and literatures are recognized in Nepal?
a. 9 b. 10
c. 11 d. 12
14. Which of the following covers the various aspects of quality management system;
a. ISO 9000 b. ISO 14000
c. ISO 17000 d. ISO 20000
Pharma Info Nepal
2. 15. Nepalese national formulary does not contain
a. Preparation b. MOA
c. Price d. Dose
16. According to medicine registration guideline, expiry/shelf life is based on the stability test report
a. One commercial batch b. One R & D batch
c. Three commercial batch d. Three R & D batch
17. Cold temperature means
a. Below 00
C b. 2-80
C
c. -2 – 80
C d. 400
C
18. Which of the following is not related to the important criteria for proper use of drug?
a. Correct dispensing and suitable packing
b. Accurate diagnosis
c. Rational drug prescribing and patient compliance
d. Promotional literance
19. Which organization was established in 1964 A.D
a. Bir Hospital b. Nepal Drug Limited
c. Chemi Drug Industries d. National Medicine Laboratory
20. Certifiacted level in pharmacy course in Nepal was first strated by
a. CTEVT b. Kathmandu Univeristy
c. Purbanchal University d. Tribhwan University
21. Assurance that a mesaurment equipment gives correct result is called?
a. Validation b. Qualification
c. Calibration d. Verification
22. Which of the following is not included in the definition of `Pharmacy profession` in Nepal pharmacy
council act?
a. Hospital Pharmacy b. Community Pharmacy
c. Drug Production d. Quality Control of Drug
23. Which of the following is the method of sterilization of large volume parentrals?
a. Dry Heat b. Moist Heat
c. Gaseous d. Radiation
24. What is the maximum limit of fine and imprisonment for the violation of Nepal Pharmacy Council
Act?
a. Rs 3000 & 3 Months b. Rs 5000 & 6 Months
c. Rs 10000 & 1 Year d. Rs 20000 & 2 Years
25. National List of essential drugs contain;
a. All drugs registered in the country
b. Single-Ingrident drug only
c. Realtively Cheaper drugs only
d. Most needed drugs for majority of population
26. Which of the following is a netural chemical messenger for the adrenergic receptor?
a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin d. Noradrenaline
27. Penicilline on hydrolysis with alkali gives
a. Penicilloic acid b. Penaldic acid
c. Penicillic acid d. Penicillamine
28. What does the symbol P represent in a QSAR equation?
a.pH b. Plasma Concentration
c. Partition Cofficeint d. Prodrug
29. Which of the following is not an endogenous compound?
a. Dopamine b. Endorphins
c. Noradrenaline d. Desipramin
Nabin`s Blog
www.pharmainfonepal.com
3. 30. Which of the following causes fruit ripening?
a. Auxin b. Cytokinin
c. Gibberellins d. Etylene
31. Wagner Reagent contains
a.Iodine + KI water b. KI + bismuth iodide
c. Iodine d. Mercuric chloride + KI in water
32. Latex vessels are present in phloem of which drug?
a. Lobelia b. Datura
c. Sarpagandha d. Gokhru
33. Which of the following alkaloids are liquid and volatile in nature?
a. Nicotine & Coniine b. Morphine & Paparvarine
c. Atropine & Quinine d. None of these
34. One of the following is considered as bioavailibilty enhancer
a. Amla b. Arjuna
c. Piper d. Garlic
35. Total volatile oil content present in fennol is……………..
a. NLT 1.4% b. NLT 2.5%
c. NLT 5.0% d. NLT 6.0%
36. Fiehe`s test is for
a. Artificial invert sugar b. Glycosides
c. Alkaloids d. Tannins
37. Which of the following is pro drug?
a. Sulfasalazine b. Sulindac
c. Aspirin d. Siloxane
38. Select the photosensitive active pharmaceutical
a.Ciprofloxacin b. Nifeedipine
c. Both a & b d. Simvastain
39. Maximum amount of postassium loss is done by
a. Spironolactone b. Acetazolamide
c. Chlorthalidone d. Torasemide
40. Beta Carboline ring system is present in
a. Emetine b. Riboflavine
c. Deserpidine d. d – Tubocurarine
41. A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following properties
undergoes transition on
a. Polarizability b. Dielectric constant
c. Diploe moment d. Refractivity
42. Alkoloids are not precipitiated by
a. Mayer`s Reagent b. Dragendroff Reagent
c. Picric acid d. Millon`s Reagent
43. Anisocytic stomata are present in
a. Senna b. Digitalis
c. Belladonna d. Coca
44. Triterpenoids are active constituents of
a. Jaborandi b. Rhubarb
c. Stramonium d. Brahmi
45. Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure;
a. an endoperoxide b. an exoperoxide
c. an epoxide d. an acid hydrazide
Pharma Info Nepal
4. 46. Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using
a. Sheep blood b. Mice lymph
c. Horse plasma d. Fertile eggs
47. Chemically Nimesulide is
a. Napthayl acetic acid dvt b. Aryl acetic acid dvt
c. Methane sulfonamide dvt d. All
48. Which of the following antiulcer agent obtain from liquorice root?
a. Sucralfate b. Carbinoxolone
c. Misoprostol d. None
49. Triphala churn contain
a. Amla b. Barro
c. Harro d. All
50. Which Nitroimidazole derivative having morpholine moiety?
a. Tinidazole b. Ornidazole
c. Timorazole d. Metronidazole
51. Active form of chlormphenicol is
a. D- Erythro d. D- Thero
c. L- Erythro d. L- Threo
52. Efficiency of HEPA filter to remove particles upto 0.3 micron is
a.99.99 % b. 98.97%
c. 99.89% d. 99.97%
53. In limit test for lead the regent use as per. I.P & B.P is
a. Dithiazone b. Lead sulphide
c. Both d. Lead nitrate
54. Benzofuran ring containing drugs
a. Amiodarone b. Griseofluvin
c. Frusemide d. a & b
55. Stratified cork is characteristic of
a. Ergot b. Senna
c. Cinchona d. Rauwolfia
56. Chemical shift takes place in;
a. NMR b. IR
c. UV d. Mass spectrometary
57. According to USP the pH of water for injection is
a. 5-7 b. 6-7
c. 7 d. 5-8
58. For Adrenaline synthesis the precursor amino acid is
a. Alamine b. Proline
c. Phenylalanine d. Cystine
59. Which of the following gas is present in golay detector?
a. Xenon b. Argon
c. Helium d. Hydrogen
61. Most widely used detector in UV spectrometary is
a. Bolometer b Photomultiplier tube
c. Phoroemissive cell d. Pyroelectric detector
62. Which of the following is an example for atomic spectra;
a. UV spectra b. Colorimetry
c. Flourimetry d. Flame Photometry
63. Flame photometry cannot be used for;
a. Barium b. Calcium
c. Selenium d. Sodium
Pharma Info Nepal
Nabin`s Blog
5. 64. Principle of paper chromatography is
a. Adsorption b. Partition
c. Ion Exchange d. Affinity
65. In gas chromatography sample must be in
a. Solid state b. Gas state
c. Liqiud state d. Crystal
66. Quantitive analysis in GLC is based on
a. Time required for peaks to appear b. Peak Height
c. Peak area d. Both b & c
67. Which of the following has strongest absorbent?
a. Cellulose b. Calcium carbonate
c. Fuller`s Earth d. Silica gel
68. Nitrogen estimation is done by
a. Kjeldahal method b. Gasometry
c. Karl fischer d. None of above
69. Diazotisation titiration is used for the assay of
a. NSAIDs b. Sulpha drugs
c. Steroids d. All of above
70. The end point of complexometric titration is shown by
a. Acid – base indicators b. pM indicators
c. Colorimeter d. pH meter
71. Analytical method validation is mentioned in…………. guideline
a. EMEA b. WHO
c. ICH d. GMP
72. Paracetamol is assyed by
a. Ceric ammonium sulphate b. I2
c. HPLC d. KIO3
73. Which of the following is aprotic solvent?
a. Benzene b. Glacial acetic acid
c. Pyridine d. Ethylenediamine
74. ………………….. is assayed by acid- base back titration.
a. Zic oxide b. Aspirin
c. Lactic acid d. All
75. Purity of water is determined by
a. Conductometer b. HPLC
c. Potentiometer d. UV
76. Which of the following is primarily not a chemical decomposition?
a. Isomerization b. Hydrolysis
c. Oxidation d. Volatilization
77. Which category of drug is evaluated for dissolution?
a. Highly diffusible b. Diffusion
c. Poorly water soluble d. Water soluble
78. How much solvent is required to dissolve a sparingly soluble salt?
a. 10 to 30 parts b. 1 to 10 parts
c. 100 to 150 parts d. 100 to 1000 parts
79. Absolute bioavailability is denoted by
a. [AUC]oral/[AUC] i.v. b. [AUC]test/[AUC]std
c. [AUC]oral.Div/ [AUC]iv. Doral d. AUC]test.Dstd/ [AUC]std. Dtest
Nabin`s Blog
6. 80. The order of dissolution of different dosage forms of drugs is _______.
a. Metastable > stable > amorphous
b. Stable > amorphous > metastable
c. Amorphous > metastable > stable
d. Amorphous > stable > metastable
81. Which of the following polymorphic form of drug has highest solubility of drug?
a. Amorphus b. Metastable
c. Stable d. Hydrated
82. Which one of the following process is responsible for higher half-life of drug?
a. Drug Absorption b. Excretion
c. Metabolism d. Protein binding
83. Very weak bases (pKa = 5.0) nature drug absorbed in which of the following part in our body?
a. Stomach b. Intestine
c. Colon d. Entire length of GIT
84. Aseptic area (sterile area) is
a. Class 100 area b. C;ass 1000 area
c. Class 10 area d. Class 10000 area
85. Which animal is used for pyrogen testing?
a. Rat b. Mice
c. Rabbit d. Guinea pig
86. Which of the following dye is used for the leak test
a. Orange red b. Methylene blue
c. Methylene red d. None of above
87. Water for injection differ from sterile water for injection as it free from
a. CO2 b. Pyrogen
c. Preservatives d. Antioxident
88. Antimicrobial agent used in the ophthalmic solution is
a. Chlorhexidine b. Salicyclic acid
c. Sodium bicarbonate d. PEG 4000
89. Following are the oily solvents used for parentral except;
a. Cotton seed oil b. Sesame oil
c. Ethyl oleate d. Caster oil
90. Superdisinterigants in tablet formulation is
a. Sodium starch glycolate b. Starch
c. PVP d. Mg- aluminium silicate
91. Dose dumping is a problem in the formulation of
a. Compressed tablets b. Suppositries
c. Soft gelatin capsules d. Controlled releases drug products
92. Temperature range for the dissolution test as per IP is
a. 37±1°C b. 37±0.1°C c. 37±2°C d. 37±0.5°C
93. ……………. Is an eteric coating material.
a. HPMC b. CMC c. CAP d. All of above
94. Which sterilization method is used for vitamin B?
a. Autocalving b. Heating
c. Filtration d. All of the above
95. Magnesium state is used as
a. Antioxidant b. Antiadherant
c. Tablet glidant d. Film coating
96. Which of the following test is not official in Indian pharmacopeia?
a. Hardness b. Friability
c. Disintergration d. Content uniformity test
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7. 97. Giudeline on stability testing of drugs are given in
a. ICH b. USFDA
c. Both d. None
98. As per IP, the percentage of sucrose in simple syrup is
a.56% w/w b. 66.67% w/v
c 66.67%w/w d. 85% w/w
99. Separation of tablet into two or more distinct layers is
a. Picking b. Capping
c. Lamination d. Broken
100. Which of the following is a pH-senitive bioerodible polymer?
a. Polymethacrylate b. HPMC
c. NaCMC d. None
101. Drug of choice in treatment of cardiogenic shock is/are
a. Isoproterenol b. Epinephrine
c. Dopamine d. All of above
102. Which of the following receptor shows the slowest response?
a. GPCR b. Ion channel
c. Enzyme linked d. Steroid receptor
103. Which drug may decreases iodide uptake by thyroid?
a. Repaglinide b. Rosiglitazone
c. Glipizide d. Tolbutamide
104. Drug of choice for migraine
a. Flunarazine b. Paracetamol
c. Sumatriptin d. Naproxen
105 . Toxic effect of L-dopa can be reversed by administration of
a.Folic acid b. Vitamin B12
c. Pyrodoxine d. Thiamine
106. Red man syndrome is the side effect of drug
a. Rifampicin b. Tetracycline
c. Vancomycin d. Chlormphenicol
107. Skin discoloration form red brown to black is caused by
a. Dapsone b. Clofazimine
c. Ethambutol d. All of above
108. Optic neuritis is major side effect of drug
a. Rifampicine b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazide d. Pyrazinamide
109. The term bioavailability included in,
a. Pharmacodynamics b. Pharmacokinetics
c. Pharmacoecnomics d. Both a & b
110. Pernicious anemia is due to the defecency of
a. Metformin b. Methylcobalamine
c. Pyrodoxine d. Iron
111. The ratio of trimethoprim & sulphamethoxazole in cotrimoxazole is
a. 1:5 b. 5:1
c. 2:1 d. 5:5
112. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used in the treatement of
a. Malaria b. Urinary Tract infection
c. Gastrointestial tract infection d. Jaundice
113. The antihypertensive agent also used for hair regrowth is
a. Nitroglycerine b. Nitroprusside
c. Minoxidil d. Verapamil
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8. 114. Which one of the following drug is bacteriostatic
a. Ethambutol b. Dapsone
c. Isonizide d. Rifampicine
115. Lactulose is a
a. Purgative agent b. Antidiarrhoeal agent
c. Antispasmodic agent d. Antacid
116. Example of stimulant purgative is
a. Ispaghula husk b. Cisapride
c. Senna d. Lactulose
117. Which of the following drug is used to treat hypertension during pregeancy
a. Hydralazine b. Diazoxide
c. Clonidine d. Minoxidil
118. Apirin should not be used in ---------------
a. Gout b. myocardial infraction
c. Both a & b d. None of the above
119. Crohn`s disease affects ------- parts
a. Gastrointestinal tract b. Kideny
c. Lung d. Heart
120. In lower urinary tract infection which oral antibiotics is not used?
a. Amoxicillin b. Cefalexin
c. Nitrofurantion d. Tetracycline
121. Which sulfonamide is used topically?
a. PABA b. DFA
c. DHFA d. TFA
122. Which one is broad spectrum antihelmenthics
a. Tinidazole b. Albendazole
c. Metronidazole d. Niclosamide
123. Hypnotic used in geriatric patients is
a. Methyl prylone b. Meprobamate
c. Paraaldehyde d. Etomidate
124. Drug which is known to include ‘hirsutism’ as a side effect is;
a. Thallium b. Phenytoin
c. Cephalosporin d. Heparin
125. One of the following is not a example of inhalation anaesthesia
a. Halothane b. Thiopental sodium
c. Isoflurance d. Trichloroethylene
126. Beta oxidation of fatty acids takes place in:-
a. Mitichindria b. Cytoplasma
c. Nucleus d. Chloroplast
127. In size exclusion chromatography the stationary phase used are
a. Alumina b. Dextrose
c. Agarose d. Styrene
128. Which sulfonamide is not used in diuretics?
a. Tolbutamide b. Bumetanide
c. Chlorthalidone d. Furesemide
129. Monthly eye examination is required with following drug treatment?
a. Ethambutol b. Pyrazinamide
c. Ethionamide d. Streptomycin
130. Clavunic acid has beta lactam ring fused with
a. Thienyl system b. Thiadiazole
c. Thiazolidone d. Oxazolidone
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9. 131. Which group of medicines should be priotised for procurement purpose?
a. National Manufacturing Medicine b. Life saving Essential Medicine
c. Cheap Medicine d. Expensive Medicine
132. Pharmacopiea mainly concentrate on
a. Drug Interaction b. Drug use
c. Drug Delivery system d. Drug Standard
133. Which of the following point does not come under the conception of Patient Counselling?
a. Information like how to taje medicine, how to stor medicine properly
b. Information like when to take medicine
c. Information like how to by cheap Medicine
d. Information on side effect, Contraindication
134. Following which method is not appropriate for safe disposal of antineoplastic drugs?
a. Return to donor or manufactures b. Waste encapsulation
c. Pass to sewage drain d. Medium & high temp. incineration
135. A Patient taking pyridium salt should be warned about;
a. Marked drowsiness b. Gastric discomfort
c. Headache d. Discoloration of the urine
136. Hospital formulary provides;
a. General information of drugs that available in the country
b. information for procuring, processing, dispensing and administrateting of drugs in hospital
c. Information of latest adverse drug reaction & regulatory information on drugs
d. None of above
137. For public sector procurement of drugs in logistic management which basis is not appropriate for
drug selection?
a. Quality specification b. Cost effective
c. Nepalese manufactured drugs d. Availability
138. The extent to which an individual patient behavior coincides with the given medical advice is
a. Patient Compliance b. Patient Compliance
c. Non Compliance d. None of abvove
139. Which one is true statement?
a. Greater the number of drug, best the compliances
b. Greater the number of drug, risk of adverse effect
c. Greater the number of drugs, risk of noncompliance
d. Greater the number of drug quick the recovery
140. Prescription for pharmacist is
a. Key document b. Instrument for organizing instruction & counseling
c. Document that has to be recorded d. Compulsory instruction of action
141. One of plasma calcium level regulator hormone is;
a. Corticosteroids b. Prostaglandin
c. Parathromones d.. Estrogen
142. Which one is not aim of standard treatment guideline?
a. Uniformity in practice b. No need of referral
c. Avoid Mistake d. Managing in low cost
143. Which one is NOT medicine distribution system for in-patient?
a. Floor stock system b. Patient Prescription
c. FEFO system d. Unit dose system
144. Mistake at what step in NOT considered medication error
a. Prescribing b. Distribution
c. Dispensing d. Administration
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10. 145. Which one of the following is not the criteria for banning drug?
a. Harmful b. Expensive
c. Irrational combination d. Misuse or abuse of drug
146. Who investigates the cases under Narcotic substance (Control) act?
a. Police b. Drug Inspector
c. Public Prosecutor d. Person nominated by DDA
147. Which is not the function of drug and therapeutic committee?
a. Develop hospital formulary b. Initiate drug use review programme
c. Procure medicine for the hospital d. Advice Pharmacy for drug distribution
148. All of the following points are taken into account when calculating dose for children except;
a. Height b.. Weight
c. Disease Condition d. Body surface area
149. Which is not part of rational drug use?
a. Right does b. Appropriate clinical need
c. Cheap Medicine d. Right duration
150. Which is NOT a step of procurement cycle?
a. Determine quantity needed b. Locate and select suppliers
c. Receive and check drugs d. Dispose expired drugs
Nabin Bist
Pharma Info Nepal
nbnbist@gmail.com