Practice questions for BNS entrance preparation

1. BNS Entrance
Preparation
Nisha Ghimire
Msc Nursing (OBG)

2. All are complications of IUD except
A. Increased vaginal bleeding
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Supression of lactation
Answer- D

3. IUD insertion is not recommended in all
except
A. Immediately after 2nd trimester
B. Nulliparous women
C. Women having multiple delivery
D. 6-8 weeks after delivery
Answer- D

4. Moulding of Grade 3 is-
A. No overlapping of ones
B. Reversible overlapping
C. Fixed overlapping
D. All of the above
Answer- C

5. Absolute contraindication for IUCD insertion
include all of the following except
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
C. Carcinoma cervix
D. Diabetes mellitus
Answer- D

6. Lochia rubra appears for ….. Days
A. 1-4 days
B. 3-6
C. 10-12
D. 14-16
Answer- A

7. Complications of oral contraceptives are all
except-
A. Weight gain
B. Cholestatic jaundice
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes mellitus
Answer- D

8. When the small extra lobe is present at varying
distances from main placenta margin then it is
called as-
A. Succenturiate
B. Bipartile
C. Circumvallate
D. Battledore
Answer- A

9. All are absolute contraindications of oral
contraceptives except-
A. CA breast
B. Liver disease
C. Migraine
D. Cardiac abnormalities
Answer- C

10. All are contraindications to oral pills excepts-
A. Chronic renal disease
B. History of diabetes
C. Age over 40 years
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
Answer- D

11. Increased incidence of ectopic pregnancy is
associated with all except-
A. IUD
B. Combined oral pills
C. Menstrual regulation
D. Safe period method
Answer- B

12. Best hormonal oral contraceptive for breast
feeding woman is-
A. Combined pill
B. Mini pill
C. Triphasic pill
D. Sequential pill
Answer- B

13. All are early complications of abortion except-
A. Sepsis
B. Hemorrhagic shock
C. Thromboembolism
D. Infertility
Answer- D

14. The rise of basal body temperature at the time
of ovulation is due to
A. Oestrogen
B. Progesterone
C. ACTH
D. Thyroxine
Answer- B

15. On examination, fundal height of the mother is
found at the level of umbilicus the expected
weeks of gestation will be-
A. 16 weeks
B. 18 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 24 weeks
Answer- D

16. The most suitable contraceptive method for a
lady with 3 caesarean section is-
A. Barrier method
B. Hormonal
C. Sterilization
D. Combined
Answer- C

17. The true statement for second generation
IUCD is-
A. Oestrogen releasing
B. Progesterone releasing
C. Non medicated
D. Copper releasing
Answer- D

18. Comb’s test is done for the diagnosis of
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Neonatal hypothyroidism
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Rh isoimmunization
Answer- D

19. 2nd stage of labour in primi and multi para is-
A. 2 hour and ½ hour
B. 5 and 2 hour
C. 6 and 3 hour
D. 8 and 4 hour
Answer- A

20. Peurperium is postpartum period upto-
A. 2 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 6 weeks
Answer- D

21. Neonatal period extends up to-
A. One week of life
B. Four week of life
C. Six week of life
D. One year of life
Answer- B

22. All are included in APGAR score except-
A. Heart rate and respiration
B. Muscle tone
C. Time after birth for first cry
D. Response to stimuli
Answer- C

23. Single most important factor determining
survival chances of newborn child is-
A. Low birth weight
B. Birth order
C. Multiple gestation
D. Intrauterine infection
Answer- A

24. The reduction in size of uterus is completed
within-
A. 45 days after delivery
B. 10th to 12th day after delivery
C. 5th day after delivery
D. 6 weeks after delivery
Answer- B

25. Female reproductive structures that produce
eggs and female sex hormones is known as-
A. Uterus
B. Ovaries
C. Cervix
D. Vagina
Answer- B

26. Which male structure makes sperm?
A. Penis
B. Vas deference
C. Epididymis
D. Testes
Answer- D

27. Among the four types of female pelvic, which
one is considered as normal pelvis for delivey?
A. Gynaecoid
B. Android
C. Platypelloid
D. Anthropoid
Answer- A

28. A client in active labour spontaneously ruptures
membranes, the nurse should assess for-
A. Monitor FHR
B. Call the physician
C. Check BP and pulse
D. Time the contraction
Answer- A

29. Causes of uterine prolapse are-
A. Loss of perineal fat
B. Deficiency oestrogen post menopausally
C. Laxity of ligament
D. All of the above
Answer- D

30. Perinatal period is the period from-
A. Birth to 1 year of age
B. Birth to 28 days
C. 8th week to birth
D. 28th week of gestation to 7 day after birth
Answer- D

31. The two most important predisposing causes
of puerperal infection-
A. Hemorrhage and trauma during labour
B. Pre-eclampsia and retention of placenta
C. Malnutrition and anaemia during pregnancy
D. Hemorrhage and anaemia during pregnancy
Answer- A

32. Which of the following indicated MgSO4
toxicity?
A. Urinary output less than 30ml/hr
B. Absent knee jerk
C. Respiratory rate less than 12/min
D. All of the above
Answer- D

33. Antidote for MgSO4 is-
A. Atropine
B. Naloxone
C. Calcium gluconate
D. Protamine sulphate
Answer- C

34. Alcoholism in pregnant women is associated
with-
A. Intrauterine growth retardation
B. Development delay
C. Increased risk of spontaneous abortion
D. All of the above
Answer- D

35. The full term infant are those who born-
A. Before 37th of pregnancy
B. Between 37 to 42 weeks of pregnancy
C. 38 to 40 weeks of pregnancy
D. 40-42 weeks of pregnancy
Answer- B

36. Breast milk is baby’s first immunization. Anti
microbial factor present in breast milk is-
A. Macro phages
B. Secretory IgA
C. Lysozyme
D. All of the above
Answer- D

37. World breast feeding week lies in-
A. January 1-7
B. August 1-7
C. June 10-17
D. December 20-27
Answer- B

38. Engaging diameter in vertex presentation are-
A. Sub-occipito bregmatic and biparietal
B. Sub-occipito bregmatic and bitemporal
C. Submento bregmatic and biparietal
D. Mentovertical and bitemporal
Answer- A

39. High risk pregnancies consists of-
A. Pregnancy above 30 years
B. Pregnancy below 15 years
C. Rh negative mother
D. All of the above
Answer- D

40. Harmful effects of drugs in fetus is referred as-
A. Carcinogenic
B. Teratogenic
C. Lithogenic
D. Oncogenic
Answer- B

41. When administering magnesium sulphate to a
client with pre eclampsia, the nurse understands
that this drug is given to-
A. Prevent seizures
B. Slow the process of labor
C. Reduce blood pressure
D. Increase diuresis
Answer- A

42. The routine postnatal examination of the
mother include vital sign
A. Breast and lochia
B. Breast, uterus and lochia
C. Fundal height and bladder
D. Breast, uterus, bladder, lochial discharge and legs
Answer- D

43. Embryo means …. of intrauterine life
A. 0-2 weeks
B. 2-8 weeks
C. 8 weeks till birth
D. None of the above
Answer- B

44. Contraceptive of choice during first 6 months
following delivery is-
A. Oral contraceptive
B. Conventional
C. DMPA
D. No need because of lactational ammenorrhoea
Answer- D

45. The structure that run between parietal and
frontal bones on either side is called as-
A. Saggital suture
B. Frontal suture
C. Lambdoid suture
D. Coronal suture
Answer- D

46. The nurse is differentiating between cephalohematoma and
caput succedaneum. What adaptation is unique to caput
succedaneum.
A. Scalp over the area is tender
B. Edema crosses the suture line
C. Edema increases during the first day
D. Scalp over the area becomes ecchymosed
Answer- B

47. In dealing with a couple identified as having an
infertility problem, the nurse knows that-
A. Infertility is usually psychologic in origin
B. Infertility and sterility are essentially the same problem
C. The couple has been unable to have a child after trying for a year
D. One partner has a problem that makes that person unable to have children
Answer- C

48. Hormone responsible for ovulation and
development of corpus luteum is:
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Answer- A

49. A client with a diagnosis of ruptured tubal
pregnancy. Her symptoms of pain in the lower
abdomen and vaginal bleeding started at-
A. About the sixth week of pregnancy
B. At the beginning of the last trimester
C. Midway through the second trimester
D. Immediately after implantation occurred
Answer- A

50. Pap smear test is related to:
A. Cervix cancer
B. Blood cancer
C. Skin cancer
D. Lung cancer
Answer- A

51. The developing cells are called fetus from the-
A. Time the fetal heart is heard
B. 8th week to the time of birth
C. Implantation of the fertilized ovum
D. End of the second week to the onset of labour
Answer- B

52. At a prenatal visit at 36 weeks gestation, a client
complains of discomfort with irregularly occurring
contractions. The nurse instructs the client to-
A. Lie down until they stop
B. Walk around until they subside
C. Time the contraction for 30 minutes
D. Take 10 grains of aspirin for the discomfort
Answer- B

53. Low back pain in labour commonly occurs
when the position of fetus is-
A. Breech
B. Transverse
C. Occiput anterior
D. Occiput posterior
Answer- D

54. Fundal height greater than expected, persistence of
lochia rubra, pelvic pain and heaviness fatigue. It is
because of
A. Drugs to induce labor such as oxytocin
B. Subinvolution of the uterus
C. Vaginal laceration
D. PPH
Answer- B

55. All are the conditions for unsatisfactory
progress of labor except-
A. When the combined duration of the first and second stage of labor is more than
18 hours
B. If cervix is not dilated beyond 4 cm after eight hours of regular contractions
C. If cervical dilation to the right of the alert line on the partograph
D. Cervix fully dilated and woman has no urge to push and no descent.
Answer- D

56. All of the following are the complications of
shoulders dystocia except-
A. Post term pregnancy
B. Maternal obesity
C. Abnormal pelvic anatomy
D. Intra uterine growth retardation
Answer- D

57. The structure that bypasses right ventricle is-
A. Ductus venosus
B. Foramen ovale
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Umbilical vein
Answer- B

58. The type of episiotomy which is largely used by
midwife is-
A. Mediolateral
B. Lateral
C. Median
D. J-shaped
Answer- A

59. Closure of foramen ovale after birth is caused
by-
A. Decrease in the aortic blood flow
B. A decrease in pressure in the left atrium
C. An increase in the pulmonary blood flow
D. An increase in the pressure in the right atrium
Answer- C

60. The primary critical observation for APGAR
scoring is the-
A. Heart rate
B. Respiratory rate
C. Presence of meconium
D. Evaluation of moro reflex
Answer- A

61. The expected respiratory rate of a neonate
within 3 minutes after birth may be as high as-
A. 50
B. 60
C. 80
D. 100
Answer- B

62. A nurse in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of
a newborn. After delivery, the nurse prepares to prevent
heat loss in the newborn resulting from evaporation by-
A. Warming the crib pad
B. Closing the doors to the room
C. Drying the infant with a warm blanket
D. Turning on the overhead radiant warmer
Answer- C

63. When palpating a client’s fundus on the second postpartum
day, a nurse identifies that it is above the umbilicus and
displaced to the right. What does the nurse conclude?
A. There is slow rate of involution
B. There are retained placental fragments
C. The bladder has become overdistended
D. The uterine ligaments are overstretched
Answer- C

64. Occipito lateral position is the commonest position
of fetus. The mechanism of labor in such position
after engagement of head is-
A. Descent of presenting part
B. Flexion head and body
C. Internal rotation of head
D. Crowning of head
Answer- A

65. The anterior posterior/ diameter of the birth
and is one of the important measurements of
the pelvis is known as-
A. Conjugate Vera
B. Diagonal conjugate
C. Transverse diameter
D. Transverse conjugate
Answer- B

66. Nurse evaluates that the danger of the seizure
in a women with eclampsia ends-
A. After labour begins
B. After delivery occurs
C. 24 hours postpartum
D. 48 hours postpartum
Answser- C

67. Which of the following is not an associated
change during the antepartum period-
A. Increased urination frequency
B. Increased respiratory requirements
C. Decreased basal metabolic rate
D. Goodell’s sign
Answer- C

68. Abruptio placenta is most likely to occur in a
woman with-
A. Cardiac disease
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. CPD
D. PIH
Answer- D

69. During the period of induction of labor a
client should be observed carefully for sign of-
A. Severe pain
B. Uterine tetany
C. Prolapse of umbilical cord
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer- B

70. When the fetus is dead and retained inside the
uterus for more than 4 weeks, it is called-
A. Septic abortion
B. Complete abortion
C. Inevitable abortion
D. Missed abortion
Answer- D

71. Anterior colporrhaphy is done for repairing
• Cystocele
• Rectocele
• Uterine prolapse
• All of the above
Answer- A

72. Drug commonly used of primary
dysmenorrhea is-
A. Mefenamic acid
B. Probenecid
C. Morphin
D. Paracetamol
Answer- A

73. Best contraceptive prescription for spacing of
birth in a healthy parous woman is-
A. Oral pill
B. IUCD
C. Natural method
D. Norplant
Answer- B

74. The average blood loss during normal delivery
is approximately-
A. 700ml
B. 500ml
C. 250ml
D. 100ml
Answer- B

75. Third degree perineal tear has-
A. Fourchette
B. Vaginal wall
C. Pelvic floor muscle
D. Anal sphinter and anal canal
Answer- D

76. Amniotic fluid is green when there is-
A. Meconium stain
B. RH incompatibility
C. APH
D. All of the above
Answer- A

77. Initial breast feeding is given to the newborn
baby within-
A. One hour after birth
B. Three hours after birth
C. 24 hours after birth
D. 12 hours after birth
Answer- A

78. Relationship of long axis of fetus to long axis
of uterus
A. Lie
B. Denominator
C. Position
D. Attitude
Answer- A

79. Blurred vision, severe headache and high blood
pressure during pregnancy is early sign of-
A. Infection
B. Pre eclampsia
C. Diabetes
D. Puerperal sepsis
Answer- B

80. During the active phase of labor, the effective
dilation of the cervix in primi gravida be at the
rate of-
A. 0.5cm/hour
B. 1cm/hour
C. 1.5cm/hour
D. 2m/hour
Answer- B

81. The physical appearance of amniotic fluid in
normal labor is-
A. Clear and dark amber color
B. Milky, greenish yellow, containing sheds of mucus
C. Clear, almost colourless, containing little white specks
D. Cloudy, greenish, yellow containing little whip specks
Answer- C

82. During second stage p/v examination can
detect
A. Cord prolapsed
B. Congenital anamoly
C. Sex of child
D. Tracheooesophageal fistula
Answer- A

83. Endometriosis is characterized by-
A. Amenorrhoea and insomnia
B. Echymosis and petechial
C. Painful menstruation and backache
D. Early osteoporosis and pelvic inflammation
Answer- C

84. The false pelvis is separated from the true
pelvis by the plane of-
A. Pelvic inlet
B. Greatest diameter
C. Least diameter
D. Pelvic outlet
Answer- A

85. Station of head is measured in respect to-
A. Ischeal tuberosity
B. Ischial spine
C. Pubic ramus
D. Sacral promontory
Answer- B

86. Premature rupture of membranes is rupture of
membrane before-
A. Beyond 28 weeks, before onset of labour
B. Beyond 28 weeks, after onset of labour
C. Before 28 weeks, before onset of labour
D. Before 28 weeks, after onset of labour
Answer- A

87. The nurse is aware that the bleeding following
severe abruption placenta is usually caused by-
A. Polycythemia
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hype globulinemia
D. Hypofibrinogenemia
Answer- D

88. What maternal condition is associated with
abruptio placentae?
A. Cardiac disease
B. Hyper-thyroidism
C. Gestational hypertension
D. Cephalopelvic disproportion
Answer- C

89. When assessing a client for a rectocele, the
nurse remembers that the most common
adaptation is-
A. Crampy abdominal pain
B. Bearing down sensation
C. Urinary stress incontinence
D. Re-current urinary tract infection
Answer- B

90. Fetal macrosomia means fetal weight more
than-
A. 3 kg
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer- B

91. A early manifestation of cancer of the cervix
that should prompt a client to seek medical care
is-
A. Abdominal heaviness
B. Pressure on the bladder
C. Foul smelling discharge
D. Bloody spotting after intercourse
Answer- D

92. A 15 years old client complains of persistent
dysmenorrheal. The nurse should encourage
her to-
A. Maintain daily activities
B. Have a gynecologic examination
C. Eat a nutritious containing iron
D. Practice relaxation of abdominal mustiest
Answer- B

93. Suckling stimulates oxytocin release to contract-
A. Sub involution
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Vaginal laceration
D. Mother’s uterus
Answer- D

94. Under MCH programme, iron and folic acid
tablets to be given daily to months has-
A. 60 mg iron + 500 mg folic acid
B. 120 mg iron + 500 mg folic acid
C. 120 mg iron + 100 mg folic acid
D. 120 mg iron + 100 mg folic acid
Answer- A

95. A newborn has small, whitish, pinpoint spot
over the nose when documenting this
observation, a nurse identifies them as-
A. Milia
B. Lanugo
C. Whiteheads
D. Mongolian spot
Answer- A

96. Iron intake during pregnancy is
A. 1 tablet 60 mg after 1st trimester
B. 2 tablet 60 mg after 1st trimester
C. 1 tablet iron and 2 tablets folic acid
D. 2 tablet iron and 2 tablets folic acid
Answer- A

97. The nurse working on the postpartum unit
should teach clients to ambulate early. This is
done to-
A. Enhance respiration
B. Increase bladder tonicity
C. Strengthen abdominal muscles
D. Promote peripheral vasomotor activity
Answer- D

98. Which breathing technique should the nurse
instruct the client to use as the head of the
fetus is crowning?
A. Shallow
B. Blowing
C. Slow chest
D. Modified paced
Answer- B

99. An extra calories required for latching mother
is-
A. 200 cal/day
B. 300 cal/day
C. 500 cal/day
D. 600 cal/day
Answer- C

100. At 10 hours of age an infant has a large
amount of mucus and becomes cyanotic. What
should the nurse do first?
A. Suction
B. Administer O2
C. Record the incident
D. Insert a nasogastric tube
Answer- A

101. How does the nurse identify true labor as
opposed to false labor?
A. Cervical dilation is progressive
B. If occurs immediately after the membrane ruptures
C. The contraction stop when the clients walks around
D. The client is more comfortable in a side lying position.
Answer- A