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Genital module questions sahwa family

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sallamahmed1

The document appears to be a collection of multiple choice questions about female and male reproductive anatomy and physiology. There are 58 questions in total, covering topics like the structure and function of ovaries, follicular development, placenta, mammary glands, testes, spermatogenesis, and the changes that occur during sperm maturation. The questions test knowledge about the key cell types, organs, and processes involved in human reproduction.

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ّ‫اللهم‬ّ‫ّلوجهك‬ً‫ا‬‫اجعلّعملناّكلهّخالص‬
1) ………..is one of the accessory sex organs. a) mammary gland b) vagina c) uterus d) ovary 2) The origin of the germinal epithelium of the ovary is a) extra gonadal origin b) primordial germ cells c) stromal cells d) none of the above 3) The cortex of the ovary is different from the medulla in a) the cortex is highly cellular b) delicate collagen fibers are embedded in the cortex c) the stromal is composed of tunica albuginea and stromal cells d) all of the aboved 4) In 6-years old female, the female germ cells are in a) metaphaseّ b) prophase c) second meiosisّ d) none of the above 5) Oogenesis is found to be completed by…………….parenatal month a) 4 th b) 2 th c) 7 th d) None of the above 6) The first meiotic division is completed a) during early fetal life b) in child hood c) before ovulation d) after fertilization 7) Zona pellucida is found in all structures except a) primary follicle b) primordial follicle c) secondary follicle d) mature graffian follicle 8) All the following is from the accessory sex organs except a) placenta b) the mammary glands c) uterine tube d) none of the aboveّ
9) All the following is true about the placenta except a) one of the accessory sex glands b) only organ composed of cells derived of two different individuals c) it is formed of chorion and decidua capsularisّ d- the placenta secrete estrogen and progstrone 10) All the following is true about the ovary except a) it is formed of the definite cortex and medulla b) it is suspended by the broad ligament of the uterus c)the blood vessels enter the ovary through the mesovarium d) the ovary is almond shaped body 11) All the following is formed of loose CT except a) the medulla of the ovary b) the mucosa of the vagina c) the mucosa of the the fallopian tube d) The endo metrium of the uterus 12) All the following has stroma rich in elastic fibers except a) the cortex of the of the ovaryّ b) the adventitial layer of the vagina c) the lamina propria of the cervix d) none of the above 13) All the following is true about primordial follicle except a) it is surrounded by a single layer of flattened follicularcells b) its nucleus is large, pale and vesicular c) its cytoplasm has much organelles d) it is covered by few short micro villi ّ 14) All the following is true about primary follicles except a) they are surrounded by theca folliculiّ b) the follicular cells become granulosa cells c) they are found mainly in the peripheral cells d) they have zona pellucida 15) All the following is true about growing follicle except a) there is the follicular antrum b) the theca externa is steroid seceting cells c) corona radiata around the zona pellucida d) its size reaches about 2oo M in diameter 16) Zona pellucidais secreted mainly by a) granulosa cellsّ b) theca interna c) theca externa d) oocyte 17) The ovulation is percieded and stimulated by a) minimal increase in L.H b) high increase in F.S.H c) high increase in L.H d) b and c 18) Theca luten cells is different from granulosa luten cells in all except
a) the are smallerّ b) the stain more darkly c) they are localized at the periphery d) they secrete progesteron ّ 19) The life span of the corpus of luteum of the pregnancy is about…. a) 5 months b) 4 months c) 14 days d) 6 months 20) The part of fertilization in fallopian tube a) isthmus b) ampulla c) infandibulum d) interstitial partّ 21) Type of signaling between placenta and uterus of pregnant women a) endocrinal b) autocrinalّ c) paracrinal d) none of the above 22) All the following has a sebaceous gland except a) the labia minora b) the labia majora c) the clitoris d) none of the above 23) The vacuolated appearance of the mucosa of the vagina is due to a) the effect of the estrogen b) accumulation of the glycogen in large amount c) lipid droplets d) a and b 24) The mucosa of the vagina has the following except a) it is formed of the loss connective tissueّ b) there is mucus due to glands in the mucosa c) it is lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epitheliumّ d) the low Phis due to glycogen metabolism by bacteria 25) Which of the following is not in direct contact with embryo a) placenta b) decidua parietalis c) decidua capsularis d) decidua basalis 26) The chorion is composed of a) derivatives of extraembryonic mesoderm b) cytotrophoblast c) syncytiotrophoblast d) all of the above 27) All the following is true about syncytiotrophoblast a) it is derived from blastocyte b) it disappears gradually in the second half of pregnancy c) it remains until the end of the pregnancy d) it forms the placental barrier
28) All the following is true about cytotrophoblast except a) derived from the inner part of the trophoblast b) disappears gradually during the second half of pregnancy c) forms the placental barrier after the fourth month of pregnancy d) none of the aboveّ 29) Estrogen hormone of the placenta is synthesized by a) cytotrophpblast b) syncytiotrophoblast c) theca lutein cellsّ d) the granulosa cells 30) All the following is a content of late pregnancy placenta except a) cytotrophoblast b) syncytiotrophopblast c) maternal blood d) non if the above ّ 31) The maximal size of the mammary glands is during a) the pregnancy b) the lactationّ c) the puberty d) the menopause 32) The mammary glands a) are modified sweat glands b) are modified sebaceous glandsّ c) they are covered by thick skin d) they have a capsule 33) The montogomery glands a) are modified type of sweat glands b) are modified type of sebaceous glands c) open into the nipple d) b and c 34) The pinkish coloured area around the nipple a) is richly supplied by free nerve endingsّ b) becomes highly pigmented during puberty c) into it montogomery glands openّ d) a and c 35) In the mammary glands a) there are 15-20 lobules b) the intra lobular loose C.T is formed of papillary layer of dermis c) the inter lobular septa arises from reticular layer of dermis d) there is a capsule 36) In the mammary glands a) all the lobes are finally drained by a single main lactiferous duct b) there are acini in the resting mammary glands c) epithelium becomes tall columnar in the intra lobular ducts d) the lactiferous duct is lined by stratified squamous epith 37) All the following is true about the resting mammary glands except
a) the parenchyma is formed of duct system only b) each main lactiferous duct opens separately in the nipple c) the intra lobular duct is lined by low columnar cells d) the inter lobular C.T contains plasma cells and macrophages 38) In the mammary glands of pregnancy a) the milk is produced and stored by acini b) the colostrum is secreted in the last three months c) the adipose tissue increases d) the alveoli are well-established in early pregnancyّ 39) In lactating mammary glands a) milk is produced inside columnar epithelial cells b) there are apical milk granules in the high pyramidal cells c) there are cuboidal cells with milk granules in the lumenّ d) all of the above 40) The alveoli of the mammary glands a) are formed in the early pregnancy b) are present in the same grades of the activity c) are surrounded by stellate shaped myoepithelial cells d) they are not hormone dependent 41) Thick fibrous CT capsule covering the testis ………… a) Tunica Vasculosa b) Tunica Vaginalis c) Tunica Albuginea d) CT septa of the testis 42) Double layered serous sac which encloses the testis ………….. a) Tunica Vaginalis b) Tunica Vasulosa c) Tunica Albuginea d) Tunica Propria 43) The layer that extends between seminiferous tubules is ………….. a) Tunica albuginea b) Testicular interstitium c) Tunica vaginalis d) None of the above 44) The CT septa of the testis divides it into 250 seminiferous tubules? a) True b) False 45) All of the following is true concerning seminiferous tubules except ………… a) Structural and Functional unit of the testis b) Coiled non branching c) Endocrine portion of the testis d) Produce spermatozoa 46) The only type of cells present in sexually immature testes is …………. a) Primary spermatocyte b) Secondary spermatocyte
c) Spermatozoa d) Spermatogonium 47) The Spermatogonia enter the first meiotic division at puberty ? a) True b) False 48) Concerning Spermatogonia all is true except ………….. a) Rests on the basal lamina of seminiferous tubules b) Rounded and large in size c) Have 23 pairs of chromosomes d) Present in sexually immature testes 49) Differentiating progenitors which give rise to primary spermatocyte …………. a) Type A bale spermatogonia b) Type A dark spermatogonia c) Type B spermatogonia d) None of the above 50) Mitotic division of type A dark cells give rise to …………… a) Primary spermatocyte b) Type B spermatogonia c) Secondary spermatocyte d) Type A pale cells 51) The largest spermatogenic cells are ………… a) Primary spermatocyte b) Spermatozoa c) Spermatogonia d) Spermatid 52) Concerning 1ry spermatocyte the true statement is ………….. a) Arise from meiotic division of type B spermatogonia b) conatins 23 chromosome ( haploid number ) c) Frequently seen in sections b) Rounded and small 53) All is true concerning secondary spermatocyte except ………….. a) Arise from 1st meiotic division of 1ry spermatocyte b) Contains haploid number of chromosomes c) Rarely seen in sections d) Do not divide any more 54) Spermatids ………… a) Arise from 2nd meiotic division of 1ry spermatocyte b) Contains Diploid number of chromosomes c) Fill the lumen of seminiferous tubules d) None of the above 55) Spermiogenesis is the process by which male germ cells are transformed into spermatozoa ? a) True b) False 56) The changes during spermiogenesis involve all of the following organelles except ……….
a) Golgi apparatus b) Nucleus c) Mitochondria d) Lysosomes e) Centrioles 57) All of the following events occur during acrosomal phase except ………… a) Proacrosomal granules accumulate in acrosomal vesicle b) Centrioles move to the caudal pole of the nucleus c) One centriole start spinning axoneme d) Mitochondria moves to proximal portion of developing tail 58) During Acrosomal phase Which is not true ……… a) Formation of acrosomal cap b) The nucleus is more elongated and condensed c) Posterior distribution of the cytoplasm d) Shedding of the residual cytoplasm 59) The axonemal complex is formed by 2 central microtubules and 9 outer triplet microtubules ? a) True b) False 60) The fibrous sheath of the developing tail is formed by …………… a) 9 Longitudinal dense fibers b) Circumferential ribsّ c) Dorsal and ventral columns d) a and c e) b and c 61) The 9 cross striated fibers of the neck of sperm is continuous with ……. a) Circumferential ribs b) Longitudinal coarse fibers c) Ventral and dorsal columns d) None of the above 62) Concerning the principle piece of the tail of sperm which is not true …………. a) Extend from the neck to the annulus b) It contains an axoneme and outer dense fibers c) covered by fibrous sheath d) All of the above 63) Sloughing of cytoplasmic bridges leads to separation of …………. a) Early spermatids b) Late spermatids c) Spermatozoa d) Type B spermatogonia 64) Immotile cilia syndrome is due to Lack of ………… a) Circumferential ribs b) Acrosome c) Dyenin arms d) Centrioles 65) All of the following is true concerning sertoli cells except ………… a) Non spermatogenic cells of single type b) Large irregular nucleus with Tripartite nucleolar apparatus
c) They secrete testosterone d) Forms blood testis barrier 66) Sertoli cells contains the following except …………. a) Lipid droplets b) rER with Whorled appearance c) 1ry and 2ry lysosomes d) Microtubules and microfilaments 67) The basal compartment of the wall of seminiferous tubules contains the following except ………… a) Tunica propria b) Basal lamina c) Spermatids d) Spermatozoa 68) The wall of seminiferous tubules is divided into basal and adluminal parts by blood testicular barrier? a) True b) False 69) Adluminal compartment does not contain ………. a) 1ry & 2ry spermatocyte b) Spermatids c) Spermatozoa d) Blood vessels 70) Sertoli cells have a phagocytic function that include …………. a) Phagocytosis of dead sperms b) Spermiation c) Shaping head and tail of sperm d) All of the above e) None of the above 71) Which of the following is not function of blood testis barrier ……… a) Prevents macromolecules from passing into tubules b) Protect sperms from noxious agents c) Prevent autoimmune disease d) Provide special environment for developing sperm 72) Testosterone is secreted by ………. a) Sertoli cells b) Spermatogonia c) Interstitial cells of leydig d) Prostatic sells 73) Cells of leydig do not contain ………… a) sER b) Secretory granules c) Lipid droplets d) Mitochondria with tubular cristae 74) Leydig cells is present in ………… a) Tunica vasculosa b) Tunica albuginea c) Basal compartment of seminiferous tubules d) Tunica vaginalis 75) Concerning interstitial cells of leydig Which is not true ………… a) Undifferentialted mesenchymal cells of puberty b) Exocrine portion of the testis
c) Present in tunica vasculosa d) Secrete testosterone 76) Sertoli cells does not secrete …………. a) Estrogen b) Inhibin c) Testosterone d) Androgen binding protein 77) Testosterone is responsible for ………… a) Appearance of 2ry sexual organs b) Spermatogenesis c) Feed back for LH d) All of the above 78) Tunica vaginalis is a) The most outer layer of the testis b) A double layered serous sac c) An invagination from the peritoneum d) all of the above 79) Tunica albuginea is a) A thick fibrous C.T capsule above the tunica vaginalis b) A highly vascular loose C.T c) extends between the seminiferous tubules d) forms the mediastinum testis 80) Tunica vasculosa a) contains a group of the eosinophilic interstitial cells of leyding b) is the adouble layered serous sac c) is thick fibrous C.T under tunica albuginea d) is an invagination of the peritoneum 81) In 5-years old boy, the only type of the germ cells is a) primary spermatocytes b) early spermatids c) spermatogonia d- secondary spermatocytes 82) The primary spermatocytes a) are the largest spermatogenic cells b) have 23 chromosomes c) are found in 4-8 layers d) enter the first mitotic division at the puberty 83) all the following is true about secondary spermatocytes a) they arise from the first meiotic division b) they frequency seen in the sections c) they contain the haploid number of chromosomes d) they enter the second meiotic division without s- phase 84) In golgi phase of the spermiogenesis a) one of the centrioles elongates and starts spinning the axoneme b) the acrosomal vesicle covers the anterior half of the nucleus c) the nucleus becomes more elongated d) the mitochondria form the mitochondrial sheath 85) Acrosomal phase of the spermiogenesis
a) Is one of the phases of the spermatocytogenesis b) Its axonemal complex is 2 central and 9 outer singlet microtubules c) Its annulus is found in the end of the tail d) the circumferential ribs and columns form fibrous sheath 86) The middle piece of the spermatozoon is formed a) the axoneme b) 9 outer dense fibers c) mitochondria d- all of the above 87) All the following is true about sertolicells except a) the nucleus is flanked by 2 rounded masses of heterochromatin b) they are pale due to presence of the excessive lipid droplets c) there are rough E.R around the lipid droplets d) microtubules sand micro filaments change the cell shape 88) The sertoli cells secrete all the following except a) Oestrogen b) Testosterone c) Inhibin d) Androgen bindig protein 89) Interstitial cells of leyding a) are in tunica vasculosa b) their nucleus may be central or eccentric c) secrete testosterone d) all the above 90) All the following is lined by cuboidal cells except a) tubuli recti b) intra lobular ducts c) rete testis d) epididymis 91) All the following is the lined by pseudostratified columnar epi.except a) epididymis b) vas deferens c) ejaculatory duct d) seminal vesicles 92) Into the prostatic urethra , the ejaculatory duct is lined by a) columnar cells b) transitional cells c) cuboidal cells d) squamous stratified epithelium 93) The seminal vesicles a) are a reservoir for spermatozoa b) secrete 70% of the human ejaculate c) its secretion is yellowish, viscid ,slightly acidic d) are not hormonal dependant 94) The prostate gland is a) a merocrine gland b) an apocrine gland c) covered by the thick fibro-elastic C.T d) divided into 2 lobes
95) The outer secretory units of the prostate gland a) are lined by pseudostatified columnar epithelium b) are smaller and numerous c) are lined by simple columnar epithelium d) Are lined by simple columnar epithelium 96) In old age ,the prostate gland a) is calcified and changed into corpora amylacea b) benign prostatic hypertrophy is present in the subcapsular acini c- obstruction of the urethra with clinical symptoms in 20-30% d- all the above 97) Carpora cavernosa of the penis a) are lined by squamous epithelium b) are two in number connected by complete medianseptum c) are covered by the thick tunica albuginea d) have smaller vascular channels in center 98) All the following is one of the mucous secreting glands except a) glands of the litter b) cowper's gland c) sebaceous glands of the tyson d) none of the above 99) In cryptochidism a) failure of the descent of the testis into scrotum b) no secondary male characterictics c) no spermatogenesis d) a and c 1- A 2- A 3- Dّ 4- B 5- A 6- C 7- B 8- Cّ 9- C 10- A 11- Cّ 12- C 13- Cّ 14- C 15- B 16- D 17- D 18- Dّ 19- D 20- B 21- A 22- Cّ 23- Dّ 24- B 25- B 26- D 27- B 28- Cّ 29- B 30- A 31- B 32- Aّ 33- Bّ 34- D 35- D 36- D 37- D 38- Bّ 39- D 40- Cّ 41- C 42- A 43- B 44- B 45- C
46- D 47- B 48- B 49- C 50- D 51- A 52- C 53- D 54- D 55- B 56- D 57- D 58- D 59- B 60- E 61- B 62- A 63- B 64- C 65- C 66- B 67- C 68- A 69- D 70- D 71- D 72- C 73- B 74- A 75- B 76- C 77- D 78- d 79- D 80- A 81- C 82- A 83- B 84- A 85- D 86- D 87- C 88- B 89- D 90- D 91- D 92- B 93- B 94- A 95- C 96- A 97- A 98- C 99- D ‫وفى‬ ‫حسنة‬ ‫الدنيا‬ ‫فى‬ ‫آتنا‬ ‫ربنا‬ ‫وق‬ ‫حسنة‬ ‫اآلخرة‬‫النار‬ ‫عذاب‬ ‫نا‬
1) Vaginal discharge of Trichomonas vaginalis vaginitis is a) Thin and watery b) Greenish frothy c) Cured-white d) Blood-stained 2) All of the following is characteristic to subphylum mastigophora except …… a) Most of them are commensals b) Move with pseudopodia c) Asexual reproductive by binary fission d) none of the above 3) The cystic stage is absent in ……. . a) Giardia lamblia b) Dientaoeba fragilis c) Trichomonas Vaginalis d) All of the above 4) The general features of Genus Trichomonas include the following except …. a) They have 5 free flagella b) Have single vesicular nucleus c) Have prominent axostyle d) have cytosome 5) Which of the following is correct a) T.tenax inhibits intestine b) T.hominis inhibits mouth c) T.vaginalis inhibits vagina only d) none of the above 6) All of the following are results of infection with T.vaginalis except a) May cause prostatitis b) vulvar and vaginal pruiritis c) Alter PH of the vagina thus discourage infections d) Vaginal seropurlent discharge 7) Infection with T.vaginalis can be through ……. a) Sexual intercourse b) contaminated under ware c) infants during delivery d) all of the above 8-10) 25 year-old female with vaginal pruritis and frothy vaginal discharge come to physician with failure of several antibiotics to treatment : 8) This case is more likely to be infection with a) Treponema Pallidum b) H.Durcyi c) T.vaginalis d) N.gonorrhea 9) If it was parasitic infection how to diagnose it a) with immediate smear b) Air dried smear with Giemsa c) Culture of the parasite d) All of the above 10) If she was a pregnant how to treat her a) Metronidazole b) Tinidazole c) Clotrimazole d) All of the above
1- B 2- B 3- C 4- A 5- D 6- C 7- D 8- C 9- D 10- C ّ‫خيرّاألعمالّأدومهاّوإنّقل‬
1) Genital tract infections are caused by C.trachomatis serotypes ….. a) D-K b) L1 c) L2 d) L3 2) Which of the following mycoplasmas has been implicated as a cause of nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)? a) Mycoplasma hominis b) M. pneumoniae c) M. fermentans d) Ureaplasma urealyticum 3) Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a venereal disease caused by a) Serotype D of C.trachomatis b) Serotype K of C.trachomatis c) Serotype L1,2,3 of C.trachomatis d) None of the aboveّ 4) 35% to 50% of NGU are caused by ……. a) M. hominisّ b) C.trachomatis c) Ureaplasma urealyticum d) T.pallidum 5) Serologic testing of Chlamydial infection in adult is useful a) True b) Falseّ 6) M.hominis causes NGU in males a) True b) False ّ 7) Which is False about urogenital mycoplasms a) Show fried-egg appearance b) Susceptible to tetracycline c) U.urealyticum require 10% urea in their media d) Susceptible to erthromycin 8) As regards Papilloma viruses which is False a) Non-enveloped b) SS DNA c) Icosahedral symmetry d) There are more than 100 HPV typesّ 9) Human papillomavirus is most commonly associated with a) Rectal polyps b) Prostate cancer c) Condyloma papillomasّ d) Hepatic carcinoma 10) Human warts are not only cosmetically unsightly but may lead to cancer of the cervix. They are caused by which one of the following viruses a) Adenovirus b) Papillomavirus c) Rotavirus d) Cytomegalovirus
11) Laryngeal papilloma caused by ……. a) HPV-6 b) HPV-11 c) HPV-16 d) HPV-18 e) A & B 12) Which is False about HPV 6 & 11 a) Cause Laryngeal papilloma b) Cause benign genital condylomas c) Low cancer risk types d) High cancer risk types 13) ……. Is high cancer risk types a) HPV 6 b) HPV 11 c) HPV 16 d) HPV 18 e) C & D 14) As regards laryngeal papilloma which is False a) Caused by HPV 6 & 11 b) Caused by HPV 16 & 18 c) Sexually transmitted d) Acquired infection e) A & D f) B & C 15) Which of the following is the causative agent of a variety of cutaneous warts (plantar, common, and flat) and is associated with cervical neoplasia? a) Molluscum contagiosum b) Human papillomavirus c) Mycoplasma d) Chlaymedia 16) The lesions of ……. are small,pink,wart like tumors & it's bengin epidermal tumor a) HPV b) Molluscum contagiosum c) Chlaymedia d) Mycoplasma ّ 17) Gonorrhoeae is characterized by all of the following except a) most strains need CO2 b) Optimum temp. Is 37o C c) Obligatory anaerobe d) Colonies are small and semitransparent 18) The main feature distinguishes gonorrhea from meningococcus is a) Oxidase positive b) Need enriched media c) produce acid from maltose d) produce acid from glucose 19) Infertility is a complication occur in female with gonococcal infection secondary to a) Salpingitis b) Proctitis c) Cervicitis d) None of the above 20) N.gonorrhea is antingenically heterogeneous and thus it is a) Resistant to phagocytosis b) Adhere to epithelial cells c) no protective immunity d) Can produce endotoxins
21) No health carrier of N.gonorrhea exist but it may be asymptomatic in a) Chronic cervicitis b) Urethritis c) Salpingitis d) Conjunctivitis 22) One of the complications of Gonococcal infection in males due to fibrosis is a) Urethritis b) Epididymitis c) prostatitis d) Urethral stricture 23) On checking smears of N.gonorrhea one of the following is not detectable a) G –ve diplococcic b) Coaglutination c) Polymorph nuclear d) extracellular organisms 24) Treatment of infection with N.gonorrhea is a) Penicillin b) Vancomycin c) Nystatin d) Ciprofloxacin 25) H.Durcyi ……. a) Grow on chocolate agar b) Gram - ve rods c) Cause Chancroid d) All of the above 26) Which is false about Chancroid a) Caused by H.Durcyi b) Swollen tender ulcer c) Occur in females only d) Accompanied by enlarged LNs 27) The characteristic features for typical Treponema palladium include the following except a) Spiral filaments when stained with aniline dye b) Motile organisms with endoflagella c) Delicate organisms d) Has bending movement 28) According to Reiter strain which is the false statement a) It is non-pathogenic b) Has never be cultured c) Can be cultured d) Share antigen with pathogenic strains 29) Cardiolipin is not ……. . a) Called reagin b) a diphospholipids c) antigen on treponema d) none of the above 30) To increase the sensitivity of reagin to Cardiolipin a) injection in rabbit testes b) extracted from beef heart c) Cholesterol is added to it d) none of the above
31) PPR test is different from VDRL test in a) it take 4 min. in rotating machine not 8 b) it is easily and rapid c) It is performed on glass slides d) Patient's serum is heat activated 32) FTA-abs can't be used to judge the efficacy of treatment while ……can be used. a) TP-PA test b) ELISA test c) RPR test d) None of the above 33) Generalized lymphadenopathy is more likely to occur in a) primary stage of syphilis b) secondary stage of syphilis c) latent stage of syphilis d) late stage of syphilis 34) Syphilis can be transmitted from mother to son through passage from birth canal as it can't penetrate BPB a) True b) False 35) Cardiolipin based test is positive in all of the following samples except a) Early primary syphilis sample b) secondary stage syphilis sample c) Latent stage syphilis sample d) CSF sample in late stage 36) The first drug of choice for syphilis is a) benzathine penicillin b) Erythromycin c) Tetracycline d) Cephalosporin 37) All members of Herpes viruses can be isolated easily on cell culture except a) VZV b) CMV c) EBV d) KSHV 38) For detection of HSV all the following is valuable except a) Serology especially in recurrent infection b) Detection of viral NA by PCR c) Isolation on tissue culture cells d) Smears stained with Giemsa stain 39) HSV poses a latent period which may be in a) Trigeminal ganglia b) Sacral ganglia c) Lumbar ganglia d) All of the above 40) All the following diseases are caused by HSV-1 except a) Pneumonia b) Aseptic meningitis c) Herpes labialis d) Acute gingivomastitis 41) According to HSV which statement is true a) HSV-1 responsible for only 10% of oral and ocular lesion b) HSV-2 responsible for 90% of oral and
ocular lesion c) HSV-1 responsible for 90% of genital lesion d) HSV-2 responsible for 90% of genital lesions 42) Herpetic Whitlow is a disease mediated by HSV-1 and it is often affect a) children b) Sexually active adults c) medical personnel d) None of the above 43) all the following diseases is caused by HSV-2 except a) Acute gingivomastitis b) Neonatal herpes c) Aseptic meningitis d) Genital herpes 1- A 2- D 3- Cّ 4- B 5- B 6- B 7- D 8- Bّ 9- C 10- B 11- E 12- D 13- E 14- E 15- B 16- B 17- C 18-D 19-A 20-C 21-A 22-D 23-B 24-D 25-D 26-C 27-A 28-B 29-A 30-C 31-B 32-C 33-B 34-B 35-A 36-A 37- C 38- A 39- D 40- B 41- D 42- C 43- A 1) All the following are common sites for endometriosis except ....... a) ovary b) douglas pouch c) vagina d) uterine ligaments 2) The endometrial deposits arise when endometrial glands are regurgitated into the proteneal cavity and then impalant into the peritoneal surface. This is called........ a) implantation theory b) metaplastic theory c) metastatic theory d) endometrial theory 3) In endometriosis , chocolate cysts
are especially seen in ......... a) ovarian ligaments b) douglas pouch c) urinary bladder d) ovaries 4) In endometriosis , we see microscopically ......... a) endometrail glands b) endometrial stroma c) hemosiderine pigmentation d) all the above e) a&b only 5) All the following ocuur in endometriosis except ......... a) dysparunia b)dyspepsia c)dysurea d) acute abdomen 6) ........... causes menorrhagia a) endometriosis b) adenomyosis c) endometrial polyp d) atypical endometrial hyperplasia 7) All the following causes endometrial hyperplasia except............ a) obesity b) nulliparity c) polycyctic ovary syndrome d) prolonged unopposed progesterone stimulation 8) Swiss cheese appearance is found in ........ a) adenomyosis b) endometriosis c) simple endometrial hyperplasia d) complex endometrial hyperplasia 9) ............... is endometrial benign tumor. a) endometrial polyp b) leiomyoma c) mixed mullarian tumor d) all the above 10) Risk factors of endometrial carcinoma include all the following except .......... a) obesity b) infertility c) nullipara d) hypotention 11) Cervical polyp is associated increased risk of malignancy a) true b) false 12) Cervical polyp may be ............ a) single b) multiple c) covered by rough glistening surface d) soft 13) All the following are risk factors of ( CIN ) except ......... a) diabetes mellitus b) multiparity c) cigarette smoking
d) immunosuppression 14) ......... is high grade intraepithelial lesion a) CIN I b) CIN II c) CIN III d) b&c 15) Dysplastic changes involve the lower third of the epithelium of the cervix a) CIN I b) CIN II c) CIN III d) a &b 16) ...... is the age of incidence of invasive cervical carcinoma. a) 20 year b) 30 year c) 40 year d) 50 year 17) ............ can be found in invasive cervical carcinoma a) abnormal uterine bleeding b) malodorous vaginal discharge c) ulceration d) all the above 18) Dilatation of ducts, lipid laden macrophages, fibrosis is characteristic of ….. a) Acute mastitis b) Plasma cell mastitis c) Fat necrosis d) Galactocele 19) Fibrosis retraction of nipple can be seen in …… a) Acute mastitis b) Chronic mastitis c) Fat necrosis d) Galactocele e) A & B 20) A 27-year-old female who is actively training for a marathon presents with the new onset of a painful lump in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. A mammogram shows an irregular mass with focal areas of calcification.An excisional biopsy reveals a localized area of granulation tissue and numerous lipid-laden macrophages surrounding necrotic adipocytes.What is the correct diagnosis? a) Acute mastitis b) Ectasia c) Enzymatic fat necrosis d) Traumatic fat necrosis 21) ……. Is clinically is differential diagnosis of carcinoma a) Acute mastitis b) Mammary duct ectasia c) Fat necrosis d) Galactocele e) B & C
22) …… is a cystic dilation of breast ducts occurring during lactation a) Acute mastitis b) Galactocele c) Ectasis d) Fat necrosis 23) Which is False about fibrocystic change of the breast a) Spectrum of macroscopic & microscopic changes in the female breast b) Unilateral c) Occurs at age of 20-50 years d) characterized by fibrosis, adenosis & cyst formation 24) ……. Is the most cause of palpable masses in female breast a) Chronic mastitis b) Fibrocystic change of the breast c) Fat necrosis d) Galatocele 25) Blue dome cysts is the characteristic feature of ……. a) Non proliferative fibrocystic change b) Epithelial hyperplasia c) Sclerosing adenosis d) All of the above 26) Ductal papillomatosis is seen in ….. a) Sclerosing adenosis b) Epithelial hyperplasia c) Plasma cell mastitis d) Non-proliferative fibrocystic change 27) Non-proliferative fibrocystic changes including all of the following Except a) Fibrosis b) Adenosis c) Sclerosing adenosis d) Cyst formation 28) Proliferative fibrocystic changes, moderate hyperplasia without atypia is associated with …. a) No increase the risk of breast cancer b) Increases the risk of breast cancer 4- 5 times c) Increases the risk of breast cancer 10 times d) Mild increase the risk of breast cancer 29) ……. Increase the risk of breast cancer 10 times a) Proliferative disease +atypia b) Proliferative dfibrocystic change + florid hyperplasia without atypia c) Proliferative disease+ atypia +positive family history d) non-proliferative fibrocystic change +mild epithelial hyperplasia 30) During a routine breast self- examination, a 35-year-old female is concerned because her breasts feel “lumpy.” She consults you as her primary care physician. After
performing an examination, you reassure her that no masses are present and that the “lumpiness” is due to fibrocystic changes. Considering this clinical opinion, a pathologic finding that is consistent with the non proliferative form of fibrocystic change is a) A blue-domed cyst b) Atypical hyperplasia c) Papillomatosis d) Sclerosing adenosis 31) Apocrine metaplasia is seen in …… a) Sclerosing adenosis b) Papillomatosis c) Atypical hyperplasia d) Non-proliferative fibrocystic change 32) A 25-year-old female presents to your office for workup of infertility. In giving a history she describes severe pain during menses, and she also tells you that in the past another doctor told her that she had “chocolate in her cysts.” Based on this history, what abnormality would you most expect to be present in this patient? a) Metastatic ovarian cancer b) Endometriosis c) Adenomyosis d) A posteriorly located subserosal uterine leiomyoma 33) Oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, obesity & infertility are the clinical features of …… a) Follicular cysts b) Stein-leventhal syndrome c) Chocolate cysts d) Luteal cyst 34) Which type of ovary cysts is associated with endometrial hyperplasia a) Luteal cyst b) Follicular cysts c) Chocolate cysts d) All of the above 35) A 19-year-old female presents with oligomenorrhea. Physical examination reveals an obese young female with acne and increased facial hair. A pelvic examination is essentially within normal limits, excluding the adnexal regions, which could not be palpated secondary to obesity. Ultrasound examination reveals bilateral enlargement of the ovaries with multiple subcortical cysts. Which one of the listed sets of serum laboratory values is most likely to be present in this individual? Serum LH Serum FSH LH/FSH ratio a- decreased decreased High b- decreased decreased Low c- decreased increased Low
d- increased decreased High 36) A 23-year-old female presents with pelvic pain and is found to have an ovarian mass. Grossly, the mass consists of multiple cystic spaces. Histologically, these cysts are lined by tall columnar ciliated epithelium, what is your diagnosis of this ovarian tumor? a) Serous tumor b) Mucinous tumor c) Endometrioid tumor d) Brenner tumor 37) Concerning M.P of benign serous cystadenomas which is False a) Papillae have delicate fibrous cores b) Stratification of epithelial cells c) Lined by tall columnar ciliate epithelium d) None of the above 38) AS regarding Borderline serous tumors, which is False …. a) No invasion of the stroma b) Moderate atypia c) Papillary formation d) Stratification of epithelial cells 39) Concerning Serous tumors which is False a) Most common ovarian tumors b) Unilateral c) 60% are benign d) occur in age 20-50 years 40) Psammoma bodies is characteristic of ……… ovarian tumors a) Benign serous cystadenoma b) Serous cystadenocarcinoma c) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma d) Borderline serous tumor 41) Single layer of tall columnar non ciliated epithelium is character of …. a) Benign serous cystadenomas b) Benign mucinous cystadenomas c) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma d) Borderline of serous tumor 42) Which is False about Mucinous tumors a) Less common than serous tumors b) 80 % are benign c) Occur at age 30-40 years d) Mostly bilateral 43) Concerning benign mucinous cystadenomas which is True a) Single layer of tall columnar ciliated epithelium b) Stratification of lining epithelial cells c) Single layer of tall columnar non ciliated epithelium d) Papillary formation 44) Pseudomyxoma peritonei is most likely to be associated with a a) Serous tumor of the ovary b) Mucinous tumor of the ovary c) Teratomas d) Choriocarcinoma
45) Concerning endometrial polyps all is true except …….. a) Non neoplastic polyp b) It causes uterine bleeding c) Due to localized over growth of endometrial epithelium d) very rare turn malignant 46) The neoplastic component of endometrial polyp is …………. a) Endometrial glands b) Endometrial stroma c) Both 47) All of the following is not true concerning endometrial polyp except …………….. a) Originates from endocervical stroma b) May spread to the vagina c) True neoplastic polyp d) Endometrial glands are the neoplastic component 48) Endometrial polyps are very rarely may turn malignancy? a) True b) False 49) The most common malignant tumor in female genitalia is ……….. a) Invasive cervical carcinoma b) Endometrial carcinoma c) Uterine leiomyoma d) Endometriosis 50) Concerning Endometrial carcinoma all of the following is true except …………… a) Most common benign tumor of the uterus b) Endometrial hyperplesia is a common precursor c) Usually it is postmenopausal d) More frequent than invasive cervical carcinoma 51) The most common risk factor for endometrial carcinoma is ………………… a) Estrogen secreting ovarian tumor b) Polycystic ovary c) Atypical endometrial hyperplesia d) Infertility 52) All of the following are risk factors for endometrial carcinoma except ………….. a) Prolonged estrogen replacement therapy b) Early menarche and late menopause c) Obesity d) Multiparity 53) In estrogen dependent endometrial adenocarcinoma which is not true ………….. a) Most common type b) Related to hyperesterinism c) Develops against background of endometrial atrophy d) Common in postmenopausal women 54) Non estrogen dependent endometrial carcinoma is more well differentiated than estrogen dependent?
a) True b) false 55) Endometrial carcinoma may spread to the vagina by ………… a) Local spread only b) Lymphatic spread c) Blood spread d) A and B e) A and C 56) In stage 3 endometrial carcinoma ,Which is true? a) Confined to corpus uteri b) Involve corpus uteri and cervix c) Involve the lower third of the vagina d) Outside the uterus but not outside the true pelvis e) Outside the uterus and the true pelvis 57) The most common benign tumor of the uterus is ………….. a) Endocervical polyp b) Endometrial carcinoma c) Uterine leiomyoma d) Leiomyosarcoma 58) Concerning uterine leiomyoma all is true except ………….. a) Most common benign tumor of the uterus b) Most common Cause of uterine bleeding c) Postmenopausal d) Malignant transformation is rare 59) Grossly… masses of uterin leiomyoma have the following features except …………. a) Rounded , well circumscribed b) Firm , capsulated c) Grayish white d) Cut section shows whorly appearance 60) All of the following are complications of submucosal leiomyoma except ………… a) Ischemic necrosis of the mass b) Obstruction of delivery c) Infertility d) Menorrhagia 61) Concerning leiomyosarcoma All is true except ………… a) Most common sarcoma of uterus b) Arise on top of leiomyoma c) Mitotic figures of atypia is seen microscopically d) very rare 62) Which one of the listed endometrial abnormalities has the greatest risk of developing into endometrial cancer? a) Simple hyperplasia b) Complex hyperplasia c) Atypical hyperplasia d) Cystic hyperplasia e) Polyp 63) Prolonged unopposed estrogen stimulation in an adult female increases the risk of development of endometrial hyperplasia and subsequent carcinoma. What is the most likely histologic appearance of this endometrial
carcinoma? a) Adenocarcinoma b) Clear cell carcinoma c) Small cell carcinoma d) Squamous cell carcinoma e) Transitional cell carcinoma 64) A 46-year-old woman undergoes an abdominal hysterectomy for a “fibroid” uterus. The surgeon requests a frozen section on the tumor, which is deferred because of the lesion’s degree of cellularity. Which of the following criteria will be used by the pathologist in determining benignancy versus malignancy in permanent sections? a) Mitotic rate b) Cell pleomorphism c) Cell necrosis d) Nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio e) Tumor size 65) All the following is true about benign cystic teratoma except a) it occurs in young women b) it is usually unilateralّ c) it is unilocular cyst in cut sectionّ d) it is sometimes soft formed of benign structures 66) The benign cystic teratoma a) usually undergoes malignant changesّ b) is usually bilateral c) occurs after menopauseّ d) may undergoes torsion causing acute abdomen 67) All the following is true about malignant teratoma except a) it is bulky , solid with areas of necrosis and haemorrhage b) it is common after menopause c) its grading depends on the immature neuroepithelium proportion d)the prognosis is best in low grade 68) All the following shows thyroid tissues except a) mature cystic teratomaّ b) struma ovariiّ c) thyroid carcioma d) ovarian carcinoid ّ 69) Dysgerminoma a) is bilateral b) is formed of small cells with clear plasma c) is responsive to chemotherapy d) occurs after menopause 70) All the following is responsive to chemotherapy except a) uterine choriocarcioma b) ovarian choriocarcinoma c) gestational choriocarcinoma d) dysgerminoma 71) Meig's syndrome occurs in a) fibrothecoma b) granulosa-theca tumours c) dysgerminoma d) choriocarcinoma
72) Call-exner bodies are a) basophilic materialّ b) are seen in the fibrothecoma c) are seen in the granulosa theca cell tumours d) are seen in the dysgerminoma ّ 73) All the following is true about fibrothecoma except a) it is leading to meig's syndrome b) it is usually unilateral c) it arises mostly in post-menopausal women d) accounts 5% of all ovarian tumoursّ 74) Spread of malignant ovarian tumours by blood is most commonly to a)uterus b) breast c) lungs d) kidney 75) all of the following is true about krukenberg's tumours except a) it is metastatic gastrointestinal tract to ovary b) it is unilateral c) it is composed of mucin –producing signet ring cells d) it spreads from gastric carcinoma transcoelomic method 76) All gestational trophoblastic tumor share that they …………. a) Are benign b) Cause marked atypia c) Secrete HCGs at higher level d) Do metastasize 77) Benign tumor of the placental trophoblasts occurs due to faulty fertilization a) Invasive mole b) Hydatiform mole c) Choriocarcinoma d) Fibroma 78) Concerning vesicular mole all is true except …………. a) They are complete or partial b) Due to implantation of defective ovum c) Postmenopausal d) Causes painless vaginal bleeding 79) In complete vesicular mole …………. a) Normal ovum fertilized by diploid sperm b) Empty ovum fertilized by 2 sperms c) Empty ovum fertilized by diploid sperm d) a & b e) b & c 80) The most common karyotype of partial mole is ………… a) Triploid ( 69 , XXX ) b) Triploid ( 69 , XXY ) c) Triploid ( 96 , XXY ) d) Triploid ( 69 , XYY ) 81) The most common karyotype of complete mole is …………… a) Diploid ( 64 , XY ) b) Diploid ( 64 , XX )
c) Diploid ( 46 , XX ) d) Diploid ( 46 , XY ) 82) All of the following is not true concerning partial mole except …………….. a) All chromosomes are paternal b) Fetal parts are seen c) No embryogenesis d) Diploid Karyotype ( 46 , XX ) 83) All of the following is true about complete mole except …………….. a) No fetal parts b) Hydropic swelling in all villi c) Edematous stroma with increased vascularization d) May turn malignant 84) The tumor markers of hydatiform mole is HCG ? a) True b) False 85) 2% of complete moles become invasive and 10% turn malignant into choriocarcinoma? a) True b) False 86) Concerning invasive mole all is true except …………….. a) Do not metastasize b) Perforates the uterine wall muscles c) No signs of atypia d) Good response to chemotherapy 87) 50% of Gestational Choriocarcinoma may follow …………. a) Ectopic pregnancy b) Complete mole c) Normal pregnancy d) Abortion 88) Concerning Gestational Choriocarcinoma All is true Except …………… a) Intrauterine large fleshy yellowish mass b) Areas of haemorrhage and necrosis c) Hydropic swelling in all villi d) Follow complete mole 89) Microscopically Choriocarcinoma shows …………. a) Malignant trophoblasts b) No Chorionic villi c) High vascularity with haemorrhage and necrosis d) All of the above 90) Early spread of choriocarcinoma is by ……….. a) Lymphatics b) Blood c) Local spread d) They do not metastasize 91) Invasive mole do metastasize mainly by blood ? a) True b) False 92) The most differentiating point in gestational choriocarcinoma is ……………..
a) Highly sensitive to chemotherapy 100 % cure b) Highly vascular c) Do not metastasize d) High level of HCG 93) A 25-year-old woman in her fifteenth week of pregnancy presents with uterine bleeding and passage of a small amount of watery fluid and tissue. She is found to have a uterus that is much larger than estimated by her gestational dates. Her uterus is found to be filled with cystic, avascular, grapelike structures that do not penetrate the uterine wall. No fetal parts are found. The most likely diagnosis for this abnormality is …… a) Partial hydatidiform mole b) Complete hydatidiform mole c) Invasive mole d) Placental site trophoblastic tumor e) Choriocarcinoma 94) …… is the most common benign tumor of female breast a) Fibroadenoma b) Duct papilloma c) Phyllodes tumors d) All of the above 95) As regards gross morphology of fibroadenoma which is False a) Encapsulated b) Usually bilateral c) Firm in consistency d) Varies in size 96) Bloody discharge is characteristic features of …… a) Fibroadenoma b) Duct papilloma c) Epithelium hyperplasia d) Phyllodes tumors 97) A neoplastic component of duct papilloma is stromal element a) True b) False 98) Which is False about gross morphology of small duct papillomas a) Multiple b) Attached to the duct system by fibrovascular stalk c) Deeply found within the ductal system d) Increase the risk of subsequent malignancy 99) As regards Phyllodes tumors which is False a) Neoplastic element is stroma b) Arises from pre-exisiting fibroadenomas c) Affecting older pateints d) Grossly show Leaf like cleft 100) A 39-year-old female presents with the new onset of a bloody discharge from her right nipple. Physical examination reveals a 1-cm freely movable mass that is located directly beneath the nipple. Sections from this mass reveal multiple fibrovascular cores lined by several layers of epithelial cells. Atypia is minimal. The
lesion is completely contained within the duct and no invasion into underlying tissue is seen. What is the correct diagnosis? a) Benign phyllodes tumor b) Ductal papilloma c) Paget’s disease d) Papillary carcinoma 101) A 35-year-old female presents with a 2.2-cm mass in her left breast.The mass is excised, and histologic sections reveal a tumor composed of a mixture of ducts and cells, as seen in the photomicrograph below. The epithelial cells within the ducts are not atypical in appearance. There is a marked increase in the stromal cellularity, but the stromal cells are not atypical in appearance and mitoses are not found. What is the correct diagnosis for this breast lesion? a) Fibroadenoma b) benign phyllodes tumor c) Malignant phyllodes tumor d) Medullary carcinoma 102) All of the following factors increase the risk of breast cancer Except a) Nullipara b) Increased age c) Prolonged breast- feeding d) Proliferative fibrocystic changes 103) …………is the most area of breast in which breast cancer arise a) Upper outer quadrant b) Lower outer quadrant c) Central area d) Upper inner quadrant 104) ……. Is the most common form of breast cancer a) Invasive ductal carcinoma of NOS b) Medullary carcinoma c) Colloid carcinoma b) inflammatory carcinoma 105) Peau d'orange can be seen in …….. a) Invasive ductal carcinoma of NOS b) Tubular carcinoma c) Inflammatory carcinoma d) A& C 106) Inflammatory carcinoma is of the breast due …….. a) Infiltration of dermal lymphatics b) Infiltration of epidermis of the nipple c) Infiltration of epidermis of the areola d) None of the above 107) There's No palpable mass in all of the following Except a) DCIS b) Inflammatory carcinoma c) Paget's disease
d) LCIS 108) Which is True about ILC a) Well circumscribed b) Firm in consistency c) Indian files d) Large tumor cells 109) Uncommonly metastasizing breast cancer including all the following Except a) Colloid carcinoma b) Inflammatory carcinoma c) Medullary carcinoma d) Tubular carcinoma 110) As regards Gyencomastia which is False a) Enlargement of the male breast b) Enlargement of the female breast c) Excessive of estrogen d)Usually bilateral 111) The most important factor related to the prognosis of breast cancer is a) The histologic type and grade b) The status of axillary lymph nodes c) The presence of estrogen receptors d) Chromosomal aneuploidy 112) A 48-year-old female presents with a 1.5-cm firm mass in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast. A biopsy from this mass reveals many of the ducts to be filled with atypical cells. In the center of these ducts there is extensive necrosis. No invasion into the surrounding fibrous tissue is seen. What is the correct diagnosis for this breast mass? a) Colloid carcinoma b) Comedocarcinoma c) Infiltrating ductal carcinoma d) Lobular carcinoma in situ 113) Infiltrative lobular carcinoma of the breast is characterized histologicallyby a) Large cells with clear cytoplasm within the epidermis b) Single-file pattern of infiltration c) Granulomatous inflammation d) None of the above 114) A 35-year-old woman who underwent a modified radical mastectomy of her right breast for infiltrating ductal carcinoma 2 years ago presents with enlargement of her right breast. The breast has a swollen,red- discolored appearance. It is diffusely indurated and tender on palpation. Multiple axillary lymph nodes are palpable in the lower axilla. The working clinical diagnosis is inflammatory carcinoma. Microscopic sections from this red, indurated area are most likely to reveal a) Infiltrating malignant ducts surrounded by numerous neutrophils b) Extensive invasion of dermal lymphatics c) Duct ectasia with numerous plasma cells d) None of the above 115) A 46-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of a discharge from the nipple. An excisional biopsy of the nipple area reveals infiltration of the nipple by
large cells with clear cytoplasm. These cells are found both singly and in small clusters in the epidermis and are PAS-positive and diastase-resistant. What is the correct diagnosis? a) Ductal papilloma b) Paget’s disease c) Eczematous inflammation d) Phyllodes tumor, malignant 116) A 32-year-old male presents with scrotal enlargement. Physical examination, including scrotal transillumination, reveals the presence of a testicular cyst containing clear fluid. This abnormality most likely results from fluid accumulating within the ……………… a) Ampulla of the ductus deferens b) Appendix testis c) Epididymis d) Seminal vesicles e) Tunica vaginalis 117) Which of the following testicular tumors is most radiosensitive? a) Seminoma b) Embryonal carcinoma c) Choriocarcinoma d) Yolk sac tumor e) Immature teratoma 118) A 27-year-old male presents with a testicular mass, which is resected and diagnosed as being a yolk sac tumor. Which one of the listed substances is most likely to be increased in this patient’s serum as a result of being secreted from the cells of this tumor? a) Acid phosphatase b) α fetoprotein (AFP) c) Alkaline phosphatase d) β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG) e) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) 119) A 47-year-old male presents with the sudden onset of fever, chills, and dysuria. During the review of symptoms you discover that he has no history of recurrent urinary tract infections. Rectal examination finds that the prostate gland is very sensitive and examination is painful. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? a) Acute prostatitis b) Chronic bacterial prostatitis c) Chronic abacterial prostatitis d) Granulomatous prostatitis e) Benign prostatic hyperplasia 120) A 69-year-old male presents with urinary frequency, nocturia, dribbling, and difficulty in starting and stopping urination. Rectal examination reveals the prostate to be enlarged, firm, and rubbery. A needle biopsy reveals increased numbers of glandular elements and stromal tissue. The glands are found to have a double layer of epithelial cells. Prominent nuclei or back-to- back glands are not seen. What is the correct diagnosis? a) Acute prostatitis b) Chronic bacterial prostatitis c) Granulomatous prostatitis
d) Benign prostatic hyperplasia e) Prostatic adenocarcinoma 121) A 67-year-old male is found on rectal examination to have a single, hard, irregular nodule within his prostate. A biopsy of this lesion reveals the presence of small glands lined by a single layer of cells with enlarged, prominent nucleoli. From what portion of the prostate did this lesion most likely originate? a) Anterior zone b) Central zone c) Peripheral zone d) Periurethral glands e) Transition zone 122) All of the following is true about Crypto orchidism except ……………….. a) Occurs in 0.7% of male population b) Most cases are idiopathic c) More common in the left testis d) Asymptomatic 123) Which is true concerning syphilitic inflammation of the testis? a) Begins as Primary infection in UT b) Always begins as orchitis c) Always begins at the epididymis d) Results from heamatogenous spread 124) All of the following is true concerning testicular neoplasms except …………. a) Most common cause of painless enlargement of the testis b) 95% of these tumors arise from germ cells c) Most of them are benign d) Peak incidence between 15-35 years 125) Which is not true concerning germ cell tumor of the testis? a) 95% of testicular neoplasms b) All are malignant c) Arise from totipotent cells d) Associated with endocrine abnormalities 126) The most common germ cell tumor in adults is …………… a) Seminoma b) Choriocarcinoma c) Yolk sac tumor d) Embryonal carcinoma 127) Concerning seminomas Which is not true? a) Commonest 30% of germ cell tumor b) Counterpart of choriocarcinoma in females c) Peak incidence in 4th decade d) None of the above 128) Grossly seminomas have the following characteristic features except …………. a) Large soft mass b) Well demarcated c) Large tumors contain foci of coagulative necrosis d) Infiltrating the surrounding areas 129) A 48-year-old male presents with a large, painless testicular mass after physical and radiological examination showed that the mass is solid and confined to the testis ,
a biopsy was taken from the mass it revealed large cells with distinct borders arranged in small lobules , surrounded by fibrous tissue and lymphocytic infiltration … this mass most likely to be ……………. a) Embryonal carcinoma b) Testicular lymphoma c) Seminoma d) Teratoma 130) In stage 2 seminoma ………….. a) Tumor confined to testis b) Metastasis limited to retroperitoneal LN c) Metastasis above the diaphragm d) Metastasis outside retroperitoneal LN 131) Most common testicular tumor in infants and young children is ………….. a) Yolk sac tumour b) Embryonal carcinoma c) Immature teratoma d) Seminoma 132) Alpha feto protein is a tumor marker of ………….. a) Choriocarcinoma b) Seminoma c) Yolk sac tumor d) Leydig cell tumor 133) Tumor markers of testicular choriocarcinoma …………. a) Alpha feto protein b) HCG c) Androgens and estrogen d) None of the above 134) All teratomas of adult males are considered malignant? a) True b) False 135) Complete the table Point of comparison Seminoma Non seminomatous tumors a) Clinical picture b) Spread c) Behavior d) Treatment e) Prognosis 136) Concerning interstitial cell tumor of the testis which is true? a) Not a primary tumor of the testis b) Secrete estrogen in low quantities c) Painless testicular mass with no hormonal changes d) 90% are benign 137) The most common testicular tumor in males above 60 years is
……………. a) Tesicular lymphoma b) Seminoma c) Embryonal carcinoma d) Leydig cell tumor 138) Lymphatic Fluid in tunica vaginalis due to lymphatic obstruction ……………… a) Hydrocele b) Hematocele c) Chylocele d) Varicocele 139) All is true concerning BPH except ……………… a) Mostly due to hormonal changes b) affect 90% of males above 70 c) Mainly in the outer peripheral part of prostate d) No malignant transformation 140) Which of the following is a complications of BPH? a) Urinary Bladder irritation b) Chronic Renal Failure c) Pyelonephritis and stone formation d) All of the above e) None of the above 141) The most common visceral cancer in males is …………… a) Seminoma b) Carcinoma prostate c) Senile prostatic hyperplesia d) Dysgerminoma 142) Concerning prostatic carcinoma Which is not true? a) Most cases are occult b) Mainly in outer peripheral part of prostate c) Serum acid phosphatase is a tumor marker d) None of the above 143) All the following is true about the microscopic picture of well differentiated prostatic carcinoma except ………. a) Small glands arranged irregularly b) Lined by single layer of cuboidal cells c) Absence of basal cell layer d) No dysplastic changes 144) Grossly which is true about prostatic carcinoma? a) Large nodular mass b) Multiple well circumscribed nodules c) Mainly In the outer peripheral part d) No infiltration of the adjacent areas 145) Brode’s grading is used in carcinoma of the prostate? a) True b) False 146) Extra Capsular invasion of prostatic carcinoma but still clinically localized is stage ……….. a) 1
b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 147) The most important precipitating condition to prostatic carcinoma is ………….. a) Dysplasia of the prostate glands b) Poorly differentiated glands c) Absence of basal layer d) Glands lie back to back 1- C 2- A 3- D 4- D 5- B 6- B 7- D 8- C 9- A 10- D 11- B 12- C 13- A 14- D 15- D 16- D 17- D 18- B 19- E 20- D 21- E 22- B 23- B 24- B 25- A 26- B 27- C 28- D 29- C 30- A 31- D 32 -ّ B 33- B 34- B 35- D 36- A 37- B 38- C 39- B 40) B 41- B 42- D 43- C 44- B 45- A 46- B 47- C 48- A 49- B 50- A 51- C 52- D 53- C 54- B 55- D 56- D 57- C 58- C 59- B 60- A 61- B 62- C 63- A 64- A 65- D 66- D 67- B 68- B 69- C 70- B 71- A 72- C 73- D 74- C 75- B 76- C 77- B 78- C 79- E 80- B 81- C 82- B 83- C 84- A 85- B 86- C 87- B 88- C 89- D 90- B 91- B 92- A 93- B 94- A 95- B 96- B 97- B 98- B 99- B 100- B
101- B 102- C 103- A 104- A 105- D 106- A 107- C 108- C 109- B 110- B 111- B 112- B 113- B 114- B 115- B 116- E 117- A 118- B 119- A 120- D 121- C 122- C 123- B 124- C 125- D 126- A 127- B 128- D 129- C 130- B 131- A 132- C 133- B 134- A 135- Point of comparison Seminomas Non seminomatous tumors a) C/P Painless enlargement without distant metastasis Presented as occult carcinoma by wide spread metastasis with absence of palpable mass b) Spread Lymphatic Blood and lymphatic c) Behavior Less aggressive More aggressive d) Treatment Radiosensitive Radio resistant e) Prognosis Betterّ Worse 136- D 137- A 138- C 139- C 140- D 141- B 142- D 143- D 144- C 145- B 146- C 147- A ‫ّإن‬‫اللهم‬ّ‫اّنسألكّحسن‬ ّ‫الخواتيم‬
1) The female hormonal system lies under the influence of the following hormones except …….. a) FSH b) LH c) GH d) Estrogen and progesterone 2) At the age of puperty the first hormone that initiate the ovarian cycle is …………… a) FSH b) LRH c) LH d) Estrogen 3) The following phases are of the ovarian cycle EXCEPT …………… a) Follicular phase b) Luteal phase c) Proliferative phase d) Ovulation 4) During the follicular phase the follicles are proliferating under the effect of ………… a) LH b) Estrogen c) FSH d) LHRH 5) During the follicular phase the follicles secretes ………. a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Both A & B d) None of the above 6) All of the following events occur during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle except …… a) Proliferation of the granulosa cells b) Formation of theca cells c) Rupture of an ovum d) Formation of an antrum 7) Concerning ovulation …….. a) Ovum is surrounded by corona radiate b) Occurs 14 days after menstruation c) Caused by LH surge d) All of the above is true 8) Concerning LH surge ……… a) Marked increase in LH 2 days after ovulation b) Causes anovulatory cycle c) Causes formation of corpus luteum d) causes shortened menstrual cycle 9) The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle mainly depend on ………….. a) FSH b) Estrogen c) LH d) None of the above 10) During the luteal phase which is not true ………….. a) Increased level of estrogen and progesterone b) Increased level of FSH and LH
c) Fluid is accumulated in the corpus luteum forming an antrum d) No new follicles begin to grow in the ovary 11) During the luteal phase estrogen and progesterone has a negative feedback on LH secretion ? a) True b) False 12) Proliferative phase of the endometrial cycle is mainly under the effect of …………. a) Progesterone b) Estrogen c) Inhibin d) FSH 13) All of the following events occur during the proliferative phase except …………….. a) Increased No of stromal cells and glands b) Glands increase in tortuosity c) The endometrium is thickened up to 3-4 mm d) It is under the effect of estrogen 14) Concerning the secretory phase of the endometrial cycle ……. a) It starts after ovulation b) Endometrial swelling and secretory development c) Increased lipid and glycogen deposition d) Increased Blood supply e) All of the above 15) In menstrual phase all is true Except …………… a) No fertilization occurred b) Level of estrogen and progesterone falls c) Corpus albicans is formed d) Endometrium is increased in thickness 16) An ovulatory cycles occur as a result of ………….. a) FSH insufficiency b) Formation of corpus luteum c) LH insufficiency d) Estrogen insufficiency 17) In-pregnant female estrogen secreted from ….. a) Graffin follicle b) Corpu luteum c) Placenta d) All of the above 18) In non-pregnant female, progesterone secreted from ….. a) Graffian follicle b) Latter half of each ovarian cycle by corpus luteum c) Both 19) Estrogen changes the ovarian epithelium from stratified type into cuboidal which is more resistant to trauma a) True b) False
20) Concerning the effect of estrogen on breast which is False ? a) Development stromal tissues b) Increases fat deposition c) Growth acini system d) Pigmentation of areola 21) All of the following is True about the effect of estrogen Except a) Increases metabolic rate b) Sodium & water retention c) Negative nitrogen balance d) Soft , smooth & vascular of the skin 22) Which is False about effect of progesterone a) Increases endometrium secretion of uterus b) Increases contraction of uterus c) Development of alveoli of the breast d) Protein catabolism 23) Progesterone in large amounts causes sodium & water retention a) True b) False 24) As regards menopause which is False? a) Sexual cycle is irregular b) Decreased female sex hormones c) Decreased LH & FSH d) Burning out of the ovaries 25) The rate of HCG secretion reaches maximum 8 days after ovulation? a) True b) False 26) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin has very much the same molecular structure and function as …….. a) Estrogen b) FSH c) LH d) Progesterone 27) All of the following are true about HCG except ……………. a) Secreted by the endometrium b) Prevent involution of corpus luteum c) Increase secretion of estrogen and progesterone by CL d) Can be measured 8 days after ovulation 28) In pregnancy Estrogen causes ………….. a) Continuous growth of endometrium b) Decrease contractility of the gravid uterus c) Relaxes the various pelvic ligaments d) Prepare the breast for lactation 29) Prevention of the uterine contraction during pregnancy from causing abortion is mediated by ……… a) Progesterone b) Estrogen c) HCG d) Relaxin 30) All of the following are functions
of progesterone in pregnancy except …………… a) Development of decidual cells in uterine endometrium b) Sodium , Calcium and Potassium retention c) Prepare the breast for lactation d) Development of zygote prior to implantation Choose the causative hormone from B for each of the functions in A , one hormone may be selected more than once A B 31) Relaxation of pelvic bones and ligaments a) Estrogen 32) Has lactogenic activity b) Progesterone 33) Prevent uterine contraction from causing spontaneous abortion c) Human chorionic somatomammotropin 34) Increase growth of the ductal system of the breast d) Human chorionic gonadotropin 35) Interstitial cell stimulating effect on fetus testis e) Relaxin 36) Increase secretions of fallopian tube and uterus 37) Protect corpus luteum from degeneration 38) Enlargement of external genitalia during pregnancy 39) Both relaxin and progesterone cause ……….. a) Involution of CL b) Enlargement of external genitalia c) Inhibition of myometrial contraction d) None of the above 40) Relaxin hormone is secreted by ……….. a) Corpus luteum b) Decidual cells c) Granulosa cells d) a & b e) a & c 41) Human chorionic somatomammotropin causes the following except …………. a) Na+ , Ca+ & K+ retention b) Decrease glucose utilization by the fetus c) increase fatty acid mobilization from fat store of the mother d) Deposition of protein in the tissues 42) During pregnancy the secretion of ………………. Hormones is suppressed
a) GH b) Aldosterone c) LH d) a & b e) a & c 43) During pregnancy the following hormones are increased except ………… a) Aldosterone b) Thyroid hormone c) GH d) Insulin 44) Full development of breast during pregnancy occurs by the following except ………… a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) HCG d) HCS 45) Human Chorionic somatomammotropin is a placental hormone secreted in ……….. of pregnancy a) Forth week b) Fifth week c) Fifth month d) Third month 46) The sertoli cells a) Are massive in size b) Forms the blood testis barrier by their tight junction c) Are stimulated by FSH d) All of the above 47) All the following is true about phagocytic function of sertoli cell except a) they play a role in shaping of the head and tail of the sperm b) they convert the secondary spermatocytes to spermatid c) they secrete digestive enzymes d) they play a special role in phagocytosis of the dead sperms 48) Muellerian inhibitory factor a) inhibits the anterior pituitary gland secretion b) is secreted by the leyding cells c) inhibits formation of the fallopian tube in male fetus d) is secreted in puberty by sertoli cellsّ 49) When the blood -testis barrier is destructed a) large molecules and proteins enter the interstitial tissue b) autoimmune -disease occurs c) the blood born –noxious agents may kill the germ cellsّ d) all the above ّ 50) Estrogen hormone a) is essential for the spermiation b) stimulate the sertoli cells in spermatogenesis c) is essential for the division of the germinal cells d) control the metabolic functions of the testis
51) The spermiation a) is the conversion of spermatid into the spermatozoa b) occurs under effect of F.S.H and estrogen c) occus under effect of testosrone and estrogen d) a and b 52) Sperms a) are stored in a big quantity in the epididymis b) can live for many weeks in the female genital system c) develop the capacity of the motility in the epididymis d) all the above 53) The seminal vesicle secrete all the following except a) frucrose b) profibrinolysin c) fibrin d) prostaglandinّ 54) Descending of the testis into the scrotum a) occurs in the last month of the pregnancy b) occurs under effect of the testosterone c) is a process is called cryptorchidismّ d) all the above 55) Testosterone causes all the following except a) it increases the rate of secretion of sebaceous gland b) it increases the growth of hair on the top of the head c) it causes calcium retention d) it can increases the basal metabolic rate 15%ّ 56) Testosterone a) increases the number of the RBCs by direct effect on their production b) increases circulating high density cholesterol c) increases the reabsorption of sodium and in distal tubules of kidney d) all of the above 57) All the following is true about hypogonadism except a) the voice is child like b) they has normal stature c) the muscles are weaker than normal d) there is no loss of hair of the head 58) In castration, after puberty a) there is loss of masculine hair distribution b) the voice regress from the base quality only slightly c) there is loss of the musculature of the virile male d) all of the aboveّ 59) All the following is true about hypergonadismin male except a) it occurs due to a tumour in the interstitial leyding cells b) it causes development of the sex organs
c) it causes rapid growth of the musculature and boneّ d) the height of the adult is more than normal subject ّ 60) All the following is true about FSH except a) it is inhibited by spermatogenesis b) it is responsible for testosterone production c) it is secreted from anterior pituitary gland d) it stimulates conversion of the spermatid to the sperm 1- C 2- B 3- C 4- C 5- A 6- C 7- D 8- C 9- C 10- C 11- A 12) B 13- B 14- E 15- D 16- C 17- C 18- B 19- B 20- C 21- C 22- B 23- B 24- C 25- B 26- C 27- A 28- C 29- A 30- B 31- E 32- C 33- B 34- A 35- D 36- B 37- D 38- A 39- C 40- D 41- B 42- E 43- C 44- C 45- B 46- D 47- B 48- C 49- D 50- A 51- D 52- C 53- B 54- B 55- B 56- C 57- B 58- D 59- D 60- D 1) The nerve supply of obturator internus muscle is: a) Obturator nerve b) Superior gluteal nerve c) Inferior gluteal nerve d) Nerve to obturator inernus 2) The whit line give attachment to …………… muscle: a) Coccygeus
b) obturator internus c) Levator ani d) Piriformis 3) ………… muscle supports the prostate in male and acts as sphincter for vagina: a) Puborectalis b) Pubococcygeus c) iliococcygeus d) None of the above ّ 4) Tough and membranous fascia cover distensible organ. a) True b) False 5) All of the following are branches of the anterior division of internal iliac artery except: a) Internal pudendal artery b) Inferior gluteal artery c) Vaginal artery d) Superior gluteal artery 6) which of the following arteries leave the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen below piriformis muscle? a) Inferior gluteal artery b) Superior gluteal artery c) Internal pudendal artery d) A & C 7) Which artery of the following represents the continuation of the aorta embryologically: a) Common iliac artery b) Internal iliac artery c) Median sacral artery d) Superior gluteal artery 8) Median sacral vein drains into right common iliac vein. a) True b) False 9) Nerve to piriformis muscle is a dorsal branch of the roots of the sacral plexus. a) True b) False 10) all of the following are ventral branches from the sacral plexus except: a) Nerve to quadratus femoris b) Nerve to obturator inertnus c) Pudendal nerve d) Tibial part of sciatic nerve 11) Each pelvic part of sympathetic trunk has ………. Sacral ganglions: a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 12) The lateral angles of the perineum are formed by: a) 2 Ischial tuberosities b) Guteus maximus mescle c) Scrotuberous ligament d) Pubic arch 13) The space between the two labia
majora is called: a) Vestibule of vagina b) Pudendal cleft c) Urethral orifice d) Vaginal orifice 14) The perineal membrane is: a) The fatty layer of the superficial fascia of the urogenital triangle b) The membranous layer of the superficial fascia of the urogenital triangle c) The superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm d) The inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm 15) The following structure piercing the perineal membrane except: a) Urethra b) Internal pudendal artery c) Dorsal nerve of clitoris d) Anal canal 16) ………… is the floor of the superficial fascia. a) Scarpa’s fascia b) Perineal membrane c) Colle’s fascia d) Fatty layer of the superficial fascia 17) One of the following structure share in the contents of both superficial and deep perineal pouch: a) Internal pudendal artery b) Deep artery of the clitoris c) labial nerves d) dorsal nerve of clitoris 18) The junction between the the fundus and the body of the uterus is called: a) Cornua b) cervix c) Isthmus d) Internal os 19) The constriction in the lower part of the body of the uterus is called: a) Cornua b) cervix c) Isthmus d) Internal os 20) The uterus is ………… when the angle between cervix and body of the uterus is more than 170 degrees. a) Anteverted b) Anteflexed c) Retroverted d) Retroflexed 21) Douglas pouch contains ……….: a) Coils of sigmoid colon b) Terminal ileum c) A & B d) None of the above 22) All parts of the uterus are covered by the the peritoneum except: a) Anterior surface of the Supravaginal part of the cervix b) Posterior surface of the Supravaginal part of the cervix
c) Vaginal part of the cervix d) A & B e) A & C 23) The lateral surface of supravaginal part of the cervix gives attachment to: a) Round ligament b) Ligament of the ovary c) uterosacral ligament d) Broad ligament 24) The mesovarium is lied between the mesometrium and the mesosalpinx. a) True b) False 25) The ……………..ligament is also called cardinal ligament. a) Round ligament b) Transverse Cervical ligament c) uterosacral ligament d) Broad ligament 26) All of the following structures are contents of the broad ligament except: a) Ligament of ovary b) Upper part of round ligament c) Pubocervical ligament d) Uterine artery 27) All of the following share in keeping the uterus in position except: a) Rectum b) Urinary bladder c) Perineal body d) Piriformis muscle 28) The arterial supply of the infundibulum of the uterine tube is by: a) Uterine artery b) Ovarian artery c) Middle rectal artery d) umbilical artery 29) The vagina is related posteriorly to: a) Cervix of the uterus b) Urethra c) Urinary bladder d) None of the above 30) Lateral fornix of the vagina is related laterally to: a) Ureter b) Urethra c) Greater vestibular gland D) Vestibule of vagina 31) The arterial supply of the vagina is from : a) Vaginal artery b) Uterine artery c) Middle rectal artery d) Internal pudendal artery e) All of the above 32) Medial surface of the ovary is related to peritoneum of the pelvic wall. a) True b) False 33) The posterior boundary of the ovarian fossa is made by:
a) Ureter b) Internal iliac artery c) Obturator nerve d) A & B 34) The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein. a) True b) False 35) The middle part of the vagina drains into ………… LNs. a) Superficial inguinal b) Para-aortic c) Internal iliac and external iliac d) Internal iliac 36) The cornuae of the uterus drains into ………… LNs. a) Superficial inguinal b) Para-aortic c) Internal iliac, external iliac and sacral d) external iliac 37) The base of the mammary gland extends from ….. to …….. ribs. a) 3, 6 b) 2, 5 c) 2, 6 d) 3, 5 38) The ……………… act as suspensory ligaments in the breast. a) Lobes b) Fibrous septa c) Retromammary space d) Lactiferous duct 39) The upper medial part of the breast drains into ……………. : a) Pectoral group of axillary LNs b) Posterior group of axillary LNs c) Parasternal LNs d) Apical group of axillary LNs 40) Dimpling of the overlying skin of the breast is a sign of …………: a) Cancer invasion of the deep fascia b) Cancer invasion of the suspensory ligaments c) Cancer invasion of the lactiferous ducts d) Cancer invasion of the deep lymphatics 41) Supernumerary nipples is called …………..: a) Polythelia b) Polymatsia c) Macromatsia d) None of the above 42) All of the following are contents of superfacial perineal pouch in male Except a) Roots of penis b) Bulbouretheral glands c) Scrotal nerves d) Deep dorsal vein of the penis 43) The nerve supply of posterior 2/3 of the scrotum including all of the following Except a) Posterior ccutaneous nerve of the thigh
b) Scrotal branches of pudendal nerve c) Scrotal branches of the perineal nerves d) None of the above 44) As regard blood supply of the scrotum, which is False a) Superficial external pudendal artery b) Deep external pudendal artery c) Superior epigastric artery d) Scrotal branch of the internal pudendal artery 45) Which is true about roots of penis a) A free part of the penis b) Situated in superfacial perineal pouch c) It's the expanded part of the corpus cavernousus d) Crura are the proximal part of the corpus spongiosum 46) Which is False about corpora cavernosa a) Anterior continuation of the crura of the penis b) Traversed by dorsal artery of penis c) Supplied by Cavernoal artery d) They end Deep to glans penis 47) Glans penis is supplied by …… a) Cavernosal artery b) Dorsal artery of penis c) Superfacial external pudendal artery d) Artery of bulb 48) Which is true about Artery of bulb a) It lies on each side of deep dorsal vein b) Arises from Femoral artery c) Arises from Internal pudendal artery d) Supply Corpus cavernosum 49) Internal spermatic fascia is derived from ……… a) External oblique aponeurosis b) Internal oblique muscle c) Fascia transversalis d) Non of the above 50) Testicular artery arises from …….. a) Inferoir epigastric artery b) Abdominal aorta at level of L2 c) Inferior vesical artery d) Artery of vas 51) Lymphatic drainage of the testis is ……. a) Superfacial inginal L.N b) Para-aortic L.N c) Internal iliac L.N b) Deep inginal L.N 52) Left testis drains into ……… a) IVC b) Left renal vein c) SVc d) Right renal vein 53) As regards sinus of epididymis which is True a) Recess of tunica albuginea b) Lies between the testis & lateral side of body of the epididymis c) Lies between the testis & medial side of body of the epididymis
d) Directed medially 54) Which is False about cremastric muscle a) Derived from fascia transversalis b) Derived from internal oblique muscle c) Supplied by cremastric artery d) Supplied by genital branch of genitofemoral nerve 55) Varicocele is most occurring on the Right side a) True b) False 56) Arterial supply of seminal vesicle is ……. a) Superior vesical artery b) Inferior vesicle artery c) Middle rectal artery d) B & C 57) All these structures passing inside the prostate Except a) Prostatic urethra b) Vas deferens c) Ejaculatory ducts d) Prostatic utricle 58) Inferior vesical & middle rectal arteries supply….. a) Scrotum b) Seminal vesical c) Prostate d) B & C 59) Lymph drainage of the prostate is …… a) Superfascial inguinal L.N b) Para-aortic L.N c) Sacral L.N d) Internal L.N e) C & D 60) Prostatic venous plexus drains into …….. a) Internal iliac vein b) Left renal vein c) IVC d) SVC 61) Stagnant urine pouch is formed due to …… a) Enlargement of lateral lobe b) Enlargement of Median lobe c) Enlargement of Anterior lobe d) Enlargement of Posterior lobe 62) Uvula of bladder is formed by ….. lobe of prostate a) Median b) Lateral c) Anterior d) Posterior
1- D 2- Cّ 3- B 4- B 5- D 6- Dّ 7- C 8- B 9- A 10- C 11- C 12- A 13- B 14- D 15- D 16- C 17- Dّ 18- A 19- C 20- D 21- C 22- E 23- D 24- A 25- B 26- C 27- D 28- B 29- D 30- A 31- E 32- B 33- D 34- A 35- D 36- A 37- C 38- B 39- B 40- B 41- A 42- B 43- B 44- C 45- B 46- B 47- B 48- C 49- C 50- B 51- B 52- B 53- B 54- A 55- B 56- D 57- B 58- D 59- E 60- A 61- B 62- Aّ 1) …… is alpha reductase inhibitors & used for bengin prostate hyperplasia (BPH) a) Flutamide b) Finasteride c) Leuprolid d) Cyproterone 2) …… used in Refractory anaemia a) Danazol b) Androgen c) Mifepristone d) Clomiphene 3) Which is INCORRECT about Nandrolonephenpropionate a) Used for hypoproteinaemia of nephrosis b) Given slowly for short stature c) Given vigorous for short stature d) Used for debilitated postoperative patients 4) As regards anabolic steroids which
is INCORRECT a) Directly,increasing incorporation of amino avcids to proteins b) Directly, antagonize the protein catabolism action c) Directly,stimulates RNA polymerase activity in skeletal muscle d) Indirectly,antagoinize protein catabolism action of glucocorticoids 5) Intra-nasal oxytocin used for …… a) Reinforce labor b) Uterine inertia c) Impaired milk ejection d) Control postpartum uterine hemorrhage 6) Ergonovine stimulates uterine contraction through ….. a) α1 receptor agonist activity b) α2 receptor agonist activity c) 5-HT receptor agoinst activity d) A & C e) B &C 7) Which is INCORRECT about Ergonovine a) Vasoconstrictor b) Given IM to reduce postpartum bleeding c) Given before delivery of placenta d) Sensitivity of uterus to it increase with progression of pregnancy 8) All of the following is adverse effects of ergonovine Except a) Vomiting b) Hypotension c) Blurred vision d) Angina 9) All of the following are Tocolytic therapy Except a) Nifedipine b) Indomethacin c) Dinoprostone b) Salbutamol 10) All of the following is First-line therapy for erectile dysfunction Except a) Oral pharmacotherapy b) Sildenafil c) Papaverine d) Sublingual apomorphine 11) Sildenafil is sufficient of itself to cause erection a) True b) False 12) ….. is absolute contraindications with the use of PDE5 inhibitors a) Nitroglycerine b) Isosorbidemononitrate c) Isosorbidedinitrate d) All of the above 13) Pateint takes Sildenafil & he develops chest pain,nitroglycerine must withhold for……at least. a) 4 hrs
b) 24 hrs c) 48 hrs d) 18 hrs 14) …… improves erectile function & acting centrally a) Sildenafil b) Tadalfil c) Apomorphine d) Alprostadil 15) Which is True about alprostadil a) Non-specific PDE inhibitor, injected drug b) PGE1 analog, injected drug c) Specific PDE inhibitor d) Sublingual drug 16) Priapism is adverse effects of …… a) Alprostadil b) Apomorphine c) Sildenifil d) Tadalafil 17) The half-time of tadalafil is ….. a) 4 hrs b) 18 hrs c) 48 hrs d) 2 hrs 18) The peak serum concentration of Virdenafil is ….. a) 2 hrs b) 1 hr c) 4 hrs d) 6 hrs 19) Which of the following is true regarding to Leuprolide a) given intravenous every 90 minutes b) used in prostatic carcinoma c) steady dosing inhibit gonadal hormone releasing d) All of the above 20) An old female with endometriosis can be treated with a) Leuprolide b) HMG c) Cetrorelix d) A or C 21) A 37 year-old female with Schizophrenia come to physician complain of enlarged breast. Which drug is more likely to cause that a) Cetrorelix b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) Dopamine antagonist 22) One of the synthetic preparation similar to FSH is a) UroFollitropin b) Follitropin c) HMG d) HCG 23) All the following is true regarding to HCG except a) Extracted from urine of post- menopausal females
b) stimulate descent of testis c) IN vitro fertilization d) hypothalamic hypogonadism with infertility 24) Therapeutic uses of esterogen include the following except a) in oral contraception b) Alleviate menopausal symptoms c) Endometriosis d) Dysmenorrhea 25) One of the adverse effect of Mestranol is a) thromboembolism b) Ovarian enlargement c) Nausea d) Cyclic ovarian pain 26) A 38-year-old female with severe menstrual pain. If she does not want to become pregnant any more we can treat her with a) Tamoxifene b) Ethinyl estradiol c) Large dose medroxy progesterone d) None of the above 27) combined pills of oral contraceptive act as a) Inhibit ovulation b) Inhibit implantation c) Inhibit fertilization d) All of the above 28) A 29-year-old female want a convenient method for contraception but she usually has migraine. Which of the following is contraindicated drug? a) Oral mini pills b) Oral combined pills c) Medroxy progesterone ampouls c) None of the above 29) For post coital contraception one of the following methods is not correct a) Mifepristone once b) Norgesterol twice a day for one day c) Ethinyle estradiol twice a day for 2 days d) Ethinyl estradiol+norgesterol two tabs followed by 2 12 hrs later 30) A 70-year-old woman is being treated with raloxifene for osteoporosis. There is an increased risk of herdeveloping: a) Breast cancer. b) Uterine cancer. c) Vein thrombosis. d) Atrophic vaginitis. e) Hypercholesterolemia 31) A 23-year-old woman has failed to become pregnant after 2 years of unprotected intercourse. Which ofthe following would be effective in treating infertility due anovulatory cycles? a) A combination of an estrogen and
progestin. b) Estrogen alone. c) Clomiphene. d) Raloxifene 1- B 2- B 3- C 4- B 5- C 6- D 7- C 8- B 9- C 10- C 11- B 12- D 13- B 14- C 15- B 16- A 17- B 18- B 19- D 20- D 21-ّD 22-ّB 23-ّA 24-ّC 25-ّA 26-ّC 27-ّD 28-ّB 29-ّC 30-ّCّ 31-ّC ‫الحمد‬‫هلل‬‫الذى‬‫بنعمته‬‫تتم‬ ‫الصالحات‬

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Genital module questions sahwa family

  • 2.
  • 3. 1) ………..is one of the accessory sex organs. a) mammary gland b) vagina c) uterus d) ovary 2) The origin of the germinal epithelium of the ovary is a) extra gonadal origin b) primordial germ cells c) stromal cells d) none of the above 3) The cortex of the ovary is different from the medulla in a) the cortex is highly cellular b) delicate collagen fibers are embedded in the cortex c) the stromal is composed of tunica albuginea and stromal cells d) all of the aboved 4) In 6-years old female, the female germ cells are in a) metaphaseّ b) prophase c) second meiosisّ d) none of the above 5) Oogenesis is found to be completed by…………….parenatal month a) 4 th b) 2 th c) 7 th d) None of the above 6) The first meiotic division is completed a) during early fetal life b) in child hood c) before ovulation d) after fertilization 7) Zona pellucida is found in all structures except a) primary follicle b) primordial follicle c) secondary follicle d) mature graffian follicle 8) All the following is from the accessory sex organs except a) placenta b) the mammary glands c) uterine tube d) none of the aboveّ
  • 4. 9) All the following is true about the placenta except a) one of the accessory sex glands b) only organ composed of cells derived of two different individuals c) it is formed of chorion and decidua capsularisّ d- the placenta secrete estrogen and progstrone 10) All the following is true about the ovary except a) it is formed of the definite cortex and medulla b) it is suspended by the broad ligament of the uterus c)the blood vessels enter the ovary through the mesovarium d) the ovary is almond shaped body 11) All the following is formed of loose CT except a) the medulla of the ovary b) the mucosa of the vagina c) the mucosa of the the fallopian tube d) The endo metrium of the uterus 12) All the following has stroma rich in elastic fibers except a) the cortex of the of the ovaryّ b) the adventitial layer of the vagina c) the lamina propria of the cervix d) none of the above 13) All the following is true about primordial follicle except a) it is surrounded by a single layer of flattened follicularcells b) its nucleus is large, pale and vesicular c) its cytoplasm has much organelles d) it is covered by few short micro villi ّ 14) All the following is true about primary follicles except a) they are surrounded by theca folliculiّ b) the follicular cells become granulosa cells c) they are found mainly in the peripheral cells d) they have zona pellucida 15) All the following is true about growing follicle except a) there is the follicular antrum b) the theca externa is steroid seceting cells c) corona radiata around the zona pellucida d) its size reaches about 2oo M in diameter 16) Zona pellucidais secreted mainly by a) granulosa cellsّ b) theca interna c) theca externa d) oocyte 17) The ovulation is percieded and stimulated by a) minimal increase in L.H b) high increase in F.S.H c) high increase in L.H d) b and c 18) Theca luten cells is different from granulosa luten cells in all except
  • 5. a) the are smallerّ b) the stain more darkly c) they are localized at the periphery d) they secrete progesteron ّ 19) The life span of the corpus of luteum of the pregnancy is about…. a) 5 months b) 4 months c) 14 days d) 6 months 20) The part of fertilization in fallopian tube a) isthmus b) ampulla c) infandibulum d) interstitial partّ 21) Type of signaling between placenta and uterus of pregnant women a) endocrinal b) autocrinalّ c) paracrinal d) none of the above 22) All the following has a sebaceous gland except a) the labia minora b) the labia majora c) the clitoris d) none of the above 23) The vacuolated appearance of the mucosa of the vagina is due to a) the effect of the estrogen b) accumulation of the glycogen in large amount c) lipid droplets d) a and b 24) The mucosa of the vagina has the following except a) it is formed of the loss connective tissueّ b) there is mucus due to glands in the mucosa c) it is lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epitheliumّ d) the low Phis due to glycogen metabolism by bacteria 25) Which of the following is not in direct contact with embryo a) placenta b) decidua parietalis c) decidua capsularis d) decidua basalis 26) The chorion is composed of a) derivatives of extraembryonic mesoderm b) cytotrophoblast c) syncytiotrophoblast d) all of the above 27) All the following is true about syncytiotrophoblast a) it is derived from blastocyte b) it disappears gradually in the second half of pregnancy c) it remains until the end of the pregnancy d) it forms the placental barrier
  • 6. 28) All the following is true about cytotrophoblast except a) derived from the inner part of the trophoblast b) disappears gradually during the second half of pregnancy c) forms the placental barrier after the fourth month of pregnancy d) none of the aboveّ 29) Estrogen hormone of the placenta is synthesized by a) cytotrophpblast b) syncytiotrophoblast c) theca lutein cellsّ d) the granulosa cells 30) All the following is a content of late pregnancy placenta except a) cytotrophoblast b) syncytiotrophopblast c) maternal blood d) non if the above ّ 31) The maximal size of the mammary glands is during a) the pregnancy b) the lactationّ c) the puberty d) the menopause 32) The mammary glands a) are modified sweat glands b) are modified sebaceous glandsّ c) they are covered by thick skin d) they have a capsule 33) The montogomery glands a) are modified type of sweat glands b) are modified type of sebaceous glands c) open into the nipple d) b and c 34) The pinkish coloured area around the nipple a) is richly supplied by free nerve endingsّ b) becomes highly pigmented during puberty c) into it montogomery glands openّ d) a and c 35) In the mammary glands a) there are 15-20 lobules b) the intra lobular loose C.T is formed of papillary layer of dermis c) the inter lobular septa arises from reticular layer of dermis d) there is a capsule 36) In the mammary glands a) all the lobes are finally drained by a single main lactiferous duct b) there are acini in the resting mammary glands c) epithelium becomes tall columnar in the intra lobular ducts d) the lactiferous duct is lined by stratified squamous epith 37) All the following is true about the resting mammary glands except
  • 7. a) the parenchyma is formed of duct system only b) each main lactiferous duct opens separately in the nipple c) the intra lobular duct is lined by low columnar cells d) the inter lobular C.T contains plasma cells and macrophages 38) In the mammary glands of pregnancy a) the milk is produced and stored by acini b) the colostrum is secreted in the last three months c) the adipose tissue increases d) the alveoli are well-established in early pregnancyّ 39) In lactating mammary glands a) milk is produced inside columnar epithelial cells b) there are apical milk granules in the high pyramidal cells c) there are cuboidal cells with milk granules in the lumenّ d) all of the above 40) The alveoli of the mammary glands a) are formed in the early pregnancy b) are present in the same grades of the activity c) are surrounded by stellate shaped myoepithelial cells d) they are not hormone dependent 41) Thick fibrous CT capsule covering the testis ………… a) Tunica Vasculosa b) Tunica Vaginalis c) Tunica Albuginea d) CT septa of the testis 42) Double layered serous sac which encloses the testis ………….. a) Tunica Vaginalis b) Tunica Vasulosa c) Tunica Albuginea d) Tunica Propria 43) The layer that extends between seminiferous tubules is ………….. a) Tunica albuginea b) Testicular interstitium c) Tunica vaginalis d) None of the above 44) The CT septa of the testis divides it into 250 seminiferous tubules? a) True b) False 45) All of the following is true concerning seminiferous tubules except ………… a) Structural and Functional unit of the testis b) Coiled non branching c) Endocrine portion of the testis d) Produce spermatozoa 46) The only type of cells present in sexually immature testes is …………. a) Primary spermatocyte b) Secondary spermatocyte
  • 8. c) Spermatozoa d) Spermatogonium 47) The Spermatogonia enter the first meiotic division at puberty ? a) True b) False 48) Concerning Spermatogonia all is true except ………….. a) Rests on the basal lamina of seminiferous tubules b) Rounded and large in size c) Have 23 pairs of chromosomes d) Present in sexually immature testes 49) Differentiating progenitors which give rise to primary spermatocyte …………. a) Type A bale spermatogonia b) Type A dark spermatogonia c) Type B spermatogonia d) None of the above 50) Mitotic division of type A dark cells give rise to …………… a) Primary spermatocyte b) Type B spermatogonia c) Secondary spermatocyte d) Type A pale cells 51) The largest spermatogenic cells are ………… a) Primary spermatocyte b) Spermatozoa c) Spermatogonia d) Spermatid 52) Concerning 1ry spermatocyte the true statement is ………….. a) Arise from meiotic division of type B spermatogonia b) conatins 23 chromosome ( haploid number ) c) Frequently seen in sections b) Rounded and small 53) All is true concerning secondary spermatocyte except ………….. a) Arise from 1st meiotic division of 1ry spermatocyte b) Contains haploid number of chromosomes c) Rarely seen in sections d) Do not divide any more 54) Spermatids ………… a) Arise from 2nd meiotic division of 1ry spermatocyte b) Contains Diploid number of chromosomes c) Fill the lumen of seminiferous tubules d) None of the above 55) Spermiogenesis is the process by which male germ cells are transformed into spermatozoa ? a) True b) False 56) The changes during spermiogenesis involve all of the following organelles except ……….
  • 9. a) Golgi apparatus b) Nucleus c) Mitochondria d) Lysosomes e) Centrioles 57) All of the following events occur during acrosomal phase except ………… a) Proacrosomal granules accumulate in acrosomal vesicle b) Centrioles move to the caudal pole of the nucleus c) One centriole start spinning axoneme d) Mitochondria moves to proximal portion of developing tail 58) During Acrosomal phase Which is not true ……… a) Formation of acrosomal cap b) The nucleus is more elongated and condensed c) Posterior distribution of the cytoplasm d) Shedding of the residual cytoplasm 59) The axonemal complex is formed by 2 central microtubules and 9 outer triplet microtubules ? a) True b) False 60) The fibrous sheath of the developing tail is formed by …………… a) 9 Longitudinal dense fibers b) Circumferential ribsّ c) Dorsal and ventral columns d) a and c e) b and c 61) The 9 cross striated fibers of the neck of sperm is continuous with ……. a) Circumferential ribs b) Longitudinal coarse fibers c) Ventral and dorsal columns d) None of the above 62) Concerning the principle piece of the tail of sperm which is not true …………. a) Extend from the neck to the annulus b) It contains an axoneme and outer dense fibers c) covered by fibrous sheath d) All of the above 63) Sloughing of cytoplasmic bridges leads to separation of …………. a) Early spermatids b) Late spermatids c) Spermatozoa d) Type B spermatogonia 64) Immotile cilia syndrome is due to Lack of ………… a) Circumferential ribs b) Acrosome c) Dyenin arms d) Centrioles 65) All of the following is true concerning sertoli cells except ………… a) Non spermatogenic cells of single type b) Large irregular nucleus with Tripartite nucleolar apparatus
  • 10. c) They secrete testosterone d) Forms blood testis barrier 66) Sertoli cells contains the following except …………. a) Lipid droplets b) rER with Whorled appearance c) 1ry and 2ry lysosomes d) Microtubules and microfilaments 67) The basal compartment of the wall of seminiferous tubules contains the following except ………… a) Tunica propria b) Basal lamina c) Spermatids d) Spermatozoa 68) The wall of seminiferous tubules is divided into basal and adluminal parts by blood testicular barrier? a) True b) False 69) Adluminal compartment does not contain ………. a) 1ry & 2ry spermatocyte b) Spermatids c) Spermatozoa d) Blood vessels 70) Sertoli cells have a phagocytic function that include …………. a) Phagocytosis of dead sperms b) Spermiation c) Shaping head and tail of sperm d) All of the above e) None of the above 71) Which of the following is not function of blood testis barrier ……… a) Prevents macromolecules from passing into tubules b) Protect sperms from noxious agents c) Prevent autoimmune disease d) Provide special environment for developing sperm 72) Testosterone is secreted by ………. a) Sertoli cells b) Spermatogonia c) Interstitial cells of leydig d) Prostatic sells 73) Cells of leydig do not contain ………… a) sER b) Secretory granules c) Lipid droplets d) Mitochondria with tubular cristae 74) Leydig cells is present in ………… a) Tunica vasculosa b) Tunica albuginea c) Basal compartment of seminiferous tubules d) Tunica vaginalis 75) Concerning interstitial cells of leydig Which is not true ………… a) Undifferentialted mesenchymal cells of puberty b) Exocrine portion of the testis
  • 11. c) Present in tunica vasculosa d) Secrete testosterone 76) Sertoli cells does not secrete …………. a) Estrogen b) Inhibin c) Testosterone d) Androgen binding protein 77) Testosterone is responsible for ………… a) Appearance of 2ry sexual organs b) Spermatogenesis c) Feed back for LH d) All of the above 78) Tunica vaginalis is a) The most outer layer of the testis b) A double layered serous sac c) An invagination from the peritoneum d) all of the above 79) Tunica albuginea is a) A thick fibrous C.T capsule above the tunica vaginalis b) A highly vascular loose C.T c) extends between the seminiferous tubules d) forms the mediastinum testis 80) Tunica vasculosa a) contains a group of the eosinophilic interstitial cells of leyding b) is the adouble layered serous sac c) is thick fibrous C.T under tunica albuginea d) is an invagination of the peritoneum 81) In 5-years old boy, the only type of the germ cells is a) primary spermatocytes b) early spermatids c) spermatogonia d- secondary spermatocytes 82) The primary spermatocytes a) are the largest spermatogenic cells b) have 23 chromosomes c) are found in 4-8 layers d) enter the first mitotic division at the puberty 83) all the following is true about secondary spermatocytes a) they arise from the first meiotic division b) they frequency seen in the sections c) they contain the haploid number of chromosomes d) they enter the second meiotic division without s- phase 84) In golgi phase of the spermiogenesis a) one of the centrioles elongates and starts spinning the axoneme b) the acrosomal vesicle covers the anterior half of the nucleus c) the nucleus becomes more elongated d) the mitochondria form the mitochondrial sheath 85) Acrosomal phase of the spermiogenesis
  • 12. a) Is one of the phases of the spermatocytogenesis b) Its axonemal complex is 2 central and 9 outer singlet microtubules c) Its annulus is found in the end of the tail d) the circumferential ribs and columns form fibrous sheath 86) The middle piece of the spermatozoon is formed a) the axoneme b) 9 outer dense fibers c) mitochondria d- all of the above 87) All the following is true about sertolicells except a) the nucleus is flanked by 2 rounded masses of heterochromatin b) they are pale due to presence of the excessive lipid droplets c) there are rough E.R around the lipid droplets d) microtubules sand micro filaments change the cell shape 88) The sertoli cells secrete all the following except a) Oestrogen b) Testosterone c) Inhibin d) Androgen bindig protein 89) Interstitial cells of leyding a) are in tunica vasculosa b) their nucleus may be central or eccentric c) secrete testosterone d) all the above 90) All the following is lined by cuboidal cells except a) tubuli recti b) intra lobular ducts c) rete testis d) epididymis 91) All the following is the lined by pseudostratified columnar epi.except a) epididymis b) vas deferens c) ejaculatory duct d) seminal vesicles 92) Into the prostatic urethra , the ejaculatory duct is lined by a) columnar cells b) transitional cells c) cuboidal cells d) squamous stratified epithelium 93) The seminal vesicles a) are a reservoir for spermatozoa b) secrete 70% of the human ejaculate c) its secretion is yellowish, viscid ,slightly acidic d) are not hormonal dependant 94) The prostate gland is a) a merocrine gland b) an apocrine gland c) covered by the thick fibro-elastic C.T d) divided into 2 lobes
  • 13. 95) The outer secretory units of the prostate gland a) are lined by pseudostatified columnar epithelium b) are smaller and numerous c) are lined by simple columnar epithelium d) Are lined by simple columnar epithelium 96) In old age ,the prostate gland a) is calcified and changed into corpora amylacea b) benign prostatic hypertrophy is present in the subcapsular acini c- obstruction of the urethra with clinical symptoms in 20-30% d- all the above 97) Carpora cavernosa of the penis a) are lined by squamous epithelium b) are two in number connected by complete medianseptum c) are covered by the thick tunica albuginea d) have smaller vascular channels in center 98) All the following is one of the mucous secreting glands except a) glands of the litter b) cowper's gland c) sebaceous glands of the tyson d) none of the above 99) In cryptochidism a) failure of the descent of the testis into scrotum b) no secondary male characterictics c) no spermatogenesis d) a and c 1- A 2- A 3- Dّ 4- B 5- A 6- C 7- B 8- Cّ 9- C 10- A 11- Cّ 12- C 13- Cّ 14- C 15- B 16- D 17- D 18- Dّ 19- D 20- B 21- A 22- Cّ 23- Dّ 24- B 25- B 26- D 27- B 28- Cّ 29- B 30- A 31- B 32- Aّ 33- Bّ 34- D 35- D 36- D 37- D 38- Bّ 39- D 40- Cّ 41- C 42- A 43- B 44- B 45- C
  • 14. 46- D 47- B 48- B 49- C 50- D 51- A 52- C 53- D 54- D 55- B 56- D 57- D 58- D 59- B 60- E 61- B 62- A 63- B 64- C 65- C 66- B 67- C 68- A 69- D 70- D 71- D 72- C 73- B 74- A 75- B 76- C 77- D 78- d 79- D 80- A 81- C 82- A 83- B 84- A 85- D 86- D 87- C 88- B 89- D 90- D 91- D 92- B 93- B 94- A 95- C 96- A 97- A 98- C 99- D ‫وفى‬ ‫حسنة‬ ‫الدنيا‬ ‫فى‬ ‫آتنا‬ ‫ربنا‬ ‫وق‬ ‫حسنة‬ ‫اآلخرة‬‫النار‬ ‫عذاب‬ ‫نا‬
  • 15. 1) Vaginal discharge of Trichomonas vaginalis vaginitis is a) Thin and watery b) Greenish frothy c) Cured-white d) Blood-stained 2) All of the following is characteristic to subphylum mastigophora except …… a) Most of them are commensals b) Move with pseudopodia c) Asexual reproductive by binary fission d) none of the above 3) The cystic stage is absent in ……. . a) Giardia lamblia b) Dientaoeba fragilis c) Trichomonas Vaginalis d) All of the above 4) The general features of Genus Trichomonas include the following except …. a) They have 5 free flagella b) Have single vesicular nucleus c) Have prominent axostyle d) have cytosome 5) Which of the following is correct a) T.tenax inhibits intestine b) T.hominis inhibits mouth c) T.vaginalis inhibits vagina only d) none of the above 6) All of the following are results of infection with T.vaginalis except a) May cause prostatitis b) vulvar and vaginal pruiritis c) Alter PH of the vagina thus discourage infections d) Vaginal seropurlent discharge 7) Infection with T.vaginalis can be through ……. a) Sexual intercourse b) contaminated under ware c) infants during delivery d) all of the above 8-10) 25 year-old female with vaginal pruritis and frothy vaginal discharge come to physician with failure of several antibiotics to treatment : 8) This case is more likely to be infection with a) Treponema Pallidum b) H.Durcyi c) T.vaginalis d) N.gonorrhea 9) If it was parasitic infection how to diagnose it a) with immediate smear b) Air dried smear with Giemsa c) Culture of the parasite d) All of the above 10) If she was a pregnant how to treat her a) Metronidazole b) Tinidazole c) Clotrimazole d) All of the above
  • 16. 1- B 2- B 3- C 4- A 5- D 6- C 7- D 8- C 9- D 10- C ّ‫خيرّاألعمالّأدومهاّوإنّقل‬
  • 17. 1) Genital tract infections are caused by C.trachomatis serotypes ….. a) D-K b) L1 c) L2 d) L3 2) Which of the following mycoplasmas has been implicated as a cause of nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)? a) Mycoplasma hominis b) M. pneumoniae c) M. fermentans d) Ureaplasma urealyticum 3) Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a venereal disease caused by a) Serotype D of C.trachomatis b) Serotype K of C.trachomatis c) Serotype L1,2,3 of C.trachomatis d) None of the aboveّ 4) 35% to 50% of NGU are caused by ……. a) M. hominisّ b) C.trachomatis c) Ureaplasma urealyticum d) T.pallidum 5) Serologic testing of Chlamydial infection in adult is useful a) True b) Falseّ 6) M.hominis causes NGU in males a) True b) False ّ 7) Which is False about urogenital mycoplasms a) Show fried-egg appearance b) Susceptible to tetracycline c) U.urealyticum require 10% urea in their media d) Susceptible to erthromycin 8) As regards Papilloma viruses which is False a) Non-enveloped b) SS DNA c) Icosahedral symmetry d) There are more than 100 HPV typesّ 9) Human papillomavirus is most commonly associated with a) Rectal polyps b) Prostate cancer c) Condyloma papillomasّ d) Hepatic carcinoma 10) Human warts are not only cosmetically unsightly but may lead to cancer of the cervix. They are caused by which one of the following viruses a) Adenovirus b) Papillomavirus c) Rotavirus d) Cytomegalovirus
  • 18. 11) Laryngeal papilloma caused by ……. a) HPV-6 b) HPV-11 c) HPV-16 d) HPV-18 e) A & B 12) Which is False about HPV 6 & 11 a) Cause Laryngeal papilloma b) Cause benign genital condylomas c) Low cancer risk types d) High cancer risk types 13) ……. Is high cancer risk types a) HPV 6 b) HPV 11 c) HPV 16 d) HPV 18 e) C & D 14) As regards laryngeal papilloma which is False a) Caused by HPV 6 & 11 b) Caused by HPV 16 & 18 c) Sexually transmitted d) Acquired infection e) A & D f) B & C 15) Which of the following is the causative agent of a variety of cutaneous warts (plantar, common, and flat) and is associated with cervical neoplasia? a) Molluscum contagiosum b) Human papillomavirus c) Mycoplasma d) Chlaymedia 16) The lesions of ……. are small,pink,wart like tumors & it's bengin epidermal tumor a) HPV b) Molluscum contagiosum c) Chlaymedia d) Mycoplasma ّ 17) Gonorrhoeae is characterized by all of the following except a) most strains need CO2 b) Optimum temp. Is 37o C c) Obligatory anaerobe d) Colonies are small and semitransparent 18) The main feature distinguishes gonorrhea from meningococcus is a) Oxidase positive b) Need enriched media c) produce acid from maltose d) produce acid from glucose 19) Infertility is a complication occur in female with gonococcal infection secondary to a) Salpingitis b) Proctitis c) Cervicitis d) None of the above 20) N.gonorrhea is antingenically heterogeneous and thus it is a) Resistant to phagocytosis b) Adhere to epithelial cells c) no protective immunity d) Can produce endotoxins
  • 19. 21) No health carrier of N.gonorrhea exist but it may be asymptomatic in a) Chronic cervicitis b) Urethritis c) Salpingitis d) Conjunctivitis 22) One of the complications of Gonococcal infection in males due to fibrosis is a) Urethritis b) Epididymitis c) prostatitis d) Urethral stricture 23) On checking smears of N.gonorrhea one of the following is not detectable a) G –ve diplococcic b) Coaglutination c) Polymorph nuclear d) extracellular organisms 24) Treatment of infection with N.gonorrhea is a) Penicillin b) Vancomycin c) Nystatin d) Ciprofloxacin 25) H.Durcyi ……. a) Grow on chocolate agar b) Gram - ve rods c) Cause Chancroid d) All of the above 26) Which is false about Chancroid a) Caused by H.Durcyi b) Swollen tender ulcer c) Occur in females only d) Accompanied by enlarged LNs 27) The characteristic features for typical Treponema palladium include the following except a) Spiral filaments when stained with aniline dye b) Motile organisms with endoflagella c) Delicate organisms d) Has bending movement 28) According to Reiter strain which is the false statement a) It is non-pathogenic b) Has never be cultured c) Can be cultured d) Share antigen with pathogenic strains 29) Cardiolipin is not ……. . a) Called reagin b) a diphospholipids c) antigen on treponema d) none of the above 30) To increase the sensitivity of reagin to Cardiolipin a) injection in rabbit testes b) extracted from beef heart c) Cholesterol is added to it d) none of the above
  • 20. 31) PPR test is different from VDRL test in a) it take 4 min. in rotating machine not 8 b) it is easily and rapid c) It is performed on glass slides d) Patient's serum is heat activated 32) FTA-abs can't be used to judge the efficacy of treatment while ……can be used. a) TP-PA test b) ELISA test c) RPR test d) None of the above 33) Generalized lymphadenopathy is more likely to occur in a) primary stage of syphilis b) secondary stage of syphilis c) latent stage of syphilis d) late stage of syphilis 34) Syphilis can be transmitted from mother to son through passage from birth canal as it can't penetrate BPB a) True b) False 35) Cardiolipin based test is positive in all of the following samples except a) Early primary syphilis sample b) secondary stage syphilis sample c) Latent stage syphilis sample d) CSF sample in late stage 36) The first drug of choice for syphilis is a) benzathine penicillin b) Erythromycin c) Tetracycline d) Cephalosporin 37) All members of Herpes viruses can be isolated easily on cell culture except a) VZV b) CMV c) EBV d) KSHV 38) For detection of HSV all the following is valuable except a) Serology especially in recurrent infection b) Detection of viral NA by PCR c) Isolation on tissue culture cells d) Smears stained with Giemsa stain 39) HSV poses a latent period which may be in a) Trigeminal ganglia b) Sacral ganglia c) Lumbar ganglia d) All of the above 40) All the following diseases are caused by HSV-1 except a) Pneumonia b) Aseptic meningitis c) Herpes labialis d) Acute gingivomastitis 41) According to HSV which statement is true a) HSV-1 responsible for only 10% of oral and ocular lesion b) HSV-2 responsible for 90% of oral and
  • 21. ocular lesion c) HSV-1 responsible for 90% of genital lesion d) HSV-2 responsible for 90% of genital lesions 42) Herpetic Whitlow is a disease mediated by HSV-1 and it is often affect a) children b) Sexually active adults c) medical personnel d) None of the above 43) all the following diseases is caused by HSV-2 except a) Acute gingivomastitis b) Neonatal herpes c) Aseptic meningitis d) Genital herpes 1- A 2- D 3- Cّ 4- B 5- B 6- B 7- D 8- Bّ 9- C 10- B 11- E 12- D 13- E 14- E 15- B 16- B 17- C 18-D 19-A 20-C 21-A 22-D 23-B 24-D 25-D 26-C 27-A 28-B 29-A 30-C 31-B 32-C 33-B 34-B 35-A 36-A 37- C 38- A 39- D 40- B 41- D 42- C 43- A 1) All the following are common sites for endometriosis except ....... a) ovary b) douglas pouch c) vagina d) uterine ligaments 2) The endometrial deposits arise when endometrial glands are regurgitated into the proteneal cavity and then impalant into the peritoneal surface. This is called........ a) implantation theory b) metaplastic theory c) metastatic theory d) endometrial theory 3) In endometriosis , chocolate cysts
  • 22. are especially seen in ......... a) ovarian ligaments b) douglas pouch c) urinary bladder d) ovaries 4) In endometriosis , we see microscopically ......... a) endometrail glands b) endometrial stroma c) hemosiderine pigmentation d) all the above e) a&b only 5) All the following ocuur in endometriosis except ......... a) dysparunia b)dyspepsia c)dysurea d) acute abdomen 6) ........... causes menorrhagia a) endometriosis b) adenomyosis c) endometrial polyp d) atypical endometrial hyperplasia 7) All the following causes endometrial hyperplasia except............ a) obesity b) nulliparity c) polycyctic ovary syndrome d) prolonged unopposed progesterone stimulation 8) Swiss cheese appearance is found in ........ a) adenomyosis b) endometriosis c) simple endometrial hyperplasia d) complex endometrial hyperplasia 9) ............... is endometrial benign tumor. a) endometrial polyp b) leiomyoma c) mixed mullarian tumor d) all the above 10) Risk factors of endometrial carcinoma include all the following except .......... a) obesity b) infertility c) nullipara d) hypotention 11) Cervical polyp is associated increased risk of malignancy a) true b) false 12) Cervical polyp may be ............ a) single b) multiple c) covered by rough glistening surface d) soft 13) All the following are risk factors of ( CIN ) except ......... a) diabetes mellitus b) multiparity c) cigarette smoking
  • 23. d) immunosuppression 14) ......... is high grade intraepithelial lesion a) CIN I b) CIN II c) CIN III d) b&c 15) Dysplastic changes involve the lower third of the epithelium of the cervix a) CIN I b) CIN II c) CIN III d) a &b 16) ...... is the age of incidence of invasive cervical carcinoma. a) 20 year b) 30 year c) 40 year d) 50 year 17) ............ can be found in invasive cervical carcinoma a) abnormal uterine bleeding b) malodorous vaginal discharge c) ulceration d) all the above 18) Dilatation of ducts, lipid laden macrophages, fibrosis is characteristic of ….. a) Acute mastitis b) Plasma cell mastitis c) Fat necrosis d) Galactocele 19) Fibrosis retraction of nipple can be seen in …… a) Acute mastitis b) Chronic mastitis c) Fat necrosis d) Galactocele e) A & B 20) A 27-year-old female who is actively training for a marathon presents with the new onset of a painful lump in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. A mammogram shows an irregular mass with focal areas of calcification.An excisional biopsy reveals a localized area of granulation tissue and numerous lipid-laden macrophages surrounding necrotic adipocytes.What is the correct diagnosis? a) Acute mastitis b) Ectasia c) Enzymatic fat necrosis d) Traumatic fat necrosis 21) ……. Is clinically is differential diagnosis of carcinoma a) Acute mastitis b) Mammary duct ectasia c) Fat necrosis d) Galactocele e) B & C
  • 24. 22) …… is a cystic dilation of breast ducts occurring during lactation a) Acute mastitis b) Galactocele c) Ectasis d) Fat necrosis 23) Which is False about fibrocystic change of the breast a) Spectrum of macroscopic & microscopic changes in the female breast b) Unilateral c) Occurs at age of 20-50 years d) characterized by fibrosis, adenosis & cyst formation 24) ……. Is the most cause of palpable masses in female breast a) Chronic mastitis b) Fibrocystic change of the breast c) Fat necrosis d) Galatocele 25) Blue dome cysts is the characteristic feature of ……. a) Non proliferative fibrocystic change b) Epithelial hyperplasia c) Sclerosing adenosis d) All of the above 26) Ductal papillomatosis is seen in ….. a) Sclerosing adenosis b) Epithelial hyperplasia c) Plasma cell mastitis d) Non-proliferative fibrocystic change 27) Non-proliferative fibrocystic changes including all of the following Except a) Fibrosis b) Adenosis c) Sclerosing adenosis d) Cyst formation 28) Proliferative fibrocystic changes, moderate hyperplasia without atypia is associated with …. a) No increase the risk of breast cancer b) Increases the risk of breast cancer 4- 5 times c) Increases the risk of breast cancer 10 times d) Mild increase the risk of breast cancer 29) ……. Increase the risk of breast cancer 10 times a) Proliferative disease +atypia b) Proliferative dfibrocystic change + florid hyperplasia without atypia c) Proliferative disease+ atypia +positive family history d) non-proliferative fibrocystic change +mild epithelial hyperplasia 30) During a routine breast self- examination, a 35-year-old female is concerned because her breasts feel “lumpy.” She consults you as her primary care physician. After
  • 25. performing an examination, you reassure her that no masses are present and that the “lumpiness” is due to fibrocystic changes. Considering this clinical opinion, a pathologic finding that is consistent with the non proliferative form of fibrocystic change is a) A blue-domed cyst b) Atypical hyperplasia c) Papillomatosis d) Sclerosing adenosis 31) Apocrine metaplasia is seen in …… a) Sclerosing adenosis b) Papillomatosis c) Atypical hyperplasia d) Non-proliferative fibrocystic change 32) A 25-year-old female presents to your office for workup of infertility. In giving a history she describes severe pain during menses, and she also tells you that in the past another doctor told her that she had “chocolate in her cysts.” Based on this history, what abnormality would you most expect to be present in this patient? a) Metastatic ovarian cancer b) Endometriosis c) Adenomyosis d) A posteriorly located subserosal uterine leiomyoma 33) Oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, obesity & infertility are the clinical features of …… a) Follicular cysts b) Stein-leventhal syndrome c) Chocolate cysts d) Luteal cyst 34) Which type of ovary cysts is associated with endometrial hyperplasia a) Luteal cyst b) Follicular cysts c) Chocolate cysts d) All of the above 35) A 19-year-old female presents with oligomenorrhea. Physical examination reveals an obese young female with acne and increased facial hair. A pelvic examination is essentially within normal limits, excluding the adnexal regions, which could not be palpated secondary to obesity. Ultrasound examination reveals bilateral enlargement of the ovaries with multiple subcortical cysts. Which one of the listed sets of serum laboratory values is most likely to be present in this individual? Serum LH Serum FSH LH/FSH ratio a- decreased decreased High b- decreased decreased Low c- decreased increased Low
  • 26. d- increased decreased High 36) A 23-year-old female presents with pelvic pain and is found to have an ovarian mass. Grossly, the mass consists of multiple cystic spaces. Histologically, these cysts are lined by tall columnar ciliated epithelium, what is your diagnosis of this ovarian tumor? a) Serous tumor b) Mucinous tumor c) Endometrioid tumor d) Brenner tumor 37) Concerning M.P of benign serous cystadenomas which is False a) Papillae have delicate fibrous cores b) Stratification of epithelial cells c) Lined by tall columnar ciliate epithelium d) None of the above 38) AS regarding Borderline serous tumors, which is False …. a) No invasion of the stroma b) Moderate atypia c) Papillary formation d) Stratification of epithelial cells 39) Concerning Serous tumors which is False a) Most common ovarian tumors b) Unilateral c) 60% are benign d) occur in age 20-50 years 40) Psammoma bodies is characteristic of ……… ovarian tumors a) Benign serous cystadenoma b) Serous cystadenocarcinoma c) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma d) Borderline serous tumor 41) Single layer of tall columnar non ciliated epithelium is character of …. a) Benign serous cystadenomas b) Benign mucinous cystadenomas c) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma d) Borderline of serous tumor 42) Which is False about Mucinous tumors a) Less common than serous tumors b) 80 % are benign c) Occur at age 30-40 years d) Mostly bilateral 43) Concerning benign mucinous cystadenomas which is True a) Single layer of tall columnar ciliated epithelium b) Stratification of lining epithelial cells c) Single layer of tall columnar non ciliated epithelium d) Papillary formation 44) Pseudomyxoma peritonei is most likely to be associated with a a) Serous tumor of the ovary b) Mucinous tumor of the ovary c) Teratomas d) Choriocarcinoma
  • 27. 45) Concerning endometrial polyps all is true except …….. a) Non neoplastic polyp b) It causes uterine bleeding c) Due to localized over growth of endometrial epithelium d) very rare turn malignant 46) The neoplastic component of endometrial polyp is …………. a) Endometrial glands b) Endometrial stroma c) Both 47) All of the following is not true concerning endometrial polyp except …………….. a) Originates from endocervical stroma b) May spread to the vagina c) True neoplastic polyp d) Endometrial glands are the neoplastic component 48) Endometrial polyps are very rarely may turn malignancy? a) True b) False 49) The most common malignant tumor in female genitalia is ……….. a) Invasive cervical carcinoma b) Endometrial carcinoma c) Uterine leiomyoma d) Endometriosis 50) Concerning Endometrial carcinoma all of the following is true except …………… a) Most common benign tumor of the uterus b) Endometrial hyperplesia is a common precursor c) Usually it is postmenopausal d) More frequent than invasive cervical carcinoma 51) The most common risk factor for endometrial carcinoma is ………………… a) Estrogen secreting ovarian tumor b) Polycystic ovary c) Atypical endometrial hyperplesia d) Infertility 52) All of the following are risk factors for endometrial carcinoma except ………….. a) Prolonged estrogen replacement therapy b) Early menarche and late menopause c) Obesity d) Multiparity 53) In estrogen dependent endometrial adenocarcinoma which is not true ………….. a) Most common type b) Related to hyperesterinism c) Develops against background of endometrial atrophy d) Common in postmenopausal women 54) Non estrogen dependent endometrial carcinoma is more well differentiated than estrogen dependent?
  • 28. a) True b) false 55) Endometrial carcinoma may spread to the vagina by ………… a) Local spread only b) Lymphatic spread c) Blood spread d) A and B e) A and C 56) In stage 3 endometrial carcinoma ,Which is true? a) Confined to corpus uteri b) Involve corpus uteri and cervix c) Involve the lower third of the vagina d) Outside the uterus but not outside the true pelvis e) Outside the uterus and the true pelvis 57) The most common benign tumor of the uterus is ………….. a) Endocervical polyp b) Endometrial carcinoma c) Uterine leiomyoma d) Leiomyosarcoma 58) Concerning uterine leiomyoma all is true except ………….. a) Most common benign tumor of the uterus b) Most common Cause of uterine bleeding c) Postmenopausal d) Malignant transformation is rare 59) Grossly… masses of uterin leiomyoma have the following features except …………. a) Rounded , well circumscribed b) Firm , capsulated c) Grayish white d) Cut section shows whorly appearance 60) All of the following are complications of submucosal leiomyoma except ………… a) Ischemic necrosis of the mass b) Obstruction of delivery c) Infertility d) Menorrhagia 61) Concerning leiomyosarcoma All is true except ………… a) Most common sarcoma of uterus b) Arise on top of leiomyoma c) Mitotic figures of atypia is seen microscopically d) very rare 62) Which one of the listed endometrial abnormalities has the greatest risk of developing into endometrial cancer? a) Simple hyperplasia b) Complex hyperplasia c) Atypical hyperplasia d) Cystic hyperplasia e) Polyp 63) Prolonged unopposed estrogen stimulation in an adult female increases the risk of development of endometrial hyperplasia and subsequent carcinoma. What is the most likely histologic appearance of this endometrial
  • 29. carcinoma? a) Adenocarcinoma b) Clear cell carcinoma c) Small cell carcinoma d) Squamous cell carcinoma e) Transitional cell carcinoma 64) A 46-year-old woman undergoes an abdominal hysterectomy for a “fibroid” uterus. The surgeon requests a frozen section on the tumor, which is deferred because of the lesion’s degree of cellularity. Which of the following criteria will be used by the pathologist in determining benignancy versus malignancy in permanent sections? a) Mitotic rate b) Cell pleomorphism c) Cell necrosis d) Nucleus-to-cytoplasm ratio e) Tumor size 65) All the following is true about benign cystic teratoma except a) it occurs in young women b) it is usually unilateralّ c) it is unilocular cyst in cut sectionّ d) it is sometimes soft formed of benign structures 66) The benign cystic teratoma a) usually undergoes malignant changesّ b) is usually bilateral c) occurs after menopauseّ d) may undergoes torsion causing acute abdomen 67) All the following is true about malignant teratoma except a) it is bulky , solid with areas of necrosis and haemorrhage b) it is common after menopause c) its grading depends on the immature neuroepithelium proportion d)the prognosis is best in low grade 68) All the following shows thyroid tissues except a) mature cystic teratomaّ b) struma ovariiّ c) thyroid carcioma d) ovarian carcinoid ّ 69) Dysgerminoma a) is bilateral b) is formed of small cells with clear plasma c) is responsive to chemotherapy d) occurs after menopause 70) All the following is responsive to chemotherapy except a) uterine choriocarcioma b) ovarian choriocarcinoma c) gestational choriocarcinoma d) dysgerminoma 71) Meig's syndrome occurs in a) fibrothecoma b) granulosa-theca tumours c) dysgerminoma d) choriocarcinoma
  • 30. 72) Call-exner bodies are a) basophilic materialّ b) are seen in the fibrothecoma c) are seen in the granulosa theca cell tumours d) are seen in the dysgerminoma ّ 73) All the following is true about fibrothecoma except a) it is leading to meig's syndrome b) it is usually unilateral c) it arises mostly in post-menopausal women d) accounts 5% of all ovarian tumoursّ 74) Spread of malignant ovarian tumours by blood is most commonly to a)uterus b) breast c) lungs d) kidney 75) all of the following is true about krukenberg's tumours except a) it is metastatic gastrointestinal tract to ovary b) it is unilateral c) it is composed of mucin –producing signet ring cells d) it spreads from gastric carcinoma transcoelomic method 76) All gestational trophoblastic tumor share that they …………. a) Are benign b) Cause marked atypia c) Secrete HCGs at higher level d) Do metastasize 77) Benign tumor of the placental trophoblasts occurs due to faulty fertilization a) Invasive mole b) Hydatiform mole c) Choriocarcinoma d) Fibroma 78) Concerning vesicular mole all is true except …………. a) They are complete or partial b) Due to implantation of defective ovum c) Postmenopausal d) Causes painless vaginal bleeding 79) In complete vesicular mole …………. a) Normal ovum fertilized by diploid sperm b) Empty ovum fertilized by 2 sperms c) Empty ovum fertilized by diploid sperm d) a & b e) b & c 80) The most common karyotype of partial mole is ………… a) Triploid ( 69 , XXX ) b) Triploid ( 69 , XXY ) c) Triploid ( 96 , XXY ) d) Triploid ( 69 , XYY ) 81) The most common karyotype of complete mole is …………… a) Diploid ( 64 , XY ) b) Diploid ( 64 , XX )
  • 31. c) Diploid ( 46 , XX ) d) Diploid ( 46 , XY ) 82) All of the following is not true concerning partial mole except …………….. a) All chromosomes are paternal b) Fetal parts are seen c) No embryogenesis d) Diploid Karyotype ( 46 , XX ) 83) All of the following is true about complete mole except …………….. a) No fetal parts b) Hydropic swelling in all villi c) Edematous stroma with increased vascularization d) May turn malignant 84) The tumor markers of hydatiform mole is HCG ? a) True b) False 85) 2% of complete moles become invasive and 10% turn malignant into choriocarcinoma? a) True b) False 86) Concerning invasive mole all is true except …………….. a) Do not metastasize b) Perforates the uterine wall muscles c) No signs of atypia d) Good response to chemotherapy 87) 50% of Gestational Choriocarcinoma may follow …………. a) Ectopic pregnancy b) Complete mole c) Normal pregnancy d) Abortion 88) Concerning Gestational Choriocarcinoma All is true Except …………… a) Intrauterine large fleshy yellowish mass b) Areas of haemorrhage and necrosis c) Hydropic swelling in all villi d) Follow complete mole 89) Microscopically Choriocarcinoma shows …………. a) Malignant trophoblasts b) No Chorionic villi c) High vascularity with haemorrhage and necrosis d) All of the above 90) Early spread of choriocarcinoma is by ……….. a) Lymphatics b) Blood c) Local spread d) They do not metastasize 91) Invasive mole do metastasize mainly by blood ? a) True b) False 92) The most differentiating point in gestational choriocarcinoma is ……………..
  • 32. a) Highly sensitive to chemotherapy 100 % cure b) Highly vascular c) Do not metastasize d) High level of HCG 93) A 25-year-old woman in her fifteenth week of pregnancy presents with uterine bleeding and passage of a small amount of watery fluid and tissue. She is found to have a uterus that is much larger than estimated by her gestational dates. Her uterus is found to be filled with cystic, avascular, grapelike structures that do not penetrate the uterine wall. No fetal parts are found. The most likely diagnosis for this abnormality is …… a) Partial hydatidiform mole b) Complete hydatidiform mole c) Invasive mole d) Placental site trophoblastic tumor e) Choriocarcinoma 94) …… is the most common benign tumor of female breast a) Fibroadenoma b) Duct papilloma c) Phyllodes tumors d) All of the above 95) As regards gross morphology of fibroadenoma which is False a) Encapsulated b) Usually bilateral c) Firm in consistency d) Varies in size 96) Bloody discharge is characteristic features of …… a) Fibroadenoma b) Duct papilloma c) Epithelium hyperplasia d) Phyllodes tumors 97) A neoplastic component of duct papilloma is stromal element a) True b) False 98) Which is False about gross morphology of small duct papillomas a) Multiple b) Attached to the duct system by fibrovascular stalk c) Deeply found within the ductal system d) Increase the risk of subsequent malignancy 99) As regards Phyllodes tumors which is False a) Neoplastic element is stroma b) Arises from pre-exisiting fibroadenomas c) Affecting older pateints d) Grossly show Leaf like cleft 100) A 39-year-old female presents with the new onset of a bloody discharge from her right nipple. Physical examination reveals a 1-cm freely movable mass that is located directly beneath the nipple. Sections from this mass reveal multiple fibrovascular cores lined by several layers of epithelial cells. Atypia is minimal. The
  • 33. lesion is completely contained within the duct and no invasion into underlying tissue is seen. What is the correct diagnosis? a) Benign phyllodes tumor b) Ductal papilloma c) Paget’s disease d) Papillary carcinoma 101) A 35-year-old female presents with a 2.2-cm mass in her left breast.The mass is excised, and histologic sections reveal a tumor composed of a mixture of ducts and cells, as seen in the photomicrograph below. The epithelial cells within the ducts are not atypical in appearance. There is a marked increase in the stromal cellularity, but the stromal cells are not atypical in appearance and mitoses are not found. What is the correct diagnosis for this breast lesion? a) Fibroadenoma b) benign phyllodes tumor c) Malignant phyllodes tumor d) Medullary carcinoma 102) All of the following factors increase the risk of breast cancer Except a) Nullipara b) Increased age c) Prolonged breast- feeding d) Proliferative fibrocystic changes 103) …………is the most area of breast in which breast cancer arise a) Upper outer quadrant b) Lower outer quadrant c) Central area d) Upper inner quadrant 104) ……. Is the most common form of breast cancer a) Invasive ductal carcinoma of NOS b) Medullary carcinoma c) Colloid carcinoma b) inflammatory carcinoma 105) Peau d'orange can be seen in …….. a) Invasive ductal carcinoma of NOS b) Tubular carcinoma c) Inflammatory carcinoma d) A& C 106) Inflammatory carcinoma is of the breast due …….. a) Infiltration of dermal lymphatics b) Infiltration of epidermis of the nipple c) Infiltration of epidermis of the areola d) None of the above 107) There's No palpable mass in all of the following Except a) DCIS b) Inflammatory carcinoma c) Paget's disease
  • 34. d) LCIS 108) Which is True about ILC a) Well circumscribed b) Firm in consistency c) Indian files d) Large tumor cells 109) Uncommonly metastasizing breast cancer including all the following Except a) Colloid carcinoma b) Inflammatory carcinoma c) Medullary carcinoma d) Tubular carcinoma 110) As regards Gyencomastia which is False a) Enlargement of the male breast b) Enlargement of the female breast c) Excessive of estrogen d)Usually bilateral 111) The most important factor related to the prognosis of breast cancer is a) The histologic type and grade b) The status of axillary lymph nodes c) The presence of estrogen receptors d) Chromosomal aneuploidy 112) A 48-year-old female presents with a 1.5-cm firm mass in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast. A biopsy from this mass reveals many of the ducts to be filled with atypical cells. In the center of these ducts there is extensive necrosis. No invasion into the surrounding fibrous tissue is seen. What is the correct diagnosis for this breast mass? a) Colloid carcinoma b) Comedocarcinoma c) Infiltrating ductal carcinoma d) Lobular carcinoma in situ 113) Infiltrative lobular carcinoma of the breast is characterized histologicallyby a) Large cells with clear cytoplasm within the epidermis b) Single-file pattern of infiltration c) Granulomatous inflammation d) None of the above 114) A 35-year-old woman who underwent a modified radical mastectomy of her right breast for infiltrating ductal carcinoma 2 years ago presents with enlargement of her right breast. The breast has a swollen,red- discolored appearance. It is diffusely indurated and tender on palpation. Multiple axillary lymph nodes are palpable in the lower axilla. The working clinical diagnosis is inflammatory carcinoma. Microscopic sections from this red, indurated area are most likely to reveal a) Infiltrating malignant ducts surrounded by numerous neutrophils b) Extensive invasion of dermal lymphatics c) Duct ectasia with numerous plasma cells d) None of the above 115) A 46-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of a discharge from the nipple. An excisional biopsy of the nipple area reveals infiltration of the nipple by
  • 35. large cells with clear cytoplasm. These cells are found both singly and in small clusters in the epidermis and are PAS-positive and diastase-resistant. What is the correct diagnosis? a) Ductal papilloma b) Paget’s disease c) Eczematous inflammation d) Phyllodes tumor, malignant 116) A 32-year-old male presents with scrotal enlargement. Physical examination, including scrotal transillumination, reveals the presence of a testicular cyst containing clear fluid. This abnormality most likely results from fluid accumulating within the ……………… a) Ampulla of the ductus deferens b) Appendix testis c) Epididymis d) Seminal vesicles e) Tunica vaginalis 117) Which of the following testicular tumors is most radiosensitive? a) Seminoma b) Embryonal carcinoma c) Choriocarcinoma d) Yolk sac tumor e) Immature teratoma 118) A 27-year-old male presents with a testicular mass, which is resected and diagnosed as being a yolk sac tumor. Which one of the listed substances is most likely to be increased in this patient’s serum as a result of being secreted from the cells of this tumor? a) Acid phosphatase b) α fetoprotein (AFP) c) Alkaline phosphatase d) β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG) e) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) 119) A 47-year-old male presents with the sudden onset of fever, chills, and dysuria. During the review of symptoms you discover that he has no history of recurrent urinary tract infections. Rectal examination finds that the prostate gland is very sensitive and examination is painful. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? a) Acute prostatitis b) Chronic bacterial prostatitis c) Chronic abacterial prostatitis d) Granulomatous prostatitis e) Benign prostatic hyperplasia 120) A 69-year-old male presents with urinary frequency, nocturia, dribbling, and difficulty in starting and stopping urination. Rectal examination reveals the prostate to be enlarged, firm, and rubbery. A needle biopsy reveals increased numbers of glandular elements and stromal tissue. The glands are found to have a double layer of epithelial cells. Prominent nuclei or back-to- back glands are not seen. What is the correct diagnosis? a) Acute prostatitis b) Chronic bacterial prostatitis c) Granulomatous prostatitis
  • 36. d) Benign prostatic hyperplasia e) Prostatic adenocarcinoma 121) A 67-year-old male is found on rectal examination to have a single, hard, irregular nodule within his prostate. A biopsy of this lesion reveals the presence of small glands lined by a single layer of cells with enlarged, prominent nucleoli. From what portion of the prostate did this lesion most likely originate? a) Anterior zone b) Central zone c) Peripheral zone d) Periurethral glands e) Transition zone 122) All of the following is true about Crypto orchidism except ……………….. a) Occurs in 0.7% of male population b) Most cases are idiopathic c) More common in the left testis d) Asymptomatic 123) Which is true concerning syphilitic inflammation of the testis? a) Begins as Primary infection in UT b) Always begins as orchitis c) Always begins at the epididymis d) Results from heamatogenous spread 124) All of the following is true concerning testicular neoplasms except …………. a) Most common cause of painless enlargement of the testis b) 95% of these tumors arise from germ cells c) Most of them are benign d) Peak incidence between 15-35 years 125) Which is not true concerning germ cell tumor of the testis? a) 95% of testicular neoplasms b) All are malignant c) Arise from totipotent cells d) Associated with endocrine abnormalities 126) The most common germ cell tumor in adults is …………… a) Seminoma b) Choriocarcinoma c) Yolk sac tumor d) Embryonal carcinoma 127) Concerning seminomas Which is not true? a) Commonest 30% of germ cell tumor b) Counterpart of choriocarcinoma in females c) Peak incidence in 4th decade d) None of the above 128) Grossly seminomas have the following characteristic features except …………. a) Large soft mass b) Well demarcated c) Large tumors contain foci of coagulative necrosis d) Infiltrating the surrounding areas 129) A 48-year-old male presents with a large, painless testicular mass after physical and radiological examination showed that the mass is solid and confined to the testis ,
  • 37. a biopsy was taken from the mass it revealed large cells with distinct borders arranged in small lobules , surrounded by fibrous tissue and lymphocytic infiltration … this mass most likely to be ……………. a) Embryonal carcinoma b) Testicular lymphoma c) Seminoma d) Teratoma 130) In stage 2 seminoma ………….. a) Tumor confined to testis b) Metastasis limited to retroperitoneal LN c) Metastasis above the diaphragm d) Metastasis outside retroperitoneal LN 131) Most common testicular tumor in infants and young children is ………….. a) Yolk sac tumour b) Embryonal carcinoma c) Immature teratoma d) Seminoma 132) Alpha feto protein is a tumor marker of ………….. a) Choriocarcinoma b) Seminoma c) Yolk sac tumor d) Leydig cell tumor 133) Tumor markers of testicular choriocarcinoma …………. a) Alpha feto protein b) HCG c) Androgens and estrogen d) None of the above 134) All teratomas of adult males are considered malignant? a) True b) False 135) Complete the table Point of comparison Seminoma Non seminomatous tumors a) Clinical picture b) Spread c) Behavior d) Treatment e) Prognosis 136) Concerning interstitial cell tumor of the testis which is true? a) Not a primary tumor of the testis b) Secrete estrogen in low quantities c) Painless testicular mass with no hormonal changes d) 90% are benign 137) The most common testicular tumor in males above 60 years is
  • 38. ……………. a) Tesicular lymphoma b) Seminoma c) Embryonal carcinoma d) Leydig cell tumor 138) Lymphatic Fluid in tunica vaginalis due to lymphatic obstruction ……………… a) Hydrocele b) Hematocele c) Chylocele d) Varicocele 139) All is true concerning BPH except ……………… a) Mostly due to hormonal changes b) affect 90% of males above 70 c) Mainly in the outer peripheral part of prostate d) No malignant transformation 140) Which of the following is a complications of BPH? a) Urinary Bladder irritation b) Chronic Renal Failure c) Pyelonephritis and stone formation d) All of the above e) None of the above 141) The most common visceral cancer in males is …………… a) Seminoma b) Carcinoma prostate c) Senile prostatic hyperplesia d) Dysgerminoma 142) Concerning prostatic carcinoma Which is not true? a) Most cases are occult b) Mainly in outer peripheral part of prostate c) Serum acid phosphatase is a tumor marker d) None of the above 143) All the following is true about the microscopic picture of well differentiated prostatic carcinoma except ………. a) Small glands arranged irregularly b) Lined by single layer of cuboidal cells c) Absence of basal cell layer d) No dysplastic changes 144) Grossly which is true about prostatic carcinoma? a) Large nodular mass b) Multiple well circumscribed nodules c) Mainly In the outer peripheral part d) No infiltration of the adjacent areas 145) Brode’s grading is used in carcinoma of the prostate? a) True b) False 146) Extra Capsular invasion of prostatic carcinoma but still clinically localized is stage ……….. a) 1
  • 39. b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 147) The most important precipitating condition to prostatic carcinoma is ………….. a) Dysplasia of the prostate glands b) Poorly differentiated glands c) Absence of basal layer d) Glands lie back to back 1- C 2- A 3- D 4- D 5- B 6- B 7- D 8- C 9- A 10- D 11- B 12- C 13- A 14- D 15- D 16- D 17- D 18- B 19- E 20- D 21- E 22- B 23- B 24- B 25- A 26- B 27- C 28- D 29- C 30- A 31- D 32 -ّ B 33- B 34- B 35- D 36- A 37- B 38- C 39- B 40) B 41- B 42- D 43- C 44- B 45- A 46- B 47- C 48- A 49- B 50- A 51- C 52- D 53- C 54- B 55- D 56- D 57- C 58- C 59- B 60- A 61- B 62- C 63- A 64- A 65- D 66- D 67- B 68- B 69- C 70- B 71- A 72- C 73- D 74- C 75- B 76- C 77- B 78- C 79- E 80- B 81- C 82- B 83- C 84- A 85- B 86- C 87- B 88- C 89- D 90- B 91- B 92- A 93- B 94- A 95- B 96- B 97- B 98- B 99- B 100- B
  • 40. 101- B 102- C 103- A 104- A 105- D 106- A 107- C 108- C 109- B 110- B 111- B 112- B 113- B 114- B 115- B 116- E 117- A 118- B 119- A 120- D 121- C 122- C 123- B 124- C 125- D 126- A 127- B 128- D 129- C 130- B 131- A 132- C 133- B 134- A 135- Point of comparison Seminomas Non seminomatous tumors a) C/P Painless enlargement without distant metastasis Presented as occult carcinoma by wide spread metastasis with absence of palpable mass b) Spread Lymphatic Blood and lymphatic c) Behavior Less aggressive More aggressive d) Treatment Radiosensitive Radio resistant e) Prognosis Betterّ Worse 136- D 137- A 138- C 139- C 140- D 141- B 142- D 143- D 144- C 145- B 146- C 147- A ‫ّإن‬‫اللهم‬ّ‫اّنسألكّحسن‬ ّ‫الخواتيم‬
  • 41. 1) The female hormonal system lies under the influence of the following hormones except …….. a) FSH b) LH c) GH d) Estrogen and progesterone 2) At the age of puperty the first hormone that initiate the ovarian cycle is …………… a) FSH b) LRH c) LH d) Estrogen 3) The following phases are of the ovarian cycle EXCEPT …………… a) Follicular phase b) Luteal phase c) Proliferative phase d) Ovulation 4) During the follicular phase the follicles are proliferating under the effect of ………… a) LH b) Estrogen c) FSH d) LHRH 5) During the follicular phase the follicles secretes ………. a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Both A & B d) None of the above 6) All of the following events occur during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle except …… a) Proliferation of the granulosa cells b) Formation of theca cells c) Rupture of an ovum d) Formation of an antrum 7) Concerning ovulation …….. a) Ovum is surrounded by corona radiate b) Occurs 14 days after menstruation c) Caused by LH surge d) All of the above is true 8) Concerning LH surge ……… a) Marked increase in LH 2 days after ovulation b) Causes anovulatory cycle c) Causes formation of corpus luteum d) causes shortened menstrual cycle 9) The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle mainly depend on ………….. a) FSH b) Estrogen c) LH d) None of the above 10) During the luteal phase which is not true ………….. a) Increased level of estrogen and progesterone b) Increased level of FSH and LH
  • 42. c) Fluid is accumulated in the corpus luteum forming an antrum d) No new follicles begin to grow in the ovary 11) During the luteal phase estrogen and progesterone has a negative feedback on LH secretion ? a) True b) False 12) Proliferative phase of the endometrial cycle is mainly under the effect of …………. a) Progesterone b) Estrogen c) Inhibin d) FSH 13) All of the following events occur during the proliferative phase except …………….. a) Increased No of stromal cells and glands b) Glands increase in tortuosity c) The endometrium is thickened up to 3-4 mm d) It is under the effect of estrogen 14) Concerning the secretory phase of the endometrial cycle ……. a) It starts after ovulation b) Endometrial swelling and secretory development c) Increased lipid and glycogen deposition d) Increased Blood supply e) All of the above 15) In menstrual phase all is true Except …………… a) No fertilization occurred b) Level of estrogen and progesterone falls c) Corpus albicans is formed d) Endometrium is increased in thickness 16) An ovulatory cycles occur as a result of ………….. a) FSH insufficiency b) Formation of corpus luteum c) LH insufficiency d) Estrogen insufficiency 17) In-pregnant female estrogen secreted from ….. a) Graffin follicle b) Corpu luteum c) Placenta d) All of the above 18) In non-pregnant female, progesterone secreted from ….. a) Graffian follicle b) Latter half of each ovarian cycle by corpus luteum c) Both 19) Estrogen changes the ovarian epithelium from stratified type into cuboidal which is more resistant to trauma a) True b) False
  • 43. 20) Concerning the effect of estrogen on breast which is False ? a) Development stromal tissues b) Increases fat deposition c) Growth acini system d) Pigmentation of areola 21) All of the following is True about the effect of estrogen Except a) Increases metabolic rate b) Sodium & water retention c) Negative nitrogen balance d) Soft , smooth & vascular of the skin 22) Which is False about effect of progesterone a) Increases endometrium secretion of uterus b) Increases contraction of uterus c) Development of alveoli of the breast d) Protein catabolism 23) Progesterone in large amounts causes sodium & water retention a) True b) False 24) As regards menopause which is False? a) Sexual cycle is irregular b) Decreased female sex hormones c) Decreased LH & FSH d) Burning out of the ovaries 25) The rate of HCG secretion reaches maximum 8 days after ovulation? a) True b) False 26) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin has very much the same molecular structure and function as …….. a) Estrogen b) FSH c) LH d) Progesterone 27) All of the following are true about HCG except ……………. a) Secreted by the endometrium b) Prevent involution of corpus luteum c) Increase secretion of estrogen and progesterone by CL d) Can be measured 8 days after ovulation 28) In pregnancy Estrogen causes ………….. a) Continuous growth of endometrium b) Decrease contractility of the gravid uterus c) Relaxes the various pelvic ligaments d) Prepare the breast for lactation 29) Prevention of the uterine contraction during pregnancy from causing abortion is mediated by ……… a) Progesterone b) Estrogen c) HCG d) Relaxin 30) All of the following are functions
  • 44. of progesterone in pregnancy except …………… a) Development of decidual cells in uterine endometrium b) Sodium , Calcium and Potassium retention c) Prepare the breast for lactation d) Development of zygote prior to implantation Choose the causative hormone from B for each of the functions in A , one hormone may be selected more than once A B 31) Relaxation of pelvic bones and ligaments a) Estrogen 32) Has lactogenic activity b) Progesterone 33) Prevent uterine contraction from causing spontaneous abortion c) Human chorionic somatomammotropin 34) Increase growth of the ductal system of the breast d) Human chorionic gonadotropin 35) Interstitial cell stimulating effect on fetus testis e) Relaxin 36) Increase secretions of fallopian tube and uterus 37) Protect corpus luteum from degeneration 38) Enlargement of external genitalia during pregnancy 39) Both relaxin and progesterone cause ……….. a) Involution of CL b) Enlargement of external genitalia c) Inhibition of myometrial contraction d) None of the above 40) Relaxin hormone is secreted by ……….. a) Corpus luteum b) Decidual cells c) Granulosa cells d) a & b e) a & c 41) Human chorionic somatomammotropin causes the following except …………. a) Na+ , Ca+ & K+ retention b) Decrease glucose utilization by the fetus c) increase fatty acid mobilization from fat store of the mother d) Deposition of protein in the tissues 42) During pregnancy the secretion of ………………. Hormones is suppressed
  • 45. a) GH b) Aldosterone c) LH d) a & b e) a & c 43) During pregnancy the following hormones are increased except ………… a) Aldosterone b) Thyroid hormone c) GH d) Insulin 44) Full development of breast during pregnancy occurs by the following except ………… a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) HCG d) HCS 45) Human Chorionic somatomammotropin is a placental hormone secreted in ……….. of pregnancy a) Forth week b) Fifth week c) Fifth month d) Third month 46) The sertoli cells a) Are massive in size b) Forms the blood testis barrier by their tight junction c) Are stimulated by FSH d) All of the above 47) All the following is true about phagocytic function of sertoli cell except a) they play a role in shaping of the head and tail of the sperm b) they convert the secondary spermatocytes to spermatid c) they secrete digestive enzymes d) they play a special role in phagocytosis of the dead sperms 48) Muellerian inhibitory factor a) inhibits the anterior pituitary gland secretion b) is secreted by the leyding cells c) inhibits formation of the fallopian tube in male fetus d) is secreted in puberty by sertoli cellsّ 49) When the blood -testis barrier is destructed a) large molecules and proteins enter the interstitial tissue b) autoimmune -disease occurs c) the blood born –noxious agents may kill the germ cellsّ d) all the above ّ 50) Estrogen hormone a) is essential for the spermiation b) stimulate the sertoli cells in spermatogenesis c) is essential for the division of the germinal cells d) control the metabolic functions of the testis
  • 46. 51) The spermiation a) is the conversion of spermatid into the spermatozoa b) occurs under effect of F.S.H and estrogen c) occus under effect of testosrone and estrogen d) a and b 52) Sperms a) are stored in a big quantity in the epididymis b) can live for many weeks in the female genital system c) develop the capacity of the motility in the epididymis d) all the above 53) The seminal vesicle secrete all the following except a) frucrose b) profibrinolysin c) fibrin d) prostaglandinّ 54) Descending of the testis into the scrotum a) occurs in the last month of the pregnancy b) occurs under effect of the testosterone c) is a process is called cryptorchidismّ d) all the above 55) Testosterone causes all the following except a) it increases the rate of secretion of sebaceous gland b) it increases the growth of hair on the top of the head c) it causes calcium retention d) it can increases the basal metabolic rate 15%ّ 56) Testosterone a) increases the number of the RBCs by direct effect on their production b) increases circulating high density cholesterol c) increases the reabsorption of sodium and in distal tubules of kidney d) all of the above 57) All the following is true about hypogonadism except a) the voice is child like b) they has normal stature c) the muscles are weaker than normal d) there is no loss of hair of the head 58) In castration, after puberty a) there is loss of masculine hair distribution b) the voice regress from the base quality only slightly c) there is loss of the musculature of the virile male d) all of the aboveّ 59) All the following is true about hypergonadismin male except a) it occurs due to a tumour in the interstitial leyding cells b) it causes development of the sex organs
  • 47. c) it causes rapid growth of the musculature and boneّ d) the height of the adult is more than normal subject ّ 60) All the following is true about FSH except a) it is inhibited by spermatogenesis b) it is responsible for testosterone production c) it is secreted from anterior pituitary gland d) it stimulates conversion of the spermatid to the sperm 1- C 2- B 3- C 4- C 5- A 6- C 7- D 8- C 9- C 10- C 11- A 12) B 13- B 14- E 15- D 16- C 17- C 18- B 19- B 20- C 21- C 22- B 23- B 24- C 25- B 26- C 27- A 28- C 29- A 30- B 31- E 32- C 33- B 34- A 35- D 36- B 37- D 38- A 39- C 40- D 41- B 42- E 43- C 44- C 45- B 46- D 47- B 48- C 49- D 50- A 51- D 52- C 53- B 54- B 55- B 56- C 57- B 58- D 59- D 60- D 1) The nerve supply of obturator internus muscle is: a) Obturator nerve b) Superior gluteal nerve c) Inferior gluteal nerve d) Nerve to obturator inernus 2) The whit line give attachment to …………… muscle: a) Coccygeus
  • 48. b) obturator internus c) Levator ani d) Piriformis 3) ………… muscle supports the prostate in male and acts as sphincter for vagina: a) Puborectalis b) Pubococcygeus c) iliococcygeus d) None of the above ّ 4) Tough and membranous fascia cover distensible organ. a) True b) False 5) All of the following are branches of the anterior division of internal iliac artery except: a) Internal pudendal artery b) Inferior gluteal artery c) Vaginal artery d) Superior gluteal artery 6) which of the following arteries leave the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen below piriformis muscle? a) Inferior gluteal artery b) Superior gluteal artery c) Internal pudendal artery d) A & C 7) Which artery of the following represents the continuation of the aorta embryologically: a) Common iliac artery b) Internal iliac artery c) Median sacral artery d) Superior gluteal artery 8) Median sacral vein drains into right common iliac vein. a) True b) False 9) Nerve to piriformis muscle is a dorsal branch of the roots of the sacral plexus. a) True b) False 10) all of the following are ventral branches from the sacral plexus except: a) Nerve to quadratus femoris b) Nerve to obturator inertnus c) Pudendal nerve d) Tibial part of sciatic nerve 11) Each pelvic part of sympathetic trunk has ………. Sacral ganglions: a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 12) The lateral angles of the perineum are formed by: a) 2 Ischial tuberosities b) Guteus maximus mescle c) Scrotuberous ligament d) Pubic arch 13) The space between the two labia
  • 49. majora is called: a) Vestibule of vagina b) Pudendal cleft c) Urethral orifice d) Vaginal orifice 14) The perineal membrane is: a) The fatty layer of the superficial fascia of the urogenital triangle b) The membranous layer of the superficial fascia of the urogenital triangle c) The superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm d) The inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm 15) The following structure piercing the perineal membrane except: a) Urethra b) Internal pudendal artery c) Dorsal nerve of clitoris d) Anal canal 16) ………… is the floor of the superficial fascia. a) Scarpa’s fascia b) Perineal membrane c) Colle’s fascia d) Fatty layer of the superficial fascia 17) One of the following structure share in the contents of both superficial and deep perineal pouch: a) Internal pudendal artery b) Deep artery of the clitoris c) labial nerves d) dorsal nerve of clitoris 18) The junction between the the fundus and the body of the uterus is called: a) Cornua b) cervix c) Isthmus d) Internal os 19) The constriction in the lower part of the body of the uterus is called: a) Cornua b) cervix c) Isthmus d) Internal os 20) The uterus is ………… when the angle between cervix and body of the uterus is more than 170 degrees. a) Anteverted b) Anteflexed c) Retroverted d) Retroflexed 21) Douglas pouch contains ……….: a) Coils of sigmoid colon b) Terminal ileum c) A & B d) None of the above 22) All parts of the uterus are covered by the the peritoneum except: a) Anterior surface of the Supravaginal part of the cervix b) Posterior surface of the Supravaginal part of the cervix
  • 50. c) Vaginal part of the cervix d) A & B e) A & C 23) The lateral surface of supravaginal part of the cervix gives attachment to: a) Round ligament b) Ligament of the ovary c) uterosacral ligament d) Broad ligament 24) The mesovarium is lied between the mesometrium and the mesosalpinx. a) True b) False 25) The ……………..ligament is also called cardinal ligament. a) Round ligament b) Transverse Cervical ligament c) uterosacral ligament d) Broad ligament 26) All of the following structures are contents of the broad ligament except: a) Ligament of ovary b) Upper part of round ligament c) Pubocervical ligament d) Uterine artery 27) All of the following share in keeping the uterus in position except: a) Rectum b) Urinary bladder c) Perineal body d) Piriformis muscle 28) The arterial supply of the infundibulum of the uterine tube is by: a) Uterine artery b) Ovarian artery c) Middle rectal artery d) umbilical artery 29) The vagina is related posteriorly to: a) Cervix of the uterus b) Urethra c) Urinary bladder d) None of the above 30) Lateral fornix of the vagina is related laterally to: a) Ureter b) Urethra c) Greater vestibular gland D) Vestibule of vagina 31) The arterial supply of the vagina is from : a) Vaginal artery b) Uterine artery c) Middle rectal artery d) Internal pudendal artery e) All of the above 32) Medial surface of the ovary is related to peritoneum of the pelvic wall. a) True b) False 33) The posterior boundary of the ovarian fossa is made by:
  • 51. a) Ureter b) Internal iliac artery c) Obturator nerve d) A & B 34) The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein. a) True b) False 35) The middle part of the vagina drains into ………… LNs. a) Superficial inguinal b) Para-aortic c) Internal iliac and external iliac d) Internal iliac 36) The cornuae of the uterus drains into ………… LNs. a) Superficial inguinal b) Para-aortic c) Internal iliac, external iliac and sacral d) external iliac 37) The base of the mammary gland extends from ….. to …….. ribs. a) 3, 6 b) 2, 5 c) 2, 6 d) 3, 5 38) The ……………… act as suspensory ligaments in the breast. a) Lobes b) Fibrous septa c) Retromammary space d) Lactiferous duct 39) The upper medial part of the breast drains into ……………. : a) Pectoral group of axillary LNs b) Posterior group of axillary LNs c) Parasternal LNs d) Apical group of axillary LNs 40) Dimpling of the overlying skin of the breast is a sign of …………: a) Cancer invasion of the deep fascia b) Cancer invasion of the suspensory ligaments c) Cancer invasion of the lactiferous ducts d) Cancer invasion of the deep lymphatics 41) Supernumerary nipples is called …………..: a) Polythelia b) Polymatsia c) Macromatsia d) None of the above 42) All of the following are contents of superfacial perineal pouch in male Except a) Roots of penis b) Bulbouretheral glands c) Scrotal nerves d) Deep dorsal vein of the penis 43) The nerve supply of posterior 2/3 of the scrotum including all of the following Except a) Posterior ccutaneous nerve of the thigh
  • 52. b) Scrotal branches of pudendal nerve c) Scrotal branches of the perineal nerves d) None of the above 44) As regard blood supply of the scrotum, which is False a) Superficial external pudendal artery b) Deep external pudendal artery c) Superior epigastric artery d) Scrotal branch of the internal pudendal artery 45) Which is true about roots of penis a) A free part of the penis b) Situated in superfacial perineal pouch c) It's the expanded part of the corpus cavernousus d) Crura are the proximal part of the corpus spongiosum 46) Which is False about corpora cavernosa a) Anterior continuation of the crura of the penis b) Traversed by dorsal artery of penis c) Supplied by Cavernoal artery d) They end Deep to glans penis 47) Glans penis is supplied by …… a) Cavernosal artery b) Dorsal artery of penis c) Superfacial external pudendal artery d) Artery of bulb 48) Which is true about Artery of bulb a) It lies on each side of deep dorsal vein b) Arises from Femoral artery c) Arises from Internal pudendal artery d) Supply Corpus cavernosum 49) Internal spermatic fascia is derived from ……… a) External oblique aponeurosis b) Internal oblique muscle c) Fascia transversalis d) Non of the above 50) Testicular artery arises from …….. a) Inferoir epigastric artery b) Abdominal aorta at level of L2 c) Inferior vesical artery d) Artery of vas 51) Lymphatic drainage of the testis is ……. a) Superfacial inginal L.N b) Para-aortic L.N c) Internal iliac L.N b) Deep inginal L.N 52) Left testis drains into ……… a) IVC b) Left renal vein c) SVc d) Right renal vein 53) As regards sinus of epididymis which is True a) Recess of tunica albuginea b) Lies between the testis & lateral side of body of the epididymis c) Lies between the testis & medial side of body of the epididymis
  • 53. d) Directed medially 54) Which is False about cremastric muscle a) Derived from fascia transversalis b) Derived from internal oblique muscle c) Supplied by cremastric artery d) Supplied by genital branch of genitofemoral nerve 55) Varicocele is most occurring on the Right side a) True b) False 56) Arterial supply of seminal vesicle is ……. a) Superior vesical artery b) Inferior vesicle artery c) Middle rectal artery d) B & C 57) All these structures passing inside the prostate Except a) Prostatic urethra b) Vas deferens c) Ejaculatory ducts d) Prostatic utricle 58) Inferior vesical & middle rectal arteries supply….. a) Scrotum b) Seminal vesical c) Prostate d) B & C 59) Lymph drainage of the prostate is …… a) Superfascial inguinal L.N b) Para-aortic L.N c) Sacral L.N d) Internal L.N e) C & D 60) Prostatic venous plexus drains into …….. a) Internal iliac vein b) Left renal vein c) IVC d) SVC 61) Stagnant urine pouch is formed due to …… a) Enlargement of lateral lobe b) Enlargement of Median lobe c) Enlargement of Anterior lobe d) Enlargement of Posterior lobe 62) Uvula of bladder is formed by ….. lobe of prostate a) Median b) Lateral c) Anterior d) Posterior
  • 54. 1- D 2- Cّ 3- B 4- B 5- D 6- Dّ 7- C 8- B 9- A 10- C 11- C 12- A 13- B 14- D 15- D 16- C 17- Dّ 18- A 19- C 20- D 21- C 22- E 23- D 24- A 25- B 26- C 27- D 28- B 29- D 30- A 31- E 32- B 33- D 34- A 35- D 36- A 37- C 38- B 39- B 40- B 41- A 42- B 43- B 44- C 45- B 46- B 47- B 48- C 49- C 50- B 51- B 52- B 53- B 54- A 55- B 56- D 57- B 58- D 59- E 60- A 61- B 62- Aّ 1) …… is alpha reductase inhibitors & used for bengin prostate hyperplasia (BPH) a) Flutamide b) Finasteride c) Leuprolid d) Cyproterone 2) …… used in Refractory anaemia a) Danazol b) Androgen c) Mifepristone d) Clomiphene 3) Which is INCORRECT about Nandrolonephenpropionate a) Used for hypoproteinaemia of nephrosis b) Given slowly for short stature c) Given vigorous for short stature d) Used for debilitated postoperative patients 4) As regards anabolic steroids which
  • 55. is INCORRECT a) Directly,increasing incorporation of amino avcids to proteins b) Directly, antagonize the protein catabolism action c) Directly,stimulates RNA polymerase activity in skeletal muscle d) Indirectly,antagoinize protein catabolism action of glucocorticoids 5) Intra-nasal oxytocin used for …… a) Reinforce labor b) Uterine inertia c) Impaired milk ejection d) Control postpartum uterine hemorrhage 6) Ergonovine stimulates uterine contraction through ….. a) α1 receptor agonist activity b) α2 receptor agonist activity c) 5-HT receptor agoinst activity d) A & C e) B &C 7) Which is INCORRECT about Ergonovine a) Vasoconstrictor b) Given IM to reduce postpartum bleeding c) Given before delivery of placenta d) Sensitivity of uterus to it increase with progression of pregnancy 8) All of the following is adverse effects of ergonovine Except a) Vomiting b) Hypotension c) Blurred vision d) Angina 9) All of the following are Tocolytic therapy Except a) Nifedipine b) Indomethacin c) Dinoprostone b) Salbutamol 10) All of the following is First-line therapy for erectile dysfunction Except a) Oral pharmacotherapy b) Sildenafil c) Papaverine d) Sublingual apomorphine 11) Sildenafil is sufficient of itself to cause erection a) True b) False 12) ….. is absolute contraindications with the use of PDE5 inhibitors a) Nitroglycerine b) Isosorbidemononitrate c) Isosorbidedinitrate d) All of the above 13) Pateint takes Sildenafil & he develops chest pain,nitroglycerine must withhold for……at least. a) 4 hrs
  • 56. b) 24 hrs c) 48 hrs d) 18 hrs 14) …… improves erectile function & acting centrally a) Sildenafil b) Tadalfil c) Apomorphine d) Alprostadil 15) Which is True about alprostadil a) Non-specific PDE inhibitor, injected drug b) PGE1 analog, injected drug c) Specific PDE inhibitor d) Sublingual drug 16) Priapism is adverse effects of …… a) Alprostadil b) Apomorphine c) Sildenifil d) Tadalafil 17) The half-time of tadalafil is ….. a) 4 hrs b) 18 hrs c) 48 hrs d) 2 hrs 18) The peak serum concentration of Virdenafil is ….. a) 2 hrs b) 1 hr c) 4 hrs d) 6 hrs 19) Which of the following is true regarding to Leuprolide a) given intravenous every 90 minutes b) used in prostatic carcinoma c) steady dosing inhibit gonadal hormone releasing d) All of the above 20) An old female with endometriosis can be treated with a) Leuprolide b) HMG c) Cetrorelix d) A or C 21) A 37 year-old female with Schizophrenia come to physician complain of enlarged breast. Which drug is more likely to cause that a) Cetrorelix b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) Dopamine antagonist 22) One of the synthetic preparation similar to FSH is a) UroFollitropin b) Follitropin c) HMG d) HCG 23) All the following is true regarding to HCG except a) Extracted from urine of post- menopausal females
  • 57. b) stimulate descent of testis c) IN vitro fertilization d) hypothalamic hypogonadism with infertility 24) Therapeutic uses of esterogen include the following except a) in oral contraception b) Alleviate menopausal symptoms c) Endometriosis d) Dysmenorrhea 25) One of the adverse effect of Mestranol is a) thromboembolism b) Ovarian enlargement c) Nausea d) Cyclic ovarian pain 26) A 38-year-old female with severe menstrual pain. If she does not want to become pregnant any more we can treat her with a) Tamoxifene b) Ethinyl estradiol c) Large dose medroxy progesterone d) None of the above 27) combined pills of oral contraceptive act as a) Inhibit ovulation b) Inhibit implantation c) Inhibit fertilization d) All of the above 28) A 29-year-old female want a convenient method for contraception but she usually has migraine. Which of the following is contraindicated drug? a) Oral mini pills b) Oral combined pills c) Medroxy progesterone ampouls c) None of the above 29) For post coital contraception one of the following methods is not correct a) Mifepristone once b) Norgesterol twice a day for one day c) Ethinyle estradiol twice a day for 2 days d) Ethinyl estradiol+norgesterol two tabs followed by 2 12 hrs later 30) A 70-year-old woman is being treated with raloxifene for osteoporosis. There is an increased risk of herdeveloping: a) Breast cancer. b) Uterine cancer. c) Vein thrombosis. d) Atrophic vaginitis. e) Hypercholesterolemia 31) A 23-year-old woman has failed to become pregnant after 2 years of unprotected intercourse. Which ofthe following would be effective in treating infertility due anovulatory cycles? a) A combination of an estrogen and
  • 58. progestin. b) Estrogen alone. c) Clomiphene. d) Raloxifene 1- B 2- B 3- C 4- B 5- C 6- D 7- C 8- B 9- C 10- C 11- B 12- D 13- B 14- C 15- B 16- A 17- B 18- B 19- D 20- D 21-ّD 22-ّB 23-ّA 24-ّC 25-ّA 26-ّC 27-ّD 28-ّB 29-ّC 30-ّCّ 31-ّC ‫الحمد‬‫هلل‬‫الذى‬‫بنعمته‬‫تتم‬ ‫الصالحات‬