This document contains a multiple choice quiz on management accounting and business budgeting concepts with answers. It includes 40 questions on topics like the definition of management accounting, tools of management accounting, flexible vs fixed budgets, methods of preparing cash budgets, and classification of cash payments. The questions are from the syllabus of Gondwana University for B.Com II year Management Accounting subject. It also provides the contact information of the professor who created the quiz.
This document contains 60 multiple choice questions related to directors and the board of directors according to the Companies Act. The questions cover topics such as the minimum and maximum number of directors allowed, requirements for independent directors, qualifications and disqualifications of directors, director remuneration, roles and responsibilities of directors, and requirements for board meetings. Sample questions are included to illustrate the types of concepts addressed. The purpose of the document is to provide a question bank related to the secretarial practice syllabus for B.Com students.
This document compares Ind AS 23 and AS 16 on accounting for borrowing costs. Some key differences are that Ind AS 23 requires disclosure of the capitalization rate used for borrowing costs, provides exemptions for certain biological and inventory assets, and defines borrowing costs more broadly. Ind AS 23 also prescribes the effective interest method from Ind AS 39 for calculating interest expense. It provides guidance on qualifying assets, capitalization criteria, suspension and cessation of capitalization, and disclosure requirements for borrowing costs capitalized.
This document contains a mid-term examination question paper for Class VI from Fazia Schools & Colleges. The paper tests students on their knowledge of mathematics, computer science, and English. It includes multiple choice and short answer questions assessing topics like sets, numbers, computers, grammar, and literature comprehension. The exam is divided into three sections and covers areas of the curriculum for these subjects at the sixth grade level.
Company secretarial practice__objectivesSamir Meher
This document contains a compilation of multiple choice questions related to company secretarial practice in India. It covers topics like incorporation of companies, types of companies, share capital, directors, meetings, annual returns, auditors, winding up, and inspection. The questions are followed by explanations of the answers. This is intended as a practice test for the objective portion of the Company Secretary examination.
This document contains questions related to enterprise performance management. It covers five units:
Unit 1 addresses performance management, strategic planning, management and operational control, profit centers, balanced scorecards, and transfer pricing calculations.
Unit 2 covers responsibility accounting, capital budgeting, capital expenditure control, and internal rate of return.
Unit 3 discusses performance evaluation of commercial banks and retail organizations using various parameters.
Unit 4 examines project control processes, performance evaluation of non-profit organizations, and budgeting guidelines for non-profits.
Unit 5 differentiates between financial and internal audits and explains auditing as a performance measurement tool through cost audits and management audits.
1. The document provides the course scheme and examination scheme for Bachelor of Commerce (Three Years UG Course in Faculty of Commerce and Management) at Condawana University, Gadchiroli for Semester IV.
2. It lists the subjects offered in areas like AECC (Foundation Course), SEC, Generic Elective, Core Courses and DSE along with the number of credits and marks allotted for internal and external assessments.
3. The subjects include Marathi/Hindi/Supplementary English, Management Accounting, Secretarial Practice, Compulsory English, Monetary Economics, Corporate Accounting and various specialization subjects from groups like Marketing Management, Human Resource Development, Bank
An audit report for a limited company summarizes the auditor's opinion on the company's financial statements. The opinion will be either unmodified or modified. A modified opinion can be adverse, qualified, or a disclaimer. The report also communicates the auditor's responsibilities, management's responsibilities, and whether the financial statements comply with applicable standards and regulations. Key financial statements like the income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement are audited.
foreign direct investment in india. the beginning, how it started.current status of fdi in india. advantages & disadvantages of fdi.wallmart example. final conclusion
This document contains 60 multiple choice questions related to directors and the board of directors according to the Companies Act. The questions cover topics such as the minimum and maximum number of directors allowed, requirements for independent directors, qualifications and disqualifications of directors, director remuneration, roles and responsibilities of directors, and requirements for board meetings. Sample questions are included to illustrate the types of concepts addressed. The purpose of the document is to provide a question bank related to the secretarial practice syllabus for B.Com students.
This document compares Ind AS 23 and AS 16 on accounting for borrowing costs. Some key differences are that Ind AS 23 requires disclosure of the capitalization rate used for borrowing costs, provides exemptions for certain biological and inventory assets, and defines borrowing costs more broadly. Ind AS 23 also prescribes the effective interest method from Ind AS 39 for calculating interest expense. It provides guidance on qualifying assets, capitalization criteria, suspension and cessation of capitalization, and disclosure requirements for borrowing costs capitalized.
This document contains a mid-term examination question paper for Class VI from Fazia Schools & Colleges. The paper tests students on their knowledge of mathematics, computer science, and English. It includes multiple choice and short answer questions assessing topics like sets, numbers, computers, grammar, and literature comprehension. The exam is divided into three sections and covers areas of the curriculum for these subjects at the sixth grade level.
Company secretarial practice__objectivesSamir Meher
This document contains a compilation of multiple choice questions related to company secretarial practice in India. It covers topics like incorporation of companies, types of companies, share capital, directors, meetings, annual returns, auditors, winding up, and inspection. The questions are followed by explanations of the answers. This is intended as a practice test for the objective portion of the Company Secretary examination.
This document contains questions related to enterprise performance management. It covers five units:
Unit 1 addresses performance management, strategic planning, management and operational control, profit centers, balanced scorecards, and transfer pricing calculations.
Unit 2 covers responsibility accounting, capital budgeting, capital expenditure control, and internal rate of return.
Unit 3 discusses performance evaluation of commercial banks and retail organizations using various parameters.
Unit 4 examines project control processes, performance evaluation of non-profit organizations, and budgeting guidelines for non-profits.
Unit 5 differentiates between financial and internal audits and explains auditing as a performance measurement tool through cost audits and management audits.
1. The document provides the course scheme and examination scheme for Bachelor of Commerce (Three Years UG Course in Faculty of Commerce and Management) at Condawana University, Gadchiroli for Semester IV.
2. It lists the subjects offered in areas like AECC (Foundation Course), SEC, Generic Elective, Core Courses and DSE along with the number of credits and marks allotted for internal and external assessments.
3. The subjects include Marathi/Hindi/Supplementary English, Management Accounting, Secretarial Practice, Compulsory English, Monetary Economics, Corporate Accounting and various specialization subjects from groups like Marketing Management, Human Resource Development, Bank
An audit report for a limited company summarizes the auditor's opinion on the company's financial statements. The opinion will be either unmodified or modified. A modified opinion can be adverse, qualified, or a disclaimer. The report also communicates the auditor's responsibilities, management's responsibilities, and whether the financial statements comply with applicable standards and regulations. Key financial statements like the income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement are audited.
foreign direct investment in india. the beginning, how it started.current status of fdi in india. advantages & disadvantages of fdi.wallmart example. final conclusion
The document contains 10 questions about time and work problems from bank exams. Each question provides information about how long it takes different individuals or groups of individuals to complete a task. The questions then ask how long it would take a single individual or group to complete the task based on the information given. For example, question 1 states that machines A and B together can produce 300,000 meters of cloth in a certain number of hours, and asks how much cloth machine A can produce alone in 10 hours.
Corporate governance involves the relationships between a company's management, board, shareholders, and other stakeholders. It provides the structure for setting objectives, monitoring performance, and accountability. Good corporate governance should incentivize pursuing shareholder interests and efficient use of resources. Key elements include defining relationships through ownership structures and processes, balancing differing interests, and distributing rights and responsibilities to increase long-term shareholder value. Benefits include improved performance, access to capital, lower costs of capital, and reputation. Mechanisms include boards of directors, large shareholders, market forces, and monetary incentives for managers.
Geography of Pakistan MCQs with answers || Pak Studies MCQs || Part 2 || Bhat...Muhammad Naeem
Hello Friends ! Welcome to this platform.
In this video Important and Repeated MCQs of Geography of Pakistan with answers will be shared. This is very useful video for the students and for those who want to increase their knowledge. This video will also be useful for jobs exams preparation like CSS, PMS, PSC, FPSC, PPSC, SPSC, KPSC, BPSC, MCAT, ECAT, GAT and for any other competitive exams.
Geography of Pakistan mcqs,
Pakistan Geography mcqs,
Rivers of Pakistan mcqs,
Rivers of Punjab mcqs,
Rivers of Sindh mcqs,
Rivers of Balochistan mcqs,
Rivers of KPK mcqs,
agencies for policy formulation and implementation for promoting entrepreneur...Megha Roy
This document summarizes several key agencies involved in policy formulation and implementation related to entrepreneurship development and small businesses in India. It describes the District Industries Centre (DIC), which promotes small industries at the district level. It also outlines the Small Industries Service Institutes (SISI) that provide consultancy and training. Additionally, it discusses the National Institute of Entrepreneurship & Small Business Development (NIESBUD), the apex body coordinating entrepreneurship development agencies. The Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India (EDII) and National Entrepreneurship Development Board (NEDB) are also summarized as organizations that promote entrepreneurship and small businesses.
The document discusses the powers and liabilities of boards of directors. It states that every company must have a minimum of 3 directors for public companies and 1 director for one person companies. Directors are responsible for managing company activities and meet at least 4 times per year. Their powers include controlling finances, hiring staff, and making major decisions. However, directors also face liabilities for negligence, fraud, or illegal activities that harm the company or third parties. They can be fined or face imprisonment for violations of company law.
Governmental accounting of bangladesh and accounting practice of divisional c...Sajid Kamal
Prepared by me on 8th semester of BBA based on Governmental Accounting of Bangladesh and Accounting Practice of Divisional Controller of Account Office.
Business and Finance ICAB Chapterwise question analysis (From June 10 to June 16)
Business and Finance ICAB Chapterwise question analysis (From June 10 to June 16)
Business and Finance, ICAB, Chapterwise, question analysis ,(From June 10 to June 16)
Naresh Chandra Committee Report and datapejen64440
The Naresh Chandra Committee was formed by the Department of Company Affairs in August 2002 to examine corporate governance issues in India. It recommended stricter auditor independence standards, including prohibiting auditors from providing non-audit services and financial interests in clients. It also recommended CEO and CFO certification of annual accounts, training for directors, and establishing a corporate serious fraud office. The report built upon recommendations from prior committees on increasing the role of independent directors and changing the composition of audit committees.
The document is the suggested answers for the Certificate Level examination of November-December 2019 published by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of Bangladesh (ICAB).
It contains the suggested answers to questions from 7 subjects - Assurance, Accounting, Business & Finance, Management Information, Principles of Taxation, Business Laws, and IT.
For each subject, it lists the questions asked in the exam and provides the model answers recommended by ICAB. It is intended to help students preparing for the Certificate Level exams understand the key points that examiners are looking for in responses.
This document contains 50 multiple choice questions about emotions, moods, and emotional labor from Chapter 8 of an unknown textbook. The questions cover topics such as the definitions of emotions and moods, universal emotions, how culture and gender influence emotional expression and interpretation, emotional labor, affective events theory, and emotional intelligence. Sample questions test understanding of concepts like the difference between emotions and moods, the influence of stress on mood, surface acting versus deep acting, and the theory that employees' emotions influence job performance and satisfaction.
This document is an examination paper for Class VII students. It contains questions in three sections - Section A with 20 multiple choice questions worth 20 marks to be completed in 30 minutes, Section B with 10 long answer questions worth 40 marks, and Section C with 5 long answer questions worth 40 marks. The paper tests students on their knowledge of mathematics, general science, and computer science. It provides instructions on time limits, answering questions directly on the paper or in a separate book, and the total marks for each section and the exam overall.
- Organizational behavior is a field of study that investigates how individuals, groups, and structure impact behavior in organizations. Its goal is to apply this knowledge to improve organizational effectiveness.
- OB draws from multiple disciplines including psychology, sociology, social psychology, and anthropology. It focuses on individuals, groups, and organizational structure as primary determinants of behavior.
- There are few simple or universal principles that explain all organizational behavior. Contextual factors must be considered to predict human behavior accurately.
This document contains multiple choice and true/false questions about work teams from a chapter on understanding work teams. It covers the following key points:
1. Work teams have become popular because they enable organizations to better utilize employee talents. Teams generally have a positive impact on employee motivation.
2. The main difference between work groups and teams is that teams engage in collaborative work that produces results exceeding individual inputs, while groups primarily share information.
3. Common types of teams discussed include problem-solving teams, self-managed teams, cross-functional teams, and virtual teams. Self-managed teams empower members to make work-related decisions and typically have 10-15 members.
4. Effective teams require skills
The document appears to be a practice exam for an entrance exam for Dashen Bank in Ethiopia. It contains 20 multiple choice questions testing various skills like math, accounting, and English. The math questions cover topics like percentages, interest rates, and ratios. The accounting questions test knowledge of concepts like assets, liabilities, debits, credits, and financial statements. The English questions cover grammar, vocabulary, and language usage. The exam aims to evaluate candidates' readiness for employment at Dashen Bank through assessing their proficiency in key subject areas.
The Board summarizes the key details from the document:
1) Arun Bansal and his wife filed a criminal complaint against Herdillia Unimers Ltd. claiming violation of Section 73 of the Companies Act for delayed refund of their application money for shares/debentures.
2) Herdillia Unimers Ltd. contended that as Bansals were not allotted shares/debentures and had received full refund including interest, no offence was committed.
3) The Rajasthan High Court quashed the criminal proceedings, stating that as Bansals were not shareholders, they were not competent to file a complaint in court against the company.
final paper 2011, final examination 2011, 2011 paper annual , annual paper 2011, fazaia inter college final paper 2011, final paper 2011 class vi, final paper for class vi
This document contains a multiple choice quiz on corporate accounting concepts. It includes 76 questions across topics like types of share capital, issue and redemption of shares and debentures, preparation of balance sheets and profit and loss statements, among others. The questions are single-answer multiple choice questions with explanations for some. The document tests understanding of key financial accounting concepts for corporations.
Dec 2014 ca cpt question paper - vidyasagar instiutepace2race
The document provides information about a CPT June 2014 question paper compiled by Vidya Sagar Institute based on student memories. It notes that the questions and answers may have inaccuracies and the institute is not responsible for mistakes. It provides contact information for the institute for various certification programs. It also advertises a new batch starting in July 2014 for IPCC May 2015 exams with limited seats.
This document provides a summary of 54 questions and answers from the ACC 561 Final Exam. It tests concepts related to performance reports, budgets, management accounting, financial accounting, cost accounting, and budgeting. Sample questions assess understanding of key terms like break-even analysis, activity-based costing, forecasting, and components of master budgets. The document aims to help students prepare for the ACC 561 exam by reviewing important accounting concepts and principles.
The document contains 10 questions about time and work problems from bank exams. Each question provides information about how long it takes different individuals or groups of individuals to complete a task. The questions then ask how long it would take a single individual or group to complete the task based on the information given. For example, question 1 states that machines A and B together can produce 300,000 meters of cloth in a certain number of hours, and asks how much cloth machine A can produce alone in 10 hours.
Corporate governance involves the relationships between a company's management, board, shareholders, and other stakeholders. It provides the structure for setting objectives, monitoring performance, and accountability. Good corporate governance should incentivize pursuing shareholder interests and efficient use of resources. Key elements include defining relationships through ownership structures and processes, balancing differing interests, and distributing rights and responsibilities to increase long-term shareholder value. Benefits include improved performance, access to capital, lower costs of capital, and reputation. Mechanisms include boards of directors, large shareholders, market forces, and monetary incentives for managers.
Geography of Pakistan MCQs with answers || Pak Studies MCQs || Part 2 || Bhat...Muhammad Naeem
Hello Friends ! Welcome to this platform.
In this video Important and Repeated MCQs of Geography of Pakistan with answers will be shared. This is very useful video for the students and for those who want to increase their knowledge. This video will also be useful for jobs exams preparation like CSS, PMS, PSC, FPSC, PPSC, SPSC, KPSC, BPSC, MCAT, ECAT, GAT and for any other competitive exams.
Geography of Pakistan mcqs,
Pakistan Geography mcqs,
Rivers of Pakistan mcqs,
Rivers of Punjab mcqs,
Rivers of Sindh mcqs,
Rivers of Balochistan mcqs,
Rivers of KPK mcqs,
agencies for policy formulation and implementation for promoting entrepreneur...Megha Roy
This document summarizes several key agencies involved in policy formulation and implementation related to entrepreneurship development and small businesses in India. It describes the District Industries Centre (DIC), which promotes small industries at the district level. It also outlines the Small Industries Service Institutes (SISI) that provide consultancy and training. Additionally, it discusses the National Institute of Entrepreneurship & Small Business Development (NIESBUD), the apex body coordinating entrepreneurship development agencies. The Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India (EDII) and National Entrepreneurship Development Board (NEDB) are also summarized as organizations that promote entrepreneurship and small businesses.
The document discusses the powers and liabilities of boards of directors. It states that every company must have a minimum of 3 directors for public companies and 1 director for one person companies. Directors are responsible for managing company activities and meet at least 4 times per year. Their powers include controlling finances, hiring staff, and making major decisions. However, directors also face liabilities for negligence, fraud, or illegal activities that harm the company or third parties. They can be fined or face imprisonment for violations of company law.
Governmental accounting of bangladesh and accounting practice of divisional c...Sajid Kamal
Prepared by me on 8th semester of BBA based on Governmental Accounting of Bangladesh and Accounting Practice of Divisional Controller of Account Office.
Business and Finance ICAB Chapterwise question analysis (From June 10 to June 16)
Business and Finance ICAB Chapterwise question analysis (From June 10 to June 16)
Business and Finance, ICAB, Chapterwise, question analysis ,(From June 10 to June 16)
Naresh Chandra Committee Report and datapejen64440
The Naresh Chandra Committee was formed by the Department of Company Affairs in August 2002 to examine corporate governance issues in India. It recommended stricter auditor independence standards, including prohibiting auditors from providing non-audit services and financial interests in clients. It also recommended CEO and CFO certification of annual accounts, training for directors, and establishing a corporate serious fraud office. The report built upon recommendations from prior committees on increasing the role of independent directors and changing the composition of audit committees.
The document is the suggested answers for the Certificate Level examination of November-December 2019 published by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of Bangladesh (ICAB).
It contains the suggested answers to questions from 7 subjects - Assurance, Accounting, Business & Finance, Management Information, Principles of Taxation, Business Laws, and IT.
For each subject, it lists the questions asked in the exam and provides the model answers recommended by ICAB. It is intended to help students preparing for the Certificate Level exams understand the key points that examiners are looking for in responses.
This document contains 50 multiple choice questions about emotions, moods, and emotional labor from Chapter 8 of an unknown textbook. The questions cover topics such as the definitions of emotions and moods, universal emotions, how culture and gender influence emotional expression and interpretation, emotional labor, affective events theory, and emotional intelligence. Sample questions test understanding of concepts like the difference between emotions and moods, the influence of stress on mood, surface acting versus deep acting, and the theory that employees' emotions influence job performance and satisfaction.
This document is an examination paper for Class VII students. It contains questions in three sections - Section A with 20 multiple choice questions worth 20 marks to be completed in 30 minutes, Section B with 10 long answer questions worth 40 marks, and Section C with 5 long answer questions worth 40 marks. The paper tests students on their knowledge of mathematics, general science, and computer science. It provides instructions on time limits, answering questions directly on the paper or in a separate book, and the total marks for each section and the exam overall.
- Organizational behavior is a field of study that investigates how individuals, groups, and structure impact behavior in organizations. Its goal is to apply this knowledge to improve organizational effectiveness.
- OB draws from multiple disciplines including psychology, sociology, social psychology, and anthropology. It focuses on individuals, groups, and organizational structure as primary determinants of behavior.
- There are few simple or universal principles that explain all organizational behavior. Contextual factors must be considered to predict human behavior accurately.
This document contains multiple choice and true/false questions about work teams from a chapter on understanding work teams. It covers the following key points:
1. Work teams have become popular because they enable organizations to better utilize employee talents. Teams generally have a positive impact on employee motivation.
2. The main difference between work groups and teams is that teams engage in collaborative work that produces results exceeding individual inputs, while groups primarily share information.
3. Common types of teams discussed include problem-solving teams, self-managed teams, cross-functional teams, and virtual teams. Self-managed teams empower members to make work-related decisions and typically have 10-15 members.
4. Effective teams require skills
The document appears to be a practice exam for an entrance exam for Dashen Bank in Ethiopia. It contains 20 multiple choice questions testing various skills like math, accounting, and English. The math questions cover topics like percentages, interest rates, and ratios. The accounting questions test knowledge of concepts like assets, liabilities, debits, credits, and financial statements. The English questions cover grammar, vocabulary, and language usage. The exam aims to evaluate candidates' readiness for employment at Dashen Bank through assessing their proficiency in key subject areas.
The Board summarizes the key details from the document:
1) Arun Bansal and his wife filed a criminal complaint against Herdillia Unimers Ltd. claiming violation of Section 73 of the Companies Act for delayed refund of their application money for shares/debentures.
2) Herdillia Unimers Ltd. contended that as Bansals were not allotted shares/debentures and had received full refund including interest, no offence was committed.
3) The Rajasthan High Court quashed the criminal proceedings, stating that as Bansals were not shareholders, they were not competent to file a complaint in court against the company.
final paper 2011, final examination 2011, 2011 paper annual , annual paper 2011, fazaia inter college final paper 2011, final paper 2011 class vi, final paper for class vi
This document contains a multiple choice quiz on corporate accounting concepts. It includes 76 questions across topics like types of share capital, issue and redemption of shares and debentures, preparation of balance sheets and profit and loss statements, among others. The questions are single-answer multiple choice questions with explanations for some. The document tests understanding of key financial accounting concepts for corporations.
Dec 2014 ca cpt question paper - vidyasagar instiutepace2race
The document provides information about a CPT June 2014 question paper compiled by Vidya Sagar Institute based on student memories. It notes that the questions and answers may have inaccuracies and the institute is not responsible for mistakes. It provides contact information for the institute for various certification programs. It also advertises a new batch starting in July 2014 for IPCC May 2015 exams with limited seats.
This document provides a summary of 54 questions and answers from the ACC 561 Final Exam. It tests concepts related to performance reports, budgets, management accounting, financial accounting, cost accounting, and budgeting. Sample questions assess understanding of key terms like break-even analysis, activity-based costing, forecasting, and components of master budgets. The document aims to help students prepare for the ACC 561 exam by reviewing important accounting concepts and principles.
Acc 561 acc/561 final exam 100% correct answersGliven
This document provides the answers to a final exam for ACC 561. It contains multiple choice questions related to performance reports, budgets, the role of the treasurer, factors affecting management accounting, principles of ethical professional practice, the importance of ethical accountants, types of accounting such as managerial accounting and financial accounting, basic accounting concepts and conventions, and management control systems.
Acc 561 final exam 54#questions with answers correct 100%versyty
This document provides a summary of a 54 question multiple choice exam for ACC 561 Final Exam. It includes questions related to accounting concepts like performance reports, budgets, managerial accounting, financial accounting, and cost accounting. It also includes questions related to accounting principles, financial statements, transactions, and costing methods. The document provides the questions but not the answers, and includes a link to purchase the full tutorial with answers.
This document contains a 45 question CPT exam from June 2014 covering topics in fundamentals of accounting, financial accounting standards, preparation of financial statements, inventory valuation, depreciation, partnership accounts, and consignment. The questions are multiple choice with 4 answer options for each question testing understanding of accounting concepts, journal entries, calculations, and analyzing accounting information.
This document contains the answers to a final exam for an accounting course. It lists multiple choice questions and answers related to performance reports, budgets, the roles of treasurers, factors affecting management accounting, principles of ethical accounting, types of accounting like managerial and financial accounting, elements of financial statements, accounting principles, and concepts like transactions and cost allocation.
This document contains the answers to a final exam for an accounting course. It lists multiple choice questions and answers related to performance reports, budgets, the roles of accountants, financial statements, accounting principles, and other accounting topics. The questions assess understanding of key concepts in management, financial, tax, and cost accounting.
This document provides 30 multiple choice questions from an ACC 561 Final Exam. The questions cover topics such as performance reports, budgets, managerial accounting, financial accounting, accounting principles like materiality and conservatism, financial statements, inventory accounting, cost behavior analysis, break-even analysis, cost allocation using activity-based costing, and the purposes of cost management systems.
This document provides 30 multiple choice questions from an ACC 561 Final Exam. The questions cover topics such as performance reports, budgets, managerial accounting, financial accounting, accounting principles like materiality and conservatism, financial statements, inventory accounting, cost behavior analysis, break-even analysis, cost allocation using activity-based costing, and the purposes of cost management systems.
This document provides 30 multiple choice questions from an ACC 561 Final Exam. The questions cover topics such as performance reports, budgets, management accounting, financial accounting, cost accounting, break-even analysis, and activity based costing.
This document contains a 54 question multiple choice exam on accounting topics including performance reports, budgets, managerial accounting, financial accounting, cost accounting, and budgeting. The questions cover concepts like the four financial statements, accounting principles, break-even analysis, cost behavior, activity based costing, and master budgets.
This document provides 30 multiple choice questions from an ACC/561 Final Exam. The questions cover topics such as performance reports, budgets, the role of the treasurer, factors affecting management accounting, accounting ethics, financial accounting vs managerial accounting, the four basic financial statements, accounting transactions, accounting conventions like materiality and conservatism, nonoperating items on an income statement, value chain functions, cost drivers, break-even analysis, cost estimation techniques, activity based costing, and the purposes of cost management systems.
This document provides 30 multiple choice questions from an ACC/561 Final Exam. The questions cover topics such as performance reports, budgets, the role of the treasurer, factors affecting management accounting, accounting ethics, financial accounting vs managerial accounting, the four basic financial statements, accounting transactions, accounting conventions like materiality and conservatism, nonoperating items on an income statement, value chain functions, cost drivers, break-even analysis, cost estimation techniques, activity based costing, and the purposes of cost management systems.
This document provides 30 multiple choice questions from an ACC/561 Final Exam. The questions cover topics such as performance reports, budgets, the role of the treasurer, factors affecting management accounting, accounting ethics, financial accounting vs managerial accounting, the four basic financial statements, accounting transactions, accounting conventions like materiality and conservatism, nonoperating items on an income statement, value chain functions, cost drivers, break-even analysis, cost estimation techniques, activity based costing, and the purposes of cost management systems.
This document provides 30 multiple choice questions from an ACC/561 Final Exam. The questions cover topics such as performance reports, budgets, the role of the treasurer, factors affecting management accounting, accounting ethics, financial accounting vs managerial accounting, the four basic financial statements, accounting transactions, accounting conventions like materiality and conservatism, nonoperating items on an income statement, value chain functions, cost drivers, break-even analysis, cost estimation techniques, activity based costing, and the purposes of cost management systems.
This document provides information about an assignment solving service and lists sample assignments in management subjects like business communication, statistics, accounting, economics, and human resources. It includes definitions, explanations, calculations, and solutions related to concepts in these subjects. The document contains assignments on topics such as corporate strategy, management theories, planning, leadership, attitude, communication elements, probability, hypothesis testing, financial statements, cost analysis, inflation, monopoly, fiscal policy, demand analysis, training methods, career planning, job analysis, and grievance handling procedures.
This document provides a sample exam for ACC 561 with 50 multiple choice questions covering various accounting concepts. The questions assess understanding of controllership functions, budgeting, costing methods, performance evaluation, and management control systems.
This document provides a sample exam for ACC 561 with 50 multiple choice questions covering various accounting concepts. The questions assess understanding of controllership functions, budgeting, costing methods, performance evaluation, and management control systems.
This document provides a sample exam for ACC 561 with 50 multiple choice questions covering various accounting concepts. The questions assess understanding of controllership functions, budgeting, costing methods, performance evaluation, and management control systems.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help alleviate symptoms of mental illness and boost overall mental well-being.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against developing mental illness and improve symptoms for those who already have a condition.
The document discusses the results of a study on the effects of exercise on memory and thinking abilities in older adults. The study found that regular exercise can help reduce the decline in thinking abilities that often occurs with age. Older adults who exercised regularly performed better on memory and thinking tests compared to those who did not exercise regularly. Regular exercise may help the brain work better and reduce risks of developing mental decline and dementia.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive functioning. Exercise boosts blood flow and levels of neurotransmitters and endorphins which elevate and stabilize mood.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for both physical and mental health. Regular exercise can improve cardiovascular health, reduce symptoms of depression and anxiety, enhance mood, and boost brain health. Staying physically active for at least 30 minutes each day is recommended for significant health improvements.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive functioning. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help boost feelings of calmness and well-being.
BCOM Sem III CBCS pattern Gondwana University syllabusTejasGaydhaneSir
The document outlines the syllabus for the Cost Accounting course taught in Semester III of the B.Com program. It includes 4 units that will be taught over 15 periods each, covering topics like costing methods, reconciliation of financial and cost profits, process costing, and contract costing. Students will be evaluated through an 80 mark theory exam and 20 marks of internal assessment based on assignments, oral tests, and attendance.
The document provides a syllabus for the course "Commercial Law" for B.Com. 3rd Year Semester V students.
It includes 4 units:
Unit 1 covers Indian Contract Act 1872 regarding formation of contracts.
Unit 2 covers Sale of Goods Act 1930 regarding conditions and warranties in contracts of sale.
Unit 3 covers Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 regarding negotiable instruments like bills of exchange and cheques.
Unit 4 covers Companies Act 2013 regarding formation, management and winding up of companies.
The syllabus provides an overview of the key topics and concepts covered in each unit for studying commercial law. It aims to impart students with fundamental knowledge of various commercial laws governing business transactions and organizations
The document provides details about the syllabus for compulsory Hindi courses for first year Bachelor of Commerce, Bachelor of Science, Bachelor of Science in Information Technology, and Bachelor of Computer Applications Science students at Gondwana University, Gadchiroli for semesters I and II.
The syllabus includes foundation courses in Hindi to be implemented in June 2017 for semester I and November 2017 for semester II. It lists the course objectives, books, teaching methods, and evaluation criteria for assessing students in comprehension, writing, grammar, and translation. The document aims to standardize the Hindi curriculum across science and commerce programs at the university.
Leveraging Generative AI to Drive Nonprofit InnovationTechSoup
In this webinar, participants learned how to utilize Generative AI to streamline operations and elevate member engagement. Amazon Web Service experts provided a customer specific use cases and dived into low/no-code tools that are quick and easy to deploy through Amazon Web Service (AWS.)
How to Manage Your Lost Opportunities in Odoo 17 CRMCeline George
Odoo 17 CRM allows us to track why we lose sales opportunities with "Lost Reasons." This helps analyze our sales process and identify areas for improvement. Here's how to configure lost reasons in Odoo 17 CRM
This slide is special for master students (MIBS & MIFB) in UUM. Also useful for readers who are interested in the topic of contemporary Islamic banking.
A review of the growth of the Israel Genealogy Research Association Database Collection for the last 12 months. Our collection is now passed the 3 million mark and still growing. See which archives have contributed the most. See the different types of records we have, and which years have had records added. You can also see what we have for the future.
Main Java[All of the Base Concepts}.docxadhitya5119
This is part 1 of my Java Learning Journey. This Contains Custom methods, classes, constructors, packages, multithreading , try- catch block, finally block and more.
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9
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MCQs of Mng. Ac.pdf
1. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
Gondwana University Gadchiroli Syllabus
B.Com. IInd Year (IVth Sem.)
Sub. - Management Accounting
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
with answers
- Prof. Tejas Y. Gaydhane
2. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
Gondwana University Syllabus
B.Com. IInd Year (IVth Sem.)
Sub. - Management Accounting
Unit 1 – Management A/c & Business Budgeting
MCQs with answers
Fundamentals Of Management Accounting
1. The term management accounting was first coined in
a) 1960
b) 1950
c) 1945
d) 1955
ANSWER: b) 1950
2. Management accounting is
A) Subjective
B) Objective
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Only A
3. The use of management accounting is
a) Optional
b) Compulsory
c) Legally obligatory
d) Compulsory to some and optional to others
ANSWER: a) Optional
3. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
4. The management accounting can be stated an extension of
A) Cost Accounting
B) Financial Accounting
C) Responsibility Accounting
a) Both A and B
b) Both A and C
c) Both B and C
d) A, B, C
ANSWER: d) A, B, C
5. Which of the following is true about management accounting?
A) Management accounting is associated with presentation of accounting data.
B) Management accounting is extremely sensitive to investors needs.
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Only A
6. Management accounting assists the management
a) Only in control
b) Only in direction
c) Only in planning
d) In planning, direction and control
ANSWER: d) In planning, direction and control
7. Which of the following are tools of management accounting?
A) Decision accounting
4. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
B) Standard costing
C) Budgetary control
D) Human Resources Accounting
a) A, B and D
b) A, C and D
c) A, B and C
d) A, B , C, D
ANSWER: c) A, B and C
8. Management accounting is related with
a) The problem of choice making
b) Recording of transactions
c) Cause and effect relationships
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) A and C
d) All are false
ANSWER: c) a and c
9. Management accountancy is a structure for
a) Costing
b) Accounting
c) Decision making
d) Management
Ans. C
10. Who coined the concept of management accounting?
a) R.N Anthony
b) James H. Bliss
c) J. Batty
d) American Accounting Association
ANSWER: b) James H. Bliss
5. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
11. Which of the following statements are false about management accounting?
A) Management accounting is concerned with historical events.
B) Management accounting is related only with such instances which can be expressed in
monetary terms.
C) Management accounting is a part of Financial Management
D) Management accounting information can be disclosed to outsiders.
a) A, B & D
b) A, C & D
c) A,B & C
d) A, B,C,D
ANSWER:
12. Management accounting deals with
a) Quantitative information
b) Qualitative information
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Both a and b
13. Management accounting highlights staff relationship with top management as well as other
personnel.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: b) False
14. The definition ‘Management Accounting is the presentation of accounting information in such a
way as to assist management in the creation of policy and the day-to-day operation of an
undertaking.’
a) Ango-American Council on Productivity
b) AICPA
c) Robert N. Anthony
d) All of the above
6. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
ANSWER: a) Ango-American Council on Productivity
Business Budgeting
1) The cost of material at 50% capacity is Rs 8,000 and budget is to be prepared at 60%, 90% and 100% of
normal capacity. The cost of material at 60% and 90% capacity will be
a. Rs 9600 and Rs 14,400
b. Rs 14,400 and Rs 16,000
c. Rs 9600 and Rs 16,000
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Rs 9600 and Rs 14,400
2) If variable and fixed costs at 60% capacity are Rs 12,000 and Rs 9,000 respectively, total cost at 80%
capacity will be
a. Rs 25,000
b. Rs 28,000
c. Rs 24,000
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Rs 25,000
3) If indirect material at 80% capacity (800 units) is Rs 248, of which variable component is Rs 0.06 per unit,
then the amount of indirect material at 100% capacity would be
a. Rs 260
b. Rs 600
c. Rs 310
d. None of the above
Answer Rs. 260
4) At 50% capacity expenses are Rs 10,000, which increase by 10% between 60% and 80% level of activity
and 20% thereafter. These are
a. Variable expenses
b. Semi-variable expenses
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
7. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
ANSWER: Semi-variable expenses
5) Production at 60% capacity 600 units, Materials cost Rs 100 per unit, Labour at Rs 40 per unit and
expenses at Rs 10 per unit. Factory expenses are Rs 40,000 (Fixed 40%) and Administration expenses Rs
30,000 (Fixed 60%). What is cost per unit at 60% and 80% capacity?
a. Rs 266.67 and Rs 252.50
b. Rs 252.50 and Rs 244
c. Rs 266.67 and Rs 244
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Rs 266.67 and Rs 252.50
6) While preparing a flexible budget, direct material, direct labour and direct expenses all are placed under
the head of variable cost.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
7) Semi-variable cost will not be zero, even if production is nil.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
8) If semi-variable cost at 60% level of production is Rs 40,000 and at 80% level is Rs 44,000. What will it be
at 100% level of production?
a. Rs 40,000
b. Rs 42,000
c. Rs 44,000
d. Rs 48,000
ANSWER: Rs 48,000
9) The total costs at 60% and 70% of activity are Rs 28,290 and Rs 30,348 respectively. Production at 60%
8. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
level is 720 units and selling price is Rs 38 per unit. Determine Profit and Loss at 80% activity level.
a. Rs 6,576
b. Rs 4,074
c. Rs 9,078
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Rs 4,074
10) Semi-variable expenses increases with the increase in the level of activity,
a. In the same proportion as the activity increases
b. Not in the same proportion as the activity increases
c. In inverse proportion of activity increase
d. None of the above
ANSWER: In the same proportion as the activity increases
11) Variable cost is also known as
a. Direct cost
b. Proportionate cost
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b
12) In order to prepare a flexible budget, items of anticipated expenditures are classified into
_______ classes.
a. Five
b. Three
c. Two
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Three
13) Flexible budget is used when
a. Demand remains static even when there is change in taste and fashion of customers
b. When the business unit is new
c. Whenever there is change of activity due to change in government policies
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
9. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
14) Flexible budgeting is used when the supply of material and labor required for production is
_____.
a. Uncertain
b. Certain
c. Either a or b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Uncertain
15) Which of the following statements are true flexible budget?
a. On the basis of fixed budget, marginal analysis can be obtained
b. Flexible budget is important for cost reduction and cost control
c. Fixed budgetary system is more flexible than flexible budgetary system
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Flexible budget is important for cost reduction and cost control
16) In _________ actual performance can easily be compared due to availability of budgets at
different levels of activity.
a. Fixed budget
b. Flexible budget
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Flexible budget
17) Flexible budget is also known as
a. Sliding scale budget
b. Dynamic budget
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Sliding scale budget
18) Flexible budget is that budget which presents __________ at various levels of business
activity.
a. Costs
b. Revenues
10. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
c. Profits
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
19) Fixed budget is of much help in the fixation of selling price or calculation of tender price.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
20) ___________ is based on assumption that the firm will carry out its activity only at a specific
level and the targets of production determined in budget will be achieved.
a. Fixed budget
b. Flexible budget
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Fixed budget
21) In a month, payment for salary was Rs. 5,750 when the lag in payment of salary is 1/8 month. If total salaries of
current month are Rs 6,000, determine the salaries of previous month.
a. Rs 4,800
b. Rs 4,250
c. Rs 4,000
d. Rs 4,750
ANSWER: Rs 4,800
22) In a firm, the forecast of wages for month of December, January, February and March are Rs 4,800, Rs 6,000,
Rs 6,400 and Rs 6,800. The time-lag in payment of wages is 1/8 month. Determine the amount of wages payable in
each month January to March.
a. Rs 6,750, Rs 6,350 and Rs 5,850
b. Rs 5,850, Rs 6,350 and Rs 6,750
c. Rs 5,850, Rs 6,750 and Rs 6,350
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Rs 5,850, Rs 6,350 and Rs 6,750
23) Cash budget deals with historical data whereas Cash Flow Statement deals with future data.
11. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
24) In cash flow method for preparing cash budget, payment of dividends and prepaid payments are
a. Deducted from opening balance of cash
b. Added to opening balance of cash
c. Not included in cash budget
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Deducted from opening balance of cash
25) As per Cash flow method Increase in current liabilities and decrease in current assets are
a. Deducted from opening balance of cash
b. Added to opening balance of cash
c. Not included in cash budget
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Added to opening balance of cash
26) As per Cash flow method, the amount of expected net operating cash profit during the fiscal is
a. Added to the opening balance of cash
b. Deducted from the opening balance of cash
c. Not included in cash budget
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Added to the opening balance of cash
27) Which of the following method is based on technique of cash flow statement?
a. Cash Accounting Period
b. Projected Balance Sheet Method
c. Project forecast method
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Project forecast method
28) Which of the following statements are not true about Projected Balance Sheet Method?
a. It is good for long-term
b. It is appropriate for annual cash forecast
12. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
c. It is of extreme use for planning and control
d. None of the above
ANSWER: It is of extreme use for planning and control
29) A budgeted balance sheet is prepared in Projected Balance sheet method and an estimate is made of the
values of all assets including bank overdraft, cash balance and bank.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
30) Given estimated sales in February, March, April, May and June are Rs 90,000, Rs 96,000, Rs 54,000, Rs
87,000 and Rs 63,000. In case 50% of sales are realized in the next month and balance in the next of next month,
determine cash collection from sales in April and May.
a. Rs 93,000 and Rs 75,000
b. Rs 93,000 and Rs 70,500
c. Rs 75,000 and Rs 70,500
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Rs 93,000 and Rs 75,000
31) If in any month, the amount of payment exceeds, it will be carried forward as opening balance in the next month.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
32) While preparing cash budget from Cash Accounting method, if there is no specific direction in respect of a
particular item, it is assumed that payments or receipts will take place in
a. Current month
b. Month of occurrence
c. Insufficient data to decide
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Month of occurrence
33) The receipts or payments having time lag are not included in cash budget.
a. True
13. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
b. False
ANSWER: False
34) While preparing cash budget from Cash Accounting method,
a. Payments and receipts related to budget period are considered
b. Payments and receipts before budget period are considered
c. Payments and receipts after budget period are considered
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Payments and receipts related to budget period are considered
35) A columnar statement is prepared in ________ in which first column shows items of payments and receipts,
whereas the other columns represents the amount of payments and receipts in each time break-up of budget period.
a. Cash Accounting method
b. Budgeted method
c. Cash flow method
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Cash Accounting method
36) Which of the following statements are true about cash budget?
a. Cash budget and cash flow statement are same
b. Fixed expenses are not shown in cash budget
c. Actual payments and receipts are shown in cash budget
d. None of the above
ANSWER: None of the above
37) Cash budget is a __________ budget.
a. Short-term
b. Long-term
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Short-term
14. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
38) Project forecast method is also known as
a. Projected Balance Sheet Method
b. Cash Flow method
c. Budgeted Method
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Cash Flow method
39) The payment made in lieu of purchase of fixed asset is
a. Cash payment for capital transaction
b. Cash payment for non-operating expenses
c. Cash payment for business operations
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Cash payment for capital transaction
40) The payment of income tax, dividend, interest, and donation are examples of
a. Cash payment for capital transaction
b. Cash payment for non-operating expenses
c. Cash payment for business operations
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Cash payment for non-operating expenses
41) The payment of salary, wages, overheads, cash purchase and payment to creditors are form of
a. Cash payment for capital transaction
b. Cash payment for non-operating expenses
c. Cash payment for business operations
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Cash payment for business operations
42) The receipts from issue of shares, issue of debentures and sale of fixed investments are
a. Receipts from Non-business operations
b. Receipts from business operations
c. Receipts from capital transactions
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Receipts from capital transactions
15. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
43) The receipts from dividends, refund of tax, rent, interest etc. are
a. Receipts from Non-business operations
b. Receipts from business operations
c. Receipts from capital transactions
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Receipts from Non-business operations
44) The receipts from cash sales, advance from customers, collection from debtors and bills receivable
are
a. Receipts from Non-business operations
b. Receipts from business operations
c. Receipts from capital transactions
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Receipts from business operations
45) Outstanding expenses and reserve for doubtful debts are shown in cash budget.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
46) While preparing a cash budget the focus should be on
a. Sources of cash inflow during a particular period
b. Amount of cash to be received from cash inflow sources
c. Timing of cash inflow
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
47) Cash budget is more helpful in those business concerns where there are
a. No seasonal fluctuations
b. Wide seasonal fluctuations
c. Rare seasonal fluctuations
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Wide seasonal fluctuations
48) Cash budget helps in the formulation of suitable dividend policy.
16. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
49) As per S.C Kuchhal, Cash budget is a schedule to record ________ over a period with a view to
locating the timing and magnitude of cash surplus and shortage.
a. Cash inflows
b. Cash outflows
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a & b
17. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
Gondwana University Syllabus
B.Com. IInd Year (IVth Sem.)
Sub.- Management Accountiong
Unit 2 - Break-even Analysis
MCQs with answers
1. The Break-even Point of a company is that level of sales income which will equal the sum
of its fixed cost.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: a) True
2. Which of the following are characteristics of B.E.P?
a) There is no loss and no profit to the firm.
b) Total revenue is equal to total cost.
c) Contribution is equal to fixed cost.
d) All of the above.
ANSWER: d) All of the above.
3. Which of the following are assumptions for break-even analysis?
A) Elements of cost cannot be divided in different groups.
B) Fixed cost remains certain from zero production to full capacity.
C) Behavior of different costs is linear
D) Selling per price unit remains constant.
a) A, B, C
b) B, C, D
c) A, C, D
d) A, B, D
ANSWER: b) B, C, D
4. While measuring break-even analysis, it is considered that during a specific period there
18. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
will be no change in general price level, i.e., labor, cost of material and other overheads.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: a) True
5. Which of the following are limitations of break-even analysis?
A) Static concept
b) Capital employed is taken into account.
c) Limitation of non-linear behavior of costs
d) Limitation of presence of perfect competition
ANSWER: A) Static concept
6. Break-even analysis is used in “Make or Buy” decision.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: a) True
7. Using equation method, Break-even point is calculated as
a) Sales = Variable expenses + Fixed expenses + Profit
b) Sales = Variable expenses + Fixed expenses - Profit
c) Sales = Variable expenses - Fixed expenses + Profit
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Sales = Variable expenses + Fixed expenses + Profit
8. Given selling price is Rs 10 per unit, variable cost is Rs 6 per unit and fixed cost is Rs 5,000. What
is break-even point?
a) 500 units
b) 1,000 units
c) 1,250 units
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) 1,250 units
19. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
9. Contribution is also known as
a) Contribution margin
b) Net Margin
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Contribution margin
10. Given selling price is Rs 20 per unit, variable cost is Rs 16 per unit contribution is
a) Rs 1.25 per unit
b) Rs 4 per unit
c) Rs 0.8 per unit
d) None of the above
ANSWER: b) Rs 4 per unit
11. The term marginal cost can be used as a substitute of variable cost while measuring
Contribution.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: a) True
12. Determine total as well as per unit contribution if Sales is Rs 40,000, Sales in units is 4,000 and
variable cost is Rs 30,000.
a) Rs 10,000 and Rs 2.5
b) Rs 70,000 and Rs 3.5
c) Rs 36,000 and Rs 3.6
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Rs 10,000 and Rs 2.5
13. Determine Contribution if Sales is Rs 1,50,000 and P/V ratio is 40%.
a) Rs 60,000
b) Rs 70,000
c) Rs 30,000
d) None of the above
20. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
ANSWER: a) Rs 60,000
14. Determine Contribution if Fixed cost is Rs 40,000 and profit is Rs 30,000.
a) Rs 60,000
b) Rs 70,000
c) Rs 30,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: b) Rs 70,000
15. Determine Contribution if Fixed cost is Rs 50,000 and loss is Rs 20,000.
a) Rs 60,000
b) Rs 70,000
c) Rs 30,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Rs 30,000
16. Contribution and profit both are same concepts.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: b) False
17. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Contribution doesn’t include fixed cost whereas profit includes fixed cost.
b) Contribution is not based on the concept of marginal cost.
c) Contribution above breakeven point becomes profit.
d) All of the above
ANSWER: c) Contribution above breakeven point becomes profit.
18. Profit-Volume ratio is also known as
a) Contribution ratio
b) Contribution/Sales ratio
c) Marginal Income percentage
21. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
d) All of the above
ANSWER: d) All of the above
19. Which of the following statements are true?
a) P/V Ratio can never be used to measure break-even point
b) Higher the P/V ratio less will be the profit and vice versa
c) Concept of P/V ratio is also used to determine profit at a given volume of sales
d) All of the above
ANSWER: c) Concept of P/V ratio is also used to determine profit at a given volume of sales
20. The P/V ratio can be improved by
a) Decreasing the selling price per unit
b) Increasing variable cost
c) Changing the sales mix
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Changing the sales mix
21. P/V ratio can be calculated on the basis of variable cost ratio as
a) 1 - Variable Cost Ratio
b) 1 + Variable Cost Ratio
c) 1/Variable Cost Ratio
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) 1-Variable Cost Ratio
22. Determine P/V ratio if Sales is Rs 80,000 and Variable cost is Rs 60,000.
a) 40%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) None of the above
ANSWER: b) 25%
23. Determine P/V ratio if Sales is Rs 1,00,000, Fixed cost is Rs 30,000 and Profit is Rs 20,000.
22. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 45%
d) None of the above
ANSWER: b) 50%
24. Determine P/V ratio if Sales per unit is Rs 10 and Variable cost per unit is Rs 7.
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 45%
d) 30%
ANSWER: d) 30%
25. Compute P/V ratio if variable cost ratio is 60%.
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 45%
d) 30%
ANSWER: a) 40%
26. Given sales is Rs 2,00,000 and Rs 4,00,000 in year 2013 and 2014 respectively. Profit is Rs -
10,000 and Rs 20,000 in 2013 and 2014 respectively. Compute P/V ratio.
a) 40%
b) 30%
c) 25%
d) 50%
ANSWER: b) 30%
27. Given sales is Rs 2,00,000 and Rs 4,00,000 in year 2013 and 2014 respectively. Cost is Rs
1,40,000 and Rs 2,40,000 in 2013 and 2014 respectively. Compute P/V ratio.
a) 40%
b) 30%
c) 25%
23. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
d) 50%
ANSWER: d) 50%
28. A company produces and sells three types of products namely X, Y and Z. Total sales per month
is Rs 60,000 in which the share of these three goods are 40%, 40% and 20% respectively. Variable
costs of these three goods are 40%, 50% and 60% respectively. Compute combined P/V ratio.
a) 40%
b) 52%
c) 25%
d) 50%
ANSWER: b) 52%
29. Profit on sales is measured as
a) Sales*P/V Ratio – Fixed cost
b) Sales*P/V Ratio + Fixed cost
c) Sales + P/V Ratio + Fixed cost
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Sales*P/V Ratio – Fixed cost
30. Sales for desired profit is measured as
a) (Fixed cost + profit)/ (P/V Ratio)
b) (Fixed cost + profit) * (P/V Ratio)
c) (Fixed cost - profit)/ (P/V Ratio)
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) (Fixed cost + profit)/ (P/V Ratio)
24. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
31. Breakeven point can be calculated in terms of units as well as in terms of amount.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: a) True
32. Which of the following statements are true?
a) If per unit information is given in question and no specific direction available, B.E.P should e
calculated in terms of amount as well as in units.
b) If technique of P/V ratio is to be used, B.E.P should be obtained in terms of amount.
c) B.E.P is measured as Sales-Margin of safety
d) All of the above
ANSWER: d) All of the above
33. Determine B.E.P in units and amount if Units produced if Rs 10,000, Fixed cost is Rs 40,000,
Selling price is Rs 50 per unit and Variable cost us Rs 30 per unit.
a) Rs 40 per unit, Rs 2,00,000
b) Rs 50 per unit, Rs 10,00,000
c) Rs 20 per unit, Rs 1,00,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Rs 20 per unit, Rs 1,00,000
34. Determine B.E.P if Sales is Rs 1,00,000, Variable cost is Rs 50,000 and Profit is Rs 20,000.
a) Rs 60,000
b) Rs 40,000
c) Rs 80,000
d) None of the above
25. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
ANSWER: a) Rs 60,000
35. What will be the B.E.P if P/V ratio is 20% and Fixed cost is Rs 40,000.
a) Rs 2,00,000
b) Rs 4,00,000
c) Rs 6,00,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Rs 2,00,000
36. What will be the B.E.P if Variable cost ratio is 70% and Fixed cost is Rs 36,000.
a) Rs 3,20,000
b) Rs 2,20,000
c) Rs 1,20,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Rs 1,20,000
37. Calculate B.E.P if Fixed cost is Rs 1,50,000, Variable cost is Rs 2,00,000 and Profit is Rs 1,50,000.
a) Rs 2,00,000
b) Rs 2,50,000
c) Rs 3,00,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: b) Rs 2,50,000
38. Given Sales in first and second year is Rs 80,000 and Rs 90,000 respectively. Also, profit is Rs
10,000 and Rs 14,000 respectively. What is the break-even point in rupees?
a) Rs 10,000
b) Rs 24,000
c) Rs 55,000
26. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Rs 55,000
39. Margin of safety is that sales which is above Break-even point.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: b) False
40. Margin of safety can be increased by
a) Decrease in setting price
b) Decline in volume of production
c) Reduction in fixed or the variable costs or both
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Reduction in fixed or the variable costs or both
41. Determine Margin of safety if Profit is Rs 15,000 and P/V ratio is 40%.
a) Rs 37,500
b) Rs 33,000
c) Rs 38,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Rs 37,500
42. What is Margin of Safety if Sales is 20,000 units and B.E.P is 15,000 units.
a) 35,000 units
b) 5,000 units
c) Rs 5,000
d) Rs 35,000
ANSWER: b) 5,000 units
27. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
43. Calculate margin of safety if sales is Rs 3,00,000 and B.E.P is Rs 4,50,000.
a) Rs1,00,000
b) Rs 1,50,000
c) Amount of sales < B.E.P, therefore no margin of safety
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Rs1,00,000
44. Determine sales in rupees for desired profit if fixed cost is Rs 10,000, Variable cost is Rs 30,000,
Sales is Rs 50,000 and desired profit is RS 5,000.
a) Rs 73,500
b) Rs 75,000
c) Rs 5,000
d) Rs 37,500
ANSWER: d) Rs 37,500
45. What will be sales in rupees for desired profit if fixed cost is Rs 30,000, desired profit is Rs
15,000 and P/V ratio is 30%?
a) Rs 1,50,000
b) Rs 1,00,000
c) Rs 2,00,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Rs 1,50,000
46. Calculate sales in rupees for desired profit if fixed cost is Rs 10,000, selling price is Rs 20 per
unit, Variable cost is Rs 15 per unit and desired profit is Rs 1 per unit.
a) Rs 20,000
b) Rs 50,000
c) Rs 70,000
d) Rs 10,000
ANSWER: b) Rs 50,000
47. Determine sales in units for desired profit if Fixed cost is Rs 15,000, desired profit is Rs 5,000
Selling price per unit is Rs 20 and Variable cost per unit is Rs 16.
28. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
a) 5,000 units
b) Rs 5,000
c) Rs 10,000
d) 10,000 units
ANSWER: a) 5,000 units
48. What will be sales in units if fixed cost is Rs 50,000 Contribution per unit is Rs 60 and desired
profit per unit is Rs 10.
a) 6,000 units
b) Rs 1,000
c) 1,000 units
d) Rs 6,000
ANSWER: c) 1,000 units
49. Given Break even sales is 40,000 Profit earned is Rs 2,000 and fixed cost is Rs 8,000. Determine
actual sales.
a) Rs 50,000
b) Rs 20,000
c) Rs 32,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Rs 50,000
50. What will be the sales amount required to earn a profit of Rs 4,00,000, if fixed cost is Rs 80,000 ,
direct material is Rs 5 per unit, direct labor Rs 2 per unit, direct overhead 100% of direct labor and
selling price is Rs 12 per unit.
a) Rs 19,20,000
b) Rs 3,20,000
c) Rs 12,90,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Rs 19,20,000
29. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
51. Given fixed costs is Rs 1,00,000 selling price per unit is Rs 10 and variable cost per unit is Rs 6. If
fixed cost increase by 10% , B.E.P will
a) Decrease by 2,500 units
b) No change
c) Increase by 2,500 units
d) None of the above.
ANSWER: c) Increase by 2,500 units
52. Given fixed costs is Rs 1,00,000 selling price per unit is Rs 10 and variable cost per unit is Rs 6. If
variable cost increase by 10% , B.E.P will
a) Decrease by 4,214 units
b) Increase by 4,214 units
c) Decrease by 4,412 units
d) Increase by 4,412 units
ANSWER: d) Increase by 4,412 units
53. Given fixed costs is Rs 1,00,000 selling price per unit is Rs 10 and variable cost per unit is Rs 6. If
variable cost increase by 10% and fixed cost decrease by 10%s , B.E.P will
a) Increase by 1,471 units
b) Decline by 1,471 units
c) Increase by 4,171 units
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Increase by 1,471 units
54. What will be the impact on B.E.P if fixed cost is increased?
a) Decrease
b) No change
c) Increase
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Increase
30. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
55. What will be the impact on B.E.P if variable costs are reduced?
a) Decrease
b) No change
c) Increase
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Decrease
56. The profit at the level of existing sales is computed as
a) Sales - (Fixed cost + Variable cost)
b) Sales + (Fixed cost + Variable cost)
c) Sales - Variable cost
d) Sales - Fixed cost
ANSWER: a) Sales - (Fixed cost + Variable cost)
57. Profit at any level of sales in amount is measured as
a) Sales * P/V ratio – Variable cost
b) Sales * P/V ratio + Fixed cost
c) Sales * P/V ratio – Fixed cost
d) Sales * P/V ratio + Variable cost
ANSWER: c) Sales * P/V ratio – Fixed cost
58. Profit at any level of sales in units is measured as
a) Sales (units) * Cost per unit - Fixed cost
b) Sales (units) * Cost per unit + Fixed cost
31. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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c) Sales (units) * Cost per unit
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Sales (units) * Cost per unit - Fixed cost
59. What will be the amount of profit if Fixed cost is Rs 20,000 Sales is Rs 1,60,000 and P/V ratio is
25%?
a) Rs 40,000
b) Rs 20,000
c) Rs 10,000s
d) None of the above
ANSWER: b) Rs 20,000
60. Determine amount of profit if Variable costs is Rs 1,20,000 Fixed costs is Rs 40,000 and sales is
Rs 2,00,000.
a) Rs 30,000
b) Rs 50,000
c) Rs 12,000
d) Rs 40,000
ANSWER: d) Rs 40,000
61. What will be amount of profit if Margin of safety is Rs 50,000 and P/V ratio is 25%?
a) Rs 12,500
b) Rs 1,25,000
c) Rs 1,250
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Rs 12,500
62. Estimate amount of profit if Sales is 10,000 units Fixed cost is Rs 50,000, Variable cost per unit
is Rs 12 and selling price per unit is Rs 20.
a) Rs 12,000
32. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
b) Rs 5,000
c) Rs 30,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Rs 30,000
63. Calculate B.E.P capacity if Fixed cost is Rs 50,000, percentage of variable cost is 66 2/3% and
capacity is Rs 3,00,000.
a) 25%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) 50%
33. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
Gondwana University Syllabus
B.Com. IInd Year (IVth Sem.)
Sub.- Management Accountiong
Unit 3 - Ratio Analysis
MCQs with answers
1) Determine Debtors turnover ratio if, closing debtors is Rs 40,000, Cash sales is 25% of credit sales and
excess of closing debtors over opening debtors is Rs 20,000.
a. 4 times
b. 2 times
c. 6 times
d. 8 times
ANSWER: 4 times
2) The relationship between two financial variables can be expressed in:
a. Pure ratio
b. Percentage
c. Rate or time
d. Either of the above
ANSWER: Either of the above
3) Liquid assets is determined by
a. Current assets – stock - Prepaid expenses
b. Current assets + stock + prepaid expenses
c. Current assets + Prepaid expenses
34. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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d. None of the above
ANSWER: Current assets – stock - Prepaid expenses
4) While calculating Gross Profit, if net profit is given,
a. It can be converted into gross profit by adding interest to it
b. It can be converted into Gross profit by adding indirect expenses to it
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: It can be converted into gross profit by adding interest to it
5) If sales is Rs 10,00,000, sales returns is Rs 50,000, Profit Before Tax is Rs 2,00,000, Income tax is 40%, Net
profit ratio is
a. 12.63%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. 50%
ANSWER: 12.63%
6) Higher the ratio, the more favorable it is, doesn’t stand true for
a. Operating ratio
b. Liquidity ratio
c. Net profit ratio
d. Stock turnover ratio
ANSWER: Operating ratio
7) Given Sales is 1,20,000 and Gross Profit is 30,000, the gross profit ratio is
35. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
a. 24%
b. 25%
c. 40%
d. 44%
ANSWER: 25%
8) If selling price is fixed 25% above the cost, the Gross Profit ratio is
a. 13%
b. 28%
c. 26%
d. 20%
ANSWER: 20%
9) Overall Profitability ratios are based on
a. Investments
b. Sales
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Investments
10) Stock is considered as a liquid asset as anytime it can be converted into cash immediately.
a. Yes
b. No
ANSWER: No
11) The ideal level of liquid ratio is
36. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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a. 3:3
b. 4:4
c. 5:5
d. All of the above
ANSWER: 3:3
12) Which of the following is not included in current assets?
a. Debtors
b. Stock
c. Cash at bank
d. Cash in hand
ANSWER: Stock
13) Determine Working capital turnover ratio if, Current assets is Rs 1,50,000, current liabilities is Rs 1,00,000
and Cost of goods sold is Rs 3,00,000.
a. 5 times
b. 6 times
c. 3 times
d. 1.5 times
ANSWER: 6 times
14) Collection of debtors
a. Decreases current ratio
b. Increases current ratio
37. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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c. Has no effect on current ratio
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Decreases current ratio
15) Determine Operating ratio, if operating expenses is Rs 60,000, Sales is Rs 9,40,000, Sales Return is Rs
40,000 and Cost of net goods sold is Rs 6,60,000.
a. 80%
b. 15%
c. 25%
d. 11%
ANSWER: 80%
16) What will be the Gross Profit if, total sales is Rs 2,60,000, cost of net goods sold is Rs 2,00,000 and sales
return is Rs 10,000?
a. 13%
b. 28%
c. 26%
d. 20%
ANSWER: 20%
17) Liquidity ratios are expressed in
a. Pure ratio form
b. Percentage
c. Rate or time
d. None of the above
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Mob. 9921586168
ANSWER: Pure ratio form
18) Return on Proprietors funds is also known as:
a. Return on net worth
b. Return on Shareholders fund
c. Return on Shareholders Investment
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
19) Determine stock turnover ratio if, Opening stock is Rs 31,000, Closing stock is Rs 29,000, Sales is Rs
3,20,000 and Gross profit ratio is 25% on sales.
a. 31 times
b. 11 times
c. 8 times
d. 32 times
ANSWER: 8 times
20) Quick ratio is 1.8:1, current ratio is 2.7:1 and current liabilities are Rs 60,000. Determine value of stock.
a. Rs 54,000
b. Rs 60,000
c. Rs 1,62,000
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Rs 54,000
39. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
21) The most precise test of liquidity is
a. Quick ratio
b. Current ratio
c. Absolute Liquid ratio
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Absolute Liquid ratio
22) Debt-equity ratio is a sub-part of
a. Short-term solvency ratio
b. Long-term solvency ratio
c. Debtors turnover ratio
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Long-term solvency ratio
23) Liquid ratio is also known as
a) Quick ratio
b) Acid test ratio
c) Working capital ratio
d) Stock turnover ratio
a. A and B
b. A and C
c. B and C
d. C and D
ANSWER: A and B
40. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
24) Current ratio is stated as a crude ratio because
a. It measures only the quantity of current assets
b. It measures only the quality of current assets
c. Both a and b
d. Offerings dimension
ANSWER: It measures only the quantity of current assets
25) The ideal level of current ratio is
a. 4:2
b. 2:1
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b
26) Which ratio is considered as safe margin of solvency?
a. Liquid ratio
b. Quick ratio
c. Current ratio
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Current ratio
27) Working capital turnover ratio can be determined by:
a. (Gross Profit / Working capital)
b. (Cost of goods sold / Net sales)
41. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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c. (Cost of goods sold / Working capital)
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (Cost of goods sold / Working capital)
28) Debtors Turnover ratio is also known as
A) Receivables turnover ratio
B) Debtors velocity
C) Stock velocity
D) Payable turnover ratio
a. A and B
b. A and C
c. B and C
d. C and D
ANSWER: A and B
29) Stock velocity establishes a relationship between
a. Cost of goods sold in a given period and the average amount of inventory held during that period
b. Cost of goods sold in a given period and the average amount of stock held during that period
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b
30) The lower turnover ratio highlights the under utilizations of the resources accessible at the disposal of the
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firm.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
31) Turnover ratios are also known as
a. Activity ratios
b. Performance ratios
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b
32) While calculating Earnings per share, if both equity and preference share capitals are there, then
a. Preference share is deducted from the net profit
b. Equity share capital is deducted from the net profit
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Preference share is deducted from the net profit
33) Return on equity capital is calculated on basis of:
a. Funds of equity shareholders
b. Equity capital only
c. Either a or b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Either a or b
43. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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34) Which of the following is expenses ratio?
A) Administrative expenses ratio
B) Selling and Distribution expenses ratio
C) Factory expenses ratio
D) Finance Expenses ratio
a. A, B and D
b. A, C and D
c. A, B and C
d. A, B, C, D
ANSWER: A, B, C, D
35) Operating ratio is calculated by
a. (Operating Cost / Gross sales) * 100
b. (Operating Cost / Gross sales) * 100
c. (Operating cost / Net sales) * 100
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (Operating cost / Net sales) * 100
36) Net operating profit ratio determines ___________ while net profit ratio determines
a. Overall efficiency of the business, working efficiency of the management
b. Working efficiency of the management, overall efficiency of the business
c. Overall efficiency of the external market, working efficiency of the internal management
44. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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d. None of the above
ANSWER: Working efficiency of the management, overall efficiency of the business
37) If sales is Rs 5,00,000 and net profit is Rs 1,20,000 Net Profit ratio is
a. 24%
b. 416%
c. 60%
d. None of the above
ANSWER: 24%
38) Net Profit ratio is calculated by
a. (Gross Profit / Gross sales) * 100
b. (Gross Profit / Net sales) * 100
c. (Net Profit / Net sales) * 100
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (Net Profit / Net sales) * 100
39) Gross Profit ratio should be adequate to cover
a. Selling expenses
b. Administrative expenses
c. Dividends
d. All of the above
45. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
ANSWER: All of the above
40) Gross profit ratio is calculated by
a. (Gross Profit / Gross sales) * 100
b. (Gross Profit / Net sales) * 100
c. (Net Profit / Gross sales) * 100
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (Gross Profit / Net sales) * 100
41) While calculating Gross Profit ratio,
a. Closing stock is deducted from cost of goods sold
b. Closing stock is added to cost of goods sold
c. Closing stock is ignored
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Closing stock is deducted from cost of goods sold
42) Gross Profit ratio is also termed as
a. Gross Profit Margin
b. Gross Margin to net sales
c. Both a and b
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Both a and b
46. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
43) General Profitability ratios are based on
a. Investments
b. Sales
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Sales
44) Which of the following falls under Profitability ratios?
A) General Profitability ratios
B) Overall Profitability ratios
C) Comprehensive Profitability ratios
a. A and B
b. A and C
c. B and C
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A and B
45) Which of the following are limitations of ratio analysis?
A) Ratio analysis may result in false results if variations in price levels are not considered.
B) Ratio analysis ignores qualitative factors.
C) Ratio Analysis ignores quantitative factors.
D) Ratio Analysis is historical analysis.
47. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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a. A, B and D
b. A, C and D
c. A, B and C
d. A, B, C, D
ANSWER: A, B and D
46) Profit for the objective of calculating a ratio may be taken as
a. Profit before tax but after interest
b. Profit before interest and tax
c. Profit after interest and tax
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
47) The ratio analysis is helpful to management in taking several decisions, but as a mechanical substitute for
judgment and thinking, it is worse than useless.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
48) Which of the following statements are true about Ratio Analysis?
A) Ratio analysis is useful in financial analysis.
B) Ratio analysis is helpful in communication and coordination.
C) Ratio Analysis is not helpful in identifying weak spots of the business.
D) Ratio Analysis is helpful in financial planning and forecasting.
48. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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a. A, B and D
b. A, C and D
c. A, B and C
d. A, B, C, D
ANSWER: A, B and D
49) The definition, “The term accounting ratio is used to describe significant relationship which exist between
figures shown in a balance sheet, in a profit and loss account, in a budgetary control system or in a any part of the
accounting organization” is given by " , - ,
" .
a. Biramn and Dribin
b. Lord Keynes
c. J. Betty
d. None of the above
ANSWER: J. Betty
50) When the concept of ratio is defined in respect to the items shown in the financial statements, it is termed as
/ ,
.
a. Accounting ratio
b. Financial ratio
c. Costing ratio
d. None of the above
49. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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ANSWER: a) Accounting Ratio
51. Working Capital is the ______.
A) Capital borrowed from the Banks.
B) Difference between Current Assets and Current Liabilities.
C) Difference between Current Assets and Fixed Assets.
D) Cash and Bank Balance.
Answer B) Difference between Current Assets and Current Liabilities.
52. Liquid Ratio is equal to liquid assets divided by ______.
A) Current Liabilities.
B) Total Liabilities.
C) Contingent Liabilities.
D) Non-Current Liabilities.
Answer A) Current Liabilities.
53. Which of the following transactions will improve the Current Ratio?
A) Purchase of Goods for Cash.
B) Payment to Trade Payables.
C) Credit purchase of Goods.
D) Cash collected from Trade Receivables.
Answer B) Payment to Trade Payables.
54. The ______ is a measure of liquidity that excludes generally the least liquid asset.
A) Liquid ratio, Accounts receivable.
B) Current ratio, inventory.
C) Liquid ratio, inventory.
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D) Current ratio, Accounts receivable.
Answer C) Liquid ratio, inventory.
55. Two basic measures of liquidity are _____.
A) Current ratio and Quick ratio.
B) Gross Profit ratio and Operating ratio.
C) Current ratio and Average collection period.
D) Inventory turnover and Current ratio.
Answer A) Current ratio and Quick ratio.
56. The ________ of a business firm is measured by its ability to satisfy its short-term obligations as they becom
A) Liquidity
B) Debt
C) Profitability
D) Activity
Answer A) Liquidity
57. Inventory ratio is a relationship between ______.
A) Cost of goods purchased and cost of average inventory.
B) Cost of goods sold and cost of average inventory, and cost of goods purchased and cost of average inventor
C) Cost of goods sold and cost of average inventory.
D) None of the options is correct.
Answer C) Cost of goods sold and cost of average inventory.
58. Debt to equity ratio establishes the relationship between ______.
A) Long-term debt (external equities) and current assets (internal equities).
B) Long-term debt (external equities) and equity (internal equities), and long-term debt (external equities) and cu
(internal equities).
51. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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c) Long-term debt (external equities) and equity (internal equities).
D) None of the options are correct.
Answer C) Long-term debt (external equities) and equity (internal equities).
59. Operating ratio is ______.
A) Cost of the production + Operating expenses / Net revenue from operations.
B) Cost of revenue from operation + Operating expenses / Net revenue from operations.
C) Cost of production / Net revenue from operations.
D) Cost of revenue from operations + Selling expenses / Net revenue from operations.
Answer B) Cost of revenue from operation + Operating expenses / Net revenue from operations.
60. Equity or Shareholders fund is equal to _____.
A) Equity share capital + Preference share capital.
B) Equity share capital + Revenues and Surplus.
C) Equity share capital + Preference share capital + Revenues and Surplus.
D) None of the options are correct.
Answer C) Equity share capital + Preference share capital + Revenues and Surplus.
52. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
Mob. 9921586168
Gondwana University Syllabus
B.Com. IInd Year (IVth Sem.)
Sub.- Management Accountiong
Unit 4 – Fund Flow Statement
MCQs with answers
1. Funds flow statement is prepared on the basis of _________.
a. Profit and loss account of the current year
b. The balance sheet of the previous and current year
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: c
2. Which of the following are sources of funds for an organisation?
a. Conversion of debentures into shares
b. Conversion of loans into shares
c. Issue of shares against the purchase of fixed assets
d. None of the above
Answer: d
3. Funds flow statement is also known as __________.
a. Statement of sources and uses of funds
b. Statement of sources and application of funds
c. Statement of funds flow
d. All of the above
Answer: d
4. The statement prepared while conducting funds flow analysis is called ________.
a. Funds flow statement
b. Schedule of changes in working capital
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
Answer: c
5. Funds flow statement is prepared to ________________.
a. Ascertain the item-wise outflow of funds in a given period
b. Identify changes in working capital
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c. Identify reasons behind changes in working capital
d. All of the above
Answer: d
6. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Funds flow statement is prepared on an accrual basis
b. There is an inverse relationship between current assets and working
capital
c. Funds flow statement is also known as the statement of sources and
application of funds
d. All the above statements are true
Answer: a
7. Funds flow statement is based on the concept of ___________.
a. Going concern
b. Business entity
c. Accounting period
d. None of the above
Answer: a
8. The term ‘flow of funds’ means ___________.
a. Change in working capital
b. Change in funds
c. Both a and b are incorrect
d. Both a and b are correct
Answer: d
9. Funds flow analysis is important for ________.
a. Financial management
b. Quality control management
c. Personnel management
d. All of the above
Answer: a
10.Funds flow statement is a tool for _________.
a. Performance analysis
b. Cost control
c. Financial analysis
d. None of the above
Answer: c
54. Tejas Gaydhane Sir
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11.A statement that shows periodic increase or decrease of funds is called
_________.
a. Working capital statement
b. Cash flow statement
c. Funds flow statement
d. None of the above
Answer: c
12.Which of the following are current assets?
a. Furniture
b. Accounts receivable
c. Fixed investments
d. None of the above
Answer: b
13.Which of the following are current liabilities?
a. Accounts payable
b. Bonds payable
c. Deferred tax liabilities
d. None of the above
Answer: a
14.A statement of change in a company’s financial position will not disclose the
effect of ________.
a. Cash dividends declared but not yet paid
b. Share capital issued to acquire facilities
c. Dividends declared on shares
d. All of the above
Answer: c
15.If the total sources of funds are Rs. 2,00,000 and total application of funds are
Rs. 2,50,000 then the working capital will ___________.
a. Decrease by Rs. 50,000
b. Increase by Rs. 50,000
c. Not be affected
d. None of the above
Answer: a
16. Which statement is prepared in the process of funds flow analysis?
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Mob. 9921586168
a) Schedule of changes in working capital
b) Funds Flow Statement
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Schedule of changes in working capital
17. Funds Flow Statement is prepared on the basis of data of P&L statement and two
consecutive balance sheets.
a) True
b) False
c) Value delivery
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) True
18. Which of the following rules stands true while preparation of Schedule of changes in
working capital?
A) An increase in current assets increases working capital.
B) An increase in current assets decreases working capital.
C) An increase in current liabilities decreases working capital.
D) An increase in current liabilities increases working capital
a) A and C
b) A and D
c) B and D
d) A, B, C and D
ANSWER: a) A and C
19. If reserve for bad and doubtful debts is mentioned in the question of Funds Flow
Statement Preparation, it can be shown as
a) In the schedule by deducting from total debtors under current assets
b) In the schedule separately under the heading of capital liabilities
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
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Mob. 9921586168
ANSWER: c) Both a & b
20. Funds Flow Statement is also known as
a) Statement of Funds Flow
b) Statement of Sources and Application of Funds
c) Statement of Sources and Uses of Funds
d) All of the above
ANSWER: d) All of the above
21. Given Net profit for the year Rs 2, 50,000 Transferred to general reserves Rs
40,000 and old machinery bought for Rs 50,000 was sold for Rs 20,000. Calculate
funds from operations.
a) Rs 2, 80,000
b) Rs 2, 20,000
c) Rs 2, 90,000
d) Rs 3, 00,000
ANSWER: a) Rs 2, 80,000
22. Which of the following are sources of funds?
A) Issue of bonus shares
B) Issue of shares against the purchase of fixed assets
C) Conversion of debentures into shares
D) Conversion of loans into shares
a) A and C
b) A and D
c) A, B, C and D
d) None of the above
ANSWER: d) None of the above
23. The share capital of A Ltd. stood at Rs 20,00,000 in 2013 and at Rs 26 lac in 2014.
As per records, the company bought asset of another company for Rs 6 lac payable in
fully paid shares. These assets included Goodwill Rs 2,00,000 Machinery Rs 1, 83, 600
and Stock Rs 2,16,400. What is the fund from issue of shares?
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Mob. 9921586168
a) Rs 2,15,600
b) Rs 2,16,400
c) Rs 2,00,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: b) Rs 2,16,400
24. Debentures are Rs 2,50,000 and Rs 3,50,000 in the balance sheet of 2013 and
2014. 1000 of the debentures of Rs 100 each were issued at par in 2014 of which 400
debentures were issued to a supplier for the purchase of a machine. Determine amount
of issue for debentures for the purpose of funds flow statement.
a) Rs 60,000
b) Rs 40,000
c) RS 10,000
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Rs 60,000
25. In the balance sheet of Praveen for 2013 and 2014, 4% debentures are Rs 5,00,000
and Rs 4,00,000, respectively. Profit on redemption of debentures in 2013 is nil while in
2014 is Rs 4,000. What is the amount of redemption for the purpose of funds flow
statement?
a) Rs 96,000
b) Rs 1,04,000
c) Rs 9,00,000
d) Rs 9,04,000
ANSWER: a) Rs 96,000
26. The balance of property at cost has been RS 20,000 and Rs 17,000 in 2013 and
2014 respectively. The profit on sale of property of Rs 2000 is credited to Capital
Reserves Account. New property costing Rs 5000 bought in 2014. Determine sale of
proceeds from land.
a) Rs 3000
b) Rs 10,000
c) Rs 7000
d) Rs 15,000
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Mob. 9921586168
ANSWER: b) Rs 10,000
27. The Balance sheet of Ram at end of 2013 and 2014 disclose investments in shares
of Rs 2000 and Rs 3000, respectively. Rs 100 as pre-acquisition dividend has been
credited to investments account. Determine purchase of investments.
a) RS 5000
b) Rs 1000
c) Rs 1,100
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Rs 1,100
28. The balance of fixed assets of Y Ltd. at cost at the end of 2013 and 2014 were Rs
5,70,800 and Rs 6,15,300. During the year 2014 a machinery costing Rs 60,000 was
sold. Determine the purchase of fixed assets.
a) Rs 1,04,500
b) Rs 1,40,500
c) Rs 1,64,500
d) None of the above
ANSWER: a) Rs 1,04,500
29. Which of the following are applications of funds?
a) Payment of dividend on share capital
b) Payment of tax
c) Increase in working capital
d) All of above
ANSWER: d) All of above
30. Which of the following are treated as long term investments?
a) Non-current investments
b) Trade Investments
c) Sinking fund investments
d) All of the above
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Mob. 9921586168
ANSWER: d) All of the above
31. Provision of taxation is treated as
a) As a current liability
b) As an appropriation of profits
c) Either a or b
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Either a or b
32. As per accounting standard AS3, provision for taxation should be treated as
a) As a current liability
b) As an appropriation of profits
c) Either a or b
d) None of the above
ANSWER: b) As an appropriation of profits
33. Which of the following statement is true?
a) If the amount of good will increases during current year, the difference is treated as
purchase of goodwill.
b) If the amount of good will decreases during current year, It will treated as written off.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
ANSWER: c) Both a and b
34. The opening and closing balance of general reserves are Rs 10,000 and Rs 9,000,
respectively. It is stated in addition information that a loss of Rs 1000 has been written
off in general reserves. In such a case, decline in reserve and loss on investment will be
adjusted in P&L account.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: b) False