The document comprises a guide for a final exam in management, focusing on organizational behavior, cultural analysis, conflict management styles, motivation theories, and team dynamics. It includes a series of questions and answers related to these topics, highlighting the importance of interdisciplinary knowledge in understanding individual and group behaviors within organizations. Key concepts addressed include ethics in management, communication barriers in cross-cultural settings, and the characteristics of high-performance teams.

1. MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 3
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MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 3
•1) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. use of scientific methods.
B. contingency thinking.
C. an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.
D. an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task.
2) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and
group behavior, interpersonal processes, and
organizational dynamics.
A. performance management.
B. workgroup analysis.
C. motivation.
D. organizational behavior.

2. 3) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of knowledge with strong ties
to all of the following disciplines EXCEPT:
A. sociology.
B. anthropology.
C. physics.
D. psychology.
4) Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and coherent set of
__________. Although every member may not agree with
them, all members will know they are important.
A. common perceptions
B. shared values
C. implicit needs
D. observable attitudes
5) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________.
A. observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions.
B. explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions.
C. shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission.
D. implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences.
6) Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories,
rites, rituals, and sagas.
A. verbal aspects

3. B. oral aspects
C. visible aspects
D. vocal aspects
7) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major
factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon.
A. False
B. True
8) Common forms of unintentional ethics lapses that individuals should guard against
include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. favoring others who can benefit someone.
B. promoting people who excel in their respective positions.
C. claiming too much personal credit for one's performance contributions.
D. prejudice that derives from unconscious stereotypes and attitudes.
9) When it comes to ethics and morality, scholar Archie B. Carroll draws a distinction
between __________.
A. immoral managers, amoral managers and ethical managers
B. amoral managers, ethical managers and moral managers
C. immoral managers, ethical managers and unethical managers
D. immoral managers, amoral managers and moral managers
10) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with
respect to __________.
A. geographic differences

4. B. lifestyle differences
C. language differences
D. religious differences
11) There are six sources of noise that are common to most interpersonal exchanges.
These six sources are __________.
A. semantic problems, proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural differences,
absence of planning, and status effects.
B. tangible distractions, people problems, inconsistent messages, cultural differences,
absence of prior planning, and absence of feedback.
C. cultural differences, physical distractions, semantic problems, mixed messages,
absence of feedback, and status effects.
D. mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of feedback, proximity problems,
absence of commitment to effective communication, and
status effects.
12) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural
communication is NOT correct?
A. Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written
word.
B. In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or
interpreted from the context, which includes body
language, the physical setting and past relationships.
C. In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone
uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which the

5. words are spoken.
D. Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.
13) Members of __________ must have good long-term working relationships with
one another, solid operating systems, and the external
support needed to achieve effectiveness over a sustained period of time.
A. teams that plan things.
B. teams that review things.
C. teams that reengineer things.
D. teams that make or do things.
14) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit
composed of a team leader and team members to the
top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.
A. Teams that review things.
B. Teams that make or do things.
C. Teams that run things.
D. Teams that evaluate things.
15) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their
purpose has been fulfilled.
A. Teams that recommend things.
B. Teams that review things.
C. Teams that run things.

6. D. Teams that study things.
16) Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to partially satisfy both his
concerns and the other party's concerns through
bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which conflict management style?
A. avoidance
B. collaboration
C. accommodation
D. compromise
17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She
goes against the wishes of others and uses her
authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style?
A. competition
B. compromise
C. collaboration
D. accommodation
18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict
situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it
only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict
management style?
A. avoidance

7. B. compromise
C. competition
D. accommodation
19) In the context of motivation, level refers to __________.
A. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
B. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
D. the consequences of an individual's behavior.
20) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.
A. perceptions on-the-job.
B. the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.
C. the relationship between values and attitudes.
D. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.
21) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________.
A. an individual's choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives.
B. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
D. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
22) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues,
they are also likely to develop enhanced performance

8. potential once things are worked out.
A. True
B. False
23) In general, chances for long-term group success are better when the group input
foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources;
technology; membership diversity; and group size – are stronger.
A. True
B. False
24) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance
difficulties early in the team's life or stage of
development.
A. True
B. False
25) Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance.
A. True
B. False
26) Wellness involves maintaining physical and mental health to better deal with
stress when it occurs.
A. True
B. False

9. 27) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing extraordinary
demands, constraints, or opportunities.
A. True
B. False
28) Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which people
__________.
A. are willing to use coercive power to gain influence.
B. obey the commands of an authority figure.
C. learn from personal failures.
D. are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert power.
29) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description
of Stanley Milgram's experiments?
A. the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the
“learner” to the maximum level of shock and the
remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.
B. experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively
higher levels of electric shocks to people who missed
the word pairs
C. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people
obey the commands of an authority figure, even if
they believe they are endangering the life of another person.

10. D. the basic conclusion of Milgram's studies is there is a tendency for individuals to
comply with and be obedient to authority.
30) Which of the following statements about power and organizational politics is NOT
correct?
A. power and politics always exist in organizations.
B. managers derive their power from personal and organizational sources.
C. power and politics represent the seamy side of management, since organizations are
not democracies composed of individuals with
equal influence.
D. few instances exist where individual and organizational interests are compatible.
31) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes
and behaviors in directions consistent with the team's
purpose.
A. True
B. False
32) High-performance teams have special characteristics that allow them to excel at
teamwork and achieve special performance
advantages.
A. True
B. False

11. 33) A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create early successes,
establishing clear rules for team behavior, setting the
tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader, modeling expected behaviors.
A. True
B. False
34) _________________ is often used in combination with vertical leadership.
A. shared leadership
B. organizational goal setting
C. power negotiation
D. individual leadership
35) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true
EXCEPT:
A. C. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by
organizations.
B. B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass' Multifactor Leadership
Questionnaire.
C. A. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational,
three transactional one non-transactional factor.
D. D. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general
leadership model that would trim or eliminate the
numerous models now emphasized today.
36) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:

12. A. charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven.
B. autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.
C. self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.
D. implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.
37) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to
co-evolve by altering their environments.
A. management of networks… influence of governments
B. use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments
C. management of networks…development of alliances
D. influence of governments…development of alliances
38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to
monitor their environments, recognize the important
trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose
their competitive edge.
A. impatience trap
B. boiled frog phenomenon
C. proactive phenomenon
D. immobility trap
39) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt
for a more __________ form.
A. mechanistic
B. bureaucratic

13. C. centralized
D. organic
1) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. use of scientific methods.
B. an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task.
C. an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.
D. contingency thinking.
2) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and
group behavior, interpersonal processes, and organizational dynamics.
A. performance management.
B. organizational behavior.
C. motivation.
D. workgroup analysis.
3) Which of the following statements about organizational behavior is NOT accurate?
A. organizational behavior seeks to improve the quality of work life.
B. organizational behavior has strong ties to the behavioral sciences and allied
social sciences.

14. C. organizational behavior is divorced from the disciplines of political science and
economics.
D. organizational behavior seeks to improve the performance of people, groups,
and organizations.
4) The __________ culture includes the unique stories, ceremonies, and corporate
rituals that make up the history of the firm or a group within it.
A. common
B. latent
C. shared
D. observable
5) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________.
A. observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions.
B. implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences.
C. shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission.
D. explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions.
6) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the
level referred to as __________ can play a critical part in linking people together and
can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the culture.
A. implicit culture
B. shared values
C. observable culture

15. D. common culture
7) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major
factors and forces underlying real-world phenomenon.
A. True
B. False
8) According to the research conducted on the nature of managerial work, which of
the following is false?
A. managers spend much time working alone.
B. managers work with many communication media.
C. managers work at fragmented and varied tasks.
D. managers work long hours.
9) Common forms of unintentional ethics lapses that individuals should guard against
include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. favoring others who can benefit someone.
B. promoting people who excel in their respective positions.
C. prejudice that derives from unconscious stereotypes and attitudes.
D. claiming too much personal credit for one’s performance contributions.

16. 10) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with
respect to __________.
A. religious differences
B. lifestyle differences
C. geographic differences
D. language differences
11) Which of the following statements about cross-cultural communication is NOT
accurate?
A. gestures mean basically the same thing in various cultures of the world.
B. people must always exercise caution when communicating with people of
different national cultures.
C. people must always exercise caution when communicating with people of
different geographical or ethnic groupings within one country.
D. ethnocentrism can easily create communication problems among people of
diverse backgrounds.
12) ________ is often accompanied by an unwillingness to understand alternative
points of view and to take the values they represent seriously.
A. Kinesics
B. Self importance
C. Ethnocentrism
D. Proxemics

17. 13) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their
purpose has been fulfilled.
A. Teams that study things.
B. Teams that review things.
C. Teams that recommend things.
D. Teams that run things.
14) All of these actions can be used to help create a high-performing team EXCEPT:
A. find ways to create early “success.”
B. having members spend time together.
C. giving negative feedback.
D. setting the tone in the first team meeting.
15) Members of __________ must have good long-term working relationships with
one another, solid operating systems, and the external support needed to achieve
effectiveness over a sustained period of time.
A. teams that make or do things.
B. teams that review things.
C. teams that plan things.
D. teams that reengineer things.

18. 16) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She
goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila
uses which conflict management style?
A. accommodation
B. collaboration
C. compromise
D. competition
17) The conflict management style of __________involves being cooperative and
unassertive. This style is characterized by letting the wishes of others rule, and
smoothing over or overlooking differences to maintain harmony.
A. completion
B. accommodation
C. collaboration
D. avoidance
18) The conflict management style of __________ involves being both cooperative
and assertive. This style is characterized by trying to fully satisfy everyone’s concerns
by working through differences and finding and solving problems so that everyone
gains.
A. compromise
B. accommodation
C. collaboration
D. avoidance

19. 19) Process theories focus on _________________.
A. when a person will react to specific management styles.
B. why a person decides to behave in a certain way relative to available rewards
and work opportunities.
C. who will be a more appropriate manager for an employee.
D. how a person will respond to types of leadership direction.
20) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________.
A. an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives.
B. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
C. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
D. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
21) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.
A. perceptions on-the-job.
B. the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.
C. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.
D. the relationship between values and attitudes.
22) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to resolve issues,
they are also likely to develop enhanced performance potential once things are worked
out.

20. A. True
B. False
23) Unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the
great advantages of high-performance organizations.
A. True
B. False
24) In general, chances for long-term group success are better when the group input
foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources; technology; membership diversity;
and group size – are stronger.
A. True
B. False
25) Job burnout manifests itself as a loss of interest in and satisfaction with a job due
to stressful working conditions.
A. True
B. False
26) Stress is a potential source of both anxiety and frustration, which can harm the
body’s physiological and psychological well-being over time.

21. A. True
B. False
27) Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are
experiencing personal problems and the stress associated with them.
A. True
B. False
28) Which of the following statements about power and organizational politics is NOT
correct?
A. power and politics always exist in organizations.
B. managers derive their power from personal and organizational sources.
C. few instances exist where individual and organizational interests are
compatible.
D. power and politics represent the seamy side of management, since
organizations are not democracies composed of individuals with equal influence.
29) Directives falling within the zone of indifference are __________.
A. obeyed.
B. rejected.
C. subjected to severe scrutiny.
D. subjected to slight scrutiny.

22. 30) The essence of power is __________
A. control over the behavior of others.
B. a distinguished reputation.
C. having a Machiavellian personality.
D. personal desire.
31) High-performance teams have special characteristics that allow them to excel at
teamwork and achieve special performance advantages.
A. True
B. False
32) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance
standards, having members spend time together, creating a sense of urgency, making
sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.
A. True
B. False
33) A high-performing team can be created by ensuring that new information is kept
to a minimum and by giving negative feedback.
A. True
B. False
C. [Answer Text]

23. 34) All of the following statements about shared leaderships are correct EXCEPT:
A. leadership is restricted among a set of individuals who act in the role of a
superior.
B. the influence process often involves peer or lateral influence.
C. the key distinction between shared leadership and traditional models of
leadership is that the influence process involves more than just downward influence
on subordinates by an appointed or elective e leader.
D. leadership today is not restricted simply to the vertical influence of a single
individual but to other people as well.
35) Behavior strategies include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. self accomplishment
B. self goal setting
C. self reward
D. self observation
36) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true
EXCEPT:
A. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by
organizations.
B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership
Questionnaire.

24. C. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general
leadership model that would trim or eliminate the numerous models now emphasized
today.
D. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational,
three transactional one non-transactional factor.
37) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in which firms learn to
co-evolve by altering their environments.
A. use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments
B. influence of governments…development of alliances
C. management of networks…development of alliances
D. management of networks… influence of governments
38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to
monitor their environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for
change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.
A. boiled frog phenomenon
B. immobility trap
C. proactive phenomenon
D. impatience trap
39) One of the foremost trends in management involves using information technology
to streamline operations and reduce staff in order to lower costs and raise productivity.

25. A. True
B. False