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About NDA
National Defence Academy
HIGHLIGHTS
• INTRODUCTION
• ELIGIBILITY
• HOW TO APPLY
• APPLICATION FEE
• EXAM DATE
• EXAM CENTER
• PAPER PATTERN
• SYLLABUS
• SUBJECT WISE ANYLISIS
• ADMIT CARD
• RESULT
• SELECTION PROCEDURE
• NDA BATCH INFORMATION
INTRODUCTION :
NDA (National Defence Academy) is a premier
institute that trains the cadets (candidates) to get
selected for Indian Armed Forces (Indian Army, Indian
Air Force and Indian Navy) as officers. Candidates
may approach the academy by qualifying a national
level entrance examination (NDA 2017) which is
organized by the UPSC (Union Public Service
Commission). The examination is conducted two
times in a year. NDA (I) 2017 will be organized
on 23rd April, 2017 and NDA (II) 2017 will be
organized on 10th September, 2017.
NDA Eligibility Criteria
Citizenship The appearing candidate must be a citizen of India, Nepal or Bhutan. A Tibetan refugee came
India before 01 January, 1962 with mind-set to become a permanent residence of India are also eligible. A
person of Indian origin who has migrated from Burma, SriLanka, Pakistan & East African Countries of Kenya,
Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of
permanently settling in India are also eligible to apply.
Candidates other than the citizen of India and Gorkha subjects of Nepal are required a certificate of eligibility
issued by the Government of India.
Qualification Criteria The minimum qualification required for Indian Army wing, Navy and
Air Force is as follows:
Eligibility for Indian Army: The candidates want to apply for Indian Army must have
completed 12th or its equivalent exam from a well-recognized board. The appearing candidates
can also apply.
Eligibility for Indian Navy and Air Force: Those seeking for Indian Navy and Air
Force must have passed their 12th/appearing from a recognized board or University
with Physics and Mathematics as a compulsory subject.
Note: Students who have debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type
of Commission in the Defence Services are not eligible to apply. Those candidates
have failed INSB/PABT earlier are not eligible for Air Force.
Age Limit, Gender & Marital Status
For NDA (1) 2017: The candidates possessing age between 2nd July, 1998 to 1st
July, 2001 are eligible for the examination. If born before 2nd July, 1998 and after 1st
July, 2001 then not eligible for NDA (1) 2017 exam.
For NDA (2) 2017: Those who have age between 2nd January 1999 to 1st January
2002 are permitted to write the exam. If the candidate bears the age before 2nd
January, 1999 and after 1st January 2002, then he/she is not allowed to appear the
exam.
Only unmarried male candidates are eligible for NDA examination. Girls are not
allowed for the NDA entrance examination.
Note-1: The DOB mentioned in the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination
Certificate available or an equivalent certificate will be considered by the commission.
Note-2: Candidates are informed not to marry until they complete their full training. A
candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application though successful at
this or any subsequent exam will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries
during the training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure
incurred on him by the Government.
Physical Standards
Candidates must be physically and mentally fit as per the physical standards
maintained by the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination
(II), 2017.
The detailed physical standards are mentioned here:
Candidates are required to avoid the following minor defects at the time of
medical examination:
•Wax (Ears).
•Deviated Nasal Septum.
•Hydrocele/Phimosis.
•Overweight/Underweight.
•Under Sized Chest.
•Piles.
•Tonsillitis.
•Gynaecomastia.
•Varicocele
How to apply
The NDA 2017 Application Form can be filled and submitted via
online process through the website.
(https://upsconline.nic.in/upsc/mainmenu2.php)
The application form has been released from 7th June, 2017
(for NDA II).
Candidates are suggested to fill the application form carefully.
No change will be permitted after final submitting the application
form.
Candidates should keep ready the scanned images of
photograph & signature in prescribed size and format before filling
the application form.
Candidates must note down that there is no need to send the
printed application form to the authority.
UPSC Website : - upsc.gov.in
Application Fee
The application fee for general & OBC candidates is 100/-.
SC/ST candidates and wards of JCOs/NCOs/ORs
are exempted from examination fee.
The application fee payment can be done via cash payment in
any branch of SBI Bank or through SBI Bank net banking,
visa/master/debit card.
NDA 2017 Exam Dates
NDA 2017 notification for exam dates and academic calendar has been released by
UPSC. As NDA exam 2017 will be held twice in the year 2017. The authority has been
released the exam dates for both exam session. The exam date is the subject to change
by the conducting body, students are suggested to visit this page regularly for latest
updates.
NDA 2017 Exam Dates are mentioned below:
Events Dates (NDA I) Dates (NDA II)
Notification release 18th January, 2017 7th June 2017
Application form release 18th January, 2017 7th June 2017
Last date to submit the application form 10th February, 2017 30th June 2017
Admit card release one or two weeks before exam one or two weeks before exam
Exam date 23rd April, 2017 10th September 2017
Result declaration May, 2017 October, 2017
NDA 2017 test centresS.No City State/Union Territory
1Agartala Tripura
2Ahmadabad Gujarat
3Aizawl Mizoram
4Allahabad Uttar Pradesh
5Bangalore Karnataka
6Bareilly Uttar Pradesh
7Bhopal Madhya Pradesh
8Chandigarh Chandigarh
9Chennai Tamil Nadu
10Cuttack Odisha
11Dehradun Uttarakhand
12Delhi National Capital Territory of Delhi
13Dharwad Karnataka
14Dispur Assam
15Gangtok Sikkim
16Hyderabad Telangana
17Imphal Manipur
18Itanagar Arunachal Pradesh
19Jaipur Rajashtan
20Jammu Jammu and Kashmir
21Jorhat Assam
22Kochi Kerala
23Kohima Nagaland
24Kolkata West Bengal
25Lucknow Uttar Pradesh
26Madurai Tamil Nadu
27Mumbai Maharashtra
28Nagpur Maharashtra
29Panaji Goa
30Patna Bihar
31Port Blair Andaman and Nicobar Islands
32Raipur Chhattisgarh
33Ranchi Jharkhand
34Sambalpur Odisha
35Shillong Meghalaya
36Shimla Himachal Pradesh
37Srinagar Jammu and Kashmir
38Thiruvananthapuram Kerala
39Tirupati Andhra Pradesh
40Udaipur Rajasthan
41Vishakhapatnam Andhra Pradesh
Paper Pattern
Exam mode – UPSC will be conducting NDA/ NA (II) 2017 in pen paper based
offline mode.
Number of papers – Candidates appearing NDA II 2017 paper will have to answer
questions from two papers– Mathematics and General Ability Test.
Exam duration – The candidates can attempt questions in NDA II exam within a
specified time duration of five hours (two hours and thirty minutes for each paper)
Total marks – According to NDA exam pattern, the question paper of NDA/ NA
(II) 2017 will carry 900 marks in total.
Marking Scheme – UPSC follows a negative marking policy according to the NDA
exam pattern and as many as 0.33 of the total marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty. Moreover, if a candidate reponses with moe than one answer
option, it’ll be treated as wrong answer, even if the other one of the options deem to
be correct and negative marking will be applicable to that question. If any question
is left unanswered, no marks will be awarded or deducted against that question of
NDA exam.
NDA Paper Pattern 2017: Subjects
The UPSC administered NDA examination paper will have questions from two
subjects– Mathematics and General Ability Test.
Mathematics question paper of NDA/ NA (II) 2017 examination will comprise various
sections including Algebra, Matrices, Determinants, Trigonometry, Analytical
Geometry of two and three dimensions, Differential Calculus, Integral Calculus, Vector
Algebra, Statistics and Probability.
The General Ability Test paper will have questions from English, General Knowledge
sections including Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and
Current Events.
NDA 2017 Paper Pattern: Subject-wise distribution of marks
S.No. Subjects Marks
1 Maths 300
2 English 200
3 Physics 100
4 Chemistry 60
5 General Science 40
6 History, Freedom Movement, etc. 80
7 Geography 80
8 Current Events 40
Total 900
The NDA 2017 exam pattern is mentioned below
Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks
Mathematics 1 2 1/2 Hours 300
General Ability Test 2 2 1/2 Hours 600
SSB Test/Interview 900
Total 1800
SYLLABUS
The NDA syllabus has been divided into two
sections Mathematics and General Ability Test.
The General Ability Test section will contain
questions from different topics such as English,
General Knowledge, Physics, Chemistry,
General Science, Geography and Current
Events. For better preparations candidates can
prepare for the exam from the above mentioned
topics.
SUBJECT WISE ANYLISIS & QUESTIONS
• Maths
• Biology
• Physics
• Chemistry
• Social Science
• English
MATHS
ANALYSIS REPORT
&
QUESTIONS
Academic Session 2017-18
NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis
SUBJECT – MATHS
2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I)
No. Of Questions 120 120 120 120 120
Total Marks 300 300 300 300 300
% weightage 33.33% 33.33% 33.33% 33.33% 33.33%
Topics:-
1. Set & Relation 6 3 2 7 6
2. Matrix and Determinate 8 8 6 7 11
3. Quadratic Equation 4 3 4 6 6
4. Sequence & Series 2 4 3 10 5
5. Complex Number 6 3 7 5 6
6. Number system 2 2 1 2 2
7. Binomial Theorem 1 5 0 0 1
8. P & C 1 5 3 2 3
9. Trigonometry & SOT 6 6 10 9 8
10. Height & Distance 2 2 0 1 1
11. Inverse Trigonometry 4 3 3 0 1
12. Straight line 8 5 10 9 9
13. Conic Section 2 3 0 7 3
14. Logarithm 0 1 2 0 0
15. Vector & 3D 15 15 5 11 8
16. Limit / Continuity / Differentiability 5 7 9 4 5
17. Application of derivative 3 4 3 3 4
18. Function 11 13 13 11 11
19. Integration 10 6 7 5 9
20. Circle 3 2 5 0 0
21 . Area under curve 2 1 6 1 0
22. Differential equation 4 5 5 0 0
23. Statictics 6 5 6 8 11
24. Linear Programing 1 0 0 0 0
25. Probabiltiy 8 9 10 12 9
Some previous year questions
BIOLOGY
ANALYSIS REPORT
&
QUESTIONS
Academic Session 2017-18
NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis
SUBJECT – BIOLOGY
2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I)
No. Of Questions 11 9 6 9 8
Total Marks 600 600 600 600 600
% weightage 7.33% 6% 4% 6% 5.33%
Topics:-
1. Difference between the living and
non-lving
- 1 - - -
2. Basis of life-Cell, Protoplasm 1 1 1 1 1
3. Tissue 1 2 - - 1
4. Growth 1 - - -
5. Reproduction in Plants and Animals 2 - 1 - 1
6. Human body and its important
organs
2 2 1 1 2
7. Common diseases 1 2 2 4 2
8. Food and balanced Diet 2 - - - 1
9. Environment - 1 - 2 -
10. Control and coordination 1 - - - -
11. Diversity of the living worlds - - 1 1 -
Q. Within an animal cell, the most
abundant inorganic constituent of
protoplasm is ?
(a) Sodium and Potassium Salt
(b) Water
(c) Iron
(d) Phosphate
Ans. (b) Water
[NDA 2014 (I)]
Some previous year questions
Q. In honey, which of the following sugars
predominate?
(a) Sucrose
(b) Fructose
(c) Galactose
(d) Maltose
Ans. (b) Fructose
[NDA 2014 (I)]
Q. Which of the following cell organelles is
absent in animal cells?
(a) Cell membrane
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Cell wall
(d) Mitochondria
Ans. (c) Cell wall
[NDA 2014 (I)]
Q. Which one among the following is a
plant hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Estrogen
Ans. (c) Gibberellin
[NDA 2014 (II)]
Q. Leprosy is caused by
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Protozoa
(d) Retrovirus
Ans. (b) Bacteria
[NDA 2014 (II)]
Q. Which of the following is not a part
of female reproductive system?
(a) Fallopian Tube
(b) Cervix
(c) Urethra
(d) Vagina
Ans. (c) Urethra
[NDA 2014 (II)]
Q. Which of the following animals is cold-
blooded?
(a) Dolphin
(b) Shark
(c) Whale
(d) Porpoise
Ans. (b) Shark
[NDA 2014 (II)]
Q. The seeds of flowering plants are made
up of
(a) Ovary and ovary wall
(b) Embryo, food reserves and coat
(c) Cotyledon
(d) Zygotes
Ans. (b) Embryo, food reserves and coat
[NDA 2015 (I)]
Q. The seeds of flowering plants are made
up of
(a) Ovary and ovary wall
(b) Embryo, food reserves and coat
(c) Cotyledon
(d) Zygotes
Ans. (b) Embryo, food reserves and coat
[NDA 2015 (I)]
Q. Which one of the following is not a part
of nerves?
(a) Axons
(b) Connective tissues
(c) Schwann cells
(d) Smooth muscles
Ans. (d) Smooth muscles
[NDA 2015 (I)]
Q. Which endocrine gland requires iodine
to synthesise a particular hormone
whose deficiency may cause goitre
disease?
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Pancreas
(c) Thymus
(d) Thyroid gland
Ans. (d) Thyroid gland
[NDA 2015 (I)]
Q. Precursor of which one of the following
vitamins comes from beta-carotene?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K
Ans. (a) Vitamin A
[NDA 2015 (I)]
Q. Muscle fatigue is due to accumulation of
(a) Cholesterol
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Lipoic acid
(d) Triglycerides
Ans. (b) Lactic acid
[NDA 2015 (II)]
Q. Which one of the following is not an
example of eukaryotic organism?
(a) Yeast
(b) Bacteria
(c) Plant
(d) Human Being
Ans. (b) Bacteria
[NDA 2015 (II)]
Q. To prevent heart problems, blood of a
normal healthy person should have
(a) Low cholesterol level
(b) High HDL level
(c) High VLDL level
(d) High LDL level
Ans. Both (a) & (b)
[NDA 2016 (I)]
Q. Which of the following statements are correct?
In honey bees
1. Males are haploid.
2. Workers are sterile and diploid.
3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that feed on royal
jelly.
4. Honey is collected by/made by males.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Ans. (b) 2 and 3 only
[NDA 2016 (I)]
Q. Which of the following statements are correct?
In honey bees
1. Males are haploid.
2. Workers are sterile and diploid.
3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that feed on royal
jelly.
4. Honey is collected by/made by males.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Ans. (c) 1,2 and 3 only
[NDA 2016 (I)]
Q. Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?
1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.
2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins.
3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains
which run anti-parallel.
4. DNA is also found in mitochondria.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
Ans. (B) 3 and 4 only
[NDA 2016 (I)]
Q. Dengue virus causes high fever, rashes
and reduces the number of a particular
type of blood cells. These blood cells are
(a) Monocytes
(b) Platelets
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Neutrophils
Ans. (b) Platelets
[NDA 2017 (I)]
Q. Kidney secretes an enzyme, which
changes plasma protein angiotensinogen
into angiotensin. The enzyme is
(a) Renin
(b) Nitrogenase
(c) Hydrolase
(d) Mono-oxygenase
Ans. (a) Renin
[NDA 2017 (I)]
Q. Sleeping sickness is a parasitic
diseases
of humans and other animals. It is
caused by
(a) Histomonas
(b) Trypanosomas
(c) Angomonae
(d) Naegleria
Ans. (b) Trypanosomas
[NDA 2017 (I)]
PHYSICS
ANALYSIS REPORT
&
QUESTIONS
ACADEMIC SESSION 2017-18
NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis
SUBJECT – PHYSICS
2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I)
No. Of Questions 24 25 23 25 26
Total Marks 600 600 600 600 600
% Weightage 16% 16.67% 15.33% 16.67% 17.33%
Topics -
1. Motion and NLM 2 7 7 5 2
2. Heat 2 3 3 1 3
3. Sound wave 1 1 - 3 1
4. Light 7 3 3 4 6
5. Electricity & Magnetism 5 7 4 4 8
6. Some important devices 1 1 - 3 3
7. Basic 3 2 2 4 2
8. Gravitation & others 3 1 4 1 1
PAPER STRUCTURE
Most important subject in science for NDA is Physics.
It covers almost 45 to 50 % of General Science or
16.67% of Total Paper.
In physics this exam covers almost 7-8 topics.
The questions are very basic and related to simple
knowledge of physics subject.
Now we can divide paper into two parts
Theoretical Questions
Numerical Questions
Some previous year questions
1. An optical illusion which occurs mainly in deserts during hot summer is based on the
principle of
(a) Reflection (b) interference
(c) Dispersion (d) total internal
reflection
Ans. – D.
2. The S.I. unit of acceleration is
(a) ms-1 (b) ms-2 (c) cms-2 (d) kms-2
Ans. – B.
3. A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15
cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be
(a) Real, inverted and magnified (b) real, erect and
magnified
(c) Virtual, erect and reduced (d) virtual, erect and
magnified
Ans. – D.
4. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4 and 8 ohm are connected in parallel. The
equivalent resistance of the system would be
(a) Less than 2 ohm (b) More than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm
(c) 4 ohm (d) 14 ohm
Ans. – A.
5. A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to
2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced
will be
(a) 2000 J (b) 4000 J (c) 8000 J
(d) 10000 J
Ans. – C.
6. The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is
equal to the change in its
(a) Force (b) momentum (c) work done
(d) energy
Ans. – B.
7. The absolute zero, i.e., temperature below which is not achievable, is about.
(A) 0ºC (B) –173 K (C) –273ºC
(D) –300ºC
Ans. - C.
8. A person stands on his two feet over a surface and experiences a pressure P. Now
the person stands on only foot. He would experience a pressure of magnitude.
(A) 4P (B) P
(C) ½P (D) 2 P
Ans. – D.
Answers- 9. A, 10. B, 11. d
12. Along a streamline flow of fluid
(A) The velocity of all fluid particles at a given instant is constant
(B) The speed of a fluid particle remains constant
(C) The velocity of all fluid particles crossing given position is constant
(D) The velocity of a fluid particle remains constant
Ans. - C.
13. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% , its mass remaining the same, ‘g’ would
increase by nearly
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4%
Ans.- B.
14. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements about
the acceleration of the oscillating particle is true?
(A) It is always in the opposite direction to velocity
(B) It is proportional to the frequency of oscillation
(C) It is minimum when the speed is maximum
(D) It decreases as the potential energy increases
Ans. - C
15. Ultrasonic waves of frequency 3 × 105 Hz are passed through a medium where speed of
sound is 10 times that in air (Speed of sound in air is 300 m/s). The wavelength of this wave in
the medium will be of the order of
(A) 1cm (B) 10 cm (C) 100 cm (D) 0.1 cm
Ans. – A.
16. The displacement-time graph of a particle acted upon by a constant force is
(A) A straight line (B) a circle
(C) A parabola (D) any curve depending
upon initial conditions
Ans. – C.
CHEMISTRY
ANALYSIS REPORT
&
QUESTIONS
Academic Session 2017-18
NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis
SUBJECT – CHEMISTRY
2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I)
No. Of Questions 17 15 17 16 17
Total Marks 68 60 68 64 68
% weightage 11.30% 10% 11.30% 10.30% 11.30%
Topics:-
1. properties of air and water 2 3 2 - 3
2. Elements,mixture and compounds,symbols & formula 2 3 4 2 5
3. Acids,bases and salts 1 2 4 2 2
4. Carbon and its different forms 3 1 1 1 2
5.Preparation and properties of H2, O2, N2 and Co2 2 - - - -
6. Oxidation and reduction 1 1 1 1 -
7. Simple chemical equations, law of chemical combinations - - 1 3 2
8. Materials used in the preperation of substances like soap, glass, ink,
paper, cement, paint, safety matchstick and gun powder
6 1 2 3 1
9. Elementary ideas about the structure of atom, atomic, eq. wt.,
mol.wt., Valency - 4 1 4 2
10. Physical and chemical changes - - 1 - -
PAPER STRUCTURE
• Chemistry Part comes in “General Aptitude
Test” which is a 600 MM paper with total
150 Questions.
• Out of 150, 17 or 16 questions comes from
chemistry section.
• Total marks – 600
Chemistry questions marks – 68
Percentage – 11.3%
Que.1 The bond which is present between water
molecule.
a) Electrovalent Bond
b) Covalent Bond
c) Hydrogen Bond
d) Vander Waals Bond (NDA 2015-Sept)
Ans - (c)
Que.2 The principle of cleaning by soap
a) Surface Tension
b) Floatation
c) Viscosity
d) Elasticity (NDA 2015-April)
Ans – (a)
Some previous year questions
Que.3. The absolute zero, i,e, temperature below
which is not achievable, is about
a) 0o C
b) -273 K
c) -273 o C
d) -300 o C (NDA 2015-April)
Ans – (c)
Que.4. The main constituent of vinegar
a) Acetic acid
b) Ascorbic acid
c) Citric acid
d) Tartaric acid (NDA2015-April )
Ans – (a)
Que.5. Temperory hardness in water is due to which
one of the following of Calcium and Magnesium
a) Hydrogencarbonates
b) Carbonates
c) Chlorides
d) Sulphates (NDA 2017-Sept )
Ans- (a)
Que.6.Which of the following element is least reactive
with water
a) Lithium
b) Sodium
c) Pottasium
d) Cesium (NDA 2017-Sept )
Ans – (a)
Que.7. Glasses are
a) Liquid
b) Colloid
c) Non-Crysttaline amorphous solid
d) Crysttaline Solid (NDA 2017-Sept )
Ans – (c)
Que.8. A homogenous mixture contains two
liquids. How are the seperated?
a) By Filtration
b) By Evaporation
c) By Distillation
d) By Condensation (NDA 2017-Sept )
Ans – (c)
Que.9. Match List-1 with List-2
List-1 List-2
(Element) (Highest valency)
A. Sulphur 1. Five
B. Phosphorus 2. Six
C. Lead 3. Two
D. Silver 4. Four
a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (NDA 2016-April)
Ans – (b)
Que.10. Which one of the following statements is
correct
a) Covalent Bonds are directional
b) Ionic bonds are directional
c) Both Covalent and ionic bonds are directional
d) Both Covalent and ionic bonds are non-
directional (NDA 2016-April)
Ans – (a)
Que.11. Which one among the following is used in
making Gun-powder
a) Magnesium sulphate
b) Pottasium Nitrate
c) Sodium Stearate
d) Calcium Sulphate (NDA 2015-Sept )
Ans- (b)
Que.12.An atom of carbon has 6 protons. It’s
mass no is 12. How many neutrons are present
in an atom of Carbon
a) 12
b) 6
c) 10
d) 14 (NDA 2016-Sept )
Ans – (b)
Que.13. Which of the following is a reduction reaction.
a) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
b) S + O2 → SO2
c) 2HgO → 2Hg + O2
d) Mg + S → MgS (NDA 2016-Sept )
Ans - (c)
Que.14. 20 g of common salt is dissolved in 180 g of
water. What is the mass % of the salt in the solution
a) 5%
b) 9%
c) 10%
d) 15% (NDA 2017-Sept )
Ans – (c)
Que.15. Suppose you have 4 test tubes labelled
as A, B, C and D. A contains plain water, B
contains solution of an alkali, C contains solution
of an acid and D contains solution of sodium
chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn
phenophthalene solution pink?
a) Solution A
b) Solution B
c) Solution C
d) Solution D (NDA 2016-Sept )
Ans – (b)
Que.16. Which one of the following has different
number of molecules?(All are kept at NTP)
a) 3 g of Hydrogen
b) 48 g of Oxygen
c) 42 g of Nitrogen
d) 2 g of Carbon (NDA 2016- April )
Ans – (d)
Que.17. Identify the element having zero valency
a) Sulphur
b) Phosphorus
c) Lead
d) Radon (NDA 2016-April )
Ans – (d)
Que.18. Which one of the following species is not
capable of showing disproportionation reaction
a) ClO-
b) ClO2
-
c) ClO3
-
d) ClO4
- (NDA 2016-April)
Ans – (d)
Que.19. Which one of the following elements will not
react with dil. HCl to produce H2
a) Hg
b) Al
c) Mg
d) Fe (NDA 2016- Sept)
Ans – (a)
Que.20. Which one of the following carbon
compounds will not give a sooty flame
a) Benzene
b) Hexane
c) Napthalene
d) Anthracene (NDA 2016- Sept)
Ans.- (b)
SOCIAL SCIENCE
ANALYSIS REPORT
&
QUESTIONS
Academic Session 2017-18
NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis
SUBJECT – Social Science
2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I)
No. Of Questions 50 50 50 50 50
Total Marks 600 600 600 600 600
% weightage 33.30% 33.30% 33.30% 33.30% 33.30%
Topics:-
1. History 11 13 10 13 12
2. Civics 7 8 13 15 3
3. Geography 17 18 20 7 13
4. Economics - 4 2 - 2
5. GK 15 7 5 15 20
Some previous year questions
1. The Nagarjuna-Sagar Project is located on which one of the following rivers ?
(2016-I)
(a)Godavari (b) Krishna (c) kavery (d) Mahanadi
Ans. (b) Krishna
2. Who among the following is/was associated with ‘Maharashtra
Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’?
(2016-I)
(a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt (b) Narendra Dabholkar
(c)G.D. Agrawal (d) Kailash Satyarthi
Ans. (b) Narendra Dabholkar
3. Rain shadow effect is associated with (2015-I)
(a)Cyclonic rainfall (b) Orographic rainfall
(c) Convectional rainfall (d) Frontal rainfall
Ans. (b) Orographic rainfall
4. ‘Yakuts’ are the nomadic herders of
(2015-I)
(a)Gobi (b) Sahara (c) Tundra (d) Kalahari
Ans. (c) Tundra
5. An emergency under Article 352 of the constitution of India can be declared only during :
(2015-II)
(a)War, external aggression or internal disturbance.
(b)War, external aggression or armed rebellion
(c)Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State.
(d)Financial instability in the country.
Ans. (b) war, external aggression or armed rebellion
6. Which of the following statements about the Livestock sector in India is/are correct ?
(2015-II)
(a)Livestock contributed about 25 per cent of gross value added in agriculture
(b)It provides self employment to a large segment of population
(c)Rapid growth of livestock sector can be egalitarian and inclusive
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a)3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C.
7. Who among the following invented the power loom that revolutionized the cotton textile
industry ?
(2016-II)
(a)Edmund Cartwright (b) Samuel Crompton
(c)Richard Arkwright (d) James Hargreaves
Ans. Edmund Cartwright
8. Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised by
(2016-II)
a) Lord Wellesley
b) Lord Dalhousie
c) Lord canning
d) Lord Ripon
Ans. Lord Wellesley
9. The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of Indian Railway is located at
(2017-I)
a) Bhubaneswar
b) Kolkata
c) Hajipur
d) Guwahati
Ans. Kolkata
10. Which one among the following countries is the largest trading partner of India in
external trade for the year 2015-2016?
(2017-I)
a) United states of America
b) United Kingdom
c) United Arab Emirates
d) China
Ans. China
ENGLISH
ANALYSIS REPORT
&
QUESTIONS
Academic Session 2017-18
NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis
SUBJECT – English
2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I)
No. Of Questions 50 50 50
Total Marks 200 200 200
% weight age 33.33% 33.33% 33.33%
1.The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to ….......between them.
2016 (I)
(a) Discriminate (b) discern
(c) distinguish (d) identity
Ans. (c) distinguish
2.I feel .............. for those who are cruel to their children.
2016 (II)
(a) sympathy (b) contempt
(c) admiration (d) caving
Ans. (b) contempt
Some previous year questions
Selecting Words
Selecting Words
3. He ................ to listen to my arguments and walked away.
2017 (I)
(a) denied (b) disliked
(c) prevented (d) refused
Ans. (d) refused
4. The Government is encouraging village upliftment .............. in the
country.
2015 (II)
(a) programme (b) designs
(c) talks (d) propagnada
Ans. (a) programme
Antonyms
5. His timidity proved costly. 2016 (I)
(a) Arrogance (b) boldness
(c) skilfulness (d) cunning
Ans. (b) boldness
6. The culprit was sentenced by the Court. 2016 (II)
(a) Acquitted (b) punished
(c) relieved (d) pardoned
Ans. (a) Acquitted
Synonyms
9. He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza. 2016 (I)
(a) Depressed (b) weakened
(c) worried (d) defeated
Ans. (b) weakened
10. Hospitality is a virtue for which the natives of the East in general are highly
admired. 2016 (II)
(a) Duty of a doctor (b) generosity shown to guests
(c) cleanliness in hospitals (d) kindness
Ans. (b) generosity shown to guests
11. His candid opinions have won him many friends. 2017 (I)
(a) kind (b) courteous
(c) generous (d) frank
Ans. (d) frank
Synonyms
12. He was fired for negligence on duty. 2015 (I)
(a) relieved of his job (b) relieved of his job
(c) rebuked (d) attacked
Ans. (a) relieved of his job
13. He was exhilarated at the outcome of the election results. 2015 (II)
(a) satisfied (b) surprised
(c) disappointed (d) overjoyed
Ans. (d) overjoyed
Sentence Improvement
14. In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I would be
waiting here for an hour.
2016 (I)
(a) Shall be waiting on (b) shall have been waiting
(c) shall wait (d) no improvement
Ans. (b) shall have been waiting
14. If he had listening to me he would not have got lost.
2016 (II)
(a) listened me (b) listened to me
(c) listen me (d) no improvement
Ans. (b) listened to me
Sentence Improvement
15. Last evening I went to the optician and bought spectacles. 2017 (I)
(a) a spectacle (b) two spectacles
(c) a pair of spectacles (d) No improvement
Ans. (c) a pair of spectacles
16. Due to these reasons we are all in favor of universal compulsory education.
2015 (I)
(a) out of these reasons (b) for these reasons
(c) by the reasons (d) No improvement
Ans. (b) for these reasons
17. Until you don’t finish the work, you won’t be given leave. 2015 (II)
(a) until you must finish (b) until finishing
(c) until you finish (d) No improvement
Ans. (c) until you finish
Spotting Errors
19. As I prefer coffee than tea (a) my friends always take the trouble (b) to get me
a cup of coffee whenever I visit them. (c) No error (d) 2016 (II)
Ans. (a) As I prefer coffee than tea
20. Never (a) I have (b) seen such a town. (c) No error (d) 2017 (I)
Ans. (b) I have
21. Having read a number of stories (a) about space travel (b) his dream now is
about to visit the moon. (c) No error (d) 2015 (I)
Ans. (c) his dream now is about to visit the moon.
22. We were able to make it (a) in spite of (b) a bad weather (c). No error (d)
2015 (II)
Ans. (c) a bad weather
Ordering of Words in a Sentence
23. The small boy who broke his leg, (P) fell down (Q) and (R) climbed the
wall (S)
2016 (II)
The proper sequence should be
(a) PSRQ (b) SQRP (c) QSRP (d) SPRQ
Ans. (a) PSRQ
24. They (P) should implant (Q) in the minds of young children (R) sound
principles (S) 2017 (I)
The proper sequence should be
(a) PQRS (b) PQSR (c) RPQS (d) PRQS
Ans. (b) PQSR
NDA 2017 ADMIT CARD
The NDA 2017 Admit Card will be released by the
authority before two or three weeks from the
examination date. Candidates can download the
admit card through the official portal of UPSC. There
is not any other method except online will be
entertained to get the admit card available.
Candidates note down it is mandatory to bring the
admit card at the examination center.
RESULT
The NDA 2017 Result will be provided to students
after one month from the examination. Candidates
can check the result through the official site of
UPSC. Candidates are advised to take printout of
the result and keep it safe till the selection
procedure. NDA 2017 written result and final result
of selected candidates will be declared separately.
Before SSB round, the written result will be
declared. Selected candidates in written
examination will be called for further admission
process.
Selection Procedure (SSB Interview)
Candidate’s selection will be based on the marks scored by the
candidates in the written test and SSB interview. The SSB interview
2017 consist of two stages i.e. stage I and stage II. The stage (I) will
consist of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) and Picture Perception &
Description Test (PP & DT). The stage (II) will comprise of Interview,
Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference.
These test will be organized over 4 or 5 days. Entire process will carry
900 marks.
Course Concept
Vibrant Edge Division announces NDA Batch for
the preparation of NDA (National Defence
Academy).
Target NDA (National Defence Academy)
Eligibility XII Appearing and XII Pass Students
Course Commencement 22nd June’17
Course End 31st August’17
Subject Covered
Mathematics & General Ability (English, General Knowledge, Physics,
Chemistry, General Science, Geography and Current Events)
Timing
Batch-1 10:00 AM to 11:30 AM
Batch-2 4:30 PM to 6:00 PM
Schedule 6 Days a weak
Venue Vibrant Academy , 1-14-(A) Road No-1 IPIA, Kota
Features
Target Oriented Classes.
Classes will be taken by experienced faculties.
Mock Test for academic evaluation.
Doubt Solving facility.
Fees
Rs-10,000/- For Non Vibrant Students
Rs- 4,000/- For Vibrant Students
NDA BATCH INFORMATION
NDA ppt

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NDA ppt

  • 2. HIGHLIGHTS • INTRODUCTION • ELIGIBILITY • HOW TO APPLY • APPLICATION FEE • EXAM DATE • EXAM CENTER • PAPER PATTERN • SYLLABUS • SUBJECT WISE ANYLISIS • ADMIT CARD • RESULT • SELECTION PROCEDURE • NDA BATCH INFORMATION
  • 3. INTRODUCTION : NDA (National Defence Academy) is a premier institute that trains the cadets (candidates) to get selected for Indian Armed Forces (Indian Army, Indian Air Force and Indian Navy) as officers. Candidates may approach the academy by qualifying a national level entrance examination (NDA 2017) which is organized by the UPSC (Union Public Service Commission). The examination is conducted two times in a year. NDA (I) 2017 will be organized on 23rd April, 2017 and NDA (II) 2017 will be organized on 10th September, 2017.
  • 4. NDA Eligibility Criteria Citizenship The appearing candidate must be a citizen of India, Nepal or Bhutan. A Tibetan refugee came India before 01 January, 1962 with mind-set to become a permanent residence of India are also eligible. A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Burma, SriLanka, Pakistan & East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India are also eligible to apply. Candidates other than the citizen of India and Gorkha subjects of Nepal are required a certificate of eligibility issued by the Government of India. Qualification Criteria The minimum qualification required for Indian Army wing, Navy and Air Force is as follows: Eligibility for Indian Army: The candidates want to apply for Indian Army must have completed 12th or its equivalent exam from a well-recognized board. The appearing candidates can also apply. Eligibility for Indian Navy and Air Force: Those seeking for Indian Navy and Air Force must have passed their 12th/appearing from a recognized board or University with Physics and Mathematics as a compulsory subject. Note: Students who have debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of Commission in the Defence Services are not eligible to apply. Those candidates have failed INSB/PABT earlier are not eligible for Air Force.
  • 5. Age Limit, Gender & Marital Status For NDA (1) 2017: The candidates possessing age between 2nd July, 1998 to 1st July, 2001 are eligible for the examination. If born before 2nd July, 1998 and after 1st July, 2001 then not eligible for NDA (1) 2017 exam. For NDA (2) 2017: Those who have age between 2nd January 1999 to 1st January 2002 are permitted to write the exam. If the candidate bears the age before 2nd January, 1999 and after 1st January 2002, then he/she is not allowed to appear the exam. Only unmarried male candidates are eligible for NDA examination. Girls are not allowed for the NDA entrance examination. Note-1: The DOB mentioned in the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate available or an equivalent certificate will be considered by the commission. Note-2: Candidates are informed not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application though successful at this or any subsequent exam will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries during the training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the Government.
  • 6. Physical Standards Candidates must be physically and mentally fit as per the physical standards maintained by the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (II), 2017. The detailed physical standards are mentioned here: Candidates are required to avoid the following minor defects at the time of medical examination: •Wax (Ears). •Deviated Nasal Septum. •Hydrocele/Phimosis. •Overweight/Underweight. •Under Sized Chest. •Piles. •Tonsillitis. •Gynaecomastia. •Varicocele
  • 7. How to apply The NDA 2017 Application Form can be filled and submitted via online process through the website. (https://upsconline.nic.in/upsc/mainmenu2.php) The application form has been released from 7th June, 2017 (for NDA II). Candidates are suggested to fill the application form carefully. No change will be permitted after final submitting the application form. Candidates should keep ready the scanned images of photograph & signature in prescribed size and format before filling the application form. Candidates must note down that there is no need to send the printed application form to the authority.
  • 8. UPSC Website : - upsc.gov.in
  • 9. Application Fee The application fee for general & OBC candidates is 100/-. SC/ST candidates and wards of JCOs/NCOs/ORs are exempted from examination fee. The application fee payment can be done via cash payment in any branch of SBI Bank or through SBI Bank net banking, visa/master/debit card.
  • 10. NDA 2017 Exam Dates NDA 2017 notification for exam dates and academic calendar has been released by UPSC. As NDA exam 2017 will be held twice in the year 2017. The authority has been released the exam dates for both exam session. The exam date is the subject to change by the conducting body, students are suggested to visit this page regularly for latest updates. NDA 2017 Exam Dates are mentioned below: Events Dates (NDA I) Dates (NDA II) Notification release 18th January, 2017 7th June 2017 Application form release 18th January, 2017 7th June 2017 Last date to submit the application form 10th February, 2017 30th June 2017 Admit card release one or two weeks before exam one or two weeks before exam Exam date 23rd April, 2017 10th September 2017 Result declaration May, 2017 October, 2017
  • 11. NDA 2017 test centresS.No City State/Union Territory 1Agartala Tripura 2Ahmadabad Gujarat 3Aizawl Mizoram 4Allahabad Uttar Pradesh 5Bangalore Karnataka 6Bareilly Uttar Pradesh 7Bhopal Madhya Pradesh 8Chandigarh Chandigarh 9Chennai Tamil Nadu 10Cuttack Odisha 11Dehradun Uttarakhand 12Delhi National Capital Territory of Delhi 13Dharwad Karnataka 14Dispur Assam 15Gangtok Sikkim 16Hyderabad Telangana 17Imphal Manipur 18Itanagar Arunachal Pradesh 19Jaipur Rajashtan 20Jammu Jammu and Kashmir 21Jorhat Assam 22Kochi Kerala 23Kohima Nagaland 24Kolkata West Bengal 25Lucknow Uttar Pradesh 26Madurai Tamil Nadu 27Mumbai Maharashtra 28Nagpur Maharashtra 29Panaji Goa 30Patna Bihar 31Port Blair Andaman and Nicobar Islands 32Raipur Chhattisgarh 33Ranchi Jharkhand 34Sambalpur Odisha 35Shillong Meghalaya 36Shimla Himachal Pradesh 37Srinagar Jammu and Kashmir 38Thiruvananthapuram Kerala 39Tirupati Andhra Pradesh 40Udaipur Rajasthan 41Vishakhapatnam Andhra Pradesh
  • 12. Paper Pattern Exam mode – UPSC will be conducting NDA/ NA (II) 2017 in pen paper based offline mode. Number of papers – Candidates appearing NDA II 2017 paper will have to answer questions from two papers– Mathematics and General Ability Test. Exam duration – The candidates can attempt questions in NDA II exam within a specified time duration of five hours (two hours and thirty minutes for each paper) Total marks – According to NDA exam pattern, the question paper of NDA/ NA (II) 2017 will carry 900 marks in total. Marking Scheme – UPSC follows a negative marking policy according to the NDA exam pattern and as many as 0.33 of the total marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. Moreover, if a candidate reponses with moe than one answer option, it’ll be treated as wrong answer, even if the other one of the options deem to be correct and negative marking will be applicable to that question. If any question is left unanswered, no marks will be awarded or deducted against that question of NDA exam.
  • 13. NDA Paper Pattern 2017: Subjects The UPSC administered NDA examination paper will have questions from two subjects– Mathematics and General Ability Test. Mathematics question paper of NDA/ NA (II) 2017 examination will comprise various sections including Algebra, Matrices, Determinants, Trigonometry, Analytical Geometry of two and three dimensions, Differential Calculus, Integral Calculus, Vector Algebra, Statistics and Probability. The General Ability Test paper will have questions from English, General Knowledge sections including Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and Current Events. NDA 2017 Paper Pattern: Subject-wise distribution of marks S.No. Subjects Marks 1 Maths 300 2 English 200 3 Physics 100 4 Chemistry 60 5 General Science 40 6 History, Freedom Movement, etc. 80 7 Geography 80 8 Current Events 40 Total 900
  • 14. The NDA 2017 exam pattern is mentioned below Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks Mathematics 1 2 1/2 Hours 300 General Ability Test 2 2 1/2 Hours 600 SSB Test/Interview 900 Total 1800
  • 15. SYLLABUS The NDA syllabus has been divided into two sections Mathematics and General Ability Test. The General Ability Test section will contain questions from different topics such as English, General Knowledge, Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Geography and Current Events. For better preparations candidates can prepare for the exam from the above mentioned topics.
  • 16. SUBJECT WISE ANYLISIS & QUESTIONS • Maths • Biology • Physics • Chemistry • Social Science • English
  • 18. Academic Session 2017-18 NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis SUBJECT – MATHS 2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I) No. Of Questions 120 120 120 120 120 Total Marks 300 300 300 300 300 % weightage 33.33% 33.33% 33.33% 33.33% 33.33% Topics:- 1. Set & Relation 6 3 2 7 6 2. Matrix and Determinate 8 8 6 7 11 3. Quadratic Equation 4 3 4 6 6 4. Sequence & Series 2 4 3 10 5 5. Complex Number 6 3 7 5 6 6. Number system 2 2 1 2 2 7. Binomial Theorem 1 5 0 0 1 8. P & C 1 5 3 2 3 9. Trigonometry & SOT 6 6 10 9 8 10. Height & Distance 2 2 0 1 1 11. Inverse Trigonometry 4 3 3 0 1 12. Straight line 8 5 10 9 9 13. Conic Section 2 3 0 7 3 14. Logarithm 0 1 2 0 0 15. Vector & 3D 15 15 5 11 8 16. Limit / Continuity / Differentiability 5 7 9 4 5 17. Application of derivative 3 4 3 3 4 18. Function 11 13 13 11 11 19. Integration 10 6 7 5 9 20. Circle 3 2 5 0 0 21 . Area under curve 2 1 6 1 0 22. Differential equation 4 5 5 0 0 23. Statictics 6 5 6 8 11 24. Linear Programing 1 0 0 0 0 25. Probabiltiy 8 9 10 12 9
  • 19. Some previous year questions
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  • 27. Academic Session 2017-18 NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis SUBJECT – BIOLOGY 2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I) No. Of Questions 11 9 6 9 8 Total Marks 600 600 600 600 600 % weightage 7.33% 6% 4% 6% 5.33% Topics:- 1. Difference between the living and non-lving - 1 - - - 2. Basis of life-Cell, Protoplasm 1 1 1 1 1 3. Tissue 1 2 - - 1 4. Growth 1 - - - 5. Reproduction in Plants and Animals 2 - 1 - 1 6. Human body and its important organs 2 2 1 1 2 7. Common diseases 1 2 2 4 2 8. Food and balanced Diet 2 - - - 1 9. Environment - 1 - 2 - 10. Control and coordination 1 - - - - 11. Diversity of the living worlds - - 1 1 -
  • 28. Q. Within an animal cell, the most abundant inorganic constituent of protoplasm is ? (a) Sodium and Potassium Salt (b) Water (c) Iron (d) Phosphate Ans. (b) Water [NDA 2014 (I)] Some previous year questions
  • 29. Q. In honey, which of the following sugars predominate? (a) Sucrose (b) Fructose (c) Galactose (d) Maltose Ans. (b) Fructose [NDA 2014 (I)]
  • 30. Q. Which of the following cell organelles is absent in animal cells? (a) Cell membrane (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) Cell wall (d) Mitochondria Ans. (c) Cell wall [NDA 2014 (I)]
  • 31. Q. Which one among the following is a plant hormone? (a) Insulin (b) Thyroxin (c) Gibberellin (d) Estrogen Ans. (c) Gibberellin [NDA 2014 (II)]
  • 32. Q. Leprosy is caused by (a) Virus (b) Bacteria (c) Protozoa (d) Retrovirus Ans. (b) Bacteria [NDA 2014 (II)]
  • 33. Q. Which of the following is not a part of female reproductive system? (a) Fallopian Tube (b) Cervix (c) Urethra (d) Vagina Ans. (c) Urethra [NDA 2014 (II)]
  • 34. Q. Which of the following animals is cold- blooded? (a) Dolphin (b) Shark (c) Whale (d) Porpoise Ans. (b) Shark [NDA 2014 (II)]
  • 35. Q. The seeds of flowering plants are made up of (a) Ovary and ovary wall (b) Embryo, food reserves and coat (c) Cotyledon (d) Zygotes Ans. (b) Embryo, food reserves and coat [NDA 2015 (I)]
  • 36. Q. The seeds of flowering plants are made up of (a) Ovary and ovary wall (b) Embryo, food reserves and coat (c) Cotyledon (d) Zygotes Ans. (b) Embryo, food reserves and coat [NDA 2015 (I)]
  • 37. Q. Which one of the following is not a part of nerves? (a) Axons (b) Connective tissues (c) Schwann cells (d) Smooth muscles Ans. (d) Smooth muscles [NDA 2015 (I)]
  • 38. Q. Which endocrine gland requires iodine to synthesise a particular hormone whose deficiency may cause goitre disease? (a) Hypothalamus (b) Pancreas (c) Thymus (d) Thyroid gland Ans. (d) Thyroid gland [NDA 2015 (I)]
  • 39. Q. Precursor of which one of the following vitamins comes from beta-carotene? (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K Ans. (a) Vitamin A [NDA 2015 (I)]
  • 40. Q. Muscle fatigue is due to accumulation of (a) Cholesterol (b) Lactic acid (c) Lipoic acid (d) Triglycerides Ans. (b) Lactic acid [NDA 2015 (II)]
  • 41. Q. Which one of the following is not an example of eukaryotic organism? (a) Yeast (b) Bacteria (c) Plant (d) Human Being Ans. (b) Bacteria [NDA 2015 (II)]
  • 42. Q. To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy person should have (a) Low cholesterol level (b) High HDL level (c) High VLDL level (d) High LDL level Ans. Both (a) & (b) [NDA 2016 (I)]
  • 43. Q. Which of the following statements are correct? In honey bees 1. Males are haploid. 2. Workers are sterile and diploid. 3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that feed on royal jelly. 4. Honey is collected by/made by males. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1,2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only Ans. (b) 2 and 3 only [NDA 2016 (I)]
  • 44. Q. Which of the following statements are correct? In honey bees 1. Males are haploid. 2. Workers are sterile and diploid. 3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that feed on royal jelly. 4. Honey is collected by/made by males. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1,2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only Ans. (c) 1,2 and 3 only [NDA 2016 (I)]
  • 45. Q. Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct? 1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms. 2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins. 3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel. 4. DNA is also found in mitochondria. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1,3 and 4 only (d) 4 only Ans. (B) 3 and 4 only [NDA 2016 (I)]
  • 46. Q. Dengue virus causes high fever, rashes and reduces the number of a particular type of blood cells. These blood cells are (a) Monocytes (b) Platelets (c) Eosinophils (d) Neutrophils Ans. (b) Platelets [NDA 2017 (I)]
  • 47. Q. Kidney secretes an enzyme, which changes plasma protein angiotensinogen into angiotensin. The enzyme is (a) Renin (b) Nitrogenase (c) Hydrolase (d) Mono-oxygenase Ans. (a) Renin [NDA 2017 (I)]
  • 48. Q. Sleeping sickness is a parasitic diseases of humans and other animals. It is caused by (a) Histomonas (b) Trypanosomas (c) Angomonae (d) Naegleria Ans. (b) Trypanosomas [NDA 2017 (I)]
  • 50. ACADEMIC SESSION 2017-18 NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis SUBJECT – PHYSICS 2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I) No. Of Questions 24 25 23 25 26 Total Marks 600 600 600 600 600 % Weightage 16% 16.67% 15.33% 16.67% 17.33% Topics - 1. Motion and NLM 2 7 7 5 2 2. Heat 2 3 3 1 3 3. Sound wave 1 1 - 3 1 4. Light 7 3 3 4 6 5. Electricity & Magnetism 5 7 4 4 8 6. Some important devices 1 1 - 3 3 7. Basic 3 2 2 4 2 8. Gravitation & others 3 1 4 1 1
  • 51. PAPER STRUCTURE Most important subject in science for NDA is Physics. It covers almost 45 to 50 % of General Science or 16.67% of Total Paper. In physics this exam covers almost 7-8 topics. The questions are very basic and related to simple knowledge of physics subject. Now we can divide paper into two parts Theoretical Questions Numerical Questions
  • 52. Some previous year questions 1. An optical illusion which occurs mainly in deserts during hot summer is based on the principle of (a) Reflection (b) interference (c) Dispersion (d) total internal reflection Ans. – D. 2. The S.I. unit of acceleration is (a) ms-1 (b) ms-2 (c) cms-2 (d) kms-2 Ans. – B. 3. A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be (a) Real, inverted and magnified (b) real, erect and magnified (c) Virtual, erect and reduced (d) virtual, erect and magnified Ans. – D. 4. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4 and 8 ohm are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the system would be (a) Less than 2 ohm (b) More than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm (c) 4 ohm (d) 14 ohm Ans. – A.
  • 53. 5. A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be (a) 2000 J (b) 4000 J (c) 8000 J (d) 10000 J Ans. – C. 6. The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its (a) Force (b) momentum (c) work done (d) energy Ans. – B. 7. The absolute zero, i.e., temperature below which is not achievable, is about. (A) 0ºC (B) –173 K (C) –273ºC (D) –300ºC Ans. - C. 8. A person stands on his two feet over a surface and experiences a pressure P. Now the person stands on only foot. He would experience a pressure of magnitude. (A) 4P (B) P (C) ½P (D) 2 P Ans. – D.
  • 54. Answers- 9. A, 10. B, 11. d
  • 55. 12. Along a streamline flow of fluid (A) The velocity of all fluid particles at a given instant is constant (B) The speed of a fluid particle remains constant (C) The velocity of all fluid particles crossing given position is constant (D) The velocity of a fluid particle remains constant Ans. - C. 13. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% , its mass remaining the same, ‘g’ would increase by nearly (A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4% Ans.- B. 14. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements about the acceleration of the oscillating particle is true? (A) It is always in the opposite direction to velocity (B) It is proportional to the frequency of oscillation (C) It is minimum when the speed is maximum (D) It decreases as the potential energy increases Ans. - C 15. Ultrasonic waves of frequency 3 × 105 Hz are passed through a medium where speed of sound is 10 times that in air (Speed of sound in air is 300 m/s). The wavelength of this wave in the medium will be of the order of (A) 1cm (B) 10 cm (C) 100 cm (D) 0.1 cm Ans. – A. 16. The displacement-time graph of a particle acted upon by a constant force is (A) A straight line (B) a circle (C) A parabola (D) any curve depending upon initial conditions Ans. – C.
  • 57. Academic Session 2017-18 NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis SUBJECT – CHEMISTRY 2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I) No. Of Questions 17 15 17 16 17 Total Marks 68 60 68 64 68 % weightage 11.30% 10% 11.30% 10.30% 11.30% Topics:- 1. properties of air and water 2 3 2 - 3 2. Elements,mixture and compounds,symbols & formula 2 3 4 2 5 3. Acids,bases and salts 1 2 4 2 2 4. Carbon and its different forms 3 1 1 1 2 5.Preparation and properties of H2, O2, N2 and Co2 2 - - - - 6. Oxidation and reduction 1 1 1 1 - 7. Simple chemical equations, law of chemical combinations - - 1 3 2 8. Materials used in the preperation of substances like soap, glass, ink, paper, cement, paint, safety matchstick and gun powder 6 1 2 3 1 9. Elementary ideas about the structure of atom, atomic, eq. wt., mol.wt., Valency - 4 1 4 2 10. Physical and chemical changes - - 1 - -
  • 58. PAPER STRUCTURE • Chemistry Part comes in “General Aptitude Test” which is a 600 MM paper with total 150 Questions. • Out of 150, 17 or 16 questions comes from chemistry section. • Total marks – 600 Chemistry questions marks – 68 Percentage – 11.3%
  • 59. Que.1 The bond which is present between water molecule. a) Electrovalent Bond b) Covalent Bond c) Hydrogen Bond d) Vander Waals Bond (NDA 2015-Sept) Ans - (c) Que.2 The principle of cleaning by soap a) Surface Tension b) Floatation c) Viscosity d) Elasticity (NDA 2015-April) Ans – (a) Some previous year questions
  • 60. Que.3. The absolute zero, i,e, temperature below which is not achievable, is about a) 0o C b) -273 K c) -273 o C d) -300 o C (NDA 2015-April) Ans – (c) Que.4. The main constituent of vinegar a) Acetic acid b) Ascorbic acid c) Citric acid d) Tartaric acid (NDA2015-April ) Ans – (a)
  • 61. Que.5. Temperory hardness in water is due to which one of the following of Calcium and Magnesium a) Hydrogencarbonates b) Carbonates c) Chlorides d) Sulphates (NDA 2017-Sept ) Ans- (a) Que.6.Which of the following element is least reactive with water a) Lithium b) Sodium c) Pottasium d) Cesium (NDA 2017-Sept ) Ans – (a)
  • 62. Que.7. Glasses are a) Liquid b) Colloid c) Non-Crysttaline amorphous solid d) Crysttaline Solid (NDA 2017-Sept ) Ans – (c) Que.8. A homogenous mixture contains two liquids. How are the seperated? a) By Filtration b) By Evaporation c) By Distillation d) By Condensation (NDA 2017-Sept ) Ans – (c)
  • 63. Que.9. Match List-1 with List-2 List-1 List-2 (Element) (Highest valency) A. Sulphur 1. Five B. Phosphorus 2. Six C. Lead 3. Two D. Silver 4. Four a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (NDA 2016-April) Ans – (b)
  • 64. Que.10. Which one of the following statements is correct a) Covalent Bonds are directional b) Ionic bonds are directional c) Both Covalent and ionic bonds are directional d) Both Covalent and ionic bonds are non- directional (NDA 2016-April) Ans – (a)
  • 65. Que.11. Which one among the following is used in making Gun-powder a) Magnesium sulphate b) Pottasium Nitrate c) Sodium Stearate d) Calcium Sulphate (NDA 2015-Sept ) Ans- (b) Que.12.An atom of carbon has 6 protons. It’s mass no is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of Carbon a) 12 b) 6 c) 10 d) 14 (NDA 2016-Sept ) Ans – (b)
  • 66. Que.13. Which of the following is a reduction reaction. a) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO b) S + O2 → SO2 c) 2HgO → 2Hg + O2 d) Mg + S → MgS (NDA 2016-Sept ) Ans - (c) Que.14. 20 g of common salt is dissolved in 180 g of water. What is the mass % of the salt in the solution a) 5% b) 9% c) 10% d) 15% (NDA 2017-Sept ) Ans – (c)
  • 67. Que.15. Suppose you have 4 test tubes labelled as A, B, C and D. A contains plain water, B contains solution of an alkali, C contains solution of an acid and D contains solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenophthalene solution pink? a) Solution A b) Solution B c) Solution C d) Solution D (NDA 2016-Sept ) Ans – (b)
  • 68. Que.16. Which one of the following has different number of molecules?(All are kept at NTP) a) 3 g of Hydrogen b) 48 g of Oxygen c) 42 g of Nitrogen d) 2 g of Carbon (NDA 2016- April ) Ans – (d) Que.17. Identify the element having zero valency a) Sulphur b) Phosphorus c) Lead d) Radon (NDA 2016-April ) Ans – (d)
  • 69. Que.18. Which one of the following species is not capable of showing disproportionation reaction a) ClO- b) ClO2 - c) ClO3 - d) ClO4 - (NDA 2016-April) Ans – (d) Que.19. Which one of the following elements will not react with dil. HCl to produce H2 a) Hg b) Al c) Mg d) Fe (NDA 2016- Sept) Ans – (a)
  • 70. Que.20. Which one of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame a) Benzene b) Hexane c) Napthalene d) Anthracene (NDA 2016- Sept) Ans.- (b)
  • 72. Academic Session 2017-18 NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis SUBJECT – Social Science 2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I) No. Of Questions 50 50 50 50 50 Total Marks 600 600 600 600 600 % weightage 33.30% 33.30% 33.30% 33.30% 33.30% Topics:- 1. History 11 13 10 13 12 2. Civics 7 8 13 15 3 3. Geography 17 18 20 7 13 4. Economics - 4 2 - 2 5. GK 15 7 5 15 20
  • 73. Some previous year questions 1. The Nagarjuna-Sagar Project is located on which one of the following rivers ? (2016-I) (a)Godavari (b) Krishna (c) kavery (d) Mahanadi Ans. (b) Krishna 2. Who among the following is/was associated with ‘Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’? (2016-I) (a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt (b) Narendra Dabholkar (c)G.D. Agrawal (d) Kailash Satyarthi Ans. (b) Narendra Dabholkar 3. Rain shadow effect is associated with (2015-I) (a)Cyclonic rainfall (b) Orographic rainfall (c) Convectional rainfall (d) Frontal rainfall Ans. (b) Orographic rainfall 4. ‘Yakuts’ are the nomadic herders of (2015-I) (a)Gobi (b) Sahara (c) Tundra (d) Kalahari Ans. (c) Tundra
  • 74. 5. An emergency under Article 352 of the constitution of India can be declared only during : (2015-II) (a)War, external aggression or internal disturbance. (b)War, external aggression or armed rebellion (c)Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State. (d)Financial instability in the country. Ans. (b) war, external aggression or armed rebellion 6. Which of the following statements about the Livestock sector in India is/are correct ? (2015-II) (a)Livestock contributed about 25 per cent of gross value added in agriculture (b)It provides self employment to a large segment of population (c)Rapid growth of livestock sector can be egalitarian and inclusive Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a)3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. C. 7. Who among the following invented the power loom that revolutionized the cotton textile industry ? (2016-II) (a)Edmund Cartwright (b) Samuel Crompton (c)Richard Arkwright (d) James Hargreaves Ans. Edmund Cartwright
  • 75. 8. Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised by (2016-II) a) Lord Wellesley b) Lord Dalhousie c) Lord canning d) Lord Ripon Ans. Lord Wellesley 9. The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of Indian Railway is located at (2017-I) a) Bhubaneswar b) Kolkata c) Hajipur d) Guwahati Ans. Kolkata 10. Which one among the following countries is the largest trading partner of India in external trade for the year 2015-2016? (2017-I) a) United states of America b) United Kingdom c) United Arab Emirates d) China Ans. China
  • 77. Academic Session 2017-18 NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis SUBJECT – English 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I) No. Of Questions 50 50 50 Total Marks 200 200 200 % weight age 33.33% 33.33% 33.33%
  • 78. 1.The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to ….......between them. 2016 (I) (a) Discriminate (b) discern (c) distinguish (d) identity Ans. (c) distinguish 2.I feel .............. for those who are cruel to their children. 2016 (II) (a) sympathy (b) contempt (c) admiration (d) caving Ans. (b) contempt Some previous year questions Selecting Words
  • 79. Selecting Words 3. He ................ to listen to my arguments and walked away. 2017 (I) (a) denied (b) disliked (c) prevented (d) refused Ans. (d) refused 4. The Government is encouraging village upliftment .............. in the country. 2015 (II) (a) programme (b) designs (c) talks (d) propagnada Ans. (a) programme
  • 80. Antonyms 5. His timidity proved costly. 2016 (I) (a) Arrogance (b) boldness (c) skilfulness (d) cunning Ans. (b) boldness 6. The culprit was sentenced by the Court. 2016 (II) (a) Acquitted (b) punished (c) relieved (d) pardoned Ans. (a) Acquitted
  • 81. Synonyms 9. He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza. 2016 (I) (a) Depressed (b) weakened (c) worried (d) defeated Ans. (b) weakened 10. Hospitality is a virtue for which the natives of the East in general are highly admired. 2016 (II) (a) Duty of a doctor (b) generosity shown to guests (c) cleanliness in hospitals (d) kindness Ans. (b) generosity shown to guests 11. His candid opinions have won him many friends. 2017 (I) (a) kind (b) courteous (c) generous (d) frank Ans. (d) frank
  • 82. Synonyms 12. He was fired for negligence on duty. 2015 (I) (a) relieved of his job (b) relieved of his job (c) rebuked (d) attacked Ans. (a) relieved of his job 13. He was exhilarated at the outcome of the election results. 2015 (II) (a) satisfied (b) surprised (c) disappointed (d) overjoyed Ans. (d) overjoyed
  • 83. Sentence Improvement 14. In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I would be waiting here for an hour. 2016 (I) (a) Shall be waiting on (b) shall have been waiting (c) shall wait (d) no improvement Ans. (b) shall have been waiting 14. If he had listening to me he would not have got lost. 2016 (II) (a) listened me (b) listened to me (c) listen me (d) no improvement Ans. (b) listened to me
  • 84. Sentence Improvement 15. Last evening I went to the optician and bought spectacles. 2017 (I) (a) a spectacle (b) two spectacles (c) a pair of spectacles (d) No improvement Ans. (c) a pair of spectacles 16. Due to these reasons we are all in favor of universal compulsory education. 2015 (I) (a) out of these reasons (b) for these reasons (c) by the reasons (d) No improvement Ans. (b) for these reasons 17. Until you don’t finish the work, you won’t be given leave. 2015 (II) (a) until you must finish (b) until finishing (c) until you finish (d) No improvement Ans. (c) until you finish
  • 85. Spotting Errors 19. As I prefer coffee than tea (a) my friends always take the trouble (b) to get me a cup of coffee whenever I visit them. (c) No error (d) 2016 (II) Ans. (a) As I prefer coffee than tea 20. Never (a) I have (b) seen such a town. (c) No error (d) 2017 (I) Ans. (b) I have 21. Having read a number of stories (a) about space travel (b) his dream now is about to visit the moon. (c) No error (d) 2015 (I) Ans. (c) his dream now is about to visit the moon. 22. We were able to make it (a) in spite of (b) a bad weather (c). No error (d) 2015 (II) Ans. (c) a bad weather
  • 86. Ordering of Words in a Sentence 23. The small boy who broke his leg, (P) fell down (Q) and (R) climbed the wall (S) 2016 (II) The proper sequence should be (a) PSRQ (b) SQRP (c) QSRP (d) SPRQ Ans. (a) PSRQ 24. They (P) should implant (Q) in the minds of young children (R) sound principles (S) 2017 (I) The proper sequence should be (a) PQRS (b) PQSR (c) RPQS (d) PRQS Ans. (b) PQSR
  • 87. NDA 2017 ADMIT CARD The NDA 2017 Admit Card will be released by the authority before two or three weeks from the examination date. Candidates can download the admit card through the official portal of UPSC. There is not any other method except online will be entertained to get the admit card available. Candidates note down it is mandatory to bring the admit card at the examination center.
  • 88. RESULT The NDA 2017 Result will be provided to students after one month from the examination. Candidates can check the result through the official site of UPSC. Candidates are advised to take printout of the result and keep it safe till the selection procedure. NDA 2017 written result and final result of selected candidates will be declared separately. Before SSB round, the written result will be declared. Selected candidates in written examination will be called for further admission process.
  • 89. Selection Procedure (SSB Interview) Candidate’s selection will be based on the marks scored by the candidates in the written test and SSB interview. The SSB interview 2017 consist of two stages i.e. stage I and stage II. The stage (I) will consist of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) and Picture Perception & Description Test (PP & DT). The stage (II) will comprise of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These test will be organized over 4 or 5 days. Entire process will carry 900 marks.
  • 90. Course Concept Vibrant Edge Division announces NDA Batch for the preparation of NDA (National Defence Academy). Target NDA (National Defence Academy) Eligibility XII Appearing and XII Pass Students Course Commencement 22nd June’17 Course End 31st August’17 Subject Covered Mathematics & General Ability (English, General Knowledge, Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Geography and Current Events) Timing Batch-1 10:00 AM to 11:30 AM Batch-2 4:30 PM to 6:00 PM Schedule 6 Days a weak Venue Vibrant Academy , 1-14-(A) Road No-1 IPIA, Kota Features Target Oriented Classes. Classes will be taken by experienced faculties. Mock Test for academic evaluation. Doubt Solving facility. Fees Rs-10,000/- For Non Vibrant Students Rs- 4,000/- For Vibrant Students NDA BATCH INFORMATION

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