CIS 210 Week 11 Final Exam Study Guide

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Chapters 7 Through 12
Chapter 7 – Development Strategies
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Although the traditional model of software acquisition still accounts for more software
acquisition, a new model, called ____, is changing the picture dramatically.
a. Hardware as a Help c. Processing as a Product
b. Software as a Service d. Storage as a Solution
2. ____ is a model of software deployment where an application is hosted as a service
provided to customers over the Internet.
3. ____ reduces the customer's need for software maintenance, operation, and support.
4. ____ promotes a broader vision of Software + Services, which refers to the company's
strategy for cloud computing -- integrating software applications, platforms, and
infrastructure.
a. Oracle c. IBM
b. Hewlett-Packard d. Microsoft
5. Gartner, Inc. predicts that by 2015 SaaS revenue will grow to ____.
a. $7.1 billion c. $14.5 billion
b. $8.6 billion d. $22.1 billion
6. Microsoft’s ____ is one of the major Web-based development environments.

a. WebSphere c. NetSphere
b. .NET d. .WEB
7. Building an application in a ____ environment can offer greater benefits, and sometimes
greater risks, compared to a traditional environment.
a. GUI c. cloud
b. Web-based d. multinational
8. Web-based software usually requires additional layers, called ____, to communicate with
existing software and legacy systems.
a. freeware c. middleware
b. shareware d. public domain software
9. When companies acquire Web-based software as a(n) ____, they can limit in-house
involvement to a minimum.
a. product c. service
b. value-add d. outsource
10. Some industry leaders predict that ____ computing will offer an overall online software
and data environment supported by supercomputer technology.
a. interpolated c. outsourced
b. mainframe d. cloud
11. ____ is the transfer of information systems development, operation, or maintenance to an
outside firm that provides these services, for a fee, on a temporary or long-term basis.
a. Outsourcing c. Subscription
b. Commission d. External provision
12. A firm that offers outsourcing solutions is called a ____ provider.
a. subscription c. service
b. software d. resource
13. Oracle Corporation offers a service called ____, which provides e-business applications on
a fixed fee basis.

a. WebSphere c. Business Process Outsourcing
b. .NET d. Oracle On Demand
14. Outsourcing a basic business process is often called ____.
a. RFO c. BPO
b. TFO d. TCO
15. The ____ environment enhances interactive experiences, including wikis and blogs, and
social networking applications.
a. outsourcing c. Web 2.0
b. SaaS d. Web 3.0
16. Some ____ providers concentrate on specific software applications; others offer resources
like order processing and customer billing.
a. subscription c. service
b. software d. resource
17. A(n) ____ is a firm that delivers a software application, or access to an application, by
charging a usage or subscription fee.
a. ASP c. ISP
b. OSP d. USP
18. Some firms offer ____, which provide powerful Web-based support for transactions such
as order processing, billing, and customer relationship management.
a. ASP c. fixed usage
b. IBS d. fixed-fee transfer
19. When determining outsourcing fees, a ____ uses a set fee based on a specified level of
service and user support.
a. fixed fee model c. subscription model
b. usage model d. transaction model
20. When determining outsourcing fees, a ____ has a variable fee based on the number of
users or workstations that have access to the application.

a. fixed fee model c. subscription model
b. usage model d. transaction model
21. A(n) ____ model is an outsourcing fee model that charges a variable fee based on the
volume of transactions or operations performed by the application.
a. method c. transaction
b. administrative d. interpolated
22. The choice between developing versus purchasing software often is called a ____
decision.
a. build or make c. transactional
b. subscription d. build or buy
23. The software that a company’s IT department makes, builds, and develops is called ____
software.
a. in-house c. external
b. internal d. indexed
24. A software ____ is software that is obtained from a vendor or application service provider.
a. package c. subscription
b. cluster d. aggregate
25. Companies that develop software for sale are called software ____.
a. VARs c. vendors
b. resellers d. packages
26. A firm that enhances a commercial package by adding custom features and configuring it
for a particular industry is called a(n) ____.
a. BRE c. OSP
b. IRH d. VAR
27. Typically, companies choose in-house software development for all of the following
reasons EXCEPT to ____.
a. minimize changes in business procedures and policies

b. meet constraints of existing systems and existing technology
c. develop internal resources and capabilities
d. obtain input from other companies who already have implemented the software
28. Advantages of purchasing a software package over developing software in-house include
all of the following EXCEPT ____.
a. satisfaction of unique business requirements
b. lower costs and less time to implement
c. proven reliability and performance benchmarks
d. less technical development staff
29. Buyers can customize a software package by ____.
a. negotiating directly with the software vendor to make enhancements to meet the
buyer’s needs by paying for the changes
b. purchasing a basic package that vendors will customize to suit the buyer’s needs
c. purchasing the software and making their own modifications, if this is permissible
under the terms of the software license
d. all of the above
30. A user ____ utilizes standard business software, such as Microsoft Word or Microsoft
Excel, which has been configured in a specific manner to enhance user productivity.
a. application c. interface
b. configuration d. interpolation
31. In addition to configuring software, the IT staff can create a user ____, which includes
screens, commands, controls, and features that enable users to interact more effectively
with the application.
a. montage c. interface
b. index d. package
32. Some data files should be hidden totally from view, while others should have ____ so
users can view, but not change, the data.
a. no-access properties c. full-access properties
b. read-only properties d. write-only properties
33. The ____ team must include users, who will participate in the selection process and feel a

sense of ownership in the new system.
a. prototyping c. JAD
b. evaluation and selection d. assessment
34. Nearly ____ percent of total costs occur after the purchase of hardware and software.
a. 15 c. 80
b. 45 d. 95
35. A ____ is a document that describes a company, lists the IT services or products needed,
and specifies the features required.
a. request for quotation (RFQ) c. request for proposal (RFP)
b. net present value (NPV) d. return on investment (ROI)
36. When companies use a ____, they already know the specific products or service they want
and need to obtain price quotations or bids from vendors.
a. request for quotation (RFQ) c. request for proposal (RFP)
b. net present value (NPV) d. return on investment (ROI)
37. Many IT ____ offer specialized services that help companies select software packages.
a. proxies c. consultants
b. forums d. managers
38. ____ is an example of a nonprofit organization that publishes standards and reports for its
members and the general public.
a. IEEE c. The TPC
b. RFP d. Oracle
39. A ____ measures the time a package takes to process a certain number of transactions.
a. newsgroup c. benchmark
b. parameter d. default
40. When planning a slide presentation to management at the end of the systems analysis
phase, systems analysts should keep all of the following suggestions in mind EXCEPT
____.

a. summarize the primary viable alternatives
b. ignore time for discussion and questions and answers
c. explain why the evaluation and selection team chose the recommended alternative
d. obtain a final decision or agree on a timetable for the next step in the process
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
Modified Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following is true of a traditional systems development environment?
a. systems design is influenced by compatibility issues
b. systems are designed to run on local and wide-area company networks
c. systems often utilize Internet links and resources
d. scalability is not affected by network limitations and constraints
2. Which of the following is a path that development can follow?
a. in-house development
b. construct a legacy system
c. purchase of a software package with possible modification
d. use of outside consultants
3. Which of the following is true of Web-based development?
a. Web-based systems are easily scalable.
b. Large firms tend to deploy Web-based systems as enterprise-wide software solutions
for applications such as customer relationship management and order processing.
c. Internet-based development treats the Web as a communication channel, rather than as
the platform.
d. Systems are developed and delivered in an Internet-based framework.
4. Which of the following is true of Web-based development?
a. Web-based software treats the software as a service that is more dependent on desktop
computing powers and resources.
b. Web-based software usually requires middleware to communicate with existing
software and legacy systems.
c. Web-based systems can run on multiple hardware environments.
d. When companies acquire Web-based software as a service rather than a product they
purchase, they can limit in-house involvement to a minimum.

5. Outsourcing can refer to ____.
a. relatively minor programming tasks
b. the rental of software from a service provider
c. the handling of a company’s entire IT function
d. BPO
MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE
1. An ASP provides more than a license to use the software; it rents an operational package
to the customer. _________________________
2. A software package that can be used by many different types of organizations is called a
vertical application. _________________________
3. A software package developed to handle information requirements for a specific type of
business is called a horizontal application. _________________________
4. Net present value is a percentage rate that compares the total net benefits (the return)
received from a project to the total costs (the investment) of the project.
_________________________
5. The ROI of a project is the total value of the benefits minus the total value of the costs,
with both costs and benefits adjusted to reflect the point at which they occur.
_________________________
TRUE/FALSE
1. Typically, customers purchase licenses that give them the right to use the software under
the terms of the license agreement.
2. Building an application in a Web-based environment might involve greater risks and
benefits, compared to a traditional environment.
3. In a traditional systems development environment, security issues usually are less complex
than with Web-based systems, because the system operates on a private company network,
rather than the Internet.

4. Mission-critical IT systems should be outsourced only if the result is a cost-attractive,
reliable, business solution that fits the company’s long-term business strategy.
5. A subscription model charges a variable fee based on the volume of transactions or
operations performed by the application.
6. A company considering outsourcing must realize that the solution can be only as good as
the outsourcing firm that provides the service.
7. Mergers and acquisitions typically have no impact on clients and customers of large,
financially healthy firms.
8. The main reason for offshore outsourcing is the same as domestic outsourcing: lower
bottom-line costs.
9. By designing a system in-house, companies can develop and train an IT staff that
understands the organization’s business functions and information support needs.
10. Compared to software developed in-house, a software package almost always is more
expensive, particularly in terms of initial investment.
11. Many firms feel that in-house IT resources and capabilities provide a competitive
advantage because an in-house team can respond quickly when business problems or
opportunities arise.
12. Companies that use commercial software packages always must increase the number of
programmers and systems analysts on the IT staff.
13. Software vendors regularly upgrade software packages by adding improvements and
enhancements to create a new version or release.
14. Empowerment makes an IT department less productive because it must spend more time
responding to the daily concerns of users and less time on high-impact systems
development projects that support strategic business goals.
15. The decision to develop software in-house will require less participation from the systems
analyst than outsourcing or choosing a commercial package.

16. The primary objective of an evaluation and selection team is to eliminate system
alternatives that will not work, rank the system alternatives that will work, and present the
viable alternatives to management for a final decision.
17. A request for quotation (RFQ) is less specific than an RFP (request for proposal).
18. A standard method exists for assigning the weight factors in the evaluation of responses to
an RFP.
19. Some vendors limit their reference lists to satisfied clients, so you can expect mostly
positive feedback from those firms.
20. Benchmark tests must precisely match the day-to-day situation at your company.
21. For large-scale systems, license agreement terms can be negotiated.
22. For desktop applications, software license terms and conditions usually can be modified.
23. If a purchased package will be used without modification, you can begin planning the
systems implementation phase upon its purchase.
24. Whereas the logical design of an information system is concerned with how the system
will meet requirements, physical design is concerned with what the system must
accomplish.
25. In general, systems development is faster, more flexible, and more user-oriented than in
the past.
COMPLETION
1. An ultimate form of SaaS would be ____________________ computing, which would
deliver services and data to users who would need only an Internet connection and a
browser.
2. Traditionally, firms ____________________ IT tasks as a way of controlling costs and
dealing with rapid technological change.

3. If a company uses a(n) ____________________ to supply a data management package,
the company does not have to design, develop, implement, or maintain the package.
4. In ____________________ hosting, system operations are managed by an outside form, or
host.
5. When a company considers outsourcing, it should estimate ____________________
characteristics to determine which fee structure would be most desirable, and then attempt
to negotiate a service provider contract based on that model.
6. Offshore outsourcing is also called ____________________ outsourcing.
7. Several years ago, Gartner predicted that ____________________ would evolve from
labor-intensive maintenance and support to higher-level systems development and
software design.
8. An accounting package is a good example of a(n) ____________________ application
because it can be utilized by many different businesses, for example.
9. Both of the businesses shown in the accompanying figure need ____________________
applications to handle their unique business requirements.
10. Some advantages of purchasing a standard software package disappear if the product must
be ____________________.
11. In most large and medium-sized companies, a(n) ____________________ within the IT
department is responsible for providing user support.
12. Some user applications have powerful ____________________ that allow users to design
their own data entry forms and reports.
13. The evaluation and selection of alternatives is not a simple process; the objective is to
obtain the product with the lowest ____________________, but actual cost and
performance can be difficult to forecast.
14. When selecting hardware and software, systems analysts often work as a(n)

____________________, which ensures that critical factors are not overlooked and that a
sound decision is made.
15. ____________________ determines how long it takes an information system to pay for
itself through reduced costs and increased benefits.
16. A(n) ____________________ is a technique that uses a common yardstick to measure and
compare vendor ratings.
17. Based on a(n) ____________________, vendors can decide if they have a product that
will meet your needs.
18. No matter what topics interest you, there are sure to be one or more
____________________, as shown in the accompanying figure, where people gather to
meet, offer support, and exchange ideas.
19. When users purchase software, what they are buying is a(n) ____________________ that
gives them the right to use the software under certain terms and conditions.
20. The ____________________ contains the requirements for a new system, describes the
alternatives that were considered, and makes a specific recommendation to management.
MATCHING
Identify the letter of the choice that best matches the phrase or definition.
a. cloud computing f. physical design
b. IBS g. logical design
c. managed hosting h. Web 2.0
d. WebSphere i. benchmarking
e. BPO j. systems requirement document
1. Predicted by industry leaders to offer an overall online software and data environment
supported by supercomputer technology.
2. Describes a second generation of the Web that will enable people to collaborate, interact,
and share information much more effectively.
3. An example of a Web-based development environment.
4. Attractive to customers because it offers online data center support, mainframe computing

power for mission-critical functions, and universal access via the Internet.
5. Another name for IBS.
6. A good way to measure relative performance of two or more competing products in a
standard environment.
7. Like a contract that identifies what the system developers must deliver to users.
8. The outsourcing of a basic business function.
9. With an information system, a plan for the actual implementation of the system.
10. With an information system, design that does not address the actual methods of
implementation.
ESSAY
1. Discuss at length the concerns and issues related to outsourcing.
2. What are the advantages of purchasing a software package?
3. Contrast logical and physical design.
CASE
Critical Thinking Questions
Case 7-1
Now that they have joined the firm, Priscilla is providing the junior analysts on the team
with some real-world illustrations to explain some of the recommendations that they must
be prepared to make to clients, based on what they have studied in their coursework, in
order to solidify their understanding.
1. Which of the following is NOT a reason Priscilla would offer as a reason for in-house
software development?
a. The client has unique business requirements that must be satisfied by this software
application.
b. The client wants to be able to use fewer technical development staff members.
c. The client has a number of very distinctive security requirements.
d. The client has some existing technology in place whose requirements must be met by
the new software.
2. Which of the following is NOT a reason Priscilla will share with the new analysts, with

regard to a client that wants to purchase a software package?
a. The client wants to be able to develop internal resources and capabilities among the
technical staff.
b. The client is looking for the lowest possible costs.
c. The client is looking to spend the least possible time in implementation.
d. The client wants to be able to rely on a vendor to provide future upgrades.
Case 7-2
You have started the process of selecting a new system for the firm and you are weighing
all of the various issues that need to be considered and the resources you have at your
disposal as you make this important decision.
3. As you prepare to winnow the field in your selection of a new system, you want a quick
refresher on the difference between RFPs and RFQs. If you need an RFP, Simone will
write it, and if you need an RFQ, Marny is responsible for writing that. Which of the
following is true?
a. An RFP that Simone writes is more specific than an RFQ Marny will write.
b. When Simone is tasked with the job, you already know the specific product or service
you want and you need to obtain price quotations or bids.
c. When Marny is tasked with the job, her output can involve outright purchase or a
variety of leasing options.
d. RFPs and RFQs have very different objectives.
4. You have two candidates for the new system. Which one of the following is NOT a
strategy you can pursue for making the final selection from among the two candidates?
a. For vertical applications, use a demo copy to enter a few sample transactions in both.
b. Contact existing users to obtain feedback for both of the contenders.
c. Perform a benchmark test to measure the time each of the two applications needs to
perform a number of transactions.
d. Consult Web sites maintained by consultants and software publishers with product
references and links to vendors.
Chapter 8 – User Interface Design
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Centralized IT departments no longer produce reams of printed ____ reports.
a. batch c. audit
b. greenbar d. hash

PTS: 1 REF: 301
2. In older systems, often the user interface mainly consisted of ____-control screens that
allowed a user to send commands to the system.
a. physical c. input
b. process d. command
PTS: 1 REF: 302
3. A key physical design element is the ____, which describes how users interact with a
computer system.
a. HCI c. UI
b. PCI d. PI
PTS: 1 REF: 302
4. ____ describes the relationship between computers and the people who use them to
perform business-related tasks.
a. HCI c. UI
b. PCI d. PI
PTS: 1 REF: 303
5. A(n) ____ is a user interface that allows users to interact with graphical objects and
pointing devices.
a. HCI c. UI
b. PCI d. GUI
PTS: 1 REF: 303
6. Many physicians feel that ____ software is difficult to use and does not meet their needs.
a. HCP c. prototypical
b. indexed d. EHR
PTS: 1 REF: 303
7. Initial screen designs can be presented to users in the form of a(n) ____, which is a sketch
that shows the general screen layout and design.
a. storyboard c. faxback
b. turnaround document d. output control
PTS: 1 REF: 306

8. Interface designers can obtain data, called ____ metrics, by using software that can record
and measure user interaction with a system.
a. aesthetics c. ergonomic
b. relationship d. usability
PTS: 1 REF: 306
9. A ____ language feature allows users to type commands or requests in normal text
phrases.
a. normal c. standard
b. natural d. basal
PTS: 1 REF: 308
10. Some forms use a ____ that contains icons or buttons that represent shortcuts for executing
common commands.
a. menu bar c. dialog box
b. toolbar d. toggle bar
PTS: 1 REF: 312
11. In a data entry screen, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, a(n) ____ is a
control feature used to initiate an action such as printing a form or requesting help.
a. command button c. toggle button
b. option button d. radio button
PTS: 1 REF: 312
12. In a data entry screen, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, a(n) ____ is a
control feature that is used to represent on or off status and switches to the other status
when clicked.
a. command button c. toggle button
b. option button d. radio button
PTS: 1 REF: 312
13. If variable input data is needed, provide a(n) ____ that explains what is needed.
a. dialog box c. menu bar
b. list box d. toggle button
PTS: 1 REF: 312

14. In a data entry screen, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, a ____ is a control
feature that is used to select one or more choices from a group.
a. dialog box c. text box
b. list box d. check box
PTS: 1 REF: 313
15. Input ____ are templates that make it easier for users to enter data.
a. patterns c. legends
b. masks d. keys
PTS: 1 REF: 314
16. An existence check is a data validation check that ____.
a. tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum
value
b. identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong
c. is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable
when considered together
d. is used for mandatory data items
PTS: 1 REF: 318
17. A range check is a data validation check that ____.
value
PTS: 1 REF: 318
18. A reasonableness check is a data validation check that ____.
value
PTS: 1 REF: 318

19. A combination check is a data validation check that ____.
value
PTS: 1 REF: 318
20. The concept that the quality of the output is only as good as the quality of the input, which
sometimes is known as ____, is familiar to IT professionals, who recognize that the best
time to avoid problems is when data is entered.
a. bad input, bad output (BIBO) c. poor start, poor finish (PSPF)
b. garbage in, garbage out (GIGO) d. weak hand, weak hold (WHWH)
PTS: 1 REF: 319
21. On a source document, the ____ contains codes, identification information, numbers, and
dates that are used for storing completed forms.
a. control zone c. totals zone
b. heading zone d. authorization zone
PTS: 1 REF: 320
22. In a source document, if totals are included on a form, they appear in the ____ zone.
a. calculated c. totals
b. control d. heading
PTS: 1 REF: 320
23. On a source document, the main part of the form, called the ____, usually takes up at least
half of the space on the form and contains captions and areas for entering variable data.
a. instruction zone c. body zone
b. authorization zone d. heading zone
PTS: 1 REF: 320
24. Printed output is used in ____ documents, which are output documents that are later
entered back into the same or another information system.
a. detail c. turnaround
b. output d. report

PTS: 1 REF: 321
25. Although the vast majority of reports are designed graphically, some systems still produce
one or more ____ reports that use a character set with fixed spacing.
a. monospaced c. diagrammed
b. character-based d. preset
PTS: 1 REF: 322
26. A(n) ____ produces one or more lines of output for each record processed.
a. detail report c. summary report
b. exception report d. exigency report
PTS: 1 REF: 322
27. A(n) ____ displays only those records that meet a specific condition or conditions.
PTS: 1 REF: 322
28. For upper-level managers who often want to see total figures and do not need supporting
details, a(n) ____ is appropriate.
PTS: 1 REF: 322
29. A ____ usually causes specific actions, such as printing subtotals for a group of records in
a report.
a. control break c. subgroup
b. stratification d. concatenation character
PTS: 1 REF: 323
30. Some firms use ____ facsimile to allow a customer to request a fax using e-mail, via the
company Web site, or by telephone.
a. automated c. turnaround
b. batched d. digital
PTS: 1 REF: 327
31. ____ is often used by large firms to scan and store images of original documents to

provide high-quality records management and archiving.
a. POD c. FBC
b. COM d. ASCII
PTS: 1 REF: 327
32. ____ protects privacy rights and shields an organization’s proprietary data from theft or
unauthorized access.
a. Aesthetics c. Ergonomics
b. Interface technology d. Output security
PTS: 1 REF: 329
33. Companies use various output ____ methods to maintain output integrity and security.
a. ergonomic c. control
b. aesthetic d. detail
PTS: 1 REF: 329
34. A ____ workstation is a network terminal that supports a full-featured user interface, but
limits the printing or copying of data, except to certain network resources that can be
monitored and controlled more easily.
a. command-line c. satellite
b. prescribed d. diskless
PTS: 1 REF: 330
35. In most organizations, the ____ department is responsible for output control and security
measures.
a. IT c. finance
b. police d. security
PTS: 1 REF: 330
36. Because every piece of information should be traceable back to the input data that
produced it, a(n) ____ trail must be provided that records the source of each data item and
when it entered the system.
a. audit c. source
b. index d. control
PTS: 1 REF: 330
37. In a ____ design, you create individual components that connect to a higher-level program

or process.
a. distributed c. modular
b. dissociated d. prototypical
PTS: 1 REF: 331
38. In ____ prototyping, systems analysts use a prototype to verify user requirements, after
which the prototype is discarded and implementation continues.
a. system c. design
b. command d. layout
PTS: 1 REF: 332
39. Design prototyping is also known as ____ prototyping.
a. throwaway c. system
b. command d. layout
PTS: 1 REF: 332
40. ____ prototyping produces a full-featured, working model of the information system.
a. Design c. Application
b. System d. IS
PTS: 1 REF: 332
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. A system is reliable if it handles ____.
a. input errors c. processing errors
b. hardware failures d. human mistakes
2. A system is maintainable if it is ____.
a. flexible c. scalable
b. distributed d. easily modified
3. When designing a report, a sample report, which is a ____, should be prepared for users to
review.
a. storyboard c. form layout
b. prototype d. mock-up

4. Which of the following is a specialized form of output?
a. Retail point-of-sale terminals that handle computer-based credit card transactions,
print receipts, and update inventory records.
b. Plotters that can produce high-quality images such as blueprints, maps, and electronic
circuit diagrams.
c. Special-purpose printers that can produce labels.
d. Portable, Web-connected devices that can run multiple apps.
5. Which of the following is a guideline for the design of data entry screens that are easy to
learn and use?
a. restrict user access to screen locations where data is entered
b. provide a descriptive caption for every field
c. require users to type leading zeroes for numeric fields
d. display a default value when a field value will be constant for successive records
MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE
1. A(n) transparent interface does not distract the user and calls no attention to itself.
_________________________
2. A data type check is a data validation check that is used when the data must be in
predetermined sequence. _________________________
3. Podcasts are especially important for legal reasons, or where it is necessary to display a
signature, date stamp, or other visual features of a document.
_________________________
4. A sequence check is a data validation check that tests to ensure a data item fits the required
data type. _________________________
5. Batch controls are totals used to verify online data entry. _________________________
TRUE/FALSE
1. In 1999, there was widespread concern about what was called the Y2K issue because

many older programs used only two characters to store the year, and might not recognize
the start of a new century.
PTS: 1 REF: 300
2. In a user-centered system, the distinction is clear between input, output, and the interface
itself.
PTS: 1 REF: 303
3. Interface design should call attention to the interface, rather than facilitating design
objectives.
PTS: 1 REF: 303
4. An interface designer does not need to understand the underlying business functions or
how the system supports individual, departmental, or enterprise goals.
PTS: 1 REF: 305
5. To develop a user-centered interface, a designer must learn to think like a user and see the
system through a user’s eyes.
PTS: 1 REF: 306
6. After a system is operational, it is not important to monitor system usage or solicit user
suggestions.
PTS: 1 REF: 306
7. When designing an interface, to provide features that promote efficiency use default values
if the majority of values in a field are the same.
PTS: 1 REF: 308
8. User-selected help always offers assistance for the task in progress.
PTS: 1 REF: 309
9. Context-sensitive help displays information about any task when the user requests it.
PTS: 1 REF: 309
10. To create an attractive user interface layout and design, when the user enters data that
completely fills the field, move automatically to the next field.
PTS: 1 REF: 310
11. When designing an interface, avoid terms that come from everyday business processes and
the vocabulary of a typical user; instead, select complex terms and technical jargon.

PTS: 1 REF: 311
12. When designing data entry screens, provide users with an opportunity to confirm the
accuracy of input data before entering it.
PTS: 1 REF: 316
13. Generally, reports used by individuals at higher levels in an organization include more
detail than reports used by lower-level employees.
PTS: 1 REF: 322
14. Every page in a report should include a page header, which appears at the top of the page
and includes the column headings that identify the data.
PTS: 1 REF: 323
15. Either a page header or a page footer is used to display the report title and the page
number.
PTS: 1 REF: 324
16. When a system produces multiple reports, each report should have completely different
design elements.
PTS: 1 REF: 324
17. An example of Web-based output is a system that provides customized responses to
product or technical questions.
PTS: 1 REF: 326
18. Although online data entry is used in specific situations, most business activity requires
batch input.
PTS: 1 REF: 328
19. Using batch input, data entry is performed continuously.
PTS: 1 REF: 328
20. Unless source data automation is used, manual data entry is faster and less expensive than
batch input because it is performed at specified times and always when computer demand
is at its lowest.
PTS: 1 REF: 329
21. Whenever possible, security should be designed into the system by using passwords,
shielding sensitive data, and controlling user access.

PTS: 1 REF: 330
22. The use of a network-based application, often called a port protector, controls access to
and from workstation interfaces.
PTS: 1 REF: 330
23. Sensitive data can be decrypted, or coded, so only users with decoding software can read
it.
PTS: 1 REF: 331
24. With prototyping, users can "test-drive" the model in a risk-free environment and either
approve it or request changes.
PTS: 1 REF: 331
25. Perhaps the most intense form of prototyping occurs when agile methods are used.
PTS: 1 REF: 332
COMPLETION
1. When designing an opening screen, the starting point can be a(n) ____________________
with well-placed command buttons that allow users to navigate the system.
2. A list box displays a list of choices that a user can select and, if the list does not fit in the
box, a(n) ____________________ allows the user to move through the available choices.
3. A(n) ____________________ control allows a user to select a date that the system will
use as a field value.
4. Whenever possible, use a data entry method called ____________________, where a
blank form that duplicates or resembles the source document is completed on the screen.
5. A(n) ____________________ improves input quality by testing the data and rejecting any
entry that fails to meet specified conditions.
6. When a validation check involves a minimum or a maximum value, but not both, it is
called a(n) ____________________.
7. A(n) ____________________, which also is called referential integrity, is a data

validation check used for items that must have certain values.
8. Batch control totals often are called ____________________, because they are not
meaningful numbers themselves, but are useful for comparison purposes.
9. A(n) ____________________, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, is a form
used to request and collect input data, trigger or authorize an input action, and provide a
record of the original transaction.
10. On a form, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, insufficient space, confusing
instructions, or poor organization, all would be symptoms of incorrect
____________________.
11. On a form, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, the ____________________ is
the zone that usually contains the company name or logo and the title and number of the
form.
the zone that usually contains instructions for completing the form.
the zone that contains any required signatures.
14. A(n) ____________________ is a specially formatted digital audio file that can be
downloaded by Internet users from a variety of content providers.
15. A popular online input method is ____________________, which combines online data
entry and automated data capture using input devices such as magnetic data strips or RFID
tags.
16. ____________________ includes the necessary measures to ensure that input data is
correct, complete, and secure.
17. ____________________ policies and procedures protect data from loss or damage, which
is a vital goal in every organization.

18. Because source documents should be stored in a safe location for some specified period of
time, a company should have a(n) ____________________ that meets all legal
requirements and business needs.
19. The individual components in modular design are called ____________________.
20. Sensitive data can be encrypted, or coded, in a process called ____________________, so
only users with decoding software can read it.
MATCHING
a. report header f. source document
b. input volume g. dialog box
c. modular design h. interface
d. prototype i. exception
e. report footer j. existence
1. When you reduce this, you avoid unnecessary labor costs, get data into the system more
quickly, and decrease the number of errors.
2. Generally paper-based but can be provided online.
3. Explains what is required on a form if variable input data is needed.
4. When designing this, to provide feedback to users, display messages at a logical place on
the screen, and be consistent.
5. Especially important in designing large-scale systems because separate teams of analysts
and programmers can work on different areas and then integrate the results.
6. Can include grand totals for numeric fields and other end-of-report information.
7. Identifies the report, and contains the report title, date, and other necessary information.
8. An early, rapidly constructed working version of a proposed information system.
9. Type of report that is useful when the user wants information only on records that might
require action.
10. Type of check that is used for mandatory data items.
ESSAY

1. List at least six guidelines for creating an interface that is easy to learn and use.
2. Briefly describe (including examples in your answer) at least six of the types of data
validation checks in the input process.
3. List four examples of source data automation.
CASE
Case 8-1
Andrea has a number of report templates at her disposal to respond to her boss's requests
but they have all been carefully filed in a number of folders. In order to know where to
find a report likely to meet the needs of her manager, she first needs to know what
category of report will satisfy the request.
1. Andrea's manager needs to get a report of all of the purchases made by employees, using
their employee discount, in a given week. In which of the following folders is she likely to
find this category of report?
a. exception reports
b. summary reports
c. detail reports
d. control reports
2. Andrea's manager has looked over the individual employee purchases and now wants a
report that will identify only those employees who have spent more than $1,000 with their
discount in the past two months. In which of the following folders is she likely to find this
category of report?
a. exception reports
b. summary reports
c. detail reports
d. control reports
Case 8-2
Siobhan is going to create a dialog box for a new application and while she has been a user
of dialog boxes for a long time, she has never before taken the time to learn the names of
the actual dialog box features aligned with their functions.

3. If Siobhan has a dialog box option that is either on or off, which of the following features
is she most likely to use?
a. text box
b. list box
c. drop-down list box
d. toggle button
4. Siobhan has a feature in the dialog box that must allow her users to select one or more
choices from a group. Which of the following dialog box components is she most likely to
use?
a. check box
b. text box
c. list box
d. toggle button
Chapter 9 – Data Design
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A data ____, which is a framework for organizing and storing data, consists of one or
more files or tables.
a. structure c. index
b. roster d. integral
PTS: 1 REF: 348
2. A(n) ____ is a collection of tools, features, and interfaces that enable users to add, update,
manage, access, and analyze the contents of data.
a. RMS c. scale set
b. DBMS d. HCI
PTS: 1 REF: 350
3. ____ means that a system can be expanded, modified, or downsized easily to meet the
rapidly changing needs of a business enterprise.
a. Scalability c. Cardinality
b. Compatibility d. Functionality
PTS: 1 REF: 350
4. A(n) ____, which is used to access stored data, allows a user to specify a task without
specifying how the task will be accomplished.

a. machine language c. query language
b. assembly language d. markup language
PTS: 1 REF: 352
5. With a(n) ____ language, the user provides an example of the data requested.
a. SQL c. QBE
b. IDE d. interpolated
PTS: 1 REF: 352
6. Many database programs generate ____, which is a language that allows client
workstations to communicate with servers and mainframe computers.
a. DDE c. DML
b. DBL d. SQL
PTS: 1 REF: 352
7. A data ____ language controls database operations, including storing, retrieving, updating,
and deleting data.
a. manipulation c. schema
b. manufacturing d. dynamic
PTS: 1 REF: 353
8. The complete definition of a database, including descriptions of all fields, tables, and
relationships, is called a(n) ____.
a. connective c. exchange
b. schema d. collective
PTS: 1 REF: 353
9. ____ is an industry-standard protocol that makes it possible for software from different
vendors to interact and exchange data.
a. JDBC c. ODBC
b. JVC d. OEC
PTS: 1 REF: 353
10. JDBC enables ____ applications to exchange data with any database that uses SQL
statements and is compliant with the standard.
a. HTML c. Perl
b. Web d. Java

PTS: 1 REF: 353
11. To bridge the gap between a database and the Web and enable data to be viewed and
updated, it is necessary to use ____, which is software that integrates different applications
and allows them to exchange data.
a. middleware c. shareware
b. hardware d. freeware
PTS: 1 REF: 355
12. During the systems design phase, ____ fields are used to organize, access, and maintain
data structures.
a. glossary c. content
b. tabular d. key
PTS: 1 REF: 356
13. In the accompanying figure, a ____ is a field or combination of fields that uniquely and
minimally identifies a particular member of an entity.
a. primary key c. secondary key
b. common key d. combination key
PTS: 1 REF: 356
14. In the accompanying figure, any field that could serve as a primary key is called a ____.
a. secondary key c. combination key
b. candidate key d. foreign key
PTS: 1 REF: 357
15. In the accompanying figure, a ____ is a field in one table that must match a primary key
value in another table in order to establish the relationship between the two tables.
a. secondary key c. combination key
b. candidate key d. foreign key
PTS: 1 REF: 357
16. When a primary key combines two or more fields, it is called a ____ key.
a. constructed c. collective
b. composite d. parallel

PTS: 1 REF: 357
17. Any field that is not a primary key or a candidate key is called a ____ key.
a. combination c. secondary
b. nonkey d. foreign
PTS: 1 REF: 357
18. One type of validity check, called ____ integrity, is a set of rules that avoids data
inconsistency and quality problems.
a. candidate c. referential
b. combinatorial d. foreign
PTS: 1 REF: 359
19. A(n) ____ is a graphical model of an information system that depicts the logical
relationships and interaction among system entities.
a. SQL c. ODBC
b. OCE d. ERD
PTS: 1 REF: 360
20. In an entity-relationship diagram, entities are represented as ____.
a. triangles c. rectangles
b. circles d. hexagons
PTS: 1 REF: 360
21. ____ describes how instances of one entity relate to instances of another entity.
a. Scalability c. Cardinality
b. Compatibility d. Functionality
PTS: 1 REF: 362
22. One common method of indicating ____ is called crow's foot notation because of the
shapes, which include circles, bars, and symbols that indicate various possibilities.
a. scalability c. cardinality
b. compatibility d. functionality
PTS: 1 REF: 362

23. ____ is the process of creating table designs by assigning specific fields or attributes to
each table in a database.
a. Encapsulation c. Standardization
b. Normalization d. Encryption
PTS: 1 REF: 365
24. A ____ is a set of letters or numbers that represents a data item.
a. syntax c. mnemonic
b. data dictionary d. code
PTS: 1 REF: 381
25. ____ codes are numbers or letters assigned in a specific order.
a. Sequence c. Significant digit
b. Category d. Derivation
PTS: 1 REF: 381
26. Some abbreviation codes are called ____ codes because they use a specific combination of
letters that are easy to remember.
a. harmonic c. mnemonic
b. sequence d. rhapsodic
PTS: 1 REF: 382
27. ____ codes combine data from different item attributes, or characteristics, to build the
code.
a. Sequence c. Significant digit
b. Category d. Derivation
PTS: 1 REF: 383
28. ____ codes use a keyword to encode a number.
a. Cipher c. Encryption
b. Identifier d. Associative
PTS: 1 REF: 383
29. A long integer format uses ____ bits to represent the number 1,234,567,890 in binary
form.
a. 12 c. 30
b. 24 d. 32

PTS: 1 REF: 388
30. Binary digits have only ____ possible value(s).
a. one c. three
b. two d. five
PTS: 1 REF: 388
31. ____ is a coding method used on mainframe computers and high-capacity servers.
a. ASCII c. Unicode
b. EBCDIC d. ISO
PTS: 1 REF: 388
32. ____ is a coding method used on most personal computers.
a. ASCII c. Unicode
b. EBCDIC d. ISO
PTS: 1 REF: 388
33. EBCDIC and ASCII both require ____ bits.
a. six c. ten
b. eight d. twelve
PTS: 1 REF: 388
34. In ASCII, the number 1,234,567,890 requires ____ bytes of storage.
a. eight c. ten
b. nine d. twelve
PTS: 1 REF: 388
35. Compared with character-based formats, a ____ storage format offers a more efficient
storage method.
a. decimal c. tertiary
b. unary d. binary
PTS: 1 REF: 388
36. Unicode represents more than ____ unique, multilingual characters.
a. 32,000 c. 320,000

b. 65,000 d. 650,000
PTS: 1 REF: 388
37. An integer format uses ____ bits to represent the number 12,345 in binary form.
a. 8 c. 16
b. 12 d. 20
PTS: 1 REF: 388
38. Most date formats now are based on the model established by the International
Organization for Standardization (ISO), which requires a format of ____.
a. two digits for the year, two for the month, and two for the day (YYMMDD)
b. two digits for the year, four for the month, and two for the day (YYMMMMDD)
c. four digits for the year, two for the month, and two for the day (YYYYMMDD)
d. four digits for the year, two for the month, and four for the day (YYYYMMDDDD)
PTS: 1 REF: 389
39. ____ is the process of converting readable data into unreadable characters to prevent
unauthorized access to the data.
a. Encapsulation c. Standardization
b. Normalization d. Encryption
PTS: 1 REF: 390
40. In the event of a file catastrophe, ____ can be used to restore the file or database to its
current state at the time of the last backup.
a. recovery procedures c. audit log files
b. crow’s foot notation d. standard notation format
PTS: 1 REF: 390
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. A ____ contains data about people, places, things, or events.
a. record c. table
b. column d. file
2. Which of the following is the advantage of a DBMS (database management system)?

a. economy of scale c. scalability
b. stronger standards d. data dependence
3. In a Web-based database design, the Internet serves as the ____ for the database
management system.
a. front end c. middleware
b. back end d. interface
4. Which of the following is a problem found with 1NF (first normal form) design that does
not exist in 2NF (second normal form)?
a. adding a new record creates difficulties
b. 2NF tables always contain consistent data compared to 1NF tables
c. deleting a record creates difficulties
d. changing a particular entity’s description is cumbersome and expensive
5. Which of the following is a data coding and storage scheme?
a. EBCDIC c. ASCII
b. binary d. primary
MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE
1. To resolve potential database connectivity and access problems, companies use ODBC-
compliant software that enables communication among various systems and DBMSs.
_________________________
2. JDBC is the language of the Web. _________________________
3. Middleware can interpret client requests in HTML form and translate the requests into
commands that the database can execute. _________________________
4. The three normal forms constitute a progression in which the first normal form represents
the best design. _________________________
5. A table design that does not contain repeating groups is called unnormalized.
_________________________

TRUE/FALSE
1. In a client/server system, processing is isolated in a single computer.
PTS: 1 REF: 351
2. Web-based design is dependent on a specific combination of hardware and software.
PTS: 1 REF: 354
3. Web-based data design requires users to have powerful workstations.
PTS: 1 REF: 354
4. Migrating a traditional database design to the Web rarely requires design modification or
additional software.
PTS: 1 REF: 354
5. Web-based systems are popular because they offer ease of access, cost-effectiveness, and
worldwide connectivity.
PTS: 1 REF: 354
6. Security concerns about Web-based data design can be addressed with software that can
protect the system and detect intrusion, for example.
PTS: 1 REF: 354
7. Web-based data must be secure but in order to be so, it cannot be easily accessible to
authorized users.
PTS: 1 REF: 356
8. In a table or file, each column represents a record, which is an individual instance, or
occurrence of an entity, and each row represents a field, or characteristic of the entity.
PTS: 1 REF: 356
9. A common field is an attribute that appears in only one entity.
PTS: 1 REF: 356
10. Like a primary key, a foreign key must be unique.
PTS: 1 REF: 357
11. A primary key cannot be composed of more than one field.

PTS: 1 REF: 357
12. Three main types of relationships that can exist between entities are a one-to-one
relationship, abbreviated 1:1; a one-to-many relationship, abbreviated 1:M; and a many-to-
many relationship, abbreviated M:N.
PTS: 1 REF: 361
13. In an M:N relationship, the two entities are linked by an event or transaction called an
associative entity, which has its own set of attributes and characteristics.
PTS: 1 REF: 361
14. A table design specifies the fields and identifies the primary key in a particular table or
file.
PTS: 1 REF: 365
15. A repeating group is a set of one or more fields that can occur only once in a single record,
with each occurrence having the same value.
PTS: 1 REF: 365
16. A table is in first normal form (1NF) if it contains a repeating group.
PTS: 1 REF: 366
17. Field X is functionally dependent on field Y if the value of field X depends on the value of
field Y.
PTS: 1 REF: 368
18. A table design is in second normal form (2NF) if it is in 1NF and if all fields that are not
part of the primary key are functionally independent on part of the primary key.
PTS: 1 REF: 368
19. A popular rule of thumb is that a design is in 3NF if every nonkey field depends on the
key, the whole key, and nothing but the key.
PTS: 1 REF: 370
20. A table design is in third normal form (3NF) if it is in 2NF and if all nonkey fields are
dependent on other nonkey fields.
PTS: 1 REF: 371
21. Normal forms beyond 3NF exist, but they rarely are used in business-oriented systems.
PTS: 1 REF: 375

22. Many three-character airport codes are cipher codes.
PTS: 1 REF: 382
23. A data warehouse allows users to specify certain dimensions, or characteristics.
PTS: 1 REF: 385
24. The basic elements of logical storage are alphabetic or numeric characters, such as the
letter A or the number 9.
PTS: 1 REF: 387
25. To protect stored data, users can be asked to furnish a proper user ID and password to
access a file or database.
PTS: 1 REF: 390
COMPLETION
1. The ____________________ for DBMS design, which was introduced in the 1970s and
continues to be the dominant approach for organizing, storing, and managing business
data.
2. The inherent efficiency of high-volume processing on larger computers is called
____________________.
3. Typically, a DBMS is managed by a person called a(n) ____________________, who
assesses overall requirements and maintains the database for the benefit of an entire
organization rather than a single department or user.
4. A(n) ____________________, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, contains a
set of related records that store data about a specific entity.
5. In the table or file shown in the accompanying figure, a(n) ____________________ is a
single characteristic or fact about an entity.
6. In the table or file shown in the accompanying figure, a(n) ____________________ is a
set of related fields that describes one instance, or occurrence of an entity.
7. ____________________ codes distinguish items by using a series of subgroups of digits.

8. ____________________ codes combine data from different item attributes, or
characteristics, to build the code.
9. A(n) ____________________ code indicates what action is to be taken with an associated
item.
10. While a data warehouse typically spans the entire enterprise, many firms prefer to use a(n)
____________________, which is designed to serve the needs of a specific department,
such as sales, marketing, or finance.
11. ____________________ software looks for meaningful patterns and relationships among
data.
12. A set of related characters forms a field, which also is called a(n)
____________________.
13. Computers represent data as ____________________ that have only two possible values:
zero (0) or one (1).
14. Each group of eight bits is called a(n) ____________________.
15. Because it supports virtually all languages, ____________________ has become a global
standard.
16. A(n) ____________________ date is the total number of days from some specific base
date.
17. At the beginning of the 21st century, many firms that used only two digits to represent the
year were faced with a major problem called the ____________________.
18. Microsoft Excel uses ____________________ dates in calculations.
19. All system files and databases must be backed up regularly and a series of
____________________ copies must be retained for a specific period of time.
20. ____________________ log files, which record details of all accesses and changes to a

file or database, can be used to recover changes made since the last backup.
MATCHING
a. UML f. subschema
b. cardinality g. EBCDIC
c. secondary key h. entity
d. data mining i. physical
e. orphan j. logical
1. A view of a database used by one or more systems or users.
2. A coding method used on mainframe computers and high-capacity servers.
3. A person, place, thing, or event for which data is collected and maintained.
4. A field or combination of fields that can be used to access or retrieve records.
5. A foreign key value that does not match an existing key in another table.
6. As an analyst, you must understand this in order to create a data design that accurately
reflects all relationships among system entities.
7. A widely used method of visualizing and documenting software systems design.
8. In e-commerce, this works best when a goal is to reduce clicks to close, which means
average page views to accomplish a purchase or obtain desired information.
9. Kind of storage that is strictly hardware-related, because it involves the process of reading
and writing binary data to physical media.
10. Kind of storage that refers to information as seen through a user’s eyes, regardless of how
or where the information actually is organized or stored.
ESSAY
1. Four kinds of problems are found with 1NF designs that do not exist in 2NF. What are
they?
2. Briefly describe (including examples in your answer) at least six of the common coding
methods.
3. List at least 6 guidelines for designing a code.

CASE
Case 9-1
Eamon is trying to choose an approach to storing and managing the data for his company:
a file processing system or a database management system. He asks Perry to discuss the
pros and cons of the two approaches.
1. Perry mentions that some data in a file processing system may be repeated in several
different files. What is the name of this type of problem?
a. a data redundancy problem
b. a data relation problem
c. a data modeling problem
d. a data rigidity problem
2. Perry tells Eamon that systems that interact with a database management system do not
need to know about the underlying data structures used to store the physical data. As a
result, a database administrator has the flexibility to change these underlying data
structures without modifying the systems that use the data. What is the name of this
feature of database management systems?
a. data scalability
b. data authorization
c. data flexibility
d. data independence
Case 9-2
Michelle is working with her client Malia on the design of a database. She explains to
Malia that key fields are used to organize, access, and maintain the data records.
3. Michelle tells Malia that a primary key is a field or combination of fields that uniquely and
minimally identifies a particular entity. She explains that there may be a choice of fields or
field combinations to use as the primary key. What is the term used for a possible primary
key?
a. candidate key
b. concatenated key
c. foreign key
d. secondary key
4. Malia asks if it is possible to retrieve records using a field or combination of fields that is
not unique. Michelle informs her that it is. What is the name for this type of key?

a. candidate key
b. concatenated key
c. foreign key
d. secondary key
Chapter 10 – System Architecture
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ____ is the measure of a system’s ability to expand, change, or downsize easily to meet the
changing needs of a business enterprise.
a. Transparency c. Redundancy
b. Scalability d. Interoperability
PTS: 1 REF: 409
2. Which of the following is not one of the main functions that every business information
system must carry out?
a. Managing applications that perform the processing logic
b. Handling data storage and access
c. Providing an interface that allows users to interact with the system
d. Using a mainframe to deliver a multiuser environment
PTS: 1 REF: 411
3. A system design where the server performs all the processing is described as ____.
a. mainframe architecture c. workstation architecture
b. thin architecture d. thick architecture
PTS: 1 REF: 411
4. In a(n) ____ design, the remote user’s keystrokes are transmitted to the mainframe, which
responds by sending screen output back to the user’s screen.
a. closed c. open
b. distributed d. centralized
PTS: 1 REF: 411
5. A corporate ____ can provide access for customers, employees, suppliers, and the public.
a. portal c. gateway
b. router d. hub

PTS: 1 REF: 411
6. A ____ is an entrance to a multifunction Web site.
a. DDBMS c. portal
b. batch link d. topology
PTS: 1 REF: 411
7. A ____ client locates all or most of the processing logic on the server.
a. thin c. topological
b. batch d. portal
PTS: 1 REF: 414
8. In a multi-tier system, special utility software called ____ enables the tiers to communicate
and pass data back and forth.
a. shareware c. groupware
b. middleware d. centralware
PTS: 1 REF: 416
9. In a client/server architecture, just as processing can be done at various places, data can be
stored in more than one location using a(n) ____.
a. SQL c. DDBMS
b. RDBMS d. ECS
PTS: 1 REF: 417
10. Cloud computing provides ____ on demand, which matches resources to needs at any
given time.
a. bandwidth c. topology
b. scaling d. resource management
PTS: 1 REF: 418
11. A(n) ____ is a Web-based repository of information that anyone can access, contribute to,
or modify.
a. blog c. wiki
b. iOS d. portal
PTS: 1 REF: 419

12. ____ is the amount of data that can be transferred in a fixed time period.
a. Resolution c. Topology
b. Dimensionality d. Bandwidth
PTS: 1 REF: 419
13. When developing e-business systems, an in-house solution usually requires a ____ for a
company that must adapt quickly in a dynamic e-commerce environment.
a. smaller initial investment and provides more flexibility
b. smaller initial investment but provides less flexibility
c. greater initial investment but provides more flexibility
d. greater initial investment and provides less flexibility
PTS: 1 REF: 420
14. During business hours, a salesperson can enter a sale on a ____ terminal, which is part of
an information system that handles daily sales transactions and maintains an up-to-date
inventory file.
a. POS c. topological
b. batch d. portal
PTS: 1 REF: 423
15. Which of the following is not an advantage of batch methods?
a. Tasks can be planned and run on a predetermined schedule, without user involvement.
b. Users can interact directly with the information system.
c. Batch programs that require major network resources can run at time when costs will
be lowest.
d. A batch method runs in a relatively controlled environment.
PTS: 1 REF: 423
16. ____ describes how data actually moves from an application on one computer to an
application on another networked computer.
a. OSI c. RSI
b. PSI d. TSI
PTS: 1 REF: 425
17. The way a network is configured is called the network ____.
a. orientation c. topology
b. baseline d. index

PTS: 1 REF: 425
18. In a ____, one or more powerful servers control the network, and departmental servers
control lower levels of processing and network devices.
a. hierarchical network c. bus network
b. star network d. ring network
PTS: 1 REF: 425
19. ____ topology describes the actual network cabling and connections.
a. Logical c. Hub
b. Linkage d. Physical
PTS: 1 REF: 425
20. ____ topology describes the way the components in a network interact.
a. Interactive c. Engagement
b. Physical d. Logical
PTS: 1 REF: 425
21. In a ____, a single communication path connects the network server, departmental servers,
workstations, and peripheral devices.
PTS: 1 REF: 426
22. A disadvantage of a bus network is that ____.
a. performance can decline as more users and devices are added
b. devices cannot be attached or detached without disturbing the rest of the network
c. failure in one workstation necessarily affects other workstations on the network
d. data flows in only one direction from one computer to the next
PTS: 1 REF: 426
23. A ____ resembles a circle of computers in which data flows in only one direction from one
device to the next.
PTS: 1 REF: 427

24. A ____, such as that illustrated in the accompanying figure, has a central networking
device that manages the network.
PTS: 1 REF: 427
25. At the center of the network shown in the accompanying figure is the ____, which
manages the network and acts as a communications conduit for all network traffic.
a. log c. switch
b. scale d. portal
PTS: 1 REF: 427
26. A(n) ____ is relatively inexpensive to install and is well-suited to workgroups and users
who are not anchored to a specific desk or location.
a. LAN c. MLAN
b. WLAN d. XLAN
PTS: 1 REF: 429-430
27. The speed for wireless network standards is measured in ____.
a. Bps c. Gbps
b. Xbps d. Tbps
PTS: 1 REF: 430
28. Several ____ of the 802.11 standard were intended to improve bandwidth, range, and
security.
a. amendments c. LANs
b. options d. designs
PTS: 1 REF: 430
29. The ____ standard is widely adopted and works with the 802.11b standard.
a. 802.11a c. 802.11n
b. 802.11g d. 802.11ac
PTS: 1 REF: 430

30. The ____ standard uses MIMO technology to boost performance.
a. 802.11a c. 802.11c
b. 802.11b d. 802.11n
PTS: 1 REF: 430
31. ____ technology relies on multiple data paths, also called multipath design, to increase
bandwidth and range.
a. BSS c. ISS
b. ESS d. MIMO
PTS: 1 REF: 430
32. In the ____ configuration, a central wireless device is used to serve all wireless clients.
a. BSS c. ISS
b. ESS d. DSS
PTS: 1 REF: 430-431
33. In its wireless configuration, the ____ point is similar to a hub in the LAN star topology,
except it provides network services to wireless clients instead of wired clients.
a. linkage c. network
b. access d. hub
PTS: 1 REF: 431
34. The ____ topology allows the expansion of wireless access over a wide area.
a. BSS c. ISS
b. ESS d. DSS
PTS: 1 REF: 431
35. The ____ was formed in 1999 to certify interoperability of wireless network products
based on IEEE 802.11 specifications.
a. Wi-Fi Alliance c. W3C
b. NSF d. Wireless Network
PTS: 1 REF: 431
36. A form of wireless transmission called ____ is very popular for short-distance wireless
communication that does not require high power.
a. Bluetooth c. RFID
b. USB d. Mbps

PTS: 1 REF: 432
37. The system design specification is a document that presents the complete design for a new
information system, along with ____ for the next SDLC phase — systems implementation.
a. staffing c. detailed costs
b. scheduling d. all of the above
PTS: 1 REF: 432
38. The ____ section in a typical system design specification contains the complete design for
a new system, including the user interface, outputs, inputs, files, databases, and network
specifications.
a. System Components c. Implementation Requirements
b. Executive Summary d. Time and Cost Estimates
PTS: 1 REF: 433
39. The ____ section in a typical system design specification describes the constraints, or
conditions, affecting a system, including any requirements that involve operations,
hardware, systems software, or security.
a. Time and Cost Estimates c. Executive Summary
b. System Environment d. System Components
PTS: 1 REF: 433
40. In the ____ section in a typical system design specification, startup processing, initial data
entry or acquisition, user training requirements, and software test plans are specified.
a. System Environment c. System Components
b. Executive Summary d. Implementation Requirements
PTS: 1 REF: 433
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. A fat client design is ____ to develop than a thin client design, because the architecture
resembles traditional file-server designs where all processing is performed at the client.
a. more expensive c. simpler
b. more complex d. less expensive

2. Using a DDBMS (distributed database management system) offers as an advantage that
____.
a. the system is scalable, so new data sites can be added without reworking the system
design
b. data stored closer to users can reduce network traffic
c. with data stored in various locations, the system is less likely to experience a
catastrophic failure
d. the architecture of the system is simple and easy to manage
3. Online processing systems have this characteristic: ____.
a. users interact directly with the information system
b. the system requires significantly fewer network resources than batch systems
c. users can access data randomly
d. the system processes transactions completely when and where they occur
4. The ____ standard makes use of multi-user MIMO.
a. 802.11g c. 802.11ad
b. 802.11ac d. 802.11b
5. A typical system design specification typically includes a ____ section.
a. Management Summary c. System Components
b. Time and Cost Estimates d. System Environment
MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE
1. A client is a computer that supplies data, processing services, or other support to one or
more computers. _________________________
2. A fat client, also called a thick client, design locates all or most of the processing logic at
the server. _________________________
3. The middle layer provides the business logic required by the client-server system.
_________________________
4. In online processing systems, data is collected and processed in groups.
_________________________

5. Examples of WiMAX devices include wireless keyboards, mice, printers, cell phone
headsets, and digital cameras, among others. _________________________
TRUE/FALSE
1. ERP (enterprise resource planning) defines a general architecture, omitting standards for
data, processing, network, and user interface design.
PTS: 1 REF: 406
2. A Web-based application encounters all of the connectivity and compatibility problems
that typically arise when different hardware environments are involved.
PTS: 1 REF: 410
3. A high-capacity transaction processing system, such as an order entry system, requires less
network, processing, and data storage resources than a monthly billing system that handles
data in batches.
PTS: 1 REF: 410
4. In a client/server design, the data file is transferred from the server to the client — only the
request and the result are not transmitted across the network.
PTS: 1 REF: 413
5. Implementation of early client/server systems was expensive because clients needed more
powerful hardware and software to handle shared processing tasks.
PTS: 1 REF: 413
6. Today, client/server architecture is the dominant form of systems design, using Internet
protocols and network models.
PTS: 1 REF: 414
7. The advantage of the application logic layer is that a three-tier design enhances overall
performance by reducing the data server's workload.
PTS: 1 REF: 415
8. A three-tier design includes a middle layer between the client and server that processes the
client requests and translates them into data access commands that can be understood and
carried out by the server.
PTS: 1 REF: 414-415

9. The disadvantage of an application logic layer is that a three-tier design reduces overall
performance by increasing the data server’s workload.
PTS: 1 REF: 415
10. As the size of a business changes, it is easier to alter the capability of a large-scale central
server than it is to adjust the number of clients and the processing functions they perform.
PTS: 1 REF: 416
11. In contrast to a centralized system, a client/server design separates applications and data.
PTS: 1 REF: 417
12. Although the cloud requires no updates or maintenance, it does introduce significant
compatibility issues.
PTS: 1 REF: 418
13. A user’s computer does not perform processing or computing tasks with cloud computing
— the cloud does.
PTS: 1 REF: 418
14. Even if a user's Internet connection becomes unavailable, he or she will still be able to
access certain cloud-based services.
PTS: 1 REF: 419
15. Web 2.0 is a reference to a more technically advanced version of the current Web.
PTS: 1 REF: 419
16. An ASP provides applications, or access to applications, by charging a usage or
subscription fee.
PTS: 1 REF: 421
17. A specific physical topology can support at most one logical topology.
PTS: 1 REF: 425
18. One disadvantage of a hierarchical network is that if a business adds additional processing
levels, the network becomes more complex and expensive to operate and maintain.
PTS: 1 REF: 426
19. A gateway is a device that connects network segments, determines the most efficient data
path, and guides the flow of data.

PTS: 1 REF: 428
20. Any network topology can connect to a larger, dissimilar network, such as the Internet;
this connection is called a router.
PTS: 1 REF: 428
21. Visio is an example of a tool that can help users represent the physical structure and
network components.
PTS: 1 REF: 429
22. 802.16 standards are broadband wireless communications protocols for local area
networks.
PTS: 1 REF: 432
23. Securing approvals from users throughout the design phase ensures that a systems analyst
does not have the major task of obtaining approvals at the end, keeps users involved with
the system’s development, and gives feedback about whether or not the analyst is on
target.
PTS: 1 REF: 433
24. At the end of the systems design phase, the first presentation given by the systems analyst
is to department managers and users from departments affected by the system and, because
of its audience, the presentation is technically oriented.
PTS: 1 REF: 434
25. In a typical client/server system, the client stores the data and provides data access and
database management functions.
PTS: 1 REF: 435
COMPLETION
1. ____________________ translates the logical design of an information system into a
physical structure that includes hardware, software, network support, and processing
methods.
2. Many companies engage in a process called ____________________, the objective of
which is to establish a company-wide strategy for using IT resources.
3. A main advantage of ERP is that it describes a specific hardware and software
____________________ that ensures connectivity and easy integration of future systems,
including in-house software and commercial packages.

4. Many companies are extending ERP systems to suppliers and customers in a process
called ____________________, in which a customer order can cause a production
planning system to schedule a work order, which in turn triggers a call for certain parts
from suppliers.
5. An information system includes ____________________, which are programs that handle
the input, manage the processing logic, and provide the required output.
6. A(n) ____________________ architecture follows Internet design protocols and enables a
company to integrate new applications into its e-commerce strategy.
7. A new system might have to interface with one or more ____________________, which
are older systems that use outdated technology.
8. If a system must operate online, 24 hours a day and seven days a week (typically known as
____________________), provision must be made for backup and speedy recovery in the
event of system failure.
9. In addition to centralized data processing, the earliest systems performed all data input and
output at a central location, often called a(n) ____________________.
10. When an individual user works in ____________________ mode, the workstation
performs all the functions of a server by storing, accessing, and processing data as well as
providing a user interface.
11. Most companies resolved the problems of stand-alone computing by joining clients into
a(n) ____________________ that allows sharing of data and hardware resources.
12. A(n) ____________________ spans long distances and can connect LANs that are
continents apart.
13. When a user accesses data on a LAN or WAN, the network is ____________________
because the user sees the data as if it were stored on his or her own workstation.
14. Company-wide systems that connect one or more LANs or WANs are called
____________________.

15. Although no standard definition exists, the term ____________________ generally refers
to systems that divide processing between one or more networked clients and a central
server.
16. In the past, many companies had an installed base of data, called ____________________,
which was difficult to access and transport to a client/server environment.
17. In a(n) ____________________ client/server design, as illustrated in the accompanying
figure, the user interface resides on the client, all data resides on the server, and the
application logic can run either on the server, on the client, or be divided between the
client and server.
18. In a(n) ____________________ client/server design, as illustrated in the accompanying
figure, the user interface runs on the client and the data is stored on the server, just as with
a two-tier design.
19. In a three-tier design, as illustrated in the accompanying figure, the middle layer can be
thought of as a(n) ____________________, because it provides the application logic, or
business logic, required by the system.
20. As users collaborate in Web 2.0 communities, new layers of information are added in an
overall environment known as the ____________________ operating system.
MATCHING
a. WiMAX f. infrastructure mode
b. distributed systems g. roaming
c. amendment h. gateway
d. 802.11n i. legacy systems
e. router j. scalability
1. Another name for the wireless configuration in which a central wireless device is used to
serve all wireless clients.
2. Process that automatically allows a wireless client to associate with a stronger access
point.
3. The connection between a network topology and a larger, dissimilar network.

4. Another term for a version of a wireless standard intended to improve bandwidth, range,
and security.
5. A device that connects network segments, determines the most efficient data path, and
guides the flow of data.
6. Compared to mainframe architecture, these increase concerns about data security and
integrity because many individual clients require access to perform processing.
7. Broadband wireless communications protocols for metropolitan area networks.
8. Standard that uses MIMO technology to boost performance.
9. When considering physical design, a systems analyst must determine how a new
application will communicate with these.
10. Especially important in implementing systems that are volume-related, such as transaction
processing systems.
ESSAY
1. During the final design stage, you make decisions that will have a major impact on the
initial costs and TCO for the new system. At this point, you should review all previous
cost estimates and ask a series of questions. List at least six of the questions you should
ask at this point.
2. Discuss cloud computing at length, including its advantages and disadvantages. Be sure to
include a definition of all relevant terms in your explanation.
3. List at least five guidelines for developing an e-commerce site in-house.
CASE
Case 10-1
Grant has been asked to classify a number of different processing systems that his
consultancy's client uses.
1. Grant is analyzing a processing system and he has determined that it is an online
processing system and not a batch processing system. Which of the following, then, is not
one of the system's characteristics?
a. The users at the client site interact directly with the information system.
b. The system's tasks can be planned and run on a predetermined schedule, without user

involvement.
c. The users at the client site can access data in the information system randomly.
d. The system processes transactions completely when and where they occur.
2. Grant is looking at a second system. This system, he determines, is a batch processing
system. How does he know?
a. Users can access data randomly.
b. The information system at the client site is available whenever necessary to support
business functions.
c. The system at the client site processes transactions completely when and where they
occur.
d. The IT operations group at the client site runs programs at a predetermined schedule,
without user involvement, during regular business hours, at night, or on weekends.
Case 10-2
Sasha is making recommendations to clients about the kinds of network topologies they
should consider, given their particular circumstances.
3. Sasha's first client is looking for a network topology that is highly redundant and reliable,
and she’s not particularly concerned about the expense required to install and maintain the
network. Which of the following is Sasha most likely to recommend?
a. mesh network
b. bus network
c. star network
d. hub network
4. Sasha's client is risk-averse and wants to leverage whatever the most popular LAN
topology is — in order to be on the bandwagon with everyone else. In light of this, which
of the following will Sasha recommend to this client?
a. bus network
b. ring network
c. hub network
d. star network
Chapter 11 – Managing Systems Implementation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. To achieve better, faster, and less expensive methods of software development, ____

designed the Capability Maturity Model (CMM), which improves quality, reduces
development time, and cuts costs.
a. ISO (International Organization for Standardization)
b. SEI (Software Engineering Institute)
c. ODBC (Open Database Connectivity)
d. CAIT (Center for the Application of Information Technologies)
PTS: 1 REF: 450
2. Software ____ is a software development process that stresses solid design, effective
structure, accurate documentation, and careful testing.
a. analysis c. agility
b. engineering d. synthesis
PTS: 1 REF: 450
3. ____ requires that a software supplier document all testing and maintain records of test
results.
a. ISO (International Organization for Standardization)
b. SEI (Software Engineering Institute)
c. ODBC (Open Database Connectivity)
d. CAIT (Center for the Application of Information Technologies)
PTS: 1 REF: 452
4. Application ____ is the process of constructing the programs and code modules that serves
as the building blocks of an information system.
a. structuring c. development
b. analysis d. connectivity
PTS: 1 REF: 452
5. A ____ consists of related program code organized into small units that are easy to
understand and maintain.
a. mode c. decision tree
b. stub d. module
PTS: 1 REF: 453
6. ____ graphically represent the logical rules and interaction between program modules
using a series of symbols connected by arrows.
a. Training plans c. Flowcharts
b. Acceptance tests d. Simulations

PTS: 1 REF: 454
7. In a(n) ____ approach, the systems analyst documents the system’s requirements and then
breaks them down into subsystems and modules.
a. top-down c. indexed
b. piloted d. integrated
PTS: 1 REF: 456
8. In a structure chart, a control couple shows a message, also called a status ____, which one
module sends to another.
a. pilot c. loop
b. flag d. unit
PTS: 1 REF: 457
9. In a structure chart, a curved arrow represents a ____, which indicates that one or more
modules are repeated.
a. pilot c. loop
b. flag d. unit
PTS: 1 REF: 457
10. In a structure chart, a(n) ____ line, which has a diamond on one end, indicates that a
control module determines which subordinate modules will be invoked.
a. method c. class
b. condition d. attribute
PTS: 1 REF: 457
11. ____ measures a module’s scope and processing characteristics.
a. Coupling c. Cohesion
b. Indexing d. Piloting
PTS: 1 REF: 457
12. A module that performs a single function or task has a high degree of ____, which is
desirable.
a. piloting c. cohesion
b. indexing d. resolution

PTS: 1 REF: 457
13. ____ describes the degree of interdependence among modules.
a. Resolution c. Dynamism
b. Modularity d. Coupling
PTS: 1 REF: 458
14. In sequence, the four steps typically followed to create a structure chart are ____.
a. review the DFDs; identify modules and relationships; add couples, loops, and
conditions; analyze the structure chart and the data dictionary
b. identify modules and relationships; add couples, loops, and conditions; analyze the
structure chart and the data dictionary; review the DFDs
c. add couples, loops, and conditions; analyze the structure chart and the data dictionary;
review the DFDs; identify modules and relationships
d. analyze the structure chart and the data dictionary; review the DFDs; identify modules
and relationships; add couples, loops, and conditions
PTS: 1 REF: 459-460
15. A class diagram includes the class ____, which represent the program logic.
a. attributes c. methods
b. events d. characters
PTS: 1 REF: 461
16. A class diagram includes the class ____, which describe the characteristics of objects in
the class.
a. methods c. events
b. keys d. attributes
PTS: 1 REF: 461
17. In ____ programming, two programmers work on the same task on the same computer.
a. parallel c. double
b. duo d. driver
PTS: 1 REF: 465
18. The objective of ____ testing is to identify and eliminate execution errors that could cause
a program to terminate abnormally, and logic errors that could have been missed during
desk checking.
a. unit c. user
b. integration d. system

PTS: 1 REF: 466
19. ____ is the process of reviewing the program code to spot logic errors, which produce
incorrect results.
a. Desk checking c. Results walkthrough
b. Code review d. Logic review
PTS: 1 REF: 466
20. Many organizations require a more formal type of desk checking called a structured
walkthrough, or ____ review.
a. design c. code
b. integrated d. interpolated
PTS: 1 REF: 466
21. In addition to analyzing logic and program code, a project team usually holds a session
with users, called a ____ walkthrough, to review the interface with a cross-section of
people who will work with the new system and ensure that all the necessary features have
been included.
a. unit c. testing
b. design d. user
PTS: 1 REF: 466
22. The testing of an individual module is called ____ testing.
a. modular c. stub
b. index d. unit
PTS: 1 REF: 466
23. In a technique called ____ testing, the programmer simulates each program outcome or
result and displays a message to indicate whether or not the program executed
successfully.
a. modular c. outcome
b. stub d. unit
PTS: 1 REF: 467
24. Integration testing is sometimes known as ____ testing.
a. unit c. link
b. modular d. outcome

PTS: 1 REF: 467
25. During ____ testing, programmers must test programs that interact with other programs
and files individually, before they are integrated into the system.
a. unit c. link
b. integrated d. outcome
PTS: 1 REF: 467
26. Which of the following is not specified by the detailed procedures in a test plan?
a. How and when testing will be performed
b. What test data will be used
c. Who will participate
d. What the rate of the forward engineering will be
PTS: 1 REF: 467
27. Successful completion of system testing is the key to user and management approval,
which is why system tests sometimes are called ____.
a. implementation tests c. structure tests
b. modular tests d. acceptance tests
PTS: 1 REF: 468
28. Program documentation ____.
a. describes the inputs, outputs, and processing logic for all program modules
b. describes a system’s functions and how they are implemented
c. contains all the information needed for processing and distributing printed output
d. consists of instructions and information to users who will interact with the system
PTS: 1 REF: 469
29. Operations documentation ____.
c. contains all the information needed for processing and distributing online and printed
output
PTS: 1 REF: 471
30. User documentation ____.

c. contains all the information needed for processing and distributing printed output
PTS: 1 REF: 471
31. Unless a problem must be corrected, or modifications or enhancements must be made,
access to the operational environment is limited to ____ and must be strictly controlled.
a. systems analysts c. programmers
b. users d. managers
PTS: 1 REF: 475
32. A Web site for the ____ describes a variety of IT education and training resources.
a. International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
b. Software Engineering Institute (SEI)
c. Open Database Connectivity (ODBC)
d. Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT)
PTS: 1 REF: 478
33. Using a ____ strategy, knowledgeable users can be selected who then conduct sessions for
others.
a. structured walkthrough c. desk checking
b. train-the-trainer d. top-down design
PTS: 1 REF: 479
34. ____ cutover involves more risk than other changeover methods.
a. Direct c. Parallel
b. Pilot d. Phased
PTS: 1 REF: 485
35. As the accompanying figure illustrates, the ____ approach causes the changeover from the
old system to the new system to occur immediately when the new system becomes
operational.
a. phased operation c. pilot operation
b. parallel operation d. direct cutover

PTS: 1 REF: 485
36. As the accompanying figure illustrates, the ____ changeover method requires that both the
old and the new information systems operate fully for a specific period.
PTS: 1 REF: 485
37. As the accompanying figure illustrates, the ____ changeover method involves
implementing the complete new system at a selected location of the company.
PTS: 1 REF: 486
38. As the accompanying figure illustrates, the ____ changeover method allows the new
system to be implemented in stages, or modules.
PTS: 1 REF: 486
39. When evaluating a system, which of the following is not necessary for a systems analyst to
do?
a. Observe users and computer operations personnel working with the new system
b. Examine all source documents, output reports, and screen displays
c. Use interviews to gather information and opinions from a large number of users
d. Read all documentation and training materials
PTS: 1 REF: 488
40. At the end of the systems implementation phase, the final report to management should
include ____.
a. final versions of all system documentation
b. a comparison of actual costs and schedules to the original estimates
c. planned modifications and enhancements to the system that have been identified
d. all of the above
PTS: 1 REF: 489
MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. In a top-down design, the overall objectives of a system are broken down into ____ in a
process called partitioning.
a. subsystems c. modules
b. flags d. pilot sites
2. If a module must perform multiple tasks, ____.
a. the module will be less difficult to create and maintain
b. the module will be more difficult to create and maintain
c. less complex coding is required
d. more complex coding is required
3. User documentation includes ____.
a. security and audit trail information
b. program, systems analyst, programmer, and system identification
c. frequently asked questions (FAQs)
d. description of source document content, preparation, processing, and samples
4. The test environment for an information system contains ____.
a. hardware and software configurations and settings
b. system utilities
c. copies of all programs and procedures
d. copies of test data files
5. When developing a training program, which of the following guidelines should be kept in
mind?
a. train people individually, with shared training programs for distinct groups
b. select the most effective place to conduct the training
c. provide for learning by hearing, seeing, and doing
d. rely on previous trainees
MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE
1. Modules that are independent are tightly coupled. _________________________
2. If one module refers to internal logic contained in another module, the modules are loosely

coupled. _________________________
3. Errors found during a structured walkthrough are harder to fix.
_________________________
4. Podcasts can be prescheduled, made available on demand, or delivered as automatic
updates. _________________________
5. Parallel operation is the least costly changeover method. _________________________
TRUE/FALSE
1. Although programmers perform the actual coding, IT managers usually assign systems
analysts to work with them as part of a team.
PTS: 1 REF: 453
2. Using flowcharts, programmers can break large systems into subsystems that are easier to
understand and code.
PTS: 1 REF: 454
3. If a module must be made more cohesive, it can be combined into one unit, which
performs multiple functions.
PTS: 1 REF: 458
4. Structure charts are based on the DFDs constructed during data and process modeling and
object models that might have been developed.
PTS: 1 REF: 459
5. To draw a structure chart, working from a logical model the systems analyst transforms
program modules into functional primitives and object methods.
PTS: 1 REF: 459
6. Working from a general plan, a programmer uses a programming language to transform
code statements into program logic.
PTS: 1 REF: 465
7. Systems analysts use application generators, report writers, screen generators, fourth-
generation languages, and other CASE tools that produce code directly from program
design specifications.

PTS: 1 REF: 466
8. Compiling a program using a CASE tool or a language compiler detects syntax errors,
which are language grammar errors.
PTS: 1 REF: 466
9. When the output from a validation program becomes input to a master file update
program, testing the two programs independently guarantees that the data passed between
them is correct.
PTS: 1 REF: 467
10. A testing sequence should move to the integration stage as soon as it has performed
properly in any unit tests.
PTS: 1 REF: 468
11. Commercial software packages must undergo unit and integration testing similar to that of
in-house developed systems, although system testing usually is not performed.
PTS: 1 REF: 468
12. Systems analysts prepare overall documentation, such as process descriptions and report
layouts, early in the SDLC.
PTS: 1 REF: 469
13. A systems analyst prepares most of the systems documentation during the systems analysis
and systems design phases.
PTS: 1 REF: 470
14. The skill set required to develop documentation usually is the same as that to develop a
system.
PTS: 1 REF: 471
15. Systems analysts seldom are responsible for preparing documentation to help users learn a
system.
PTS: 1 REF: 471
16. Effective online documentation is an important productivity tool because it empowers
users and reduces the time that IT staff members must spend in providing telephone, e-
mail, or face-to-face assistance.
PTS: 1 REF: 472
17. Most Webinars are Web-based broadcasts that allow a user to download multimedia files

to a PC or portable device.
PTS: 1 REF: 478
18. Data conversion is easier when the new system replaces a manual system, because all data
can be entered manually, unless it must be scanned.
PTS: 1 REF: 484
19. To minimize the need to require information from two different systems, cyclical
information systems usually are converted using the direct cutover method at the
beginning of a quarter, calendar year, or fiscal year.
PTS: 1 REF: 485
20. Restricting the implementation to a pilot site increases the risk of system failure, compared
with a direct cutover method, and operating both systems for only the pilot site is more
expensive than a parallel operation for the entire company.
PTS: 1 REF: 486
21. Phased operation is more expensive than full parallel operation because the entire system
must be worked with at one time.
PTS: 1 REF: 486
22. The post-implementation evaluation verifies that a new system meets specified
requirements, complies with user objectives, and produces the anticipated benefits.
PTS: 1 REF: 487
23. Whenever possible, people who were not directly involved in developing a system should
conduct the post-implementation evaluation.
PTS: 1 REF: 488
24. Post-implementation evaluation primarily is concerned with assessing the quality of a new
system.
PTS: 1 REF: 489
25. Post-implementation evaluations are optional for most information systems projects.
PTS: 1 REF: 489
COMPLETION
1. The main objective of ____________________ is to avoid problems or to detect them as
soon as possible.

2. A(n) ____________________, such as that illustrated in the accompanying figure, consists
of rectangles that represent the program modules, with arrows and other symbols that
provide additional information.
3. In the accompanying figure, a higher-level module, called a(n) ____________________
module, directs lower-level modules.
4. In the accompanying figure, a lower-level module is called a(n) ____________________
module.
5. In the accompanying figure, a(n) ____________________ module is reusable code and
can be invoked from more than one point in a structure chart.
6. Testing two or more programs that depend on each other is called
____________________.
7. After completing integration testing, a systems analyst must perform
____________________, which involves the entire information system and includes all
typical processing situations.
8. System developers use ____________________ software to document and track program
defects, code changes, and replacement code.
9. Replacement code for applications is sometimes referred to as ____________________.
10. ____________________ describes the system, helps people interact with it, and includes
program documentation, system documentation, operations documentation, and user
documentation.
11. The environment for the actual system operation is called the ____________________
environment.
12. A pre-recorded Webinar session can be delivered as a(n) ____________________, which
is a one-way transmission, whenever a user wants or needs training support.
13. A(n) ____________________ refers to a Web-based broadcast that allows a user to

CIS 210 Week 11 Final Exam Study Guide

CIS 210 Week 11 Final Exam Study Guide

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