This document contains an unsolved biology exam from 1994 containing 46 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of topics including ecology, physiology, evolution, and cell biology. The questions cover subjects such as the levels of DDT deposition in different organisms, the gas that contributes most to the greenhouse effect, the dominant second trophic level in a lake ecosystem, and the pacesetter of the heart.
21- What are arbuscles- a- sexual structures of basidiomycetes b- sexu.pdf7n7shop
21. What are arbuscles? a. sexual structures of basidiomycetes b. sexual structures of
ascomycetes c. symbiotic structures found in many lichens d. parasitic structures e. none of the
above 22. In which group would you expect budding cells? a. Ascomycota b. Basidiomycota c.
Zygomycota d. Glomeromucata e. all of the above 23. What is one of the main differences
between mosses and ferns? a. In mosses, the gametophyte dominates. b. In mosses, the
sporophyte dominates. c. In ferns, the two generations remain fused together. d. Ferns have a
protonema stage. e. Moss sperms from the male gametophyte have to swim to the female
gametophyte. 24. What do conifers have? a. pollen, but no seeds b. embryos but no microspores
c. seeds but no fruits d. cones but no ovules e. none of the above 25. Which of the following is
not correct for mosses? a. They have an alternation of generations. b. They are vascular plants. c.
The gametophyte is the dominant generation. d. The gametophyte develops from a protonema. e.
Female gametophytes produce archegonia. 26. Anthers are found in which of the following
groups? a. monocots b. mosses c. ferns d. Svcadaphyta e. all of the above 27. Which of the
following groups have vascular tissue? a. monocots b. horsetails c. ferns d. Gveadaphyta e. all of
the above 28. Which of the following would you expect to find in an octopus? a. The mouth
forms after the blastopore develops into the anus. b. radial cleavage c. There is no mesoderm d.
determinate cleavage e. an incomplete digestive system 29. In which group would you expect to
find a medusa stage? a. Polychaeta b. Cnidaria c. centipedes d. Gastropoda e. tapeworms 30.
Which characters are shared by echinoderms and corals? a. no excretory system b. radial
symmetry c. no respiratory system d. no head e. all of the above 31. Most animals are a. both
triploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. b. both triploblastic and with radial symmetry. c. both
diploblastic and with radial symmetry. d. both diploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. e. none
of the above 32. Protostomes have both a. radial and spiral cleavage. b. determinate and spiral
cleavage. c. determinate and radial cleavage. d. indeterminate and spiral cleavage. e. triploblastic
and radial cleavage. 33. Which of the following would you not find in insects? a. Malpighian
tubules b. two pairs of antennae c. compound eyes d. a tracheal system e. an open circulatory
system 34. Spiders differ from insects by having a. segmentation b. an open circulatory system c.
an abdomen d. an exoskeleton e. book lungs 35. What is the gas exchange system in insects
called? a. Malpighian tubules b. book lungs c. external gills d. tracheal system e. complete
metamorphosis 36. Insects have the same number of antennae as a. spiders b. millipedes c.
centipedes d. crustaceans e. both b and c 37. Which arthropod groups have more legs than
insects? a. spiders b. crustaceans c. centipedes d. millipedes e. all of the above 38. In order to
become fully .
21- What are arbuscles- a- sexual structures of basidiomycetes b- sexu.pdf7n7shop
21. What are arbuscles? a. sexual structures of basidiomycetes b. sexual structures of
ascomycetes c. symbiotic structures found in many lichens d. parasitic structures e. none of the
above 22. In which group would you expect budding cells? a. Ascomycota b. Basidiomycota c.
Zygomycota d. Glomeromucata e. all of the above 23. What is one of the main differences
between mosses and ferns? a. In mosses, the gametophyte dominates. b. In mosses, the
sporophyte dominates. c. In ferns, the two generations remain fused together. d. Ferns have a
protonema stage. e. Moss sperms from the male gametophyte have to swim to the female
gametophyte. 24. What do conifers have? a. pollen, but no seeds b. embryos but no microspores
c. seeds but no fruits d. cones but no ovules e. none of the above 25. Which of the following is
not correct for mosses? a. They have an alternation of generations. b. They are vascular plants. c.
The gametophyte is the dominant generation. d. The gametophyte develops from a protonema. e.
Female gametophytes produce archegonia. 26. Anthers are found in which of the following
groups? a. monocots b. mosses c. ferns d. Svcadaphyta e. all of the above 27. Which of the
following groups have vascular tissue? a. monocots b. horsetails c. ferns d. Gveadaphyta e. all of
the above 28. Which of the following would you expect to find in an octopus? a. The mouth
forms after the blastopore develops into the anus. b. radial cleavage c. There is no mesoderm d.
determinate cleavage e. an incomplete digestive system 29. In which group would you expect to
find a medusa stage? a. Polychaeta b. Cnidaria c. centipedes d. Gastropoda e. tapeworms 30.
Which characters are shared by echinoderms and corals? a. no excretory system b. radial
symmetry c. no respiratory system d. no head e. all of the above 31. Most animals are a. both
triploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. b. both triploblastic and with radial symmetry. c. both
diploblastic and with radial symmetry. d. both diploblastic and with bilateral symmetry. e. none
of the above 32. Protostomes have both a. radial and spiral cleavage. b. determinate and spiral
cleavage. c. determinate and radial cleavage. d. indeterminate and spiral cleavage. e. triploblastic
and radial cleavage. 33. Which of the following would you not find in insects? a. Malpighian
tubules b. two pairs of antennae c. compound eyes d. a tracheal system e. an open circulatory
system 34. Spiders differ from insects by having a. segmentation b. an open circulatory system c.
an abdomen d. an exoskeleton e. book lungs 35. What is the gas exchange system in insects
called? a. Malpighian tubules b. book lungs c. external gills d. tracheal system e. complete
metamorphosis 36. Insects have the same number of antennae as a. spiders b. millipedes c.
centipedes d. crustaceans e. both b and c 37. Which arthropod groups have more legs than
insects? a. spiders b. crustaceans c. centipedes d. millipedes e. all of the above 38. In order to
become fully .
The Roman Empire A Historical Colossus.pdfkaushalkr1407
The Roman Empire, a vast and enduring power, stands as one of history's most remarkable civilizations, leaving an indelible imprint on the world. It emerged from the Roman Republic, transitioning into an imperial powerhouse under the leadership of Augustus Caesar in 27 BCE. This transformation marked the beginning of an era defined by unprecedented territorial expansion, architectural marvels, and profound cultural influence.
The empire's roots lie in the city of Rome, founded, according to legend, by Romulus in 753 BCE. Over centuries, Rome evolved from a small settlement to a formidable republic, characterized by a complex political system with elected officials and checks on power. However, internal strife, class conflicts, and military ambitions paved the way for the end of the Republic. Julius Caesar’s dictatorship and subsequent assassination in 44 BCE created a power vacuum, leading to a civil war. Octavian, later Augustus, emerged victorious, heralding the Roman Empire’s birth.
Under Augustus, the empire experienced the Pax Romana, a 200-year period of relative peace and stability. Augustus reformed the military, established efficient administrative systems, and initiated grand construction projects. The empire's borders expanded, encompassing territories from Britain to Egypt and from Spain to the Euphrates. Roman legions, renowned for their discipline and engineering prowess, secured and maintained these vast territories, building roads, fortifications, and cities that facilitated control and integration.
The Roman Empire’s society was hierarchical, with a rigid class system. At the top were the patricians, wealthy elites who held significant political power. Below them were the plebeians, free citizens with limited political influence, and the vast numbers of slaves who formed the backbone of the economy. The family unit was central, governed by the paterfamilias, the male head who held absolute authority.
Culturally, the Romans were eclectic, absorbing and adapting elements from the civilizations they encountered, particularly the Greeks. Roman art, literature, and philosophy reflected this synthesis, creating a rich cultural tapestry. Latin, the Roman language, became the lingua franca of the Western world, influencing numerous modern languages.
Roman architecture and engineering achievements were monumental. They perfected the arch, vault, and dome, constructing enduring structures like the Colosseum, Pantheon, and aqueducts. These engineering marvels not only showcased Roman ingenuity but also served practical purposes, from public entertainment to water supply.
Welcome to TechSoup New Member Orientation and Q&A (May 2024).pdfTechSoup
In this webinar you will learn how your organization can access TechSoup's wide variety of product discount and donation programs. From hardware to software, we'll give you a tour of the tools available to help your nonprofit with productivity, collaboration, financial management, donor tracking, security, and more.
A Strategic Approach: GenAI in EducationPeter Windle
Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies such as Generative AI, Image Generators and Large Language Models have had a dramatic impact on teaching, learning and assessment over the past 18 months. The most immediate threat AI posed was to Academic Integrity with Higher Education Institutes (HEIs) focusing their efforts on combating the use of GenAI in assessment. Guidelines were developed for staff and students, policies put in place too. Innovative educators have forged paths in the use of Generative AI for teaching, learning and assessments leading to pockets of transformation springing up across HEIs, often with little or no top-down guidance, support or direction.
This Gasta posits a strategic approach to integrating AI into HEIs to prepare staff, students and the curriculum for an evolving world and workplace. We will highlight the advantages of working with these technologies beyond the realm of teaching, learning and assessment by considering prompt engineering skills, industry impact, curriculum changes, and the need for staff upskilling. In contrast, not engaging strategically with Generative AI poses risks, including falling behind peers, missed opportunities and failing to ensure our graduates remain employable. The rapid evolution of AI technologies necessitates a proactive and strategic approach if we are to remain relevant.
The French Revolution, which began in 1789, was a period of radical social and political upheaval in France. It marked the decline of absolute monarchies, the rise of secular and democratic republics, and the eventual rise of Napoleon Bonaparte. This revolutionary period is crucial in understanding the transition from feudalism to modernity in Europe.
For more information, visit-www.vavaclasses.com
2024.06.01 Introducing a competency framework for languag learning materials ...Sandy Millin
http://sandymillin.wordpress.com/iateflwebinar2024
Published classroom materials form the basis of syllabuses, drive teacher professional development, and have a potentially huge influence on learners, teachers and education systems. All teachers also create their own materials, whether a few sentences on a blackboard, a highly-structured fully-realised online course, or anything in between. Despite this, the knowledge and skills needed to create effective language learning materials are rarely part of teacher training, and are mostly learnt by trial and error.
Knowledge and skills frameworks, generally called competency frameworks, for ELT teachers, trainers and managers have existed for a few years now. However, until I created one for my MA dissertation, there wasn’t one drawing together what we need to know and do to be able to effectively produce language learning materials.
This webinar will introduce you to my framework, highlighting the key competencies I identified from my research. It will also show how anybody involved in language teaching (any language, not just English!), teacher training, managing schools or developing language learning materials can benefit from using the framework.
Biological screening of herbal drugs: Introduction and Need for
Phyto-Pharmacological Screening, New Strategies for evaluating
Natural Products, In vitro evaluation techniques for Antioxidants, Antimicrobial and Anticancer drugs. In vivo evaluation techniques
for Anti-inflammatory, Antiulcer, Anticancer, Wound healing, Antidiabetic, Hepatoprotective, Cardio protective, Diuretics and
Antifertility, Toxicity studies as per OECD guidelines
Unit 8 - Information and Communication Technology (Paper I).pdfThiyagu K
This slides describes the basic concepts of ICT, basics of Email, Emerging Technology and Digital Initiatives in Education. This presentations aligns with the UGC Paper I syllabus.
Palestine last event orientationfvgnh .pptxRaedMohamed3
An EFL lesson about the current events in Palestine. It is intended to be for intermediate students who wish to increase their listening skills through a short lesson in power point.
Francesca Gottschalk - How can education support child empowerment.pptxEduSkills OECD
Francesca Gottschalk from the OECD’s Centre for Educational Research and Innovation presents at the Ask an Expert Webinar: How can education support child empowerment?
2. SECTION – I (Total Marks : 100)
Single Correct Answer Type
There are five parts in this question. Four choices are given for each part and one of them is
correct. Indicate you choice of the correct answer for each part in your answer-book by
writing the letter (a), (b), (c) or (d) whichever is appropriate
3. 01 Problem
Which among the following is likely to have the highest levels of D.D.T.
depositions in its body?
a. Sea gull
b. Phytoplankton
c. Eel
d. Crab
4. 02 Problem
Which one of the following gasses contributes maximum to the ‘green
house effect’ on the earth?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Chlorofluoro carbon
c. Freon
d. Methane
5. 03 Problem
The dominant second trophic level, in a lake ecosystem, is
a. Phytoplankton
b. Zooplankton
c. Benthos
d. Plankton
6. 04 Problem
Sounds above what level are considered hazardous noise pollution?
a. Above 80 dB
b. Above 30 dB
c. Above 150 dB
d. Above 120 dB
7. 05 Problem
Which of the following species does not have the ability to fix atmospheric
nitrogen?
a. Azjitibactor
b. Anavaena
c. Nostoc
d. Spirogyra
8. 06 Problem
The most important human activity, leading to the extinction of wildlife, is
a. pollution of air and water
b. hunting for valuable wildlife products
c. introduction of alien species
d. alteration and destruction of the natural habitats
9. 07 Problem
if excess water passes out from the tissue without being restored by the
kidneys, the cells would
a. burst open and die
b. take water from the plasma
c. not be affected at all
d. Shriver and die
10. 08 Problem
Which one of the four parts mentioned below does not constitute of part of
single uriniferous tubule?
a. Distal convoluted tubule
b. Collecting duct
c. Bowman’s capsule
d. Loop of Henley
11. 09 Problem
The pace setter in the heart is called
a. Sino-atrial node (SAN)
b. Atrio-ventricular node (AVN)
c. Purkinje fibers
d. Papillary muscle
12. 10 Problem
Which of the following does not have an open circulatory system?
a. Frog’s tadpole
b. Prawn
c. Chelifer
d. Cockroach
13. 11 Problem
In man and mammals, air passes from outside into the lungs through
a. Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
b. Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli
c. Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli
d. Nasal cavity pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
14. 12 Problem
Which of the following is correct pairing of site of action and substrate of
rennin?
a. Mouth-starch
b. Small intestine-protein
c. Stomach-casein
d. Stomach-fat
15. 13 Problem
What is true about cleavage in the fertilized egg in humans?
a. It starts while the egg is in fallopian tube
b. It starts when the egg reaches uterus
c. It is meroblastic
d. It is identical to the normal mitosis
16. 14 Problem
The heart sound ‘dup’ is produced when
a. Mitral valve is closed
b. Semi-lunar valves at the base of aorta get closed
c. Tricuspid valve is opened
d. Mitral valve is opened
17. 15 Problem
Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body
in the form of uric acid are
a. Birds and lizards
b. Frogs and cartilaginous fishes
c. Insects and bony fishes
d. Mammals and mollusk
18. 16 Problem
The respiratory center, which regulates respiration, is located in
a. Cerebellum
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Cerebral peduncle
d. The vague nerve
19. 17 Problem
Prolonged deficiency of nicotinic and causes
a. Pellagra
b. Xerophthalmia
c. Osteomalacia
d. Anaemia
20. 18 Problem
The extra embryonic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived
from
a. Trophoblast
b. Inner cell mass
c. Formative cells
d. Follicle cells
21. 19 Problem
In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the ovulation takes place typically on
a. Day 14 of the cycle
b. Day 28 of the cycle
c. Day 1 of the cycle
d. Day 5 of the cycle
22. 20 Problem
The immediate cause of induction of ovulation in human female is the large
plasma surge of
a. LH
b. FSH
c. Progesterone
d. Estrodiol
23. 21 Problem
The type of joint between the human skull bones is called
a. Cartilaginous joint
b. Hinge joint
c. Fibrous joint
d. Synovial joint
24. 22 Problem
Which of the following components is a part of the pectoral girdle?
a. Sternum
b. Acetabulum
c. Glenoid cavity
d. Ilium
25. 23 Problem
Which of the following is the function of enterogastrone?
a. It inhibits the secretion of gastric juice
b. It stimulates the secretion of digestive juices in the stomach
c. It stimulates the flow of pancreatic juice
d. It regulates the flow of bile
26. 24 Problem
An epithelial tissue which has thin flat cells, arranged edge to so as to
appear like closely packed tiles, is found to be present at
a. Outer surface of ovary
b. Inner lining of fallopian tube
c. Inner lining of stomach
d. Inner lining of cheeks
27. 25 Problem
A plant bears fruit, has a column of vascular tissue and a tap root system. This
plant is a
a. Angiosperm and dicot
b. Gymnosperm and dicot
c. Angiosperm and monocot
d. Gymnosperm and monocot
28. 26 Problem
Haploid plants can be obtained by culturing
a. Pollen grains
b. Root tips
c. Young leaves
d. Endosperm
29. 27 Problem
Besides giving out secretory vesicles, the golgi apparatus is also concerned
with the formation of
a. Lysosomes
b. Plastids
c. Grana of chloroplasts
d. Cell plates after cell division in plants.
30. 28 Problem
Which one of the following changes involved is irrelevant, in the evolution of
man?
a. Perfection of hand for tool making
b. Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food
c. Loss of tail
d. Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community
behavior
31. 29 Problem
Which of the following evidences does not favour the Lamarckian concept of
inheritance of acquired characters?
a. Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals
b. Melanization in peppered moth
c. Absence of limbs in snakes
d. Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds.
32. 30 Problem
Coolum derived from blastocoels is known as
a. Pseudocoelom
b. Schizocoel
c. Haemocoel
d. Enterocoelom
33. 31 Problem
A common characteristic of al vertebrates without exception is
a. The division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail
b. Their body covered with an exoskeleton
c. The possession of two pairs of functional appendages
d. The presence of well-developed skull
34. 32 Problem
Tube feet are the characteristic structures of
a. Starfish
b. Jellyfish
c. Crayfish
d. Cuttlefish
35. 33 Problem
Among the following organisms point out a completely non-parasitic form
a. Tape worm
b. Mosquito
c. Sea anemone
d. Leech
36. 34 Problem
Which of the following is an example of platy helminthes?
a. Plasmodium
b. Schistosoma
c. Trypanosoma
d. Wuchereria
37. 35 Problem
Radial symmetry is, usually, exhibited in animals which
a. Are attached to the substratum
b. Have one opening of alimentary canal
c. Live in water
d. Have ciliary mode of feeding
38. 36 Problem
One of the special characters of coelenterate only is the occurrence of
a. Polymorphism
b. Flame cells
c. Hermaphrodites
d. Nematocysts.
39. 37 Problem
There are special proteins that help to open up DNA double helix in front of
the replication fork. These proteins are
a. DNA ligase
b. DNA toposiomerase I
c. DNA gyrase
d. DNA polymerase I
40. 38 Problem
There are special proteins that help to open up DNA double helix in front of the
replication fork. These proteins are
a. DNA ligase
b. DNA toposiomerase I
c. DNA gyrase
d. DNA polymerase I
41. 39 Problem
Initiation codon in eukaryotes is
a. GAU
b. AGU
c. AUG
d. UAG.
42. 40 Problem
The earliest fossil form, in the phylogeny of horse, is
a. Equus
b. Mesohippus
c. Eohippus
d. Merychippus
43. 41 Problem
Which of the following is pair of homologous organs?
a. Plectoral fin of rohu and fore-limb of horse
b. Wings of grasshopper and wings of crow
c. Lungs of rabbit and gills of rohu
d. Wings of bat and wings of butterfly
44. 42 Problem
Plants, but not animals, can convert fatty acids to sugars by a series
of reactions called
a. Photosynthesis
b. Kreb’s cycle
c. Glycolysis
d. Glyoxylate cycle.
45. 43 Problem
The inner membrane of the mitochondria is, usually, highly convoluted
forming a series of in foldings known as
a. Tylakoids
b. Lamellae
c. Cristae
d. Grana
46. 44 Problem
In a somatic cell cycle, DNA synthesis takes place in
a. G1 phase
b. Prophase of mitosis
c. S-phase
d. G2 phase.
47. 45 Problem
Which one of the following organelles is located near the nucleus and
contains a collection of flattened membrane bound cisternae?
a. Nucleolus
b. Mitochondrion
c. Centriole
d. Golgi apparatus.
48. 46 Problem
Centro mere is required for
a. Replication of DNA
b. Chromosome segregation
c. Pole ward movement of chromosomes
d. Cytoplasm cleavage.
49. 47 Problem
Which of the following represents the best stage to view the shape, size and
number of chromosomes?
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Interphase
d. Telophase.
50. 48 Problem
The first phase in the breakdown of glucose, in animal cell, is
a. Fermenation
b. Kerbl’s cycle
c. Glycolysis
d. E.T.S
51. 49 Problem
In protein synthesis, the polymerization of amino acids involves three steps.
Which one of the following is not involved in the polymerization of protein?
a. Termination
b. Initiation
c. Elongation
d. Transcription.
52. 50 Problem
In mitochondria, cristae act as sites for
a. Protein synthesis
b. Phosphorylation of flavoproteins
c. Breakdown of macromolecules
d. Oxidation – reduction reaction
53. 51 Problem
A red blood cell was kept in a solution for a few minutes, where is got burst.
The solution taken was
a. Hypotonic
b. Conce. Sugar solution
c. Isotonic
d. Hypertonic
54. 52 Problem
Which of the following organelles contain enzymes that have digestive
action?
a. Ribosomes
b. Polysomes
c. Plastids
d. Lysosomes.
55. 53 Problem
The four elements that make up 99% of all elements found in a living
system are
a. C, H, O and P
b. C, N, O and P
c. H, O, C and N
d. C, H, O and S
56. 54 Problem
When yeast ferments glucose, the products obtained are
a. Ethanol and CO2
b. Methanol and CO2
c. Ethanol and water
d. Water and CO2
57. 55 Problem
Which of the following organelles is related with genetic engineering?
a. Mitochondria
b. Plasmids
c. Golgi bodies
d. Lysosomes
58. 56 Problem
Organisms, which fix atmospheric nitrogen in soil, fall under the category of
a. Bacteria
b. Green algae
c. Soil fungi
d. mosses
59. 57 Problem
The colour blindness is more likely to occur in males than in females
because
a. The Y-chromosome of males have the genes for distinguishing colors
b. Genes for characters are located on the sex-chromosomes
c. The trait is dominant in males and recessive in females
d. None of these.
60. 58 Problem
A cell-coded protein that is formed in response to infection, with most
animal viruses, is called
a. Histone
b. Antibody
c. Mterferon
d. Antigen
61. 59 Problem
Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a test
tube baby?
a. Fertilization of the egg is effected outside the body; the fertilized egg
then placed in the womb of the mother where the gestation is
completed
b. Fertilization of the egg is effected in the female genital tract. It is
then taken out and grown in a large test tube
c. A prematurely born baby is reared in an incubator
d. Fertilization of the egg and growth of the embryo are affected in a
large test tube.
62. 60 Problem
Albinism is a congenital disorder resulting from the lack of the enzyme
a. Tyrosinase
b. Xanthine oxidase
c. Catalase
d. Fructokinase
63. 61 Problem
A disease caused by eating fish contaminated by industrial waste,
containing mercury compounds, is called
a. Osteosclerosis
b. Hashimoto”s oxidase
c. Bright”s disease
d. Minimata disease.
64. 62 Problem
Which one of the following is correctly matches a sexually transmitted
disease with its pathogen?
a. Syphilis-Treponema pallidium
b. Gobirrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
c. Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
d. Softsore-Bacillus brevis.
65. 63 Problem
Silk is produced by
a. Adult moth
b. Cocoon
c. Larva
d. Both (a) and (c).
66. 64 Problem
Which among the following is the real product of the honey bee?
a. Honey
b. Propolis
c. Pollen
d. Bee wax
67. 65 Problem
The main reason why antibodies could not solve all the problems of bacteria
mediated disease is
a. Decreased efficiency of the immune system
b. Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
c. Development of mutant strains resistant to antibodies
d. Inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
68. 66 Problem
Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) genes are
a. Single stranded RNA
b. Double stranded DNA
c. Proteinaceous
d. Double stranded RNA.
69. 67 Problem
Biological control of agricultural pests, unlike chemical control, is
a. Self perpetuating
b. Polluting
c. Very expensive
d. Toxic.
70. 68 Problem
Calcium deficiency in the body occurs in the absence of
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin B
d. Vitamin E
71. 69 Problem
In cheese manufacture, the microorganisms are important for
a. The ripening only
b. The souring of milk only
c. The development of resistance to spoilage only
d. Both the souring and the ripening processes.
72. 70 Problem
Lac operon’ in E. coli, is induced by
a. ‘I’ gene
b. promoter gene
c. -galactosidase
d. Lactose.
73. 71 Problem
Transduction in bacteria is mediated by
a. Plasmid vectors
b. Phage vectors
c. Cosmos
d. F-factors.
74. 72 Problem
Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. Legumes fix nitrogen only through the specialized bacteria that live
in their roots
b. Legumes fix nitrogen independently of the specialized bacteria
that live in their roots
c. Legumes fix nitrogen only through specialized bacteria that live in
their leaves
d. Legumes are incapable of fixing nitrogen.
75. 73 Problem
Which of the following necleotide sequences contains 4 pyrimidine bases?
a. GATCAATGC
b. GCUAGACAA
c. UAGCGGUAA
d. Both (b) and (c).
76. 74 Problem
A child’s blood group is ‘O’. The parent’s blood groups cannot be
a. A and B
b. A and A
c. AB and O
d. B and O.
77. 75 Problem
Which statement best explains the evolutionary advantage of meiosis?
a. Meiosis is necessary for sexual reproduction
b. Genetic recombination are possible from generation to generation
c. Meiosis alternates with mitosis for generation to generation
d. The same genetic system is passed on from generation to generation.
78. 76 Problem
A metastatic cancerous tumor is termed’ sarcoma’ if the disorder is in
a. Fibroblasts
b. Circulatory system
c. Immune system
d. Epithelial cells.
79. 77 Problem
Normally DNA molecule has A-T, G-C pairing. However, these owing to
rearrangements called
a. Frame-shift mutation
b. Tautomerisational mutation
c. Analog substitution
d. Point mutation.
80. 78 Problem
The genes, which remain confined to differential region of Y-chromosome,
are
a. Autosomal genes
b. Holandric genes
c. Completely sex-linked genes
d. Mutant genes.
81. 79 Problem
The process of mating of individuals, which are more closely related than the
average of the population to which they belong, is called
a. Heterosis
b. Self breeding
c. Inbreeding
d. Hybridization.
82. 80 Problem
The nuclease enzyme, which begins its attack from free and of a
polynucleotide, is
a. Polymerase
b. Endonuclease
c. Exonuclease
d. Kinase.
83. 81 Problem
The ultimate respiratory substrate, yielding maximum number of ATP
molecules, is
a. Glycogen
b. Ketogenic amino acid
c. Glucose
d. Amylose.
84. 82 Problem
Posions like cyanide inhibit Na+ efflux and K+ influx during cellular transport.
This inhibitory effect is reversed by an injection of ATP. This demonstrates
that
a. ATP is the carrier protein in the transport system
b. Energy for Na+-K+ exchange pump comes from ATP
c. ATP is hydrolyzed by ATPase to release energy
d. Na+-K+ exchange pump operates in the cell.
85. 83 Problem
During light reaction of photosynthesis, which of the following
phenomenon is observed during cyclic phosphorylation as well as non-
cyclic phosphorylation?
a. Release of O2
b. Formation of ATP
c. Formation NADPH
d. Involvement of PSI and PSII pigment systems.
86. 84 Problem
As a tree grows older, which of the following increases more rapidly in
thickness?
a. Heart wood
b. Sap wood
c. Phloem
d. Cortex.
87. 85 Problem
Caesarian strip occurs in a
a. Endodermis
b. Exodermises
c. Epicycle
d. Epidermis.
88. 86 Problem
The 1992 Nobel Prize for medicine was awarded to Edmond H. Fischer
and Edwin Jokers for their work concerning
a. Reversible protein phosphorylation as a biological regulation
mechanism
b. Isolation of the gene for a human disease
c. Human genome project
d. Drug designing involving inhibition of DNA synthesis of the pathogen.
89. 87 Problem
Precambrian is situated just behind apical meristem. Procambium gives
rise to
a. Primary vascular bundle
b. Vascular cambium
c. Cork cambium
d. Both (a) and (b).
90. 88 Problem
Which of the following pigments acts as a reaction centre durin photosynthesis?
a. Carotene
b. Phytochrome
c. P700
d. Cytochrome.
91. 89 Problem
Embryo sac represents
a. Megaspore
b. Mega gametophyte
c. Megasporophyll
d. Megagamete.
92. 90 Problem
When pollen of a flower transferred to the stigma of another flower of the
same plant, the pollination is referred to as
a. Autogamy
b. Geitonogamy
c. Xenogamy
d. Allogamy.
93. 91 Problem
If the growing plant is decapitated, then
a. Its growth stops
b. Leaves become yellow and fall down
c. Axillary buds are inactivated
d. Axillary buds are activated.
94. 92 Problem
The movement of auxin is largely
a. Centripetal
b. Basipetal
c. Acropetal
d. Both ‘a’ and ‘c’
95. 93 Problem
Rickettsiae form a group under
a. Viruses
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. A category between viruses and bacteria.
96. 94 Problem
Hypanthodium is a specialized type of
a. Fruit
b. Inflorescence
c. Thalamus
d. Ovary.
97. 95 Problem
In bryophytes
a. Both generations are independent
b. Gametophytes are dependent upon saprophytes
c. Saprophytes complete their life cycle
d. Saprophytes are dependent upon gametophytes.
98. 96 Problem
In Pinus, the wing of the seed develops from
a. Ovuliferous scale
b. Integument
c. Nucellus
d. Bract.
99. 97 Problem
In chlorophyceae, the mode of sexual reproduction is
a. Isogamy
b. Anisogamy
c. Oogamy
d. All of these.
100. 98 Problem
The protests have
a. Only free nucleic and aggregates
b. Membrane bound nucleo proteins lying embedded in the cytoplasm
c. Gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in loose mass
d. Nucleoprotein in direct contact with the rest of the cell substance.
101. 99 Problem
Mycorrhiza exhibits the phenomenon of
a. Parasitism
b. Symbiosis
c. Antagonism
d. Endemism.
102. 100 Problem
Many blue-green algae occur in thermal springs (hot water springs). The
temperature tolerance of these algae have been attributed to their
a. Mitochondrial structure
b. Importance of homopolar bonds in their proteins
c. Cell wall structure
d. Modem cell organization.