For more course tutorials visit uophelp.com is now newtonhelp.com www.newtonhelp.com MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 5 1) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics. A. motivation. B. workgroup analysis. C. performance management. D. organizational behavior.

1. MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 5
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MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 5
1) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and
group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics.
A.
motivation.
B.
workgroup analysis.
C.
performance management.
D.
organizational behavior.

2. 2) Scientific methods models link _________________ - presumed causes, with
_________________ - outcomes, of practical value and interest.
A.
specific variables, contingency variables.
B.
discovered variables, with undisclosed variables.
C.
proven variables, non-proven variables.
D.
independent variables, dependent variables.
3) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the
following EXCEPT:
A.
an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.
B.
contingency thinking.
C.
use of scientific methods.
D.
an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task.

3. 4) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the
level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and
can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.
A.
observable culture
B.
common culture
C.
implicit culture
D.
shared values
5) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________.
A.
shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission.
B.
explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions.
C.
observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions.
D.
implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences.
6) Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories,
rites, rituals, and sagas.

4. A.
visible aspects
B.
oral aspects
C.
verbal aspects
D.
vocal aspects
7) According to the research conducted on the nature of managerial work, which of
the following is false?
A.
managers work at fragmented and varied tasks.
B.
managers work with many communication media.
C.
managers work long hours.
D.
managers spend much time working alone.
8) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major
factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon.
A.

5. True
B.
False
9) When it comes to ethics and morality, scholar Archie B. Carroll draws a distinction
between __________.
A.
immoral managers, amoral managers and ethical managers
B.
amoral managers, ethical managers and moral managers
C.
immoral managers, ethical managers and unethical managers
D.
immoral managers, amoral managers and moral managers
10) __________ are important to spot since non-verbals can add insight into what is
really being said in face-to-face communication.
A.
Mangled messages.
B.
Merged messages.
C.
Mixed messages.
D.

6. Perceptual distractions.
11) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with
respect to __________.
A.
geographic differences
B.
lifestyle differences
C.
language differences
D.
religious differences
12) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural
communication is NOT correct?
A.
Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written
word.
B.
In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or
interpreted from the context, which includes body language, the physical setting and
past relationships.
C.
In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses,
with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the words are spoken.

7. D.
Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.
13) Each of the following is a characteristic of high-performance teams EXCEPT:
A.
high-performance teams have strong core values.
B.
members of high-performance teams have the right mix of skills.
C.
high-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance
objectives.
D.
high-performance teams have members who focus on individual effort and excellence.
14) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their
purpose has been fulfilled.
A.
Teams that recommend things.
B.
Teams that review things.
C.
Teams that run things.
D.
Teams that study things.

8. 15) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit
composed of a team leader and team members to the top management team composed
of a CEO and other senior executives.
A.
Teams that review things.
B.
Teams that make or do things.
C.
Teams that run things.
D.
Teams that evaluate things.
16) Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by
saying: “I don’t want to get in the middle of your personal disputes.” This manager is
using which conflict management style?
A.
avoidance
B.
unassertive
C.
authoritative command
D.
accommodation

9. 17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She
goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila
uses which conflict management style?
A.
competition
B.
compromise
C.
collaboration
D.
accommodation
18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict
situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of
harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?
A.
accommodation
B.
compromise
C.
competition
D.
avoidance

10. 19) Process theories focus on _________________.
A.
when a person will react to specific management styles.
B.
who will be a more appropriate manager for an employee.
C.
why a person decides to behave in a certain way relative to available rewards and
work opportunities.
D.
how a person will respond to types of leadership direction.
20) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.
A.
perceptions on-the-job.
B.
pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.
C.
the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.
D.
the relationship between values and attitudes.

11. 21) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________.
A.
an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives.
B.
the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
C.
the amount of effort a person puts forth.
D.
the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
22) Unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the
great advantages of high-performance organizations.
A.
True
B.
False
23) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance
difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development.
A.
True
B.
False

12. 24) Which of the following statements about heterogeneous teams is not accurate?
A.
research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance
difficulties early in the team’s life or stage of development.
B.
unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great
advantages of high-performance organizations.
C.
diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help
improve team problem solving and increase creativity.
D.
heterogeneous teams have members who are diverse in demography, experiences, life
styles, and cultures, among other variables.
25) Job burnout manifests itself as a loss of interest in and satisfaction with a job due
to stressful working conditions.
A.
True
B.
False
26) Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are
experiencing personal problems and the stress associated with them.
A.

13. True
B.
False
27) Stress is a potential source of both anxiety and frustration, which can harm the
body’s physiological and psychological well-being over time.
A.
True
B.
False
28) In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system
of authority. Which of the following statements about legitimacy regarding power is
NOT correct?
A.
in firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as
representatives for various constituencies.
B.
senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating
themselves from stockholders.
C.
in other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational
reference but consists of those with moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious
leaders, etc.
D.

14. in U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate
pyramid.
29) Directives falling within the zone of indifference are __________.
A.
obeyed.
B.
subjected to severe scrutiny.
C.
rejected.
D.
subjected to slight scrutiny.
30) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description
of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?
A.
the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the
“learner” to the maximum level of shock and the remaining 65 percent refused to obey
the experimenter at various intermediate points.
B.
the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to
comply with and be obedient to authority.
C.
experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively
higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed the word pairs

15. D.
Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people
obey the commands of an authority figure, even if they believe they are endangering
the life of another person.
31) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance
standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making
sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.
A.
True
B.
False
32) A high-performing team can be created by ensuring that new information is kept
to a minimum and by giving negative feedback.
A.
True
B.
False
33) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes
and behaviors in directions consistent with the team’s purpose.
A.
True

16. B.
False
34) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:
A.
charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven.
B.
implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.
C.
autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.
D.
self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.
35) _________________ is often used in combination with vertical leadership.
A.
shared leadership
B.
individual leadership
C.
organizational goal setting
D.
power negotiation

17. 36) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true
EXCEPT:
A.
C. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by
organizations.
B.
D. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general
leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized
today.
C.
B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership
Questionnaire.
D.
A. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three
transactional one non-transactional factor.
37) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the boiled frog phenomenon, wherein
managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense
the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their
competitive edge.
A.
True
B.
False

18. 38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to
monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for
change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.
A.
impatience trap
B.
immobility trap
C.
proactive phenomenon
D.
boiled frog phenomenon
39) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt
for a more __________ form.
A.
mechanistic
B.
organic
C.
centralized
D.
bureaucratic