This week's discussion topic is this: Are zoning laws a form of taking? If so, is it a taking under the power of eminent domain, thus requiring compensation to the land owner or is it a taking under police powers where no compensation is required? To start this off, let me try to give us some focus. There are some major municipalities that have no zoning regulations (Houston, for one), while other cities are comprehensively zoned. It is the general intent of zoning regulations to restrict incompatible uses from competing with each other; for example, restrict industrial activities to industrial zones, commercial activities to commercial zones, residential activities to residential zones, and so on..