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Test Management
Sample Questions
Question 1
Why is independent testing important?
A. Independent testing is usually cheaper than
testing your own work.
B. Independent testing is more effective at finding
defects.
C. Independent testers should determine the
processes and methodologies used.
D. Independent testers are dispassionate about
whether the project succeeds or fails.
Question 2
Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a
test leader?
A. Develop system requirements, design
specifications and usage models.
B. Handle all test automation duties.
C. Keep tests and test coverage hidden from
programmers.
D. Gather and report test progress metrics.
Question 3
According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we mean
when we call someone a test manager?
A. A test manager manages a collection of test
leaders.
B. A test manager is the leader of a test team or
teams.
C. A test manager gets paid more than a test leader.
D. A test manager reports to a test leader.
Question 4
What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design
specification, and the test procedure specification?
A. The test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design
specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test
procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test.
B. The test plan is for managers, the test design specification is for
programmers and the test procedure specification is for testers who
are automating tests.
C. The test plan is the least thorough, the test procedure specification is
the most thorough and the test design specification is midway
between the two.
D. The test plan is finished in the first third of the project, the test design
specification is finished in the middle third of the project and the test
procedure specification is finished in the last third of the project.
Question 5
Which of the following factors is an influence on the
test effort involved in most projects?
A. Geographical separation of tester and
programmers.
B. The departure of the test manager during the
project.
C. The quality of the information used to develop the
tests.
D. Unexpected long-term illness by a member of the
project team.
Question 6
The ISTQB Foundation Syllabus establishes a fundamental
test process where test planning occurs early in the
project, while test execution occurs at the end. Which of
the following elements of the test plan, while specified
during test planning, is assessed during test execution?
A. Test tasks
B. Environmental needs
C. Exit criteria
D. Test team training
Question 7
Consider the following exit criteria which might be
found in a test plan:
I No known customer-critical defects.
II All interfaces between components tested.
III 100% code coverage of all units.
IV All specified requirements satisfied.
V System functionality matches legacy system for
all business rules.
Which of the following statements is true about whether
these exit criteria belong in an acceptance test plan?
A. All statements belong in an acceptance test plan.
B. Only statement I belongs in an acceptance test plan.
C. Only statements I, II, and V belong in an acceptance
test plan.
D. Only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance
test plan.
Question 8
According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level?
A. A group of test activities that are organized
together.
B. One or more test design specification documents.
C. A test type.
D. An ISTQB certification.
Question 9
Which of the following metrics would be most useful
to monitor during test execution?
A. Percentage of test cases written.
B. Number of test environments remaining to be
configured.
C. Number of defects found and fixed.
D. Percentage of requirements for which a test has
been written.
Question 10
During test execution, the test manager describes the
following situation to the project team:
• 90% of the test cases have been run.
• 20% of the test cases have identified defects.
• 127 defects have been found.
• 112 defects have been fixed and have passed
confirmation testing.
• Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has
decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to
release.
Which of the following is the most reasonable
interpretation of this test status report?
A. The remaining 15 defects should be confirmation
tested prior to release.
B. The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior
to release.
C. The system is now ready for release with no further
testing or development effort.
D. The programmers should focus their attention on
fixing the remaining known defects prior to release.
Question 11
In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes
the following statement, 'The payment processing
subsystem fails to accept payments from American
Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work
feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be
found in which of the following sections?
A. Evaluation
B. Summary of activities
C. Variances
D. Incident description
Question 12
During an early period of test execution, a defect is
located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing,
but is seen again later during subsequent test execution.
Which of the following is a testing-related aspect of
configuration management that is most likely to have
broken down?
A. Traceability
B. Confirmation testing
C. Configuration control
D. Test documentation management
Question 13
You are working as a tester on a project to develop a
point-of-sales system for grocery stores and other similar
retail outlets. Which of the following is a product risk for
such a project?
A. The arrival of a more-reliable competing product on
the market.
B. Delivery of an incomplete test release to the first cycle
of system test.
C. An excessively high number of defect fixes fail during
re-testing.
D. Failure to accept allowed credit cards.
Question 14
A product risk analysis meeting is held during the
project planning period. Which of the following
determines the level of risk?
A. Difficulty of fixing related problems in code
B. The harm that might result to the user
C. The price for which the software is sold
D. The technical staff in the meeting
Question 15
You are writing a test plan using the IEEE 829 template
and are currently completing the Risks and Contingencies
section. Which of the following is most likely to be listed
as a project risk?
A. Unexpected illness of a key team member
B. Excessively slow transaction-processing time
C. Data corruption under network congestion
D. Failure to handle a key use case
Question 16
You and the project stakeholders develop a list of product risks and
project risks during the planning stage of a project. What else should
you do with those lists of risks during test planning?
A. Determine the extent of testing required for the product risks
and the mitigation and contingency actions required for the
project risks.
B. Obtain the resources needed to completely cover each product
risk with tests and transfer responsibility for the project risks to
the project manager.
C. Execute sufficient tests for the product risks, based on the
likelihood and impact of each product risk and execute
mitigation actions for all project risks.
D. No further risk management action is required at the test
planning stage.
Question 17
According to the ISTQB Glossary, a product risk is
related to which of the following?
A. Control of the test project
B. The test object
C. A single test item
D. A potential negative outcome
Question 18
In an incident report, the tester makes the following statement, At
this point, I expect to receive an error message explaining the
rejection of this invalid input and asking me to enter a valid input.
Instead the system accepts the input, displays an hourglass for
between one and five seconds and finally terminates abnormally,
giving the message, "Unexpected data type: 15. Click to continue." '
This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections
of an IEEE 829 standard incident report?
A. Summary
B. Impact
C. Item pass/fail criteria
D. Incident description
Question 19
According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a
document that describes any event that occurred
during testing which requires further investigation?
A. A bug report
B. A defect report
C. An incident report
D. A test summary report
Question 20
A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage
of the test process.
During the execution stage of the test process, the test
manager directs the testers to classify each defect report by
the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a
week, the test manager runs a report that shows the
percentage of defects related to each known product risk and
to unknown risks. What is one possible use of such a report?
A. To identify new risks to system quality.
B. To locate defect clusters in product subsystems.
C. To check risk coverage by tests.
D. To measure exploratory testing.

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Graham et.al, 2008, Foundations of Software Testing ISTQB Certification. Chapter 05. Test Management. QA

  • 2. Question 1 Why is independent testing important? A. Independent testing is usually cheaper than testing your own work. B. Independent testing is more effective at finding defects. C. Independent testers should determine the processes and methodologies used. D. Independent testers are dispassionate about whether the project succeeds or fails.
  • 3. Question 2 Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a test leader? A. Develop system requirements, design specifications and usage models. B. Handle all test automation duties. C. Keep tests and test coverage hidden from programmers. D. Gather and report test progress metrics.
  • 4. Question 3 According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we mean when we call someone a test manager? A. A test manager manages a collection of test leaders. B. A test manager is the leader of a test team or teams. C. A test manager gets paid more than a test leader. D. A test manager reports to a test leader.
  • 5. Question 4 What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification? A. The test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test. B. The test plan is for managers, the test design specification is for programmers and the test procedure specification is for testers who are automating tests. C. The test plan is the least thorough, the test procedure specification is the most thorough and the test design specification is midway between the two. D. The test plan is finished in the first third of the project, the test design specification is finished in the middle third of the project and the test procedure specification is finished in the last third of the project.
  • 6. Question 5 Which of the following factors is an influence on the test effort involved in most projects? A. Geographical separation of tester and programmers. B. The departure of the test manager during the project. C. The quality of the information used to develop the tests. D. Unexpected long-term illness by a member of the project team.
  • 7. Question 6 The ISTQB Foundation Syllabus establishes a fundamental test process where test planning occurs early in the project, while test execution occurs at the end. Which of the following elements of the test plan, while specified during test planning, is assessed during test execution? A. Test tasks B. Environmental needs C. Exit criteria D. Test team training
  • 8. Question 7 Consider the following exit criteria which might be found in a test plan: I No known customer-critical defects. II All interfaces between components tested. III 100% code coverage of all units. IV All specified requirements satisfied. V System functionality matches legacy system for all business rules.
  • 9. Which of the following statements is true about whether these exit criteria belong in an acceptance test plan? A. All statements belong in an acceptance test plan. B. Only statement I belongs in an acceptance test plan. C. Only statements I, II, and V belong in an acceptance test plan. D. Only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
  • 10. Question 8 According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level? A. A group of test activities that are organized together. B. One or more test design specification documents. C. A test type. D. An ISTQB certification.
  • 11. Question 9 Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution? A. Percentage of test cases written. B. Number of test environments remaining to be configured. C. Number of defects found and fixed. D. Percentage of requirements for which a test has been written.
  • 12. Question 10 During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: • 90% of the test cases have been run. • 20% of the test cases have identified defects. • 127 defects have been found. • 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. • Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.
  • 13. Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report? A. The remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release. B. The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release. C. The system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort. D. The programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to release.
  • 14. Question 11 In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement, 'The payment processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections? A. Evaluation B. Summary of activities C. Variances D. Incident description
  • 15. Question 12 During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the following is a testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down? A. Traceability B. Confirmation testing C. Configuration control D. Test documentation management
  • 16. Question 13 You are working as a tester on a project to develop a point-of-sales system for grocery stores and other similar retail outlets. Which of the following is a product risk for such a project? A. The arrival of a more-reliable competing product on the market. B. Delivery of an incomplete test release to the first cycle of system test. C. An excessively high number of defect fixes fail during re-testing. D. Failure to accept allowed credit cards.
  • 17. Question 14 A product risk analysis meeting is held during the project planning period. Which of the following determines the level of risk? A. Difficulty of fixing related problems in code B. The harm that might result to the user C. The price for which the software is sold D. The technical staff in the meeting
  • 18. Question 15 You are writing a test plan using the IEEE 829 template and are currently completing the Risks and Contingencies section. Which of the following is most likely to be listed as a project risk? A. Unexpected illness of a key team member B. Excessively slow transaction-processing time C. Data corruption under network congestion D. Failure to handle a key use case
  • 19. Question 16 You and the project stakeholders develop a list of product risks and project risks during the planning stage of a project. What else should you do with those lists of risks during test planning? A. Determine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks. B. Obtain the resources needed to completely cover each product risk with tests and transfer responsibility for the project risks to the project manager. C. Execute sufficient tests for the product risks, based on the likelihood and impact of each product risk and execute mitigation actions for all project risks. D. No further risk management action is required at the test planning stage.
  • 20. Question 17 According to the ISTQB Glossary, a product risk is related to which of the following? A. Control of the test project B. The test object C. A single test item D. A potential negative outcome
  • 21. Question 18 In an incident report, the tester makes the following statement, At this point, I expect to receive an error message explaining the rejection of this invalid input and asking me to enter a valid input. Instead the system accepts the input, displays an hourglass for between one and five seconds and finally terminates abnormally, giving the message, "Unexpected data type: 15. Click to continue." ' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections of an IEEE 829 standard incident report? A. Summary B. Impact C. Item pass/fail criteria D. Incident description
  • 22. Question 19 According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation? A. A bug report B. A defect report C. An incident report D. A test summary report
  • 23. Question 20 A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process. During the execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to classify each defect report by the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a week, the test manager runs a report that shows the percentage of defects related to each known product risk and to unknown risks. What is one possible use of such a report? A. To identify new risks to system quality. B. To locate defect clusters in product subsystems. C. To check risk coverage by tests. D. To measure exploratory testing.

Editor's Notes

  1. 5.1.1
  2. 5.1.4
  3. 5.1
  4. 5.2.2
  5. 5.2.3
  6. 5.2.5
  7. 5.2.7
  8. 5.2
  9. 5.3.1
  10. 5.3.2
  11. 5.3.3
  12. 5.4.1
  13. 5.5.1
  14. 5.5.2
  15. 5.5.3
  16. 5.5.5
  17. 5.5
  18. 5.6.1
  19. C 5.6
  20. Cross-section: 5.3, 5.5, 5.6