This document contains a 37 question multiple choice quiz about information technology topics. The questions cover subjects like computer generations, architecture, operating systems, memory, storage, networking, quality of information, HTML, groupware, and vertical applications. The quiz is intended to test knowledge of fundamental IT concepts and terminology.
Collections of CS Multiple Choice QuestionsShusil Baral
Here are the collections of sets of Multiple Choice Questions -MCQ of the different subjects related to Computer Science or Information Technology along with the answer of each question below the questions set. It may help for the preparation of your exams, tests or interviews.
Here are the collections of sets of Multiple Choice Questions -MCQ of the different subjects related to Computer Science or Information Technology along with the answer of each question below the questions set. It may help for the preparation of your exams, tests or interviews. If you have any suggestions or comments or have any errors on questions and answers, can post on the comment session.
This document contains 95 multiple choice questions about computer system architecture and input/output devices. The questions cover topics such as direct memory access (DMA), storage devices like hard disks, optical disks, and flash memory, peripheral devices, input devices like keyboards and mice, output devices like monitors and printers, and interfaces between the CPU and I/O devices using techniques like interrupts, polling, and DMA.
Operating System Multiple Choice QuestionsShusil Baral
Here you can find 1000's of Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs) of Operating System(OS) includes the MCQs of fundamental of Operating System and core Operating System.
Here are the collections of sets of Multiple Choice Questions -MCQ of the different subjects related to Computer Science or Information Technology along with the answer of each question below the questions set. It may help for the preparation of your exams, tests or interviews.
MCQ Bank for Computer Fundamantals from mcqSets.comSuresh Khanal
This is MCQ Bank for Computer Fundamentals from http://mcqSets.com. It contains 588 hand picked mcq questions that can be best helpful to prepare your computer exams.
This document contains a 10 question computer fundamentals test covering topics like hardware components, generations of computers, computer terminology, and computer history. It provides multiple choice answers for each question along with explanations of the correct answers. The test addresses topics ranging from early computer models like UNIVAC and IBM 1401 to components like CPUs, memory, and storage devices to computer language, network, and industry terms.
CXC CSEC Information Technology Multiple Choice QuestionsElliot Seepaul
The document contains 60 multiple choice questions related to computer concepts such as hardware, software, operating systems, networking, programming, databases and information systems. The questions cover topics like input/output devices, disk formatting, network types, programming logic, data types, database keys and relationships between tables.
Collections of CS Multiple Choice QuestionsShusil Baral
Here are the collections of sets of Multiple Choice Questions -MCQ of the different subjects related to Computer Science or Information Technology along with the answer of each question below the questions set. It may help for the preparation of your exams, tests or interviews.
Here are the collections of sets of Multiple Choice Questions -MCQ of the different subjects related to Computer Science or Information Technology along with the answer of each question below the questions set. It may help for the preparation of your exams, tests or interviews. If you have any suggestions or comments or have any errors on questions and answers, can post on the comment session.
This document contains 95 multiple choice questions about computer system architecture and input/output devices. The questions cover topics such as direct memory access (DMA), storage devices like hard disks, optical disks, and flash memory, peripheral devices, input devices like keyboards and mice, output devices like monitors and printers, and interfaces between the CPU and I/O devices using techniques like interrupts, polling, and DMA.
Operating System Multiple Choice QuestionsShusil Baral
Here you can find 1000's of Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs) of Operating System(OS) includes the MCQs of fundamental of Operating System and core Operating System.
Here are the collections of sets of Multiple Choice Questions -MCQ of the different subjects related to Computer Science or Information Technology along with the answer of each question below the questions set. It may help for the preparation of your exams, tests or interviews.
MCQ Bank for Computer Fundamantals from mcqSets.comSuresh Khanal
This is MCQ Bank for Computer Fundamentals from http://mcqSets.com. It contains 588 hand picked mcq questions that can be best helpful to prepare your computer exams.
This document contains a 10 question computer fundamentals test covering topics like hardware components, generations of computers, computer terminology, and computer history. It provides multiple choice answers for each question along with explanations of the correct answers. The test addresses topics ranging from early computer models like UNIVAC and IBM 1401 to components like CPUs, memory, and storage devices to computer language, network, and industry terms.
CXC CSEC Information Technology Multiple Choice QuestionsElliot Seepaul
The document contains 60 multiple choice questions related to computer concepts such as hardware, software, operating systems, networking, programming, databases and information systems. The questions cover topics like input/output devices, disk formatting, network types, programming logic, data types, database keys and relationships between tables.
This document provides 200+ multiple choice questions (MCQs) about operating systems. It begins with a list of 10 MCQs covering topics like assemblers, semantic analysis, load addresses, and symbolic names. It then continues with an additional 190+ MCQs covering operating system concepts such as processes, scheduling, virtual memory, paging, deadlocks, and I/O management. The MCQs are provided to help students and professionals prepare for engineering interviews and exams.
Here I present Computer Hardware Concepts MCQ Paper for you to download. Enjoy!
This MCQ paper contains 80 multiple choice questions with four options each, all from Computer Hardware Concepts chapter.
This document contains a set of 22 multiple choice questions about computer generations and technologies. It provides the questions along with brief explanatory paragraphs about computer history and generations. The questions cover topics like the defining technologies of each generation of computers, popular computers from different eras, programming languages developed in each generation, and more. The document concludes by sharing contact information to send additional MCQ questions or discuss computer topics further.
Solved question paper of Assistant computer operator of PSC conducted on 2018Suresh Khanal
Solved question paper of Assistant Computer Operator of PSC exam 2018
Visit: https://www.fundamentalsmcq.com/2018/11/assistant-computer-operator-2018-psc.html
This is the solved question paper of assistant computer exam of public service commission conducted on 2018.
The document contains a multiple choice test with 60 questions about various topics related to computers and their history. The questions cover topics such as computer hardware components, software, programming languages, early computers, units of measurement, companies/founders, and applications. The key provided indicates the correct answer for each question.
The document contains multiple choice questions about computing concepts such as teleconferencing, RISC processors, HTML tags, database indexing, ergonomic concerns, batch processing, drivers, HyperCard, integrated vs. stand-alone software, line breaks, hard drives, telecommunications, binary representations, intranets, disk partitioning, network topologies, browser refresh functions, BDPA leadership, HTML tags, Access data types, database normalization, domain names, Java arrays, vacuum tubes, hexadecimal and octal numbering systems, kilobytes, IBM System 360, the mission of BDPA, the first high school computer competition winner, definitions of a database, the founders of BDPA, microprocessors, twips
This document contains a collection of multiple choice questions about computer fundamentals. There are 54 questions covering topics such as computer generations, components, memory, storage, operating systems, and applications. The questions are intended as a study guide or test for someone learning about basic computer concepts.
The document contains questions and solutions about various topics related to computers and information technology. It discusses transistor and integrated circuit components of computers. It also addresses memory types like primary, magnetic, and optical storage and differentiates between sequential and random access. Number conversion between decimal, binary, hexadecimal and ASCII/Unicode representations are explained. Computer components like ports, static/dynamic RAM, seek time vs latency, monitor resolution, printers, and utility software are defined. Software architectures, cloud computing, structured programming, operating systems, files, arrays, subroutines, email, databases, spreadsheets and word processing are analyzed. Networking concepts such as LAN, MAN, WAN, TCP, IP, URLs, DNS, subnet masks,
The document provides information about the exam format for the First Science: Computer Science CS1.2 course. It states that the exam is 2 hours long and contains 4 questions, with questions 1 and 2 being compulsory and the others being a choice between 3 and 4. Question 1 contains 60 multiple choice questions, with negative marking applying for incorrect answers. Question 2 involves assembly language programming. Questions 3 and 4 concern computer architecture topics. Sample multiple choice questions are provided covering various computer science topics. Instructions are also provided on how to fill out the multiple choice answer sheet.
This document contains a quiz of 75 multiple choice questions related to computer awareness. The questions cover topics such as computer hardware, operating systems, software applications, networking, internet, security, and computer programming languages. The questions are multiple choice with one correct answer out of 5 options for each question. The questions progress from basic to more advanced computer concepts.
Solved Question Paper of Computer Operator Examination Conducted by EPF 2016Suresh Khanal
The document contains a solved question paper for a Computer Operator Examination conducted by EPF (Employee Provident Fund) with 50 multiple choice questions related to computer fundamentals. Some key topics covered include components of a computer system, operating systems, applications like MS Word, Excel and PowerPoint. The questions test the candidate's knowledge of basic computer terminology, specifications, commands and features of standard software. An explanation is provided for each answer with relevant details to justify the correct option.
This document contains a set of 17 multiple choice questions about computer fundamentals. The questions cover topics like the components of the CPU, types of record access methods, disadvantages of laser printers, buses on motherboards, machine language, primary storage devices, refresh requirements of different memory types, and OCR. The questions are part of an objective test on computer fundamentals topics like hardware, software, memory, storage, and input/output devices.
This document contains 40 multiple choice questions related to computer hardware and software concepts. It covers topics such as memory types, storage devices, operating systems, networking, processors, and I/O devices. The answers provided indicate that DRAM stands for Dynamic Random Access Memory, cache RAM is fast memory for frequently accessed data, SRAM is typically used for cache RAM, SDRAM is usually faster than DRAM, BIOS is stored in flash memory, operating systems are software not hardware, programs are stored on hard disks when power is off, non-volatile memory stores data without power, PCI is a system bus type, modems convert digital to analog signals, RDRAM was faster than SDRAM, 1 GHz is one billion cycles per
Ibps sbi po computer awareness mega question bank of 1500 questionsSumit Ranjan
The document provides a list of 150 computer awareness questions that are commonly asked for banking exams like IBPS and SBI PO exams. It covers topics like hardware, software, operating systems, networks, file management, internet and email basics, spreadsheet functions, and database concepts. Students are encouraged to review the list of questions and points at least once to help improve their test scores.
The document contains 30 multiple choice questions about computers and computer technology. It covers topics like computer generations, components, memory, storage, operating systems, networking, and other foundational computer concepts. The questions have a single correct answer in multiple choice format with explanations provided for each answer. The purpose is to test computer fundamentals knowledge.
This document contains a 65-item quiz on computer general knowledge topics for bank examinations. The quiz covers subjects like computer hardware, software, operating systems, networks, and data storage. Some key points covered are the four main functions of computers (input, processing, output, storage), binary language, file sizes (bytes, kilobytes, megabytes), hardware components, types of software (systems, applications), computer platforms, and networking basics.
This document provides 200+ multiple choice questions (MCQs) about operating systems. It begins with a list of 10 MCQs covering topics like assemblers, semantic analysis, load addresses, and symbolic names. It then continues with an additional 190+ MCQs covering operating system concepts such as processes, scheduling, virtual memory, paging, deadlocks, and I/O management. The MCQs are provided to help students and professionals prepare for engineering interviews and exams.
Here I present Computer Hardware Concepts MCQ Paper for you to download. Enjoy!
This MCQ paper contains 80 multiple choice questions with four options each, all from Computer Hardware Concepts chapter.
This document contains a set of 22 multiple choice questions about computer generations and technologies. It provides the questions along with brief explanatory paragraphs about computer history and generations. The questions cover topics like the defining technologies of each generation of computers, popular computers from different eras, programming languages developed in each generation, and more. The document concludes by sharing contact information to send additional MCQ questions or discuss computer topics further.
Solved question paper of Assistant computer operator of PSC conducted on 2018Suresh Khanal
Solved question paper of Assistant Computer Operator of PSC exam 2018
Visit: https://www.fundamentalsmcq.com/2018/11/assistant-computer-operator-2018-psc.html
This is the solved question paper of assistant computer exam of public service commission conducted on 2018.
The document contains a multiple choice test with 60 questions about various topics related to computers and their history. The questions cover topics such as computer hardware components, software, programming languages, early computers, units of measurement, companies/founders, and applications. The key provided indicates the correct answer for each question.
The document contains multiple choice questions about computing concepts such as teleconferencing, RISC processors, HTML tags, database indexing, ergonomic concerns, batch processing, drivers, HyperCard, integrated vs. stand-alone software, line breaks, hard drives, telecommunications, binary representations, intranets, disk partitioning, network topologies, browser refresh functions, BDPA leadership, HTML tags, Access data types, database normalization, domain names, Java arrays, vacuum tubes, hexadecimal and octal numbering systems, kilobytes, IBM System 360, the mission of BDPA, the first high school computer competition winner, definitions of a database, the founders of BDPA, microprocessors, twips
This document contains a collection of multiple choice questions about computer fundamentals. There are 54 questions covering topics such as computer generations, components, memory, storage, operating systems, and applications. The questions are intended as a study guide or test for someone learning about basic computer concepts.
The document contains questions and solutions about various topics related to computers and information technology. It discusses transistor and integrated circuit components of computers. It also addresses memory types like primary, magnetic, and optical storage and differentiates between sequential and random access. Number conversion between decimal, binary, hexadecimal and ASCII/Unicode representations are explained. Computer components like ports, static/dynamic RAM, seek time vs latency, monitor resolution, printers, and utility software are defined. Software architectures, cloud computing, structured programming, operating systems, files, arrays, subroutines, email, databases, spreadsheets and word processing are analyzed. Networking concepts such as LAN, MAN, WAN, TCP, IP, URLs, DNS, subnet masks,
The document provides information about the exam format for the First Science: Computer Science CS1.2 course. It states that the exam is 2 hours long and contains 4 questions, with questions 1 and 2 being compulsory and the others being a choice between 3 and 4. Question 1 contains 60 multiple choice questions, with negative marking applying for incorrect answers. Question 2 involves assembly language programming. Questions 3 and 4 concern computer architecture topics. Sample multiple choice questions are provided covering various computer science topics. Instructions are also provided on how to fill out the multiple choice answer sheet.
This document contains a quiz of 75 multiple choice questions related to computer awareness. The questions cover topics such as computer hardware, operating systems, software applications, networking, internet, security, and computer programming languages. The questions are multiple choice with one correct answer out of 5 options for each question. The questions progress from basic to more advanced computer concepts.
Solved Question Paper of Computer Operator Examination Conducted by EPF 2016Suresh Khanal
The document contains a solved question paper for a Computer Operator Examination conducted by EPF (Employee Provident Fund) with 50 multiple choice questions related to computer fundamentals. Some key topics covered include components of a computer system, operating systems, applications like MS Word, Excel and PowerPoint. The questions test the candidate's knowledge of basic computer terminology, specifications, commands and features of standard software. An explanation is provided for each answer with relevant details to justify the correct option.
This document contains a set of 17 multiple choice questions about computer fundamentals. The questions cover topics like the components of the CPU, types of record access methods, disadvantages of laser printers, buses on motherboards, machine language, primary storage devices, refresh requirements of different memory types, and OCR. The questions are part of an objective test on computer fundamentals topics like hardware, software, memory, storage, and input/output devices.
This document contains 40 multiple choice questions related to computer hardware and software concepts. It covers topics such as memory types, storage devices, operating systems, networking, processors, and I/O devices. The answers provided indicate that DRAM stands for Dynamic Random Access Memory, cache RAM is fast memory for frequently accessed data, SRAM is typically used for cache RAM, SDRAM is usually faster than DRAM, BIOS is stored in flash memory, operating systems are software not hardware, programs are stored on hard disks when power is off, non-volatile memory stores data without power, PCI is a system bus type, modems convert digital to analog signals, RDRAM was faster than SDRAM, 1 GHz is one billion cycles per
Ibps sbi po computer awareness mega question bank of 1500 questionsSumit Ranjan
The document provides a list of 150 computer awareness questions that are commonly asked for banking exams like IBPS and SBI PO exams. It covers topics like hardware, software, operating systems, networks, file management, internet and email basics, spreadsheet functions, and database concepts. Students are encouraged to review the list of questions and points at least once to help improve their test scores.
The document contains 30 multiple choice questions about computers and computer technology. It covers topics like computer generations, components, memory, storage, operating systems, networking, and other foundational computer concepts. The questions have a single correct answer in multiple choice format with explanations provided for each answer. The purpose is to test computer fundamentals knowledge.
This document contains a 65-item quiz on computer general knowledge topics for bank examinations. The quiz covers subjects like computer hardware, software, operating systems, networks, and data storage. Some key points covered are the four main functions of computers (input, processing, output, storage), binary language, file sizes (bytes, kilobytes, megabytes), hardware components, types of software (systems, applications), computer platforms, and networking basics.
This document contains 95 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of various computing concepts. The questions cover topics such as networking, hardware, software, programming languages, databases, operating systems, and more. They range from basic to more advanced levels.
Big Data Week - L'impact du Big Data sur l'intelligence urbaine - FuturoCité ...Julie Roger
La ville intelligente: une réalité d’aujourd’hui au service des citoyens, des communautés et des autorités… grâce aux progrès technologiques Un facteur d’attractivité pour nos villes de demain ! Dans le cadre de la Big Data Week, Futurocité, et ses partenaires IBM et Mobistar ont présenté l’importance et l’utilité des données (Big data et analytics) pour offrir de nouveaux services "Smart city". Comment et pourquoi est-il important d’exploiter, de traiter et d’analyser les données afin de fournir une information cohérente et intelligente pour une gouvernance plus efficace au bénéfice du bien-être des citoyens et la prospérité de leurs communauté.
This document is a 100 question practice exam for the CompTIA 220-701 A+ Essentials certification. It includes questions about topics like Windows features, hardware components, troubleshooting methodology, networking protocols, and security concepts. The answers and explanations are provided on the last pages of the document.
The document discusses the history of computer generations from first to fifth generation. It also summarizes the major components of a digital computer including the input, output, central processing unit, and storage units. The CPU contains the arithmetic logic unit, control unit, and memory unit. The document also differentiates between analog and digital signals.
This practice exam contains 100 questions to prepare for the CompTIA 220-702 A+ Practical Application exam. The questions cover topics such as Windows commands, networking protocols, hardware components, troubleshooting skills and security concepts. The answers and explanations are provided on the last pages of the document.
IBPSEXAM provides sample questions from previous computer knowledge exams, including questions about:
- The basic functions of a computer as input, processing, output, and storage.
- Common computer terms like bits, bytes, RAM, ROM, and storage devices.
- Operating systems, software types, file extensions and properties.
- Networking protocols, security practices, and basic computer hardware.
The document provides 50 multiple choice questions to help students prepare for an exam on fundamental computer knowledge topics.
PDHPE teaches children vital skills for health, wellbeing, and social development. It covers topics like physical activity, problem solving, communication, and safety. Students learn these skills through both classroom and physical activities like sports, which help them become active, collaborative members of society.
This document provides a 100 question practice exam for the CompTIA 220-702 A+ certification. The exam covers topics such as Windows commands, networking protocols, hardware components, troubleshooting skills and security best practices.
The document contains multiple choice questions related to microprocessors and microcontrollers. It covers topics like 8085 architecture, 8051 architecture, 8051 registers and SFRs, addressing modes, 8086 assembly language instructions, and their operation. Some questions test understanding of interrupt priorities, I/O addressing, stack operations, arithmetic and logical instructions on 8-bit and 16-bit processors.
The document is a quiz on basic computer concepts. It contains 25 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of hardware components like hard disks, floppy disks, RAM and ROM. It also covers topics like operating systems, software, processors, and computer manufacturers. The questions have a single correct answer that is revealed after each question. The quiz covers foundational computer terminology and components from storage to processors to peripherals.
1)Today, the overwhelming world leader in microprocessor sales i.pdfisenbergwarne4100
1)
Today, the overwhelming world leader in microprocessor sales is:
A)
Intel.
B)
Microsoft.
C)
Motorola.
D)
Digital Equipment Corporation (DEC).
2)
Which of the following is not an example of a computer output device?
A)
Video display unit
B)
Scanner
C)
Magnetic tape unit
D)
Printer
3)
Which of the following is not an example of applications software?
A)
Spreadsheet packages
B)
Inventory record-keeping programs
C)
Word-processing software
D)
Operating systems software
4)
Which of the following describes a function of an operating system?
A)
Stores and retrieves data files
B)
Decides when to initiate a particular job from among those waiting in the input queue
C)
Controls the inflow and outflow of communications with various terminals and microcomputers
D)
All of the above
5)
Which of the following is an example of an open operating system?
A)
Linux
B)
Windows NT
C)
OS/400
D)
Windows XP
6)
A metalanguage standard for specifying a document markup language based on plain-text tags,
and used to facilitate data interchange among applications on the Web, is
A)
HTML
B)
JavaScript
C)
HTTP
D)
XML
7)
Which of the following is not an advantage of distributed and client/server systems?
A)
Data more readily available to users
B)
Increased service and responsiveness to local users
C)
Less dependence on telecommunications lines and media
D)
Reduced computing costs
8)
When data can be transmitted in both directions but not simultaneously, the transmission type is
referred to as:
A)
simplex.
B)
half-duplex.
C)
full-duplex.
D)
switched-line.
9)
A telecommunications network often includes physical media over which communication signals
are sent. All of the following are examples of physical media except:
A)
twisted pair wire.
B)
coaxial cable.
C)
fiber-optic cable.
D)
satellite.
10)
All of the following are characteristic of fiber-optic transmission, except:
A)
more secure than other transmission media.
B)
faster transmission than other transmission media.
C)
space requirements are more than other transmission media.
D)
more reliable than other transmission media.
11)
A method of operating a digital telecommunications network in which information is divided
into units of some fixed length that are then sent over the network separately, allowing the units
of data from various users to be interspersed with one another is called:
A)
bundling.
B)
time sharing.
C)
batching.
D)
packet switching.
12) The basic unit of a spreadsheet is a:
A) box
B) cube
C) cell
D) grid
13) Booting a computer means to:
A) restart the computer
B) run a program from the hard disk
C) start the computer
D) none of the above
14) The correct order from lowest to highest level of detail of the same program is:
A) assembly language, programming language, and binary
B) programming language, assembly language, and binary
C) binary, assembly language, and programming language
D) binary, programming language, and assembly language
15) Instruction sequences that repeat are called:
A) loops
B) assump.
The document provides a link to the World's Technology Arena YouTube channel for learning more about technology. It contains information about upcoming technology-related videos and discussions that will be hosted on the channel. Viewers are invited to visit the channel at the provided link to explore new technology topics.
The document contains questions about computer hardware, software, and networking concepts. It tests knowledge on topics like computer components, operating systems, storage devices, input/output devices, networking, and basic computer functions. The questions have multiple choice answers related to concepts like the CPU, boot process, memory, peripheral devices, file formats, and network devices.
CAPE Computer Science Unit 1 Paper 1 - Practice PaperAlex Stewart
This document provides a practice exam for the Caribbean Examinations Council Advanced Proficiency Examination in Computer Science. The exam covers fundamentals of computer science, including programming constructs like loops and functions, generations of programming languages, and basic computer hardware concepts. It consists of 45 multiple choice questions testing these core CS topics.
The document contains 57 multiple choice questions about topics relating to e-commerce infrastructure and the internet. The questions cover topics such as packet switching, IP addressing, internet protocols, cloud computing, wireless technologies, and internet governance organizations. Sample questions assess understanding of topics like how TCP/IP operates, advantages of client/server computing, and limitations of the current internet architecture.
This document contains a 25 question multiple choice quiz about computer fundamentals and operating systems. The questions cover topics such as generations of computers, computer architecture, memory, operating systems features, and applications such as word processing and spreadsheets. The document provides the question and a blank for the answer selection for each multiple choice question.
This document contains a model question paper for a Computer Science examination with multiple choice and descriptive questions. The questions cover topics such as computer hardware components, operating systems, databases, networking, and more. The document is divided into 16 parts with varying numbers of questions in each part. Answers or solutions are provided below each set of questions. The total number of questions is not specified but there appear to be over 50 questions covering fundamental Computer Science topics.
The document contains a sample exam for probationary officers with 47 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of computer concepts. Some key topics covered include software suites, data warehouses, file servers, security risks, point-of-sale terminals, the OSI model, operating systems, networks, data mining, URLs, databases, transaction processing, proxies, data inconsistency, programming languages, routers, data normalization, extranets, URLs, SQL, integrated circuits, primary keys, network architecture, cache memory, data dictionaries, GUIs, debugging, time bombs, Linux, backups, data hierarchy, the Internet, and menus.
This document contains a 50 question quiz on computer general awareness and concepts. The questions cover topics such as software suites, data warehouses, file servers, security risks, point-of-sale terminals, the OSI model, system software, embedded computers, operating systems, computer networks, data mining, URLs, database management systems, transaction processing, proxy servers, data inconsistency, programming languages, computer architectures, cache memory, data dictionaries, GUIs, documentation, broadband internet, malware, debugging, time bombs, Linux, backups, data hierarchy, the internet, menus, file names, authentication, and virus symptoms. The document provides multiple choice answers for each question.
This document contains a quiz with questions about computer awareness and concepts. It includes 55 multiple choice questions covering topics like computer hardware, operating systems, software, networking, internet, security and more. The questions are part of a larger question bank for computer awareness that is provided on the website www.BankExamsToday.com.
This document contains multiple choice questions and answers about computer networking topics. It is divided into sets with 20 questions each and covers topics like network topologies, protocols, network standards, and network layers. The questions are meant to test knowledge of fundamental concepts in computer networking.
Bt0062 fundamentals of it model question paperAnimish Puttu
This document contains a model question paper for the subject "Fundamentals of IT" with 60 multiple choice questions covering various topics related to information technology including computer hardware, software, operating systems, networking, the internet, and applications. The questions are divided into two sections: Part A contains one mark questions and Part B contains two mark questions assessing more comprehensive understanding. Overall, the question paper tests students' foundational knowledge of IT concepts and terminology.
1)Which of the following are Penetration testing methodologysandibabcock
Penetration testing methodologies include white box, black box, and gray box models. Skills needed for security testing include knowledge of network/computer technology, communication abilities, and legal/tool understanding. Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks flood networks with billions of packets from multiple sources, degrading bandwidth and speed. Enumeration extracts information like resources, usernames, and groups to profile targets for further attacks.
Digital Electronics & Computer Oraganisation
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This document contains 76 multiple choice questions related to computer terminology and concepts. The questions cover topics such as CPU components, operating systems, software applications, internet terminology, file management, and computer hardware. The correct answer is provided for each question to test the reader's knowledge of fundamental computer science topics.
This document contains a quiz on digital forensics and embedded systems. It includes 43 multiple choice questions covering topics like digital evidence collection, drive slack, Windows registry, microcontrollers, RISC vs CISC architectures, VME bus, embedded system design constraints, assembly language, AVR registers and program counter. The questions test knowledge of technical concepts and terminology in these subject areas.
This document contains 78 multiple choice questions related to computers and technology. The questions cover topics such as computer hardware, software, operating systems, networking, internet, and general technology terms. The correct answer is provided for each question.
The document contains three assignments related to Unix and shell programming. Assignment A contains questions about features of Unix, shell programming, the grep command, writing a shell program to generate terms of a sequence, and examples of filter commands. Assignment B contains questions about Unix file systems, writing shell programs to perform various tasks, and Unix commands. Assignment C contains multiple choice questions testing knowledge of Unix commands, file concepts, shell programming, and operating system concepts.
The document contains 60 multiple choice questions related to computers, operating systems, software, hardware, computer networks, e-commerce, and electronic waste. Some key topics covered include identifying the father of computers, components of a computer like CPU and memory, types of operating systems like Windows and Linux, uses of software like MS Word and email clients, cybersecurity threats like malware and viruses, basics of e-commerce models like B2B and B2C, and defining electronic waste.
The document contains a set of multiple choice questions and answers about computer networks fundamentals. It covers topics such as network layers, protocols, transmission media, and more. The questions are in a multiple choice format with a single correct answer and a short explanation for each answer.
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Why You Should Replace Windows 11 with Nitrux Linux 3.5.0 for enhanced perfor...SOFTTECHHUB
The choice of an operating system plays a pivotal role in shaping our computing experience. For decades, Microsoft's Windows has dominated the market, offering a familiar and widely adopted platform for personal and professional use. However, as technological advancements continue to push the boundaries of innovation, alternative operating systems have emerged, challenging the status quo and offering users a fresh perspective on computing.
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1. Question Paper
Information Technology and Systems– I (MB231): July 2007
• Answer all questions.
• Each question carries one mark.
1. Which of the following technology was used in the First Generation computers?
(a) Transistors
(b) Vacuum tubes
(c) ULSI technology
(d) Integrated circuits
(e) VLSI technology.
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Answer
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2. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about RISC architecture?
I. RISC microprocessors execute the instructions very fast.
II. RISC chips are cheaper to design and produce compared to CISC chips.
III. RISC uses more complex set of instructions when compared to CISC architecture.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
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Answer
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3. CRAY3, CRAYXMP, PARAM 9000, PARAM 10000 are the examples of
(a) Analog computers
(b) Supercomputers
(c) Minicomputers
(d) Microcomputers
(e) Servers.
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Answer
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4. Which of the following generation computers are based on artificial intelligence and possess voice
recognition capabilities?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
(e) Fifth.
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Answer
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5. To improve the secondary cache performance, microprocessors are provided in plastic modules that
contain a special type of secondary cache called as
(a) Frontside cache
(b) Backside cache
(c) Upside cache
(d) Downside cache
(e) Middle cache.
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Answer
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6. Memory Buffer Register holds
(a) The address of the active memory location
(b) Data on its way to and from memory
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Answer
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2. (c) The address of the next instruction to be executed
(d) Accumulated results and data to be accumulated
(e) An instruction while it is being executed.
7. Which of the following units will convert the input data into binary codes?
(a) Input interfaces
(b) Transformation interfaces
(c) Output interfaces
(d) Internal processing interfaces
(e) Binary interfaces.
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Answer
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8. The significant advance in the evolution of computer systems was the invention of analytical engine.
Who among the following invented analytical engine?
(a) John Napier
(b) William Oughtred
(c) Pascal
(d) Charles Babbage
(e) Leibniz.
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Answer
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9. A major step forward in the evolution of computer systems is the invention of Punch cards. Who among
the following developed the concept of Punch cards?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Herman Hollerith
(c) John Napier
(d) Pascal
(e) Leibniz.
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Answer
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10. Which of the following is correct with respect to Access Speed?
(a) RAM>Hard disk>CD-ROM> Cache memory
(b) RAM>Hard disk>Cache memory>CD-ROM
(c) Cache memory>Hard disk>RAM>CD-ROM
(d) Cache memory >CD-ROM>RAM>Hard disk
(e) Cache memory>RAM>Hard disk>CD-ROM.
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Answer
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11. 1 Giga byte is equal to
(a) One million bytes
(b) One billion bytes
(c) Ten million bytes
(d) Ten billion bytes
(e) Ten kilo bytes.
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Answer
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12. In virtual memory, program instructions and data are divided into units of fixed size called
(a) Pages
(b) Frames
(c) Segments
(d) Blocks
(e) Cells.
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Answer
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13. If the memory is full, the operating system starts storing copies of pages in a hard disk file called
(a) Flat file
(b) Swap file
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Answer
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3. (c) Program file
(d) Text file
(e) Binary file.
14. Data is recorded on the disk in concentric circular bands called
(a) Segments
(b) Clusters
(c) Sectors
(d) Tracks
(e) Blocks.
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Answer
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15. Which of the following signals are generated by input/output devices, which inform operating system
that some action has taken place?
(a) Device drivers
(b) Interrupts
(c) Pages
(d) Threads
(e) Informers.
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Answer
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16. Which of the following memory enables users to work with more memory than what is installed on the
computer’s mother board?
(a) Cache memory
(b) Virtual memory
(c) Secondary memory
(d) Read only memory
(e) Registers.
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Answer
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17. The most important feature(s) that are added in Netware 6.5 Operating System is/are
(a) Netware directory services
(b) It has ability to convert any type of server into web server
(c) Centralized web management
(d) Virtual office application
(e) Both (c) and (d) above.
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Answer
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18. The most important feature added in Vista was Windows AERO. AERO is a visual style that stands
for
(a) Application, Enterprise, Reflective and Open
(b) Authentic, Enterprise, Reflective and Open
(c) Authentic, Energetic, Response and Open
(d) Authentic, Energetic, Reflective and Open
(e) Application, Energetic, Response and Open.
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Answer
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19. UNIX Operating System is widely used because
I. It provides easy portability across systems.
II. The commands used in UNIX operating system are easy to learn.
III. It is multi-user and multi-tasking operating system.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
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Answer
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4. 20. In Disk Operating System, which of the following file handles the file and memory management?
(a) COMMAND.SYS
(b) COMMAND.COM
(c) MSDOS.COM
(d) MSDOS.SYS
(e) IO.SYS.
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Answer
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21. In UNIX, which of the following commands is used to login securely to remote node?
(a) sh nd
(b) ssh nd
(c) shh nd
(d) shs nd
(e) hss nd.
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Answer
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22. The user interface in Mac OS X is called
(a) System
(b) Finder
(c) Aqua
(d) Parser
(e) Tee.
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Answer
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23. In Windows XP Operating System, what does XP stands for?
(a) Expert
(b) Experience
(c) Exposure
(d) Experiment
(e) Exponent.
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Answer
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24. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
I. Objective information is known as opinions.
II. Subjective information is known as facts.
III. Objective information is unique and true in nature.
(a) Only (III) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
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Answer
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25. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false about information?
I. Secondary information is usually collected from internal sources.
II. Primary information is less reliable and not always accurate.
III. Secondary information is easier and cheaper to collect.
(a) Only (II) above
(b) Only (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
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Answer
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26. Which of the following information is used for understanding the perceptions and interpretations of
individuals and situations?
(a) Knowledge information
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Answer
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5. (b) Aggregated information
(c) Objective information
(d) Qualitative information
(e) Informal information.
27. Which of the following types of information provides details about all entities in a group?
(a) Detailed information
(b) Aggregated information
(c) Sampled information
(d) Summarized information
(e) Informal information.
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Answer
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28. Which of the following devices convert digital signals from input/output devices into appropriate
frequencies at a transmission terminal and convert them back into digital signals at a receiving terminal?
(a) Modems
(b) Multiplexers
(c) Routers
(d) Hubs
(e) Gateways.
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Answer
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29. Which of the following parameters of quality refers to the information which is free from errors and
bias?
(a) Age
(b) Validity
(c) Impartiality
(d) Consistency
(e) Reliability.
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Answer
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30. Errors are not always deliberate and therefore certain measures can be taken to minimize them. So
which of the following measures are used to reduce the uncertainty of information?
I. Internal controls.
II. Additional parameters that state the level of confidence with regard to the accuracy of
information.
III. Instructions pertaining to measurement and processing of information.
IV. Internal audit and external audit.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above
(b) Both (I) and (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (IV) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) Both (II) and (IV) above.
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Answer
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31. Which of the following is basically a feature or a characteristic that is shared among a group of items,
ideas or entities?
(a) Procedure
(b) Process
(c) Principle
(d) Concept
(e) Piping.
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Answer
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32. Hyper Text Markup Language (HTML) is
I. A script in which documents in the World Wide Web are formatted.
II. A script that supports links to other documents as well as graphics, audio and video files.
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Answer
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6. III. A protocol for transferring files over the Internet.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
33. Acronym for IMAP is
(a) Internet Message Access Protocol
(b) International Message Access Protocol
(c) Internet Mail Administration Protocol
(d) International Mail Administration Protocol
(e) International Multi-user Access Protocol.
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Answer
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34. ICQ is a popular
(a) File transfer protocol
(b) Internet paging program
(c) Internet faxing program
(d) Internet telephony program
(e) Mail transfer protocol.
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Answer
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35. Data conferencing is an interactive way of sharing information among users located at different
locations over a network of computers. Application sharing is a term used in data conferencing which
I. Allows two or more participants to interact with each other by working on a single application that
is loaded onto the computer system of one of the participants.
II. Facilitates sharing the same computer screen by all participants.
III. Has similarities with remote control software.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
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Answer
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36. Which of the following is/are project management groupware?
(a) Lotus Notes
(b) Lotus Organizer
(c) Netscape Collabra
(d) Both (a) and (c) above
(e) Both (b) and (c) above.
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Answer
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37. Which of the following Enterprise Communication tools is a collection of user-submitted notes or
messages on various subjects that are posted to servers on a world wide network?
(a) Internet Paging
(b) Internet Fax
(c) Internet Telephony
(d) Internet Relay Chat
(e) Usenet.
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Answer
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38. Which of the following are examples of vertical applications?
I. Word processing software.
II. Bill generation software.
III. Accounting software.
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Answer
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7. IV. Spreadsheet software.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above
(b) Both (I) and (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (IV) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) Both (II) and (IV) above.
39. Which of the following features of word processing software enables the user to automatically move to
a next line?
(a) Word wrapping
(b) Word alignment
(c) Word justification
(d) Word count
(e) Auto format.
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Answer
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40. In MS Excel, each worksheet has
(a) 128 columns, 32,238 rows
(b) 228 columns, 32,238 rows
(c) 256 columns, 65,536 rows
(d) 225 columns, 65,536 rows
(e) 128 columns, 65,536 rows.
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Answer
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41. In MS Excel, which of the following short cut keys are used if the user wants to move between
worksheets?
(a) SHIFT+ PgUp and SHIFT + PgDn
(b) ALT+ PgUp and ALT+ PgDn
(c) CTRL+ PgUp and CTRL+ PgDn
(d) SHIFT+ Home and SHIFT + End
(e) ALT+ Home and ALT+ End.
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Answer
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42. In MS-Excel, Which of the following statement(s) is/are false about replication?
I. Replication is copying the formula and applying to the range of cells by dragging the mouse and
selecting the cells.
II. Replication saves time.
III. Replication increases redundancy.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
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Answer
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43. In a worksheet, the cell (intersection of a row and column) which is currently being used is called as
a/an
(a) Starting cell
(b) Passive cell
(c) Active cell
(d) Relative cell
(e) Common cell.
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Answer
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44. Users have many options to format cells in a worksheet. Which of the following tab allows the user to
add color to the selected cells and change the background style?
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Answer
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8. (a) Alignment tab
(b) Border tab
(c) Protection tab
(d) Pattern tab
(e) Color tab.
45. In character formatting, emphasis includes
I. Marking the text bold.
II. Underlining the text.
III. Setting the size of the font.
IV. Changing the style of the font.
V. Italicizing the text.
(a) Both (I) and (II) above
(b) (I), (II) and (III) above
(c) (I), (II) and (IV) above
(d) (I), (II) and (V) above
(e) All (I), (II), (III), (IV) and (V) above.
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Answer
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46. Which of the following options is not present on the menu bar of MS-Excel workbook?
(a) View
(b) Insert
(c) Data
(d) Tools
(e) Table.
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Answer
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47. Which of the following is not a data type in MS-Excel?
(a) Text
(b) Number
(c) Logical
(d) Error
(e) Character.
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Answer
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48. In MS-Excel, if a formatted number does not fit into a cell, which of the following symbol is
displayed?
(a) *
(b) #
(c) &
(d) $
(e) @.
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Answer
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49. In MS-Excel, To consider a number as text, which of the following symbol is used?
(a) Quotation
(b) Ampersand
(c) Asterisk
(d) Dollar
(e) Apostrophe.
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Answer
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50. In MS-Excel, Which of the following is correct with respect to operators and their order of priority?
(a) * and /, %, + and - , &, ^
(b) %, ^, * and /, + and - , &
(c) * and /, %, + and -, ^, &
(d) %, &, * and /, ^, + and -
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Answer
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9. (e) %, + and - , * and /, &.
51. In MS-Excel, there are different categories of functions like Financial function, Text function, Logical
function etc and there are various functions in each category. Which of the following mentioned pairs
of are not correct?
Function Category
I. NOW Date & Time
II. FACT Statistical
III. NA Text
IV. SUBSTITUTE Logical
V. AND Text
VI. ISLOGICAL Information Function
(a) (I), (II) and (III) above
(b) (II), (III) and (IV) above
(c) (I), (II), (III) and (V) above
(d) (II), (III), (IV) and (V) above
(e) (I), (II), (III) and (VI) above.
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Answer
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52. The Solver tool in MS Excel generates three reports viz Answer, Sensitivity and Limits reports. Which
of the following mentioned values is not a part of Answer report?
(a) Original value
(b) Final value
(c) Value for the input
(d) Implicit value
(e) Values for the constraints.
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Answer
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53. The effect of Strategic, Tactical and Operational decisions for management, with respect to the time
frame can be represented as
(a) >3years, 1-3 years, <1year
(b) >1year, >2years, >3years
(c) <1year, <2years, <3years
(d) 1-3 years, >3years, <1year
(e) <1year, 1-3years, >3years.
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Answer
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54. Meter-reading card given by the electricity department is a
(a) Information Document
(b) Action Document
(c) Edit Report
(d) Turnaround Document
(e) Computing Document.
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Answer
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55. Which of the following provide details of errors that have been detected during processing?
(a) Information Document
(b) Action Document
(c) Edit Report
(d) Turnaround Document
(e) Computing Document.
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Answer
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56. In an organization, which of the following data is/are not processed while taking operational
decisions?
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Answer
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10. (a) Attendance
(b) Daily cash flows
(c) Sales figures
(d) Vendor rating
(e) Both (b) and (d) above.
57. Which of the following explains the main purpose of a personnel record-keeping system?
(a) Analyzing range and distribution of employee compensation and comparing it with industry
standards and other economic indicators
(b) Forecasting of the number of personnel required for each job category
(c) Planning and monitoring of induction of new employees
(d) Keeping track of additions, deletions and any other changes to records in the personnel database
(e) Establishing a relationship between the employees.
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Answer
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58. Data can be processed in a batch mode depending upon
I. Market conditions.
II. Volume of transactions.
III. Employee productivity.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
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Answer
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59. Which of the following is not a characteristic of MIS (Management Information Systems)?
(a) Common data flow
(b) Planning element
(c) Common database
(d) Drilling
(e) Flexibility.
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Answer
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60. Which of the following types of Decision Support System rely on comparative analysis, application of
formula and use of algorithm?
(a) Status inquiry systems
(b) Data analysis systems
(c) Information analysis systems
(d) Accounting systems
(e) Design systems.
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Answer
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61. Which of the following is an example of Status inquiry systems (a type of Decision Support Systems)?
(a) Cash flow analysis
(b) Funds flow analysis
(c) Railway reservation systems
(d) Sales analysis report
(e) Market analysis report.
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Answer
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62. In which of the following analytical modeling, target is not fixed and target needs to be arrived at after
taking into consideration the constraints involved in achieving the targets?
(a) What-if-analysis
(b) Optimization analysis
(c) Goal seek analysis
(d) Sensitivity analysis
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Answer
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11. (e) Data analysis.
63. In which of the following analytical modeling, target is fixed and changes are made to the related
variable so that the target is achieved?
(a) What-if-analysis
(b) Optimization analysis
(c) Goal seek analysis
(d) Sensitivity analysis
(e) Data analysis.
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Answer
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64. If the finance manager is provided with information on customers who exceeded their credit limits only,
such report is termed as
(a) Exception report
(b) Periodic scheduled report
(c) Demand report and response
(d) Edit report
(e) Push report.
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Answer
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65. Which of the following refers to radically changing the design of business processes to improve
performance and efficiency of the organization?
(a) Business Improvement
(b) Business Process Manufacturing
(c) Business Process Re-engineering
(d) Business Process Production
(e) Enterprise Resource Planning.
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Answer
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66. What is Artificial intelligence?
(a) Putting your intelligence into computer
(b) Programming with your own intelligence
(c) Making a machine intelligent
(d) Playing a game
(e) Putting more memory into computer.
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Answer
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67. In OLAP, slicing and dicing refer to
(a) The process of breaking up data into smaller dimensions to facilitate analysis
(b) The process of representing data in tabular form for analysis
(c) The process of representing data into graphs for analysis
(d) The process of changing the dimension of analysis to suit the analysts’ requirements
(e) The process of changing the dimension of analysis into fixed format for analysis.
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Answer
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68. Which of the following systems require the use of special sensing devices to measure physical
phenomena such as temperature, pressure etc.?
(a) Computer-Aided Design
(b) Computer-Aided Manufacturing
(c) Manufacturing Resource Planning
(d) Materials Requirement Planning
(e) Process Control System.
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Answer
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69. Mr. Sudhakar, a software engineer, working for Vision IT Solutions, was asked by the team leader to
explain the details of the new project using a flowchart. He has drawn separate flow charts for each
program. So what type of symbol is useful for him in connecting those flow charts?
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Answer
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12. (a) Parallelogram Shaped Symbol
(b) An On page Connector Symbol
(c) Predefined Process Symbol
(d) An Off Page Connector Symbol
(e) Annotation Shaped Symbol.
70. Which of the following is not an advantage of a flow chart?
(a) It is easier for a programmer to explain the logic of a program to others
(b) It acts as a road map for the programmers to write the concerned program
(c) While executing a program if a bug is detected, it is easy to find out the reason by going through
the logic of a program in the flow chart form
(d) There are no standards determining the amount of detail that should be included in a flow chart
(e) A macro flowchart acts as a system model that can be broken down into detailed parts for study
and further analysis of the system.
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Answer
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71. Which of the following statements is false regarding Pseudocode?
(a) Converting a pseudocode to a programming language is much easier when compared to
converting a flowchart or a decision table
(b) Less time and effort are required to write a pseudocode than for drawing a flowchart
(c) It is easier to modify the pseudocode of a program logic when program modifications are
necessary
(d) There are no standard rules to follow while using a pseudocode
(e) For a beginner, it is easier to follow the logic of a pseudocode, as compared to flow chart.
<
Answer
>
72. Which of the following is the correct order of program development lifecycle?
(a) Defining the problem, formalizing the solution, coding, designing, testing and debugging,
maintaining the program
(b) Defining the problem, coding, designing, testing and debugging, formalizing the solution,
maintaining the program
(c) Defining the problem, formalizing the solution, designing, coding, testing and debugging,
maintaining the program
(d) Defining the problem, designing, coding, testing and debugging, formalizing the solution,
maintaining the program
(e) Defining the problem, coding, testing and debugging, formalizing the solution, designing,
maintaining the program.
<
Answer
>
73. Which of the following charts are useful for Mr.Sudhakar, if he wants to compare the population of
Hyderabad with the population of Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Column charts
(b) Bar charts
(c) Line charts
(d) Pie charts
(e) Gantt charts.
<
Answer
>
74. In programming language, ‘Switch’ statement is used to
(a) Transfer control on the basis of certain conditions
(b) Check the conditions within another condition
(c) Specify operations based on certain conditions
(d) Check multiple values of variables
(e) Execute the loop at least once.
<
Answer
>
75. Which of the following is the most successful Rapid Application Development tool for Microsoft
Windows application?
<
Answer
>
13. (a) VB
(b) JAVA
(c) C++
(d) C
(e) ADA.
76. Which of the following is/are example(s) of fourth generation languages?
(a) FOCUS
(b) Prolog
(c) NATURAL
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
(e) Both (a) and (c) above.
<
Answer
>
77. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false regarding application generators?
I. Application generators are higher level languages designed to facilitate development of a
complete application.
II. These languages are usually built around database management systems.
III. Application generators are difficult to use than other high-level programming languages such as
C++.
IV. Application generators usually increase the time required for programming and testing.
(a) Only (III) above
(b) Only (IV) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (IV) above
(e) Both (III) and (IV) above.
<
Answer
>
78. In Java, which of the following provides a layer of abstraction between the compiled program and the
underlying hardware platform and operating system?
(a) Compiler
(b) Interpreter
(c) Class loader
(d) JVM
(e) Assembler.
<
Answer
>
79. Which of the following refers to the process by which one object acquires the general properties such
as the conditions and actions of other objects?
(a) Encapsulation
(b) Abstraction
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Inheritance
(e) Class.
<
Answer
>
80. In object-oriented programming, the process of binding data and functions in a single unit is called
(a) Encapsulation
(b) Abstraction
(c) Polymorphism
(d) Inheritance
(e) Exception-handling.
<
Answer
>
81. In a flow chart, which of the following symbol represents programming logic that is defined
elsewhere?
(a)
<
Answer
>
14. (b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
.
82. Which of the following computers was the first electronic computer developed at the Moore School of
engineering?
(a) ENIAC
(b) UNIVAC
(c) EDVAC
(d) EDSAC
(e) ENAIC.
<
Answer
>
83 The Overall Design of the database is called as
(a) Instance
(b) Schema
(c) View
(d) Model
(e) Design.
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Answer
>
84. Which of the following refers to the actual number of associated instances for each of the two entities?
(a) Instance
(b) Connectivity
(c) Schema
(d) Entity
(e) Cardinality.
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Answer
>
85. Which of the following term in a Relational model is known as Entity instance in E-R model?
(a) Key
(b) Entity
(c) Tuple
(d) Table
(e) Data.
<
Answer
>
86. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false about primary key?
I. All primary key entries are unique.
II. The primary key may be null.
III. The primary key is not required for all tables.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (II) above
(d) Both (I) and (III) above
(e) Both (II) and (III) above.
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Answer
>
15. 87.
Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct based on the above relation?
I. It is in First Normal Form.
II. It is not in Third Normal Form.
III. There is a partial dependency in the above relation.
Customer ID Customer Salesperson Zone
653 James Sally South
256 Jewel Tom North
152 Harry Sally South
569 Helen Jack West
972 Scott Howard East
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
<
Answer
>
88. A functional dependency between two or more non-key attributes is called
(a) Partial functional dependency
(b) Partial non-key dependency
(c) Transitive dependency
(d) Partial transitive dependency
(e) Trivial dependency.
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Answer
>
89. What does the following SQL statement do?
Select salesperson from salesdetails where state = ‘RJ’
(a) Selects all the fields from the salesdetails table for each row with a state ‘RJ’
(b) Selects the salesperson field from the salesdetails table for each row with a state ‘RJ’
(c) Selects fields with a salesdetails from the salesdetails table
(d) Selects all the fields from the salesdetails table for each row with a state labeled "salesdetails"
(e) Counts all records and displays the value.
<
Answer
>
90. The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is a
(a) One-to-one relationship
(b) One-to-many relationship
(c) Many-to-many relationship
(d) Many-to-one relationship
(e) Symmetric relationship.
<
Answer
>
91. The first network model developed by GE in the mid-1960s was called
(a) Integrated Data Store (IDS)
(b) Integrated Data View (IDV)
(c) Integrated Information Store (IIS)
(d) Integrated Data Content (IDC)
(e) Integrated Data Machine (IDM).
<
Answer
>
92. Which of the following model(s) comes under physical Data model?
I. Entity-relationship model.
II. Unifying model.
III. Frame memory model.
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Answer
>
16. (a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (III) above
(c) Both (I) and (III) above
(d) Both (II) and (III) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
93. Which of the file organization is used when rapid access is required and fixed length records are used?
(a) Pile File Organization
(b) Sequential File Organization
(c) Index Sequential File Organization
(d) Indexed File Organization
(e) Hashed File Organization.
<
Answer
>
94. In which of the file organization exhaustive search is required to access the records?
(a) Pile File Organization
(b) Sequential File Organization
(c) Index Sequential File Organization
(d) Indexed File Organization
(e) Hashed File Organization.
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Answer
>
95. Which of the following refers to the storage of data in such a way that it is not affected by modification
in data structure or changes in the application program?
(a) Data Integrity
(b) Data Independence
(c) Data Redundancy
(d) Data Inconsistency
(e) Data Security.
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Answer
>
96. Vishal Datamind, a business organization maintaining a lot of “operational data” like Product data,
Account data, Payroll data for their customers. One day due to hardware problems the total data in the
database is lost. So who is responsible for back up and recovery of a database?
(a) Application programmers
(b) End users
(c) System analyst
(d) Database administrators
(e) Network administrators.
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Answer
>
97. In Database Management System, an example of logical level abstraction is/are
I. Machine level programming.
II. Programming logic.
III. Application used by the end users.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) Both (I) and (II) above
(e) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
<
Answer
>
98. Suppose if we want to keep extra information about a telephone such as its location, or its type (like
mobile, video-phone or who all shares the telephone) we have to model the telephone as a
(a) Entity
(b) Attribute
(c) Instance
<
Answer
>
17. (d) Schema
(e) Constraint.
99. The structure of the hierarchical database is
(a) A tree
(b) A graph
(c) A table
(d) A grid
(e) A list.
<
Answer
>
100.Which of the following applications of object-oriented data model stores data required by software
developers pertaining to source code, dependencies among software modules , definitions and uses of
variables?
(a) Computer Aided Design Database
(b) Computer-Aided Software Engineering Database
(c) Office Information System
(d) Multimedia Database
(e) Hypertext Database.
<
Answer
>
18. Suggested Answers
Information Technology and Systems– I (MB231): July 2007
1. Answer : (b)
Reason : The technology used in the first generation computers is Vacuum tubes. So option (b) is
the answer.
< TOP >
2. Answer : (d)
Reason : The differences between RISC and CISC are RISC microprocessors execute the
instructions very fast and RISC chips are cheaper to design and produce compared to
CISC chips. The third option is false because RISC uses less complex set of instructions
when compared to CISC architecture So option (d) is the answer.
< TOP >
3. Answer : (b)
Reason: CRAY3, CRAYXMP, PARAM 9000, PARAM 10000 are the examples of Super
computers. So option (b) is the answer.
< TOP >
4. Answer : (e)
Reason : Fifth generation computers are based on artificial intelligence and possess voice
recognition capabilities. So option (e) is the answer.
< TOP >
5. Answer : (b)
Reason : To improve the secondary cache performance, microprocessors are provided in plastic
modules that contain a special type of secondary cache is called backside cache. So option
(b) is the answer.
< TOP >
6. Answer : (b)
Reason : Memory Buffer Register holds data on its way to and from memory. So option (b) is the
answer.
< TOP >
7. Answer : (a)
Reason : All computers performs four basic operations called the IPOS cycle. The internal
architectural design of computers may differ from one system to another. But, the basic
organization remains the same for all computer systems. Input devices provide a computer
with data that are transformed into binary codes.
(a) This transaction is done by input interfaces
(b) Not relevant
(c) Output interfaces accomplish the task of converting the binary code, which is
produced by the computer, into human readable form
(d) Not relevant
(e) Not relevant.
So option (a) is answer.
< TOP >
8. Answer : (d)
Reason : In 1842, Charles Babbage invented the analytical engine that was intended to be
completely automatic. John Napier invented the logarithm. William Oughtred invented
rectibinear and Circula slide rules. Pascal invented mechanical adding machine. Leibniz
invented a device which can multiply,divide and find square root. So option (d) is answer.
< TOP >
9. Answer : (b)
Reason : Herman Hollerith Invented Punch Cards in 1890 and with this invention of Punch Cards,
the calculating machines became fully automatic. Charles Babbage invented analytical
engine, John Napier invented logarithm, Pascal invented mechanical adding machine and
Leibniz invented a device which can multiply, divide and find square root. So option (b) is
answer.
< TOP >
10. Answer : (e)
Reason : Cache memory>RAM>Hard disk>CD-ROM. The access speed for cache is very fast, the
access speed for RAM is fast, the access speed for hard disk is medium, and the access
speed for CD-ROM is slow. So option (e) is correct answer.
< TOP >
11. Answer : (b) < TOP >
19. Reason : 1 Giga byte is equal to one billion bytes. So option (b) is answer.
12. Answer : (a)
Reason : In virtual memory, program instructions and data are divided into units of fixed size
called pages. So option (a) is the answer.
< TOP >
13. Answer : (b)
Reason : If the memory is full, the operating system starts storing copies of pages in a hard disk file
called Swap file. So option (b) is the answer.
< TOP >
14. Answer : (d)
Reason : Data is recoded on the disk in concentric circular bands called tracks. So option (d) is the
answer.
< TOP >
15. Answer : (b)
Reason : Controlling input/output processes involves tasks associated with input and output
devices.
(a) Device drivers contain specific information about a particular brand and model.
(b) Interrupts are the signals that inform the operating system that some activity has
taken place.
(c) In virtual memory, program, instructions and data are divided into units of fixed
size, called pages.
(d) Not relevant
(e) Not relevant.
So option (b) is answer.
< TOP >
16. Answer : (b)
Reason : Virtual memory enables users to work with more memory that what is installed on the
computer’s motherboard. So option (b) is answer.
< TOP >
17. Answer : (e)
Reason : The most important feature that Netware 4.1 provides is Netware directory services
which supports a network of servers where users can log in once and access the resources
of any server depending on their access rights. Netware 5.1 is the ability to convert any
type of server into web server. Novell has added new features in Netware 6.5 like
Centralized web management, Virtual office application. Hence option (e) is answer.
< TOP >
18. Answer : (d)
Reason : The most important feature added in Vista was Windows AERO. AERO is a visual style
that stands for Authentic, Energetic, Reflective and Open. So option (d) is answer.
< TOP >
19. Answer : (c)
Reason : UNIX Operating System is widely used because:
I. It provides easy portability across systems.
III. It is multi-user and multi-tasking Operating System.
So option (c) is answer.
< TOP >
20. Answer : (d)
Reason : ‘MSDOS.SYS’ file handles file and memory management. So option (d) is answer.
< TOP >
21. Answer : (b)
Reason : In UNIX ‘ssh nd’ command is used to login securely to remote node. So option (b) is
answer.
< TOP >
22. Answer : (c)
Reason : The user interface in Mac OS X is called ‘Aqua’. So option (c) is answer.
< TOP >
23. Answer : (b)
Reason : In Windows XP Operating System, XP stands for Experience. So option (b) is answer.
< TOP >
24. Answer : (a)
Reason : Objective information is also known as facts and Subjective information is also known as
opinions and Objective information is unique and true in nature. So option (a) is answer.
< TOP >
20. 25. Answer : (c)
Reason : Primary information is usually collected from internal sources. Secondary information is
usually collected from external sources like the television, radio and Internet. Secondary
information is less reliable and not always accurate. Secondary information is easier and
cheaper to collect. So option (c) is answer.
< TOP >
26. Answer : (d)
Reason : Qualitative information refers to information gathered through personal, direct and open-
ended methods. Methods like personal interviews, observation, focus groups, case studies,
etc., are used to gather such information. The quality of the information is enhanced by
adding individual experiences. For instance, user interviews can be taken to understand
how user-friendly particular software is. So option (d) is answer.
< TOP >
27. Answer : (b)
Reason : Aggregated information provides details about all entities in a group where as Detailed
information provides information of only a particular entity in a group. So option (b) is
answer.
< TOP >
28. Answer : (a)
Reason : A modem is a device that converts digital signals from input/output devices into
appropriate frequencies at a transmission terminal and converts them back into digital
signals at a recurring terminal. A multiplexer merges the transmissions of several
terminals at one end of a communications channel, while a similar unit separates the
individual transmissions at the receiving end. A router interconnects networks based on
different rules or protocols, so that the message can be routed to its destination. Hubs
provide automatic switching among connections called ports for shared access to a
network resource. Gateways interconnect the networks that use different communication
architectures. So option (a) is the answer.
< TOP >
29. Answer : (c)
Reason : Impartiality refers to the information which is free from errors and bias. So option (c) is
answer.
< TOP >
30. Answer : (c)
Reason : Errors are not always deliberate and therefore certain measures can be taken to minimize
them. Some of the measures to overcome errors are:
• internal controls
• internal audit and external audit
• additional parameters that state the level of confidence with regard to the accuracy
of information
• instructions pertaining to measurement and processing of information
The first two measures can be used to reduce the uncertainty of information while the last
two ascertain the credibility of the information.
So option (c) is answer.
< TOP >
31. Answer : (d)
Reason : Concept is basically a feature or a characteristic that is shared among a group of items,
ideas or entities. So option (d) is answer.
< TOP >
32. Answer : (c)
Reason : The World Wide Web is a system of Internet servers that support specially formatted
documents. Documents are formatted in a script called Hyper Text Markup Language
(HTML) that supports links to other documents, as well as graphics, audio and video files.
FTP is a protocol is used for transferring files over the internet. HTML is not a protocol.
So option (c) is answer.
< TOP >
33. Answer : (a)
Reason : IMAP is an acronym for Internet Message Access Protocol. It is like a remote file server
that allows users to retain mail on the server and organize them in folders. So option (a) is
< TOP >
21. answer.
34. Answer : (b)
Reason : Internet paging runs on the background of the user’s computer screen, allowing him or
her to know when friends or colleagues (registered ones) are online. It is also known as
buddy list software. ICQ is a popular Internet paging program. ICQ stands for ‘I Seek
You’. So option (b) is answer.
< TOP >
35. Answer : (e)
Reason : Data conferencing is an interactive way of sharing information among users at different
locations over a network of computers. Application sharing and application viewing are
two terms used in data conferencing. Application sharing is similar to remote control
software. It facilitates sharing of the same computer screen by all participants. So option
(e) is answer.
< TOP >
36. Answer : (b)
Reason : Project management groupware helps project teams work together and keep track of
deadlines. Microsoft Project, Lotus Organizer and CA-Super Project are examples of
project management groupware. These tools not only produce project schedules and
program reports, but also send automatic reminders of due dates for project tasks.
Netscape Collabra, Lotus notes are groupware application used for discussion forums. So
option (b) is answer.
< TOP >
37. Answer : (e)
Reason : Usenet is a collection of user-submitted notes or messages on various subjects that are
posted to servers on a world wide network.
Option (a) is incorrect. Internet Paging, also known as “Buddy List” software, runs on
the background of the user's computer, letting him/her know when his friends or
coworkers (only those who are registered) are online. So, it is not applicable here.
Option (b) is incorrect. Internet Fax is the mechanism of sending faxes through computers
connected over the Internet. So, it is not applicable here.
Option (c) is incorrect. Internet Telephony is the mechanism of carrying out telephonic
conversations over the Internet. So, it is not applicable here.
Option (d) is incorrect. Internet Relay Chat is an Internet service that enables a user to
join chat groups, called channels, and get into real-time text-based conversations. So, it is
not applicable here.
Hence, from above discussion, we can infer that option (e) is correct.
So option (e) is answer.
< TOP >
38. Answer : (d)
Reason : Vertical applications are those that cater to the needs of a particular business function.
They are used to automate the operations of a particular business function. Vertical
applications cater only to the specific function in an organization and therefore, special
programmers or operators are required to carry out these applications. Examples of
vertical applications are accounting software and bill generation software. Horizontal
applications are general-purpose programs that can be used for writing, carrying out
numerical calculations, and data storage. Personal productivity software is a popular
horizontal application that includes word processing, spreadsheets, and special programs
for storing addresses, preparing schedules, etc.
So option (d) is answer.
< TOP >
39. Answer : (a)
Reason : Word wrapping enables the word processing application software to begin a new line and
automatically move words to the next line for justification purposes.
So, from above discussion, we can infer that option (a) is correct.
Options (b), (c), (d) and (e) are all incorrect as they are not the correct terminologies. So
option (a) is the answer.
< TOP >
40. Answer : (c)
Reason : In MS Excel, each worksheet has 256 columns, 65,536 rows. So option ( c) is answer.
< TOP >
41. Answer : (c) < TOP >
22. Reason : Users may work on more than one sheet simultaneously. A user can click on the sheet tab
to switch from one sheet to another. Users can also use CTRL+PgUp and CTRL+PgDn to
move between worksheets. So option (c) is answer.
42. Answer : (c)
Reason : Replication is copying the formula and applying to the range of cells by dragging the
mouse and selecting the cells. Replication saves time. But Replication eliminates
redundancy.
So option (c) is the answer.
< TOP >
43. Answer : (c)
Reason : In a worksheet, the cell (intersection of a row and column) currently being used is called
Active cell. So option (c) is the answer.
< TOP >
44. Answer : (d)
Reason : Users have many options to format cells in a worksheet. Pattern tab allows the user to
add color to the selected cells and change the background style. So option (d) is answer.
< TOP >
45. Answer : (d)
Reason : Character formatting emphasis includes Marking the text bold, Underlining the text,
Italicizing the text. So option ( d) is answer.
< TOP >
46. Answer : (e)
Reason : View, Insert, Data, Tools are options present in MS-Exel. Table option is not present on
the menu bar. So option ( e) is answer.
< TOP >
47. Answer : (e)
Reason : Character is not a data type in MS-Excel. So option (e) is answer.
< TOP >
48. Answer : (b)
Reason : # symbol is displayed in MS-Excel, if a formatted number does not fit into a cell. So
option (b) is answer.
< TOP >
49. Answer : (e)
Reason : In MS-Excel, To consider a number as text, Apostrophe symbol is used. So option (e) is
answer.
< TOP >
50. Answer : (b)
Reason : %, ^, * and /, + and -, & is the correct order of operator precedence. So option ( b) is
answer.
< TOP >
51. Answer : (d)
Reason : In the given sequence only pair (I) and (VI) are correct. Remaining all are incorrect.
I. NOW is a date and time function.
II. FACT is not statistical function, it is infact a mathematical and trigonometric
function.
III. NA is not Text function, it is infact a Information function.
IV. SUBSTITUTE is not Logical function, it is Text function
V. AND is not Text function , it is Logical function
VI. ISLOGICAL is a Information Function.
So option (d) is answer.
< TOP >
52. Answer : (d)
Reason : Implicit value is not part of Answer report. It is a part of sensitivity report. So option (d)
is answer.
< TOP >
53. Answer : (a)
Reason : The effect of decisions for Strategic, Tactical and Operational, with respect to the time
frame, can be represented as >3years, 1-3 years, <1year. So option (a) is the answer.
< TOP >
54. Answer : (d)
Reason : (a) Information documents serve as confirmation or proof to their recipients that certain
transactions have occurred.
< TOP >
23. (b) Action documents are documents that cause the recipients to initiate some action.
(c) Edit reports provide details of errors that have been detected during processing.
Missing data, invalid account numbers, etc. are presented in edit reports.
(d) These documents are designed first to initiate some action and then are returned for
further processing so as to complete the transaction.
Meter-reading card given by the electricity department is a Turnaround Document. This
card is first issued by the electricity department with the customer details. The new
reading is entered on the document when the meter is inspected by a person belonging to
the department. This card is again given to the electricity billing department for the
purpose of calculation of the electricity bill.
(e) Not relevant.
From above discussion, we can say option (d) is answer.
55. Answer : (c)
Reason : (a) Information documents serve as confirmation or proof to their recipients that certain
transactions have occurred.
(b) Action documents are documents that cause the recipients to initiate some action.
(c) Edit reports provide details of errors that have been detected during processing.
Missing data, invalid account numbers, etc. are presented in edit reports.
(d) These documents are designed first to initiate some action and then are returned for
further processing so as to complete the transaction.
(e) Not relevant.
So option (c) is answer.
< TOP >
56. Answer : (d)
Reason : Operational decisions involve large-scale processing of internal data like attendance, daily
cash flows, sales figures, etc. Accuracy and speed are two important aspects considered
while making operational decisions. Data pertaining to market competition would be
processed for taking strategic decisions. Vendor rating is an example of decisions taken at
the tactical level. So option (d) is answer.
< TOP >
57. Answer : (d)
Reason : A personnel record-keeping system keeps track of additions, deletions and other changes
to records in the personnel database. Remaining all options are not relevant. So option (d)
is answer.
< TOP >
58. Answer : (b)
Reason : In batch processing, the information that is gathered is stored but is not processed
instantly. This type of transaction processing involves accumulation of transactions until a
certain set of criteria are satisfied – such as time period (say monthly, quarterly) or
quantity (based on the volume of transactions). So option (b) is an answer.
< TOP >
59. Answer : (d)
Reason : Drilling is not a characteristic of MIS. Remaining all others are characteristics of MIS
(Management Information Systems). So option (d) is the answer.
< TOP >
60. Answer : (b)
Reason : Data analysis systems, a type of DSS (Decision Support Systems) are developed using
simple data processing tools and business rules. These systems rely on comparative
analysis, application of formula and use of algorithm. So option (b) is the answer.
< TOP >
61. Answer : (c)
Reason : Example of Status inquiry systems (a type of Decision Support Systems) is Railway
reservation systems. So option (c) is the answer.
< TOP >
62. Answer : (b)
Reason : (a)End users can make use of what-if analysis to make changes in variable or relationship
amongst variables and observe the changes. What-if analysis is used for analyzing the
various possibilities and deriving an appropriate strategy for each situation.
< TOP >
24. (d) Sensitivity analysis can be considered as a type of what-if-analysis in which the effect
of repeated change in a single variable is examined. This type of analysis is useful when
the user is not sure about the value of a key variable.
(c) Goal seek analysis is the reverse of what-if-analysis. In goal-seek analysis, the target is
fixed and changes are made to the related variable so that the target is achieved.
(b) Optimization analysis is complex extension of goal seek analysis. In optimization
analysis, the target is not fixed. Rather, the target needs to be arrived at after taking into
consideration the constraints involved in achieving the targets. In this analysis, one or
more variables are changed after taking into account the constraints until the best
alternative is found.
(e) Incorrect Answer.
So option (b) is the correct answer.
63. Answer : (c)
Reason : (a)End users can make use of what-if analysis to make changes in variable or relationship
amongst variables and observe the changes. What-if analysis is used for analyzing the
various possibilities and deriving an appropriate strategy for each situation.
(d)Sensitivity analysis can be considered as a type of what-if-analysis in which the effect
of repeated change in a single variable is examined. This type of analysis is useful when
the user is not sure about the value of a key variable.
(c)Goal seek analysis is the reverse of what-if-analysis. In goal-seek analysis, the target is
fixed and changes are made to the related variable so that the target is achieved.
(b) Optimization analysis is a complex extension of goal-seek analysis. In optimization
analysis, the target is not fixed. Rather, the target needs to be arrived at after taking into
consideration the constraints involved in achieving the targets. In this analysis, one or
more variables are changed after taking into account the constraints until the best
alternative is found.
So option (c) is the correct answer.
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64. Answer : (a)
Reason : Managers and other decision makers use MIS to request information at their networked
workstation that supports their decision-making activities. This information takes the form
of periodic, exception, and demand reports and immediate responses to enquiries.
Exception reports are generated only in exceptional situations.
(b) This is the traditional form of providing information to the managers that uses a pre
specified format designed to provide managers with information on a regular basis.
(c) Here, information is available whenever a manager demands it.
(d) Edit report is not the report used by a finance manager who is provided with
information on customers who exceeded their credit limits only.
(e) Push report is not the report used by a finance manager who is provided with
information on customers who exceeded their credit limits only.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
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65. Answer : (c)
Reason : The process of radically changing the design of business process to improve performance
and efficiency is called Business Process Re-engineering. So option (c) is answer.
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66. Answer : (c)
Reason : AI deals with the process of creating such machines which can learn and adapt to
intelligent behaviors that are a characteristic of human beings. It is associated with the
tasks of making machines and programs that are intelligent and making use of these
machines to understand human intelligence. So option (c) is answer.
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67. Answer : (d)
Reason : In OLAP, Slicing and dicing refer to The process of changing the dimension of analysis
to suit the analyst requirements. So option (d) is answer.
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68. Answer : (e)
Reason : Process Control System is a computer system that controls an ongoing physical
manufacturing process. Such a system requires the use of special sensing devices to
measure physical phenomena such as temperature, pressure etc.
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25. Option (a) is incorrect. Computer Aided Design (CAD) is a set of specialized software and
hardware that is used to design products directly on computer terminals. So, it is not
applicable here.
Option (b) is incorrect. Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM) is a specialized computer
system, which translates the CAD information into instructions for automated machines,
so that they perform the necessary production operations. So, it is not applicable here.
Option (c) is incorrect. Manufacturing Resource Planning (MRP II) is an integrated
information system that shares data among and synchronizes the activities of production
and the other functional areas of the business like marketing, finance etc. So, it is not
applicable here.
Option (d) is incorrect. Materials Requirement Planning (MRP) enables the
implementation of the Master Production Schedule by showing time-phased requirements
for releasing and receiving of materials. So, it is not applicable here.
Hence, from above discussion, we can infer that option (e) is correct.
So option (e) is answer.
69. Answer : (b)
Reason : An On Page Connector in a flowchart is used to connect different parts of the program
flow charts. So option (b) is the answer.
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70. Answer : (d)
Reason : All the alternatives except (d) are the advantages of using a flow chart. There are no
standards determining the amount of detail that should be included in a flow chart. So
option (d) is answer.
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71. Answer : (e)
Reason : Except (e) all other statements are true. Converting a pseudocode to a programming
language is much easier when compared to converting a flow chart or a decision table.
Less time and effort are required to write a pseudocode than for drawing a flow chart. It is
easier to modify the pseudocode of program logic when program modifications are
necessary. There are no standard rules to follow while using a pseudocode. For a beginner,
it is difficult to follow the logic of or write a pseudocode, as compared to flow chart. So
option (e) is the answer.
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72. Answer : (d)
Reason : Following is the correct order of program development lifecycle.
(i) Defining the problem.
(ii) Designing the program.
(iii) Coding the program.
(iv) Testing and debugging the program.
(v) Formalizing the solution.
(vi) Maintaining the program.
So option (d) is answer.
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73. Answer : (d)
Reason : Pie charts are used to compare the parts of a whole. So pie charts are useful for
Mr.Sudhakar, if he wants to compare the population of Hyderabad with the population of
Andhra Pradesh. So option (d) is correct answer.
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74. Answer : (d)
Reason : ‘Switch’ statement are used to check for multiple values of variables.
For loop is used to perform a task a specific number of times on the basis of the condition
‘Nested If’ statements are used to check the conditions within another condition.
‘If’ statements are used to transfer control on the basis of certain conditions.
So option (d) is answer.
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75. Answer : (a)
Reason : VB is the most successful Rapid Application Development tool (RAD) for Microsoft
Windows application. So option (a) is answer.
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76. Answer : (e)
Reason : FOCUS, NATURAL are fourth generation languages. Prolog is a fifth generation
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26. language. So option (e) is answer.
77. Answer : (e)
Reason : An application generator is a type of language designed to facilitate development of a
complete application. It includes defining input transactions, editing transactions, creating
a database, updating files, generating reports and processing queries. They drastically
reduce the time required for programming and testing. Application generators are easy to
use than other high-level programming languages such as C++. So option ( e) is answer.
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78. Answer : (d)
Reason : JVM (Java Virtual machine) provides a layer of abstraction between the compiled
program and the underlying hardware platform and operating system. Remaining all are
not relevant. So option (d) is answer.
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79. Answer : (d)
Reason : Inheritance refers to the process by which one object acquires the general properties such
as the conditions and actions of other objects.
(e) Class constitutes a set of objects that share a common structure and behavior.
(b) Abstraction refers to the process of hiding the complexity and internal functionality of
objects.
(a) Encapsulation binds together the code and the data it manipulates.
(c) Polymorphism is the property of a function by which it can exhibit different behaviors
based on different input values.
So option (d) is answer.
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80. Answer : (a)
Reason : In object-oriented programming, the process of binding data and functions in a single unit
is called Encapsulation. So option (a) is answer.
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81. Answer : (c)
Reason : (b) represents the addition of descriptive Comments or explanatory notes as
clarification.
(d) represents an entry to or exit from another part of the program flow
chart.
(c) represents programming logic that is defined else where.
(e) represents entry to exit from the page.
(a) represents beginning and ending points of a program.
So option ( c) is answer.
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82. Answer : (a)
Reason : ‘ENIAC’ (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator) was the first electronic
computer developed at the Moore School of Engineering. So option (a) is the answer.
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83. Answer : (b)
Reason : The Overall Design of the database is called as Schema which includes physical schema,
logical schema and subschemas. So option (b) is the answer.
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84. Answer : (e)
Reason : Cardinality refers to the actual number of associated instances for each of the two
entities.
So option (e) is the answer.
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85. Answer : (c)
Reason : Tuple in Relational model is also known as Entity instance in E-R model . So option (c)
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27. is answer.
86. Answer : (e)
Reason : All primary keys are unique. Both (II) and (III) are false regarding primary key. So option
(e) is the answer.
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87. Answer : (b)
Reason : There are no repeating groups. So the relation is in First Normal Form. There is no partial
dependency. It is not in Third Normal Form because customer, sales person and zone are
dependent. However there is a transitive dependence between salesperson and zone filed.
So Ist and IIrd statements are correct. So option (b) is answer.
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88. Answer : (c)
Reason : A functional dependency between two or more non-key attributes is called transitive
dependency. So option (c) is answer.
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89. Answer : (b)
Reason : Selects the salesperson field from the salesdetails table for each row with a state ‘RJ’. So
option (b) is answer.
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90. Answer : (b)
Reason : The relationship between DEPARTMENT and EMPLOYEE is a one-to-many
relationship. So option (b) is answer.
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91. Answer : (a)
Reason : The first network model developed by GE in the mid-1960s and was called. Integrated
Data Store (IDS). So option (a) is answer.
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92. Answer : (d)
Reason : Unifying Model and Frame Memory Model are Physical Data models. Entity-relationship
Model comes under Object-based Logical model. So option (d) is answer.
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93. Answer : (e)
Reason : Hashed File Organization is used when rapid access is required and fixed length records
are used. So option (e) is answer.
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94. Answer : (a)
Reason : In Pile File Organization exhaustive search is required to access the records. So option (a)
is answer.
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95. Answer : (b)
Reason : Data independence refers to the storage of data in such a way that it is not affected by
modification in data structure (or) changes in the application program. So option (b) is
answer.
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96. Answer : (d)
Reason : Database Administrator is responsible for back up and recovery of a database. So option
(d) is answer.
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97. Answer : (b)
Reason : An Example of logical level abstraction is Programming logic. An Example of physical
level abstraction is Machine level programming. An example of view level abstraction is
Application used by the end users. So option (b) is answer.
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98. Answer : (a)
Reason : An entity is a ‘thing’ or ‘object’ play a role with respect to a request for an operation. The
request invokes the operation that defines some action performed objects have their own
state, behavior and relationship. E.g., Telephone. So option (a) is the correct answer.
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99. Answer : (a)
Reason : In a hierarchical model data and relationships among data are represented by records and
links. These records are organized as collection of trees. So option (a) is answer.
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100. Answer : (b)
Reason : Computer-Aided Software Engineering usually involves software packages that assist the
software developers to perform many of the activities of the systems development cycle.
It stores data required by software developers pertaining to source code, dependencies
among software modules, definitions and uses of variables.
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28. < TOP OF THE DOCUMENT >
Hence, from above discussion, we can infer that option (b) is correct