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Presented by : Dr. ReshmaVP
Moderator : Dr. Rashmi M.S
Importance of bacterial identification
• Determining the clinical significance of a particular pathogen ( a pathogen, a contaminant, or normal
microbiota)
• Guiding physician care of the patient through presumptive and final identification methods
• Determining whether laboratory testing for detection of antimicrobial resistance is warranted
• Determining the type of antimicrobial therapy that is appropriate
• Determining whether the infecting organism is a risk for other patients in the hospital, the public, or
laboratory workers
• Collecting epidemiologic data to monitor the control and transmission of organisms
BACTERIAL IDENTIFICATION
PHENOTYPIC METHODS
• Based on observable physical or metabolic
characteristics of bacteria
• Identification is through analysis of gene products
rather than through the genes themselves.
• Microscopic morphology and staining
characteristics
• Macroscopic (colony) morphology, including
odor and pigmentation
• Environmental requirements for growth
• Resistance or susceptibility to antimicrobial
agents
• Nutritional requirements and metabolic
capabilities
• Biochemical reactions including enzymatic
reactions or chemical profiles
GENOTYPIC METHODS
• Detecting the presence of a gene, or a part
thereof, or an RNA product that is specific
for a particular organism.
• In principle, the presence of a specific
gene or a particular nucleic acid sequence
unique to the organism is interpreted as a
definitive identification of the organism.
• Highly specific and often very sensitive.
• Conventional methods
• Automated methods
CONVENTIONAL METHODS
• Direct Microscopy
• Culture
• Morphology of Colony
• Culture Smear and Motility Testing
• Biochemical Reactions
DIRECT MICROSCOPY
• Microscopy is defined as the use of a microscope to magnify objects too small to be
visualized with the naked eye so that their characteristics are readily observable.
• Bright-field (light) microscopy
• Phase contrast microscopy
• Fluorescent microscopy
• Darkfield microscopy.
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
Direct examination of unstained specimens
• Examination of wet preparation/ saline mount:
• Bacterial morphology, arrangement
• Presence of yeast cells
• Presence of inflammatory cells
• Presence of epithelial cells
• Motility
• Serologic reactivity in specific antisera (quellung reaction)
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
Direct examination of unstained specimens (contd.,)
• Hanging drop procedure: for motility
• India ink/ Nigrosin preparation : for capsules
• Dark field examination : to visualize delicate organisms , invisible by bright field
optics- Treponema pallidum
• KOH mount, Iodine mount
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
APPLICATIONS OF MICROSCOPY IN DIAGNOSTIC MICROBIOLOGY:
• Rapid preliminary organism identification by direct visualization in patient specimens
• Detection of different organisms present in the same specimen
• Detection of organisms not easily cultivated in the laboratory
• Evaluation of patient specimens for the presence of cells indicative of inflammation or
contamination
• Determination of an organism’s clinical significance
• Preculture information about which organisms might be expected to grow so that appropriate
cultivation techniques are used
• Determination of which tests and methods should be used for identification and
characterization of cultivated organisms
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
All appropriate specimens should have a direct microscopic examination (smear of the primary
specimen).
Purposes:
Quality of the specimen can be assessed
Early indication of what may be wrong with the patient
Workup of the specimen can be guided by comparing what grows in culture to what was seen on
the original smear.
DIRECT MIICROSCOPY(contd.,)
• PREPARATION:
• Specimen samples are placed on the slide using a swab
or by using a pipette into which liquid specimen has
been aspirated
• Material to be stained is dropped (if liquid) or rolled (if
on a swab) onto the surface of a clean, dry, glass slide.
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
• Squash or crush prep : tissue, bone marrow aspirate, or other aspirated sample.
• The aspirate may be placed in the anticoagulant EDTA tube and inverted several times to mix the
contents.
• To prepare the slide, a drop of the aspirate is placed on a slide and a second slide is gently placed on
top; the two slides are pressed together, crushing or squashing any particulate matter.
• The two slides are then gently slid or pulled apart using a horizontal motion and air-dried before
staining.
• Cytocentrifugation or concentration of a sterile body fluid such as CSF
• In a cytocentrifuge, the hydraulic forces of the liquid cause the fluid to move away from the
sediment, which is then collected on an absorbent material, leaving the particulate matter and
cellular debris in the center of the microscope slide.
• The slide may then be stained for microscopy.
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
Staining methods:
1. Gram stain:
Principal stain used for microscopic examination of bacteria
Rapid presumptive identification of pathogens,
Quality of a specimen
To know whether bacterial pathogens from a specific body site are considered normal microbiota colonizing
the site or the actual cause of infection.
Nearly all clinically important bacteria can be detected using this method- EXCEPTIONS :
Organisms that exist almost exclusively within host cells (e.g., chlamydia)
Lack cell wall (e.g., mycoplasma and ureaplasma)
Insufficient dimension to be resolved by light microscopy (e.g., spirochetes).
Differential stain
 Procedure
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
Staining methods (contd.,):
Gram Stain Examination (Direct Smear):
• 400X magnification : WBCs , epithelial cells, debris, and larger
organisms such as fungi or parasites.
• Oil immersion:
• Presence of bacterial cells as well as the Gram reactions,
morphologies (e.g., cocci or bacilli), and arrangements (e.g., chains,
pairs, clusters) of the cells seen
• Presence of inflammatory cells (e.g., phagocytes) that are key
indicators of an infectious process.
• Presence of other host cells, such as squamous epithelial cells in
respiratory specimens
• Background tissue debris and proteinaceous material- indicates that
specimen material was adequately affixed to the slide.
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
Staining methods (contd.,):
CLINICAL APPLICATIONS OF GRAM STAINING:
• To differentiate Gram positive and Gram negative organisms.
• To know the morphology of bacteria.
• Direct diagnosis of emergency conditions like – Meningococcal meningitis, Pneumococcal meningitis.
• Diagnosis of – Candidiasis, Gonococcal urethritis etc.,
• Choose antibiotics for antibiotic sensitivity testing.
• Choose antibiotics for presumptive treatment in emergency condition
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
Staining methods:
2. Ziehl Neelsen staining:
• Acid fast and non acid fast bacteria
• Mycobacterium tuberculosis
• Nocardia spp., coccidian parasites, such as Cryptosporidium spp
• To detect acid-fast bacteria (e.g., mycobacteria) directly in clinical specimens
• Only performed on specimens from patients highly suspected of having a mycobacterial
infection.
• Procedure:
• Grading:
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
Staining methods:
• Albert’s staining
Procedure
 Albert’s stain – 3-5 min
 Albert’s iodine – 1 min
 Wash & blot dry
• Granules- Bluish black
• Protoplasm – green
• Other organisms –Light green
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
Staining methods:
Silver Impregnation stains
• Spirochaetes, Bartonella henselae
• Too slender to be visualized by bright field microscopy
• Warthin Starry, Dieterle, Steiner silver impregnation stains
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
Staining of spores:
 Unstained wet films under phase contrast microscope: large, refractile, oval or spherical
bodies within bacterial mother cells or else free from the bacteria.
 Ordinary dyes/ Gram’s stain:
 body of the bacillus –deeply coloured
 Spore unstained and appear as clear area
 Modified ZN stain : 0.25% sulphuric acid as decolourizer
 Red spores in blue stained bacteria
• MALACHITE GREEN STAIN FOR SPORES
• Colours the spores green & the vegetative bacilli red
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
Capsule Staining methods:
• India Ink method
• Nigrosin
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
PHASE CONTRAST MICROSCOPY
• Wet mount – non viscous liquid- urine
• Sample suspended in sterile saline – vaginal sample
• Observation of viable microorganisms
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
FLOURESCENT MICROSCOPY
• Fluorochroming and immunofluorescence
• Fluorochroming : direct chemical interaction between fluorescent dye & component of bacterial cell
• Min concentration of 104 /mL organisms
• Acridine orange: binds to nucleic acid - bright orange fluorescence
• to confirm the presence of bacteria in blood cultures when Gram stain results are difficult to interpret
• To detect bacteria , when the presence is highly suspected but none are detected using light microscopy.
• Nonspecific.
• Does not discriminate between gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.
• For detection of cell wall–deficient bacteria (e.g., mycoplasmas) grown in culture that are incapable of retaining the
dyes used in the Gram stain
• Auramine-rhodamine: binds to mycolic acid- all mycobacteria
• Bright yellow/orange against a greenish background
• Calcofluor white : for fungus
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
DARK-FIELD MICROSCOPY
• For detecting certain bacteria directly in patient specimens
• Cannot be seen by light microscopy - because of their thin dimensions
• Difficult to grow in culture- because of their physiology,
• To detect spirochetes- Treponema pallidum- appear extremely bright against a black field.
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
RECENT ADVANCES:
DIGITAL AUTOMATED MICROSCOPY
• Automation in digital microscopy- using sophisticated software and unique technology
• To acquire microscopic digital images of Gram stains using a web-based interface.
• This interface allows images to be viewed on a single screen, using a fully automated
microscope
• Allows the viewer to track the slide on the x and y axis, very much like using a standard
microscope.
• A number of technologies, including Leica and PathXL, currently provide mobile device
viewers for virtual microscopy.
DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,)
RECENT ADVANCES:
DIGITAL HOLOGRAPHIC MICROSCOPY
• To visualize bacteria in aqueous environments without the loss of resolution in samples 1mm
thick.
• 100 fold greater resolution than most bright field microscopes
• Has the potential to improve the identification of low concentrations of organisms in clinical
samples.
CULTURE
• Purposes:
• To grow and isolate all bacteria present in a clinical specimen
• To determine which of the bacteria that grow are most likely causing infection and which are likely
contaminants or colonizers
• To obtain sufficient growth of clinically relevant bacteria to allow identification, characterization,
and susceptibility testing
• Cultivation is the process of growing microorganisms in culture by taking bacteria from the infection
site (i.e., the in vivo environment) by some means of specimen collection and growing them in the
artificial environment of the laboratory (i.e., the in vitro environment).
• The successful transition from the in vivo to the in vitro environment requires that the nutritional and
environmental growth requirements of bacterial pathogens be met.
• EXCEPTIONS : Treponema pallidum, Mycobacterium leprae
CULTURE MEDIA (contd.,)
• Broth (liquid)/ solid(agar) / biphasic
• Broth media- nutrients are dissolved in water
• Bacterial growth is indicated by a change in the broth’s appearance from clear to turbid
• At least 106
bacteria per milliliter of broth are needed for turbidity to be detected with the
unaided eye.
• Some broths contain a pH indicator, such as phenol red
CULTURE MEDIA (contd.,)
Thioglycollate broth, which contains a small amount of agar (making it a semisolid medium)
• Provides an indication of the type of organism present based on oxygen requirements.
• Strict anaerobes will grow at the bottom of the broth tube
• Aerobes will grow near the surface.
• Microaerophilic organisms will grow slightly below the surface where oxygen concentrations are lower
than atmospheric concentrations.
• Facultative anaerobes and aerotolerant organisms will grow throughout the medium, because they are
unaffected by the variation in oxygen content
CULTURE MEDIA (contd.,)
• Solid medium : solidifying agent added to the nutrients and water.
• Agar- melting at high temperatures (≥95°C) but resolidifying after the temperature falls below 50°C.
• Agar plate.
• Agar deep
• Agar slant
• Different agar media usually are identified according to the major nutritive components of the medium
• The resulting bacterial population is considered to be derived from a single bacterial cell and is known
as a pure colony.
• All bacterial cells within a single colony are the same genus and species, having identical genetic and
phenotypic characteristics (i.e., are derived from a single clone).
• Pure cultures are required for subsequent procedures used to identify and characterize bacteria.
CULTURE MEDIA (contd.,)
Primary culture media: Nutritive media, selective media, differential media, enrichment media .
Nutritive media: tryptic soy agar, nutrient agar
• Support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms
• Nonselective the growth of most organisms is supported.
Selective media support the growth of one group of organisms but not another, by adding antimicrobials,
dyes, or alcohol to a particular medium.
• MacConkey agar, Columbia agar with colistin and nalidixic acid.
• Selective media can also be differential media
CULTURE MEDIA (contd.,)
• Enrichment media:
• Contain specific nutrients for the growth of particular bacterial
pathogens that may be present alone or with other bacterial species
in the specimen
• Buffered Charcoal –Yeast Extract agar (BCYE)- Legionella
pneumophilia (L-cysteine)
• Differential media : employ some factors that allows bacterial colonies
of one type to exhibit certain metabolic or culture characteristic to
distinguish from other bacteria.
• MacConkey agar, blood agar
CULTURE (contd.,)
• BACK UP BROTH:
• In some cases (sterile body fluids, tissues, or deep abscesses in a patient receiving antimicrobial
therapy)
• Along with primary solid (agar) media, backup broth (also called supplemental or enrichment
broth) medium is inoculated, so small numbers of organisms present may be detected.
• Allows detection of anaerobes in aerobic cultures and organisms that may be damaged by either
previous or concurrent antimicrobial therapy.
• Thioglycollate broth, brain-heart infusion broth (BHIB), and tryptic soy broth (TSB)
CULTURE (contd.,)
Selection of media - usually based on the organisms most likely to be involved in the disease
process.
• Example: for a CSF specimen- blood /chocolate agar at a minimum
• Example : if a specimen is collected from a source likely to be contaminated with normal
microbiota – selective media
CULTURE (contd.,)
Sheep Blood Agar :
• Supports growth for all but the most fastidious clinically significant bacteria.
• The medium consists of a base containing a protein source (e.g., tryptones), soybean protein
digest (containing a slight amount of natural carbohydrate), sodium chloride, agar, and 5% sheep
blood.
• Certain bacteria produce extracellular enzymes that lyse red blood cells in the agar (hemolysis).
• Beta -hemolysis
• Alpha -hemolysis
• Gamma - hemolysis or nonhemolytic.
• Transmitted light
CULTURE (contd.,)
Chocolate agar:
• During preparation the red blood cells are lysed when added to molten agar base.
• Release of intracellular nutrients such as hemoglobin, hemin (“X” factor), and the coenzyme
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (“V” factor)
• Fastidious bacteria :Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Haemophilus spp.
CULTURE (contd.,)
Columbia CNA with Blood
• Three peptone sources and 5% defibrinated (whole blood with fibrin removed to
prevent clotting) sheep blood.
• Differentiate bacterial colonies based on the hemolytic reactions they produce.
• CNA refers to the antibiotics colistin (C) and nalidixic acid (NA)
• Colistin disrupts the cell membranes of gram-negative organisms
• Nalidixic acid blocks DNA replication in susceptible organisms
CULTURE (contd.,)
MacConkey agar
• Selective and differential agar.
• Crystal violet dye - inhibit the growth of gram-positive bacteria and fungi and allows many types of
gram-negative bacilli to grow.
• Neutral red - pH indicator
• Fermentation of lactose results in acid production, which decreases the pH of the medium and causes
the neutral red indicator to give bacterial colonies a pink to red color.
• Non–lactose-fermenters, such as Shigella spp., remain colorless and translucent
• Slow fermenters and may not demonstrate a positive fermentation reaction in the first 24 hours of
growth.
CULTURE (contd.,)
CLED agar (Cysteine Lactose Electrolyte Deficient agar)
• Differential, non selective culture medium
• Used for the isolation, enumeration and differentiation of urinary microorganisms.
• It promotes the growth of urinary pathogens, but prevents excessive swarming
of Proteus species due to its lack of electrolytes.
• The medium allows quantitative determination of urinary pathogens when
calibrated loops are used for inoculation.
• Cysteine- promotes coliforms
• Lactose – energy source
• Bromothymol blue –indicator – yellow(acid), dark blue (alkalinization)
CULTURE (contd.,)
Gram-Negative Broth
• A selective broth for the cultivation of gastrointestinal pathogens (i.e., Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.)
from stool specimens and rectal swabs.
• The broth contains several active ingredients, including sodium citrate and sodium deoxycholate- inhibit
gram-positive organisms and the early multiplication of gram-negative, non enteric pathogens.
• Mannitol - primary carbon source.
• GN broth should be subcultured 6 to 8 hours after initial inoculation and incubation.
CULTURE (contd.,)
Hektoen Enteric Agar
• Selective medium : Bile salts and dyes (bromthymol blue & acid fuchsin)
• Slow the growth of most nonpathogenic gram-negative bacilli found in the GIT
• Allow Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp. to grow.
• Differential: many non enteric pathogens that do grow will appear as orange to salmon-colored colonies.
• Fermentation of lactose, sucrose or salicin in the medium, resulting in the production of acid, which
lowers the medium’s pH and causes a color change in the pH indicator bromthymol blue.
• Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.- do not ferment these carbon compounds - no color change occurs and
their colonies maintain the original blue-green color of the medium.
• Contains ferric ammonium citrate - 𝐻2S -producing organisms, such as Salmonella spp., can be
visualized as colonies exhibiting a black precipitate
CULTURE (contd.,)
Phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) agar:
• Sheep blood agar that is supplemented with phenylethyl alcohol to inhibit the growth of gram-
negative bacteria.
• The 5% sheep blood in PEA provides nutrients for common gram-positive cocci such as
enterococci, streptococci, and staphylococci .
• Although it contains sheep blood, PEA agar should not be used in the interpretation of hemolytic
reactions
CULTURE (contd.,)
Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) agar
• Enrichment and selective medium
• For the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitidis
• Enrichment :basal components +chocolatized blood
• Selective capacity : Antibiotics
• Colistin - to inhibit other gram-negative bacteria
• Vancomycin- to inhibit gram-positive bacteria
• Nystatin - to inhibit yeast.
• Trimethoprim - to inhibit Proteus spp.
• Martin-Lewis agar, substitutes ansamycin for nystatin and has a higher concentration of
vancomycin
CULTURE (contd.,)
Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate (XLD) agar
• Selective and differential for Shigella spp. and Salmonella spp.
• Sodium deoxycholate- inhibits many gram-negative bacilli that are not enteric pathogens and inhibits gram
positive organisms.
• Phenol red indicator - detects increased acidity from carbohydrate (i.e., lactose, xylose, and sucrose)
fermentation.
• Enteric pathogens, such as Shigella spp. - do not ferment these carbohydrates, so their colonies remain
colorless (i.e., the same approximate pink to red color of the uninoculated medium).
• Salmonella spp. - Even though they ferment xylose- colorless colonies on XLD because of the
decarboxylation of lysine, which results in a pH increase that causes the pH indicator to turn red.
• These colonies often exhibit a black center that results from Salmonella spp. producing 𝐻2S
• Several of the nonpathogenic organisms ferment one or more of the sugars and produce yellow colonies
CULTURE (contd.,)
• Combination of Blood agar & MacConkey agar
• Chocolate agar : respiratory and sterile body fluids
• Stool specimen :
• Mildly selective media : MacConkey agar
• Highly selective media : DCA, XLD, TCBS agar
• Blood- blood culture bottles
• CLED agar – urine specimen
ANAEROBIC CULTURE MEDIA
• Robertson’s cooked meat (RCM) broth:
• It contains chopped meat particles (beef heart), which provide glutathione (a sulfhydryl
group containing reducing substance) and unsaturated fatty acids.
• It is the most widely used anaerobic culture medium .
• It is also used for maintenance of stock cultures.
• Thioglycollate broth
• Anaerobic blood agar
• Egg yolk agar
• Phenyl ethyl agar
CONVENTIONAL BLOOD CULTURE MEDIA
• BHI broth
• Biphasic medium
LJ MEDIUM
Other culture media
• Mannitol salt agar: yellow colonies of Staphylococcus aureus
• Milk agar
• Loeffler’s serum slope
• Tellurite blood agar
• TCBS agar
• Carrom coin appearance – Pneumococcus
• Medusa head appearance of colony on NA
CULTURE MEDIA- INOCULATION
• Specimen inoculation onto solid media can be done:
• Quantitatively by a dilution procedure or by means of a quantitative loop
• Semiquantitatively using an ordinary inoculating loop.
• Semiquantitation is referred to as streaking for isolation
• The microorganisms present in the specimen are successively diluted out as each quadrant is
streaked until finally each morphotype is present as a single colony.
• Numbers of organisms present can subsequently be graded as:
• 4+ (many, heavy growth) if growth is out to the fourth quadrant,
• 3+ (moderate growth) if growth is out to the third quadrant
• 2+(few or light growth) if growth is in the second quadrant
• 1+ (rare) if growth is in the first quadrant.
INOCULATED MEDIA - INCUBATION
The four most critical environmental factors :
• Oxygen and carbon dioxide (CO2 ) availability
• Temperature
• pH
• Moisture content of the medium
INOCULATED MEDIA- INCUBATION (contd.,)
• Aerobes grow in ambient air, which contains 21% O2 and a small amount (0.03%) of CO2 .
• Anaerobes usually cannot grow in the presence of O2
• Anaerobe jars, bags, or chambers - 5% to 10% H2, 5% to 10% CO2 , 80% to 90% N2 , 0% O2 .
• Capnophiles- increased concentrations of CO2 (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O2 .
• Candle jar (3% CO2 ) or a CO2 incubator, chamber jar, or bag.
• Microaerophiles grow under reduced O2 (5% to 10%) and increased CO2 (8% to 10%).
• Specially designed chamber jars or bags.
• Automated microprocessor-controlled system, the Advanced Axonomat:
• to create the desired atmospheric balance of gases required for specific organismal growth
• Both anaerobic and microaerophilic environments may be produced
INOCULATED MEDIA- INCUBATION (contd.,)
TEMPERATURE :
• Most medically relevant bacteria uses incubators with temperatures maintained in the 35°C to 37°C
• For others, an incubation temperature of 30°C (i.e., the approximate temperature of the body’s
surface) may be preferable
• Recovery of certain organisms can be enhanced by incubation at other temperatures.
• Campylobacter jejuni is able to grow at 42°C - Incubation at this temperature can be used as
temperature enrichment procedure.
• Listeria monocytogenes and Yersinia enterocolitica, can grow at 4°C to 43°C but grow best at
temperatures between 20° and 40°C - Cold enrichment
INOCULATED MEDIA- INCUBATION (contd.,)
pH
• Most clinically relevant bacteria prefer a near-neutral pH range, from 6.5 to 7.5.
Moisture
• Water is provided as a major constituent of both agar and broth media.
• When media are incubated -> a large portion of water content can be lost by evaporation.
• Loss of water from media can be deleterious to bacterial growth in two ways:
• Less water is available for essential bacterial metabolic pathways
• Relative increase in the solute concentration of the media.
• An increased solute concentration can osmotically shock the bacterial cell and cause lysis.
• In addition, increased atmospheric humidity enhances the growth of certain bacterial species.
• Measures such as sealing agar plates or using humidified incubators are used to ensure appropriate
moisture levels are maintained throughout the incubation period
MORPHOLOGY OF BACTERIAL COLONY
• Size
• Shape
• Surface
• Edge
• Elevation
• Consistency
• Density
• Hemolysis
• Pigmentation
HEMOLYSIS ON BLOOD AGAR
• ALPHA
• BETA
• GAMMA
PIGMENT PRODUCTION
• DIFFUSIBLE PIGMENTS : P. aeruginosa
• NON-DIFFUSIBLE PIGMENTS: S. aureus
CELL CULTURES
• Obligate intracellular parasites - require viable host cells for propagation.
• Chlamydiae, rickettsiae, and rickettsiae-like organisms are bacterial pathogens
• Comprise layers of living cells growing on the surface of a solid matrix such as the inside of a glass tube
or the bottom of a plastic flask.
• The presence of bacterial pathogens within the cultured cells is detected by specific changes in the
cells’ morphology.
• Specific stains, composed of antibody conjugates, may be used to detect bacterial antigens within the
cells.
• Cell cultures may also detect certain bacterial toxins (e.g., Clostridium difficile cytotoxin).
• Cell cultures are most commonly used in diagnostic virology.
CULTURE SMEAR
• Indirect smear : contains organisms obtained after growth in artificial media.
• Prepared from solid / semisolid media / broth.
• Occasionally an organism may grow in culture that was not seen in the direct smear.
• Liquid broth culture smears - more clearly and accurately represent the native cellular morphology
and arrangement compared with smears from solid media.
• Preparation :
• Solid medium : using a sterile loop or needle - Emulsified in a drop of sterile water or saline on the
slide.
• For small amounts of growth - a sterile wooden applicator stick
• Allowed to air-dry and is affixed to the slide by placing it on a slide warmer (60° C) for at least 10
minutes or by flooding it with 95% methanol for 1 minute.
• Liquid medium : an aspirated sample of the broth culture is applied to the slide, air-dried, and fixed
before staining
MOTILITYTESTING
• Tumbling motility – Listeria
• Gliding motility – Mycoplasma
• Stately motility – Clostridium
• Darting Motility – Vibrio cholerae, Campylobacter
• Swarming on agar plate – Proteus, Clostridium tetani
• Corkscrew, lashing, flexion extension- Spirochete
BIOCHEMICAL REACTIONS
• Catalase test
• Oxidase test
• ICUT
• Sugar fermentation test
• MR test
• VP test
• OF test
• Nitrate reduction test
• Decarboxylase test
• PPA test
• Coagulase test
• DNase test
• CAMP test
• Bile esculin hydrolysis test
• Heat tolerance test
• Sugar fermentation test
• PYR test
• Bile solubility test
• Novobiocin susceptibility test
• Optochin susceptibility test
• Bacitracin susceptibility test
ENZYME BASEDTESTS
• Enzymatic content of an organism is a direct reflection of the organism’s genetic makeup -> is specific
for individual bacterial species.
• Enzyme-based tests are designed to measure the presence of a specific enzyme or a complete
metabolic pathway that may contain several different enzymes.
• Single Enzyme Tests :to determine the presence of a single enzyme.
• Usually provide rapid results because they can be performed on organisms already grown in
culture. Play a key role in the identification scheme.
• Used extensively to determine which subsequent identification steps should be followed.
• Catalase test, oxidase test, indole test, urease test, PYR test
Tests for the Presence of Metabolic Pathways
• Based on determining what metabolic pathways an organism uses and the substrates
processed by these pathways.
• These pathways may involve several interactive enzymes.
• The presence of an end product resulting from these interactions is measured in the
testing system.
• Three general categories:
• Carbohydrate oxidation and fermentation
• Amino acid degradation
• Single substrate utilizations
Tests for the Presence of Metabolic Pathways
1. Oxidation and Fermentation Tests
• Oxidative processes require oxygen; fermentative ones do not.
• Observe acid byproducts are produced in the presence or absence of oxygen (fermentation).
• Presence of acid byproducts is detected by a change in the pH indicator incorporated into the medium.
• Usually accomplished using a special semisolid medium (oxidative fermentative [O-F] medium) that
contains low concentrations of peptone and a single carbohydrate substrate such as glucose.
• The organism to be identified is inoculated into two glucose O-F tubes, one of which is then overlaid
with mineral oil as a barrier to oxygen.
• Common pH indicators :
• Bromocresol purple : purple to yellow
• Andrade’s acid fuchsin indicator: pale yellow to pink
• Phenol red - red to yellow
• Bromothymol blue: green to yellow.
Tests for the Presence of Metabolic Pathways
2. Amino acid degradation
• Determining the ability of bacteria to produce enzymes that either deaminate, or decarboxylate certain
amino acids
• Lysine, tyrosine, ornithine, arginine, and phenylalanine
• Decarboxylases cleave the carboxyl group from amino acids so that amino acids are converted into
amines; lysine is converted to cadaverine, and ornithine is converted to putrescine.
• Because amines increase medium pH, they are readily detected by color changes in a pH indicator.
• Decarboxylation is an anaerobic process that requires an acid environment for activation.
• The most common medium used for this test is Moeller decarboxylase base that contains glucose, the
amino acid substrate of interest and a pH indicator.
• Deamination, the cleavage of the amine group from an amino acid, occurs in air.
• Lysine iron agar medium is a combination medium used for the identification of decarboxylation and
deamination in a single tube.
Tests for the Presence of Metabolic Pathways
3. Single Substrate Utilization
• Whether an organism can grow in the presence of a single nutrient or carbon source
• Such tests entail inoculating organisms to a medium that contains a single source of nutrition (e.g.,
citrate, malonate, or acetate) and, after incubation, observing the medium for growth.
• Growth is determined by observing the presence of bacterial colonies or by using a pH indicator to
detect end products of metabolic activity
Establishing Inhibitor Profiles
• The ability of a bacterial isolate to grow in the presence of one or more inhibitory substances
• Growth in the presence of various NaCl concentrations (identification of Enterococci spp.
and Vibrio spp.)
• Susceptibility to optochin and solubility in bile (identification of Streptococcus
pneumoniae)
• Ability to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile (identification of Enterococci spp. in
combination with NaCl)
• Ethanol survival (identification of Bacillus spp.)
1. CATALASE TEST
• Principle :
• Aerobic & facultative anaerobic organisms produce 𝐻2𝑂2& 𝑂2
−
.
• Catalase enzyme
• 2𝐻2𝑂2 → 2𝐻2𝑂 + 𝑂2
• 3% 𝐻2𝑂2
• METHODS :
• Slide method
• Tube method
• 1 mL 𝐻2𝑂2 is poured over a 24 hr nutrient agar slope culture
1. CATALASE TEST (contd.,)
• Expected results:
• Positive : rapid production of bubbles
• Negative : no or few bubbles
• LIMITATIONS :
• Some organisms produce a peroxidase that slowly catalyzes breakdown of 𝐻2𝑂2
(Enterococci)
• Test performed from colonies grown in blood agar.
• CAUTION :
• Possibility of airborne transmission of pathogen
1. CATALASE TEST (contd.,)
• QUALITY CONTROL :
• Positive : S. aureus ATCC 25923
• Negative : S. pyogenes ATCC 19615
CATALASE POSITIVE CATALASE NEGATIVE
Staphylococci Streptococci
Listeria monocytogenes Enterococci
Corynebacteria Gram positive spore forming bacilli
Bacillus Lactobacillus
Micrococcus , Macrococcus, Planococcus Gardnerella vaginalis
Gonococci Eikenella corrodens
Alloiococcus Kingella kingae
Enterobacteriaceae Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Actinomycetes Acranobacterium hemolyticum
2. OXIDASE TEST
• PRINCIPLE :
• To determine the presence of cytochrome oxidase using the oxidation of the
substrate tetra methyl –p- phenylene diamino dihydrochloride.
• METHOD :
• Kovac’s method
• Plate method
• Dry filter paper method
• Wet filter paper method
OXIDASE TEST (contd.,)
2. OXIDASE TEST (contd.,)
• CAUTION/ LIMITATION:
• Freshly prepared reagent
• Platinum loop/ clean glass rod
• Avoid iron/ chromium/ nichrome loops
• Avoid picking colonies from media containing fermentable sugars
• QUALITY CONTROL :
• Positive : P. aeruginosa ATCC 27853
• Negative : E. coli ATCC 25922
2. OXIDASE TEST (contd.,)
OXIDASE POSITIVE OXIDASE NEGATIVE
Neisseria Enterobacterales
Vibrio Staphylococcus
Campylobacter Acinetobacter spp.
Pseudomonas Stenotrophomonas maltoplilia
Aeromonas, Plesiomonas Bordetella
Micrococcus
Alcaligenes
Chromobacterium
Chryseobacterium
3. INDOLE TEST
• PRINCIPLE :
• To determine an organism’s ability to hydrolyze tryptophan to form indole
• Tryptophan Indole + Pyruvic acid + Ammonia
• Indole + p- di methyl amino benzaldehyde RED coloured product
Tryptophanase
KOVAC’S REAGENT EHRLICH’S REAGENT
Amyl / iso amyl alcohol Absolute ethyl alcohol
p- dimethylamino benzaldehyde p- dimethylamino benzaldehyde
HCl (conc.) HCl (conc.)
3. INDOLE TEST (contd.,)
• Medium rich in tryptophan must be used.
• METHOD
• EXPECTED RESULTS:
• Positive : pink to wine coloured ring
• Negative : no colour change/ yellow ring
• QUALITY CONTROL :
Kovac’s method Ehrlich’s method
Positive E. coliATCC 25922 H. influenzae ATCC 49766
Negative K. pneumoniae ATCC 13883 H. parainfluenzae ATCC 76901
3. INDOLETEST (contd.,)
INDOLE POSITIVE INDOLE NEGATIVE
E. coli K. pneumoniae
K. oxytoca Shigella sonnei
Citrobacter koseri Salmonella genus
Edwardsiella tarda Citrobacter freundii
Proteus vulgaris Enterobacter aerogenes
Morganella morganii Enterobacter cloacae
Providencia Hafnia
Serratia marcescens
Proteus mirabilis
Pseudomonas
4. CITRATE UTILIZATION TEST
• PRINCIPLE :
• To identify organisms capable of using sodium citrate as the sole carbon source & inorganic ammonium
salts as the sole nitrogen source
• Citrate Oxaloacetic acid + acetate
• Pyruvic acid + CO2
CITRASE
4. CITRATE UTILIZATION TEST (contd.,)
KOSER’S MEDIUM SIMMON’S CITRATE MEDIUM
NaCl (5 g) Koser’s medium 1L
MgSO4 (0.2 g) Agar (20 g)
NH4PO4 (1 g) Bromothymol blue (0.2%) – 40 mL
KH2PO4 (1 g)
Sodium citrate (5 g)
Distilled water ( 1L)
4. CITRATE UTILIZATION TEST (contd.,)
• METHOD :
• EXPECTED RESULTS :
KOSER’S CITRATE MEDIUM SIMMON’S CITRATE MEDIUM
POSITIVE Turbidity Growth on the medium with/ without
change in colour of indicator
NEGATIVE No turbidity No growth and no colour change
4. CITRATE UTILIZATION TEST (contd.,)
• QUALITY CONTROL
• Positive : K. aerogenes ATCC 13048
• Negative : E. coli ATCC 25922
• EXAMPLES CITRATE POSITIVE CITRATE NEGATIVE
Salmonella E. coli
Citrobacter Shigella
Klebsiella Edwardsiella
Enterobacter Hafnia
Serratia Yersinia
Providencia
Vibrio vulnificans
5. UREA HYDROLYSIS TEST
• PRINCIPLE :
5. UREA HYDROLYSIS TEST (contd.,)
CHRISTENSEN’S MEDIUM STUART’S UREA BROTH
Components Peptone 1g
NaCl 5 g
K2PO4 2 g
Phenol red 6 ml
Agar 20g
Distilled water 1 L
Glucose ( 10%) 10mL
Urea 20% - 100 mL
Yeast extract 0.1 g
Monopotassium phosphate 9.1 g
Disodium phosphate 9.5 g
Urea 20 g
Phenol red 0.01 g
Distilled water 1 L
Final pH 6.8 6.8
Less buffered Heavily buffered with phosphate salts
POSITIVE Change in colour of slant from light
orange to magenta
Red colour throughout the medium
Negative No colour change No colour change
5. UREA HYDROLYSIS TEST (contd.,)
• QUALITY CONTROL :
• Positive :Proteus vulgaris ATCC 13315
• Weak positive : K. pneumoniae ATCC 13883
• Negative : E. coli ATCC 25922
Strong / most rapid urease producers Brucella , H. pylori
Rapid urease producers Proteus, Morganella
Slow urease producers Klebsiella , Enterobacter
Urease producing fungi Cryptococcus neoformans
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
6. TRIPLE SUGAR IRON (TSI) AGAR TEST
• PURPOSE : To determine whether a Gram Negative Bacilli ferments glucose and lactose/ sucrose and
forms gas/ H2S
• TSI Composition :
• 10 parts lactose : 10 parts sucrose : 1 part glucose & peptone
• Phenol red
• Ferrous sulfate
• After 8-12 hrs of incubation, glucose fermenting bacteria ferments glucose -> produces acid ->
turns entire medium acidic (yellow)
• 18-24 hrs –in the butt- glucose fermentation under anaerobic conditions -> organic acids formed ->
acidic (yellow)
6. TRIPLE SUGAR IRON (TSI) AGAR TEST (contd.,)
• 18- 24 hrs – in the slant – oxidation of fermented products under aerobic conditions ->
alkaline amines are formed -> alkaline slant (red)
• 18- 24 hrs - in addition to glucose, lactose and/ or sucrose are also fermented -> large
amount of fermentation products formed on slant neutralizes alkaline amines and renders
the slant acidic -> acidic slant (yellow)
• CO2 and H2 formation -> bubbles/ cracks in agar/ separation of agar from bottom/ sides of
tube
• H2S production -> blackening of agar
TSI AGAR KLIGER’S IRON AGAR
Beef extract 3g
Yeast extract 3 g
Peptone 20 g
Glucose 1 g
Lactose 10 g
Sucrose 10 g
Ferric citrate 0.3 g
NaCl 5 g
Agar 12 g
Phenol red (0.2%) 12 mL
Distilled water 1 L
Sodium thiosulfate 0.3 g
Beef extract 3 g
Yeast extract 3 g
Peptone 15 g
protease peptone 5 g
Lactose 10 g
Glucose 1 g
Ferrous sulfate 0.2 g
NaCl 5 g
Sodium thiosulfate 0.3 g
Agar 12 g
Phenol red 0.024 g
Distilled water 1L
Final pH: 7.3 Final pH: 7.4
6. TRIPLE SUGAR IRON (TSI)
AGAR TEST (contd.,)
• METHOD :
• EXPECTED RESULTS :
• Non fermenter (K/K)
• Non Lactose( and sucrose) fermenter : only ferments glucose (K/A)
• Lactose and/ or sucrose fermenter : A/A
• H2S production
• CO2 production
6. TRIPLE SUGAR IRON (TSI) AGAR TEST (contd.,)
• QUALITY CONTROL :
• A/A + gas production : E.coli ATCC 25922
• K/A +/- gas production, H2S + : Salmonella enterica subsp.enterica serovar typhimurium ATCC 14028
• K/K : P. aeruginosa ATCC 27853
• K/A, H2S + : Proteus mirabilis ATCC 12453
• K/A : Shigella flexneri ATCC 12022
6. TRIPLE SUGAR IRON (TSI) AGAR TEST (contd.,)
REACTION EXAMPLES
K/K P. aeruginosa
K/A Citrobacter koseri, Hafnia, Serratia, Providencia, Morganella
K/A, 𝐻2S + Salmonella, C. freundii, Proteus, Edwardsiella tarda
A/A E.coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter
A/A with more gas Klebsiella, Enterobacter
7. SUGAR FERMENTATION TEST
• Carbohydrate fermentation is the process microorganisms use to produce energy.
• Most microorganisms convert glucose to pyruvate during glycolysis; however, some organisms use
alternate pathways.
• A fermentation medium consists of a basal medium containing a single carbohydrate (glucose, lactose,
or sucrose) for fermentation.
• Medium may contain various colour indicators, such as Andrade’s indicator, bromocresol, or others.
• A Durham tube is placed in each tube to capture gas produced by metabolism.
Basal media:
• Pancreatic digest of casein (10 g), beef extract (3 g), NaCl (5 g), carbohydrate (10 g)
• Specific indicator (Andrade’s indicator [10 mL, pH 7.4] or bromocresol purple [0.02 g, pH 6.8]).
7. SUGAR FERMENTATION TEST (contd.,)
PROCEDURE:
Peptone Medium with Andrade’s Indicator (for Enterics and Coryneforms)
• Inoculate each tube with one drop of an 18- to 24-hour brain-heart infusion broth culture.
• Incubate at 35°C to 37°C for up to 7 days in ambient air.
• Examine the tubes for acid (indicated by a pink color) and gas production.
• Tubes must show growth for the test to be valid.
• If no growth in the fermentation tubes or control is seen after 24 hours of incubation, add one to two
drops of sterile rabbit serum per 5 mL of fermentation broth to each tube.
Expected Results
• Positive: Indicator change to pink with or without gas formation in Durham tube
• Negative: Growth, but no change in color. Medium remains clear to straw colored
7. SUGAR FERMENTATION TEST (contd.,)
Broth (Brain-Heart Infusion Broth May Be Substituted) with Bromocresol Purple Indicator (for
Streptococci and Enterococci)
• Inoculate each tube with two drops of an 18- to 24-hour brain-heart infusion broth culture.
• Incubate 4 days at 35°C to 37°C in ambient air.
• Observe daily for a change of the bromocresol purple indicator from purple to yellow (acid).
Expected Results
• Positive: Indicator change to yellow
• Negative: Growth, but no change in color. Medium remains purple
7. SUGAR FERMENTATION TEST (contd.,)
Quality Control
• Peptone Medium with Andrade’s Indicator
• Dextrose: Positive, with gas: Escherichia coli (ATCC25922)
• Positive, no gas: Shigella flexneri (ATCC12022)
• Brain-Heart Infusion Broth with Bromocresol Purple Indicator
• Dextrose: Positive, with gas: Escherichia coli (ATCC25922)
• Negative, no gas: Moraxella osloensis (ATCC10973)
8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (Moeller’s Method)
• Decarboxylases - group of substrate-specific enzymes that are capable of reacting with the carboxyl
(COOH) portion of amino acids, forming alkaline-reacting amines.
• Decarboxylation - forms carbon dioxide as a second product.
• Each decarboxylase enzyme is specific for an amino acid.
• Lysine, ornithine, and arginine - amino acids routinely tested in the identification of the
Enterobacteriaceae.
• Lysine → Cadaverine
• Ornithine → Putrescine
• Arginine → Citrulline
• The conversion of arginine to citrulline is a dihydrolase, rather than a decarboxylase reaction
• An NH2 group is removed from arginine
• Citrulline is next converted to ornithine, which then undergoes decarboxylation to form
putrescine.
8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (contd.,)
• Moller decarboxylase medium.
• The amino acid to be tested is added to the decarboxylase base before inoculation with the
test organism.
• A control tube, consisting of only the base without the amino acid, must also be set up in
parallel.
• Both tubes are anaerobically incubated by overlaying with mineral oil.
• During the initial stages of incubation, both tubes turn yellow - fermentation of the small
amount of glucose in the medium.
• If the amino acid is decarboxylated, alkaline amines are formed and the medium reverts to
its original purple color.
8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (contd.,)
• Moller Decarboxylase Broth Base
• Peptone 5 g
• Beef extract 5 g
• Bromcresol purple 0.01 g
• Cresol red 0.005 g
• Glucose 0.5 g
• Pyridoxal 0.005 g
• Distilled water 1 L
• Final pH 6.0
• Amino Acid
• Add 10 g (final concentration = 1%) of the L (levo) -form of the amino acid (lysine,
ornithine, or arginine).
• Double this amount if the D (dextro) -form is to be used, because only the L-form is active.
8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (contd.,)
• PROCEDURE :
• From a well-isolated colony of the test organism previously recovered on primary isolation agar,
inoculate two tubes of Moeller decarboxylase medium
• TEST : containing the amino acid to be tested
• CONTROL: devoid of amino acid.
• Overlay both tubes with sterile mineral oil to cover about 1 cm of the surface
• Incubate at 35°C for 18–24 hours.
:
8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (contd.,)
• QUALITY CONTROL :
• Positive:
• Lysine—Klebsiella pneumoniae (ATCC33495)—yellow to purple
• Ornithine—Enterobacter aerogenes (ATCC13048)—yellow to purple
• Arginine—Pseudomonas aeruginosa (ATCC27853)—yellow to purple
• Base Control:
• Positive Glucose Fermenters: Klebsiella pneumoniae (ATCC27736)—yellow
Enterobacter aerogenes (ATCC13048)—yellow
• Negative:
• Lysine—Citrobacter freundii (ATCC331218)—yellow
• Ornithine—Proteus vulgaris (ATCC6380)—yellow
• Arginine—Escherichia coli (ATCC25922)—yellow
8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (contd.,)
• INTERPRETATION :
• Conversion of the control tube to a yellow color indicates that
• The organism is viable and
• The pH of the medium has been lowered sufficiently to activate the decarboxylase
enzymes.
• POSITIVE : Reversion of the tube containing the amino acid to a blue-purple color ( formation of
amines from the decarboxylation reaction)< Alkaline (purple) color change compared with the
control tube >
• Negative: No color change or acid (yellow) color in test and control tube. Growth in the control
tube.
9. METHYL RED TEST
• PRINCIPLE :
• Quantitative test for acid production
• Requires positive organisms to produce strong acids (lactic acid, acetic acid, formic acid)
from glucose through mixed acid fermentation pathway
• Organisms that can maintain the low pH after prolonged incubation (48- 72 hrs )
overcoming the pH buffering system of the medium can be called methyl red positive.
• Methyl red : pH 6.0- yellow; pH 4.4 – red
METHYL RED TEST (contd.,)
• COMPONENTS
• METHYL RED TEST BROTH- GLUCOSE PHOSPHATE PEPTONE WATER
• Peptone : 5 g
• K2HPO4 : 5 G
• Water : 5 L
• Glucose (10%) : 50 mL
• Methyl red indicator solution :
• Methyl red : 0.1 g
• Ethanol : 300 ml
• Distilled water : 200 ml
METHYL RED TEST (contd.,)
• METHOD :
• Inoculate the medium lightly and incubate at 37C for 48 hrs
• Add five drops of methyl red reagent
• Mix and read immediately
• EXPECTED RESULTS :
• Positive : bright red
• Negative : yellow
METHYL RED TEST (contd.,)
• QUALITY CONTROL :
• Positive : E.coli
• Negative : E. aerogenes
MR POSITIVE MR NEGATIVE
E. coli
K. ozaenae
K. rhinoscleromatis
K. ornitholytica
Edwardsielleae
Salmonellae
Proteae
Citrobacter
Yersinia
K. pneumoniae
Enterobacter spp.
10. VOGES – PROSKAUER TEST (acetoin production)
• Many bacteria ferment carbohydrates with the production of acetyl methyl
carbinol or its reduction product 2,3 butylene glycol
• These substances can be tested by a colorimetric reaction between diacetyl
(formed by oxidation ) and a guanidino group under alkaline conditions
VOGES – PROSKAUER TEST (contd.,)
• Medium : glucose phosphate peptone water
• Reagent 1 : α-Naphthol, 5% color intensifier
• α-Naphthol 5 g
• Absolute ethyl alcohol 100 mL
• Reagent 2. Potassium hydroxide, 40%, oxidizing agent
• Potassium hydroxide 40 g
• Distilled water 100 mL
VOGES – PROSKAUER TEST (contd.,)
• METHOD
• Inoculate a tube of MR/VP broth with a pure culture of the test organism.
• Incubate for 24 hours at 35°C.
• At the end of this time, aliquot 1 mL of broth to a clean test tube.
• Add 0.6 mL of 5% αnaphthol, C-13 followed by 0.2 mL of 40% KOH.
• It is essential that the reagents be added in this order.
• Shake the tube gently to expose the medium to atmospheric oxygen and allow the
tube to remain undisturbed for 10–15 minutes.
VOGES – PROSKAUER TEST (contd.,)
• EXPECTED RESULTS :
• Positive test : development of a red color 15 minutes
or more after addition of the reagents, indicating the
presence of diacetyl.
• QUALITY CONTROL
• Positive : E. aerogenes
• Negative : E.coli
VP POSITIVE VP NEGATIVE
K. Pneumoniae
E. Cloacae
Serratia
Ewingella americana
Aeromonas sobria
Vibrio cholerae
Chryseomonas
E. Coli
Edwardsiella tarda
Salmonellae
Proteae
Yersinieae
11. OXIDATION – FERMENTATION TEST
• Saccharolytic microorganisms degrade glucose either fermentatively or
oxidatively
• The end products of fermentation are relatively strong mixed acids that can be
detected in a conventional fermentation test medium.
• The acids formed in oxidative degradation of glucose are extremely weak
• More sensitive oxidation-fermentation medium of Hugh and Leifson (OF
medium) is required for their detection.
O/F TEST (contd.,)
• The OF medium of Hugh and Leifson differs from carbohydrate fermentation media as follows:
• The concentration of peptone is decreased from 1% to 0.2%.
• The concentration of carbohydrate is increased from 0.5% to 1.0%.
• The concentration of agar is decreased from 1.5% to 0.3% -> semisolid
• The lower protein/carbohydrate ratio reduces the formation of alkaline amines that can
neutralize the small quantities of weak acids that may form from oxidative metabolism.
• The relatively larger amount of carbohydrate serves to increase the amount of acid that can
potentially be formed.
• The semisolid consistency of the agar permits acids that form on the surface of the agar to
permeate throughout the medium, making interpretation of the pH shift of the indicator easier
to visualize.
• Motility can also be observed in this medium.
O/F TEST (contd.,)
• MEDIA &REAGENTS :
• pH adjusted to 7.1 before adding bromothymol blue
• Medium autoclaved in a flask at 121C for 15 min
• Carbohydrate (glucose) to be added is sterilized separately and added to give a final concentration
of 1%.
• OF medium should be poured without a slant into tubes with an inner diameter of 15–20 mm to
increase surface area.
• Depth 4 cm.
O/F TEST (contd.,)
• PROCEDURE:
• Two tubes are required for the OF test, each inoculated with the unknown organism, using a
straight needle, stabbing the medium three to four times halfway to the bottom of the tube.
• One tube of each pair is covered with a 1-cm layer of sterile mineral oil or melted paraffin
• Other tube left open to the air.
• Incubate both tubes at 35°C
• Examine daily for several days (upto 30 days)
O/F TEST (contd.,)
• QUALITY CONTROL:
• Glucose fermenter: Escherichia coli
• Glucose oxidizer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
• Nonsaccharolytic: Moraxella species
• INTERPRETATION:
12. NITRATE REDUCTION TEST
• Organisms demonstrating nitrate reduction have the capability of extracting oxygen
from nitrates to form nitrites and other reduction products
• The presence of nitrites in the test medium is detected by the addition of α-
naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid, with the formation of a red diazonium dye, p-
sulfobenzeneazo-αnaphthylamine
12. NITRATE REDUCTION TEST (contd.,)
Nitrate Broth or Nitrate Agar (Slant)
• Beef extract 3 g
• Peptone 5 g
• Potassium nitrate (KNO3 ) 1 g
• Agar (nitrite-free) 12 g
• Distilled water 1 L
• Reagent A
• α-Naphthylamine 5 g
• Acetic acid (5 N), 30% 1 L
• Reagent B
• Sulfanilic acid 8 g
• Acetic acid (5 N), 30% 1 L
12. NITRATE REDUCTION TEST (contd.,)
• METHOD :
• Inoculate the nitrate medium with a loopful of the test organism isolated in pure
culture on agar medium, and incubate at 35°C for 18–24 hours.
• At the end of incubation, add 1 mLeach of reagents A and B to the test medium, in
that order.
12. NITRATE REDUCTION TEST (contd.,)
• EXPECTED RESULTS:
• POSITIVE : The development of a red color within 30 seconds after adding the test reagents
indicates the presence of nitrites
• If no color develops after adding the test reagents:
• True negative :nitrates have not been reduced
• False negative :Nitrates have been reduced to products other than nitrites, such as ammonia,
molecular nitrogen (denitrification), nitric oxide (NO) or nitrous oxide (N2O), and
hydroxylamine.
• It is necessary to add a small quantity of zinc dust to all negative reactions.
• Zinc ions reduce nitrates to nitrites, and the development of a red color after adding zinc dust
indicates the presence of residual nitrates and confirms a true negative reaction.
12. NITRATE REDUCTION TEST (contd.,)
QUALITY CONTROL :
• Positive control: Escherichia coli
• Negative control: Acinetobacter baumannii
13. PHENYL PYRUVIC ACID TEST
• Phenylalanine on deamination forms a keto acid, phenylpyruvic acid.
• Of the Enterobacteriaceae, only members of the Proteus, Morganella, and Providencia genera possess
the deaminase enzyme necessary for this conversion.
• The phenylalanine test depends on the detection of phenylpyruvic acid in the test medium after
growth of the test organism.
• The test is positive if a visible green color develops on addition of a solution of 10% ferric chloride.
PHENYL PYRUVIC ACID TEST (contd.,)
• MEDIA & REAGENTS:
• Phenylalanine agar is poured as a slant into a tube.
• Meat extracts or protein hydrolysates cannot be used because of their varying
natural content of phenylalanine.
• Yeast extract serves as the carbon and nitrogen source.
PHENYL PYRUVIC ACID TEST (contd.,)
• QUALITY CONTROL :
• Positive: Proteus mirabilis (ATCC12453)
• Negative: Escherichia coli (ATCC25922)
• PROCEDURE:
• The agar slant of the medium is inoculated with a single colony of the test
organism isolated in pure culture of primary plating agar.
• After incubation at 35°C for 18–24 hours, 4 or 5 drops of the ferric chloride
reagent are added directly to the surface of the agar.
• As the reagent is added, the tube is rotated to dislodge the surface colonies.
PHENYL PYRUVIC ACID TEST
(contd.,)
• Interpretation
• POSITIVE : The immediate appearance of an intense green color indicates the
presence of phenylpyruvic acid
• Negative: Slant remains original color after the addition of ferric chloride
14. COAGULASE TEST
• S. aureus produces 2 forms of coagulase.
BOUND COAGULASE FREE COAGULASE
Clumping factor Thrombin like substance
Bound to bacterial cell wall Secreted extracellularly
Reacts directly with fibrinogen in plasma Causes clot formation when S. aureus colonies are
incubated with plasma
Precipitation of fibrinogen on staphylococcal cell ->
rapid agglutination/ clumping
Free coagulase + Coagulase reacting factor in
plasma -> Coagulase- CRF complex -> react with
fibrinogen -> clot formation
Not present in culture filtrates Present in culture filtrates
SLIDE COAGULASETEST TUBE COAGULASETEST
For bound coagulase For free coagulase
Rabbit plasma with EDTA Method 1:
1 in 6 dilution of plasma in 0.85% NaCl
Place 1 mLof diluted plasma in a tube
Emulsify Staphylococcus colony into it
Incubate at 37C for 4 hrs
Method 2: using undiluted plasma (0.5ml) and 0.1 ml
of culture
Positive :clumping within 10 sec Positive : any degree of clot formation
Negative : no clumping Negative : no clot
Kit slide tests are also available
COAGULASE TEST (contd.,)
• QUALITY CONTROL :
• Positive : S. aureus ATCC 25923
• Negative : S. epidermidis ATCC 12228
• EXAMPLES
• Coagulase positive : S. aureus
• Coagulase negative : CoNS
15. Deoxyribonucleic Acid Hydrolysis (DNase Test Agar)
• To determine the ability of an organism to hydrolyze DNA.
• The medium is pale green because of the DNA–methyl green complex.
• If the organism growing on the medium hydrolyzes DNA, the green color fades and the colony is
surrounded by a colorless zone.
• Media:
• Pancreatic digest of casein (10 g),
• yeast extract (10 g),
• deoxyribonucleic acid (2 g),
• NaCl (5 g), agar (15 g),
• methyl green (0.5 g),
• pH 7.5
Method
• Inoculate the DNase agar with the organism to be tested and streak for isolation.
• Incubate aerobically at 35°C to 37°C for 13 to 24 hours.
Expected Results
• Positive: When DNA is hydrolyzed, methyl green is released and combines with highly polymerized
DNA at a pH of 7.5, turning the medium colorless around the test organism
• Negative: If no degradation of DNA occurs, the medium remains green
Quality Control
• Positive: Staphylococcus aureus (ATCC25923)
• Negative: Escherichia coli (ATCC25922)
16. CAMP test
• Presumptive identification of group B β-hemolytic streptococci
• First described in 1944 by Christie, Atkins, and Munch–Petersen
• The hemolytic activity of the β-hemolysin produced by most strains of Staphylococcus aureus is
enhanced by an extracellular hemolytic protein (CAMP factor) produced by group B streptococci.
• Interaction of the β-hemolysin with this factor causes “synergistic hemolysis,” which is easily observed
on a blood agar plate.
• This phenomenon is seen with both hemolytic and nonhemolytic isolates of group B streptococci.
• Other bacteria, such as Listeria monocytogenes, Rhodococcus equi, and certain strains of Vibrio cholera,
are also CAMP-positive.
CAMP test (contd.,)
• MATERIALS:
• β-hemolysin-producing strain of Staphylococcus aureus
• Sheep blood agar plate
• QUALITY CONTROL :
• Positive: Streptococcus agalactiae (ATCC13813)—enhanced arrowhead hemolysis
• Negative: Streptococcus pyogenes (ATCC19615)—beta-hemolysis without enhanced
arrowhead formation
CAMP test (contd.,)
• PROCEDURE:
• Down the center of a blood agar plate, and make a single straight line streak of
βhemolysin-producing S. aureus.
• Taking care not to intersect the staphylococcal streak, inoculate a streak of the
β-hemolytic streptococcus to be identified perpendicular to the staphylococcal
streak.
• Make these streaks so that, after incubation, the growth of the two organisms
will not be touching.
• The streptococcal streak should be 3–4 cm long.
• Known group A and B streptococcal strains should be similarly inoculated on
the same plate as negative and positive controls, respectively.
• Incubate the plate at 35°C in ambient air for 18–24 hours.
CAMP test (contd.,)
• INTERPRETATION:
• Positive: Enhanced hemolysis is indicated by an arrowheadshaped zone of beta-
hemolysis at the juncture of the two organisms
• Negative: No enhancement of hemolysis
• The area of increased hemolysis occurs where the β-hemolysin secreted by the
Staphylococcus and the CAMP factor secreted by the group B Streptococcus
intersect.
• Any bacitracin-resistant, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole–resistant, CAMP test-
positive, β-hemolytic Streptococcus can be reported as “β-hemolytic
Streptococcus, presumptive group B by CAMP test.”
CAMP test (contd.,)
17. ESCULIN HYDROLYSIS TEST
• Esculin medium without bile is useful in differentiating several species on nonfermenting
bacilli.
• Esculin is a substituted glucoside that can be hydrolyzed by certain bacteria to yield glucose
and esculetin.
• Esculin is a fluorescent compound that fluoresces under long-wave UV light at 360 nm.
• When esculin is hydrolyzed, fluorescence is lost, and the medium turns black due to the
reaction of esculetin with the ferric ions in the medium.
ESCULIN HYDROLYSIS test (contd.,)
• MEDIA & REAGENTS:
ESCULIN HYDROLYSIS test (contd.,)
• Quality Control
• Positive control: Aeromonas hydrophila ATCC 7965
• Negative control: P. aeruginosa ATCC 27853
• Procedure :
• After touching the center of one well-isolated colony with a sterile inoculation loop or
wooden stick, inoculate the organism onto the surface of the agar slant or into the broth.
• Incubate for 18– 24 hours at 35°C
ESCULIN HYDROLYSIS test (contd.,)
• Interpretation:
• POSITIVE : The development of a black color or the loss of fluorescence
under UV light (360 nm)
• NEGATIVE : Fluorescence or lack of a black color
ESCULIN HYDROLYSIS test (contd.,)
• EXAMPLES:
• ESCULIN POSITIVE : Several species of Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium,
as well as C. luteola, B. vesicularis, S. paucimobilis, S. maltophilia, R. radiobacter,
and some species of B. cepacia, B. pseudomallei, and O. anthropic
• ESCULIN NEGATIVE :
18 . PYR TEST (l-Pyrrolidonyl Arylamidase)
• The enzyme l-pyrrolidonyl arylamidase hydrolyzes the l-pyrrolidonyl-b-naphthylamide substrate to
produce a b-naphthylamine.
• The b-naphthylamine can be detected in the presence of N,N-methylamino-cinnamaldehyde reagent by
the production of a bright red precipitate.
• Method
• Before inoculation, moisten the disk slightly with reagentgrade water. Do not flood the disk.
• Using a wooden applicator stick, rub a small amount of several colonies of an 18- to 24-hour pure
culture onto a small area of the PYR disk.
• Incubate at room temperature for 2 minutes.
• Add a drop of detector reagent, N,N-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde, and observe for a red color within
1 minute.
PYR Test (contd.,)
Expected Results
• Positive: Bright red colour within 5 minutes
• Negative: No colour change or an orange colour
Quality Control
• Positive: Enterococcus faecalis (ATCC29212)
Streptococcus pyogenes (ATCC19615)
• Negative: Streptococcus agalactiae (ATCC10386)
19. BILE SOLUBILITY TEST
• Bile solubility reagent (10% sodium deoxycholate) - presumptive identification and differentiation of S.
pneumoniae from other α-hemolytic streptococci.
• S. pneumoniae cells visibly lyse when 10% sodium deoxycholate is applied, while other αhemolytic
streptococci do not.
• Bile or a solution of a bile salt (e.g., sodium deoxycholate) rapidly lyses pneumococcal colonies.
• Lysis depends on the presence of an intracellular autolytic enzyme, amidase.
• Bile salts lower the surface tension between the bacterial cell membrane and the medium, thus
accelerating the organism’s natural autolytic process
19. BILE SOLUBILITY TEST
Reagents
• Sodium desoxycholate, 10% aqueous solution
• Blood agar plate with growth of an α-hemolytic Streptococcus
Quality Control
• Bile (deoxycholate) soluble: Streptococcus pneumoniae (ATCC49619)
• Bile (deoxycholate) insoluble: Enterococcus faecalis (ATCC29212)
19. BILE SOLUBILITY TEST (contd.,)
Tube Test
• Prepare a saline suspension of the test isolate
from an 18- to 24-hour, pure culture.
• Adjust turbidity to that of a 0.5 to 1.0 McFarland
standard or equivalent.
• Aliquot 0.5 mL of the suspension into each of
two tubes. Label one tube as Test, the other as
Control.
• Add 0.5 mL of 10% bile solubility reagent to the
tube marked Test, and 0.5 mL of saline (pH 7.0)
to the tube marked Control.
• Gently agitate tubes to suspend bacteria.
• Incubate tubes at 35°C to 37°C and examine
periodically for up to 3 hours.
• Observe for clearing in the Test suspension. The
Control suspension should remain turbid.
Plate Spot Test
• Place one drop of 10% bile solubility reagent
near suspected 18- to 24-hour-old colonies
growing on sheep blood agar.
• Gently roll the drop over several representative
colonies by tilting the plate. Take care not to
dislodge the colonies.
• Incubate the plate aerobically in an upright
position at 35°C to 37°C, and examine
periodically for up to 30 minutes.
• Leave lid slightly ajar to enhance evaporation of
the reagent.
• Observe the colony for disintegration or
solubility.
19. BILE SOLUBILITY TEST
(contd.,)
Tube Test
• Positive test — Clearing or loss of
turbidity of the test suspension
within 3 hours. The Control
suspension remains turbid.
• Negative test — Test and Control
suspensions remain turbid after 3
hours.
Spot Test
• Positive test—Disintegration of
colonies and/or the appearance of
an α-hemolytic zone on the plate
where the colony was located
within 30 minutes.
• Negative test—Colonies on the plate
remain intact with no change in
colony integrity within 30 minutes.
20. BILE ESCULIN TEST
• The bile esculin test is based on the ability of certain bacteria (group D streptococci and Enterococcus
species ) to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile (4% bile salts or 40% bile).
• Esculin is a glycosidic coumarin derivative (6-β-glucoside-7-hydroxy-coumarin).
• The two moieties of the molecule (glucose and C-29 7-hydroxycoumarin) are linked together by an
ester bond through oxygen.
• For this test, esculin is incorporated into a medium containing 4% bile salts.
• Bacteria that are bile esculin–positive are able to grow in the presence of bile salts
• Subsequent hydrolysis of the esculin in the medium results in the formation of glucose and a
compound called esculetin.
• Esculetin, in turn, reacts with ferric ions (supplied by the inorganic medium component ferric citrate)
to form a black diffusible complex.
20. BILE ESCULIN TEST (contd.,)
20. BILE ESCULIN TEST (contd.,)
Medium: Bile esculin agar medium - agar slants or plates.
• Peptone 5 g
• Beef extract 3 g
• Oxgall (bile) 40 g
• Esculin 1 g
• Ferric citrate 0.5 g
• Agar 15 g
• Distilled water 1 L
• pH 7.0
20. BILE ESCULIN TEST (contd.,)
Quality Controls
• Positive: Enterococcus faecalis (ATCC19433)—growth; black precipitate
• Negative: Escherichia coli (ATCC25922)—growth; no color change
Streptococcus pyogenes (ATCC19615)—no growth; no color change
Procedure
• With an inoculating wire or loop, touch two or three morphologically similar streptococcal colonies
and inoculate the slant of the bile esculin medium with an S-shaped motion, or streak the surface of a
bile esculin plate for isolation.
• Incubate the tube or plate at 35°C for 24–48 hours in an ambient air incubator.
20. BILE ESCULIN TEST (contd.,)
Interpretation :
• On plates, black haloes will be observed around isolated colonies and any blackening is
considered positive.
• Positive: Growth and blackening of the agar slant
• Negative: Growth and no blackening of medium
No growth
• All group D streptococci will be bile esculin–positive within 48 hours.
21. NOVOBIOCIN SUSCEPTIBILITY TEST
• CoNS can be divided into novobiocin-susceptible and novobiocin resistant species.
• Among the novobiocin-resistant species, S. saprophyticus is the one commonly recovered from
humans as a cause of urinary tract infections.
• Therefore, screening coagulase-negative staphylococci isolated from quantitative urine cultures for
susceptibility to novobiocin provides a reliable presumptive identification of this species.
• Reagents
• Novobiocin disks, 5 mg
• Sheep blood agar plate
21. NOVOBIOCIN SUSCEPTIBILITY TEST (contd.,)
• Quality Control
• A known S. saprophyticus strain and an S. epidermidis strain
• Procedure
• Prepare a suspension of the organism to be identified in sterile distilled water or broth.
• The suspension should be equivalent in turbidity to a 0.5 McFarland standard.
• With a sterile swab, spread some of the suspension over half of a blood agar plate.
• Aseptically place a novobiocin disk on the inoculated area.
• Susceptibility to furazolidone may be assessed on the same plate by placing the disks about 4 cm
apart on the inoculated area.
• Gently tap the disk(s) with sterile forceps to assure contact with the agar surface.
• Incubate the plate aerobically for 18–24 hours at 35°C.
21. NOVOBIOCIN SUSCEPTIBILITY TEST (contd.,)
Interpretation :
• S. saprophyticus are novobiocin-resistant and will show zones of inhibition of
6 mm (no zone)–12 mm.
• Other Coagulase-Negative Staphylococci and S. aureus are novobiocin-
susceptible and will show zones of 16 mm or larger.
22. OPTOCHIN SUSCEPTIBILITY TEST
• Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride (optochin), a quinine derivative, selectively inhibits the growth of
Streptococcus pneumoniae at very low concentrations (5 mg/mLor less).
• Optochin may also inhibit other Viridans Streptococci, but only at much higher concentrations.
• The test has a sensitivity of more than 95%, is simple to perform, and is inexpensive.
• Optochin is water-soluble and diffuses readily into agar medium.
• Filter paper disks impregnated with optochin - disk diffusion test - to determine susceptibility of
suspected pneumococci
• S. pneumoniae cells surrounding the disk are lysed owing to changes in the surface tension, and a zone
of inhibition is produced.
Media and Reagents
• Well-isolated colonies of the organism to be tested on sheep blood agar
• Sheep blood agar plate
• Optochin disks (5 μg)
Quality Control
• Positive control: Streptococcus pneumoniae
• Negative control: Viridans Streptococcus or Enterococcus faecalis
Procedure
• Using an inoculating loop or wire, select three to four well-isolated colonies of the organism to be
tested and streak onto one-half to a one-third of a blood agar plate.
• The inoculated area should be about 3 cm2 .
• Place an optochin disk in the upper third of the streaked area.
• Tap down the disk with flamed or otherwise sterilized forceps so that the disk adheres firmly to the
agar surface.
• Incubate the plate at 35°C for 18–24 hours in a candle jar or in 5%–7% CO2 .
Interpretation
• A Viridans Streptococcus can be presumptively identified as S. pneumoniae if it
shows a zone of inhibition of 14 mm or more around a 6-mm or a zone of 16
mm or more around a 10-mm disk
• Organisms showing zones smaller than these should be tested for bile
solubility.
23. BACITRACIN & SXT SUSCEPTIBILITY TEST
• Susceptibility to low concentrations of the polypeptide antibiotic bacitracin and to the
combination sulfonamide–trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (SXT) - presumptive
identification of both group A and group B β-hemolytic streptococci.
• Group A Streptococci are susceptible to relatively low concentrations of bacitracin and are
resistant to SXT.
• Group B Streptococci are resistant to both antibiotics.
• Other β-hemolytic Streptococci show varying susceptibility to bacitracin, but these organisms
are usually susceptible to SXT.
• The performance of the SXT test along with the bacitracin test increases the sensitivity and
predictive value of the bacitracin test.
• Bacitracin is also used to distinguish Staphylococci species (resistant) from Micrococci
(susceptible).
Reagents
• Sheep blood agar plate
• Bacitracin disks (0.04 units/disk)
• SXT disks (trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole, 1.25 μg/23.75 μg)
Quality Control
Positive:
Streptococcus pyogenes (ATCC19615)—susceptible
Micrococcus luteus (ATCC10240)—susceptible
Negative:
Streptococcus agalactiae (ATCC27956)—resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (ATCC25923)—resistant
Procedure
• Pick three to four isolated colonies of the β-hemolytic Streptococcus, and streak the
inoculum down the center of half of a blood agar plate.
• Using a sterile swab or a bacteriologic loop, spread the inoculum as a lawn over the entire
half of the plate.
• Aseptically place a bacitracin disk and an SXT disk on the inoculated area. Make sure that
the disks are spaced evenly. Using flamed forceps, gently tap down the disks so that they
adhere to the agar surface.
• Incubate the plate in ambient air at 35°C.
• Interpretation :
• Susceptible (S): Any zone around either of the disks
• Resistant (R): Growth up to the edge of the disk
AUTOMATED CULTURETECHNIQUES
Automated blood culture
techniques
• BacT/ALERT 3D
• Bact/ALERT VIRTUO
• BACTEC
• VersaTREK
Automated systems for bacterial
identification
• MALDI TOF
• VITEK
• Phoenix
• MicroScanWalkAway system
CONVENTIONAL BLOOD
CULTURE METHODS
• Often yield poor results
• Low bacterial load
• Increased chance of contamination
• Less sensitive
• Takes more time
• More labour intensive
AUTOMATED BLOOD CULTURE
METHODS
• Continuous automated monitoring
• More sensitive
• Rapid
• Less labour intensive
• High cost of instrument & culture bottles
• Inability to observe colony morphology as
liquid medium is used.
BacT/ALERT 3D
• Principle : colorimetric detection of bacterial growth
• BacT/ALERT bottles –
• Tryptic soy broth
• Brain heart infusion broth
• Adsorbent polymeric beads
• Liquid emulsion sensor – bottom of each bottle; differentially permeable membrane
• CO2 produced by growing microorganisms – diffuse across the sensor – reacts with
water- generates hydrogen ions
• H+ ions -> pH -> blue green sensor becomes yellow
• The algorithm of detection of growth is based on the analysis of the rate of change of
CO2 concentration occurring in each individual bottle.
BacT/ALERT VIRTUO
• Automatic loading & unloading of bottles
• Faster detection of growth
• Can determine the volume of blood present in the bottle
BACTEC
• Flourometric detection
• BACTEC bottle
• Soybean- casein digest broth
• Polymeric resin beads
• Oxygen sensitive fluorescent compound dissolved in the broth
• Uninoculated broth : large amount of dissolved oxygen quenches the fluorescence dye
• Actively dividing microorganisms consume oxygen, remove the quenching effect, and allow
the fluorescence to be detected.
VersaTREK
• PRINCIPLE : CO2 liberated from bacteria, causes a pressure change which is then detected by
manometry.
• Differs from the BacT/ALERT3D and the BD BACTEC systems in the following ways:
• The production of CO2 is monitored manometrically
• Both gas consumption and production are monitored
• Changes in the concentrations of H2 and O2 in addition to CO2 are detected.
VersaTREK (contd.,)
• The data unit is also a cabinet that serves as a self-contained incubator, agitator and detector.
• Capacity : 96-to-240 or up to 528 bottles are currently available.
• After inoculation of up to 10 mL of venous blood, each bottle is fitted with a disposable connector,
which includes a recessed needle that penetrates the septum of the blood culture bottle.
• Each bottle is then placed in a defined position on a carrying rack that is aligned such that the
connector attaches directly to a sensing probe located at the top of each position.
• Once the bottle is properly aligned, the pressure of the head–gas is continuously monitored.
• A reading is taken every 12 minutes
Versa TREK ( contd.,)
• When the change in reading exceeds a delta value, lights are illuminated that indicate the position
of any positive bottle.
• A reading may occur during a phase of consumption of 𝐻2 and 𝑂2 .
• Oxygen consumption is accelerated at the time replicating organisms enter the log phase of
growth.
• A reading may be possible, therefore, early in the incubation period before a detectable amount of
CO2 is produced.
• Testing multiple gases is a theoretical advantage for the electrostatic precipitator (ESP) system,
especially for the detection of a saccharolytic microorganisms that may not produce sufficient
CO2 for detection by the indicator.
CONTINUOUS MONITORING BLOOD CULTURE SYSTEMS
ADVANTAGES
• Decrease in laboratory workload
• Decrease in the number of false-positive
results and pseudobacteremia (because
of decreased handling and sampling of
the bottles)
• Significant increase in the speed of
detection and in the rate of microbial
recovery..
DISADVANTAGES
• Limited selection of media
• Large size of the instruments
• Expensive
AUTOMATED SYSTEMS FOR BACTERIAL IDENTIFICATION
• MALDITOF
• VITEK 2
• Phoenix
• MicroScanWalkAway system
MALDITOF
• It can identify bacteria, fungi, and mycobacteria with a turnaround time of few
minutes and with absolute accuracy
• Two systems are commercially available: VITEK MS (bioMérieux) and Biotyper
system (Bruker).
• MALDI-TOF examines the pattern of ribosomal proteins present in the organism.
Sample preparation:
• The colony of an organism is smeared onto a well of the slide and one drop of
matrix solution (composed of cyano-hydroxy-cinnamic acid) is added to the same
well and mixed
• Slide is loaded in the system.
Steps after loading:
• Ionization chamber:
• Wells are irradiated with the laser beam.
• The matrix absorbs the laser light causing desorption and ionization of bacterial ribosomal proteins,
generating singly protonated ions
• Analyzer:
• These ions are then accelerated into an electric field which directs them to the analyzer chamber.
• The analyzer (mass spectrometer) separates them according to their time-of-flight (TOF) in the flight
tube
• . The smaller molecules travel faster, followed by the bigger, according to the mass to charge (m/z)
ratio
• Detector:
• It converts the received ion into an electrical current which is then amplified and digitized to
generate a characteristic spectrum that is unique to a species due to its conserved ribosomal
proteins.
• The test isolate is identified by comparing its spectrum with a known database.
• A summation of the time of flight for all molecules present will produce a spectrum
• This spectrum is then electronically compared with all the spectra in the library to
determine the best match
• Subsequently the identification of the microbe
VITEK 2 AUTOMATED SYSTEM
• Perform both identification and antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST) of bacteria and yeast.
• It uses colorimetric reagent card containing 64 wells; each well contains an individual test
substrate.
• Separate cards are available for gram-negative, gram-positive bacteria, fastidious bacteria and
yeasts
• Substrates in the well measure various metabolic activities such as acidification, alkalinization,
enzyme hydrolysis, etc. which helps in identification of the organism
• The reaction pattern obtained from the test organism is compared with the database and the
identification is reported with a confidence level of matching
• The cards are incubated in the system at 35.5 ± 1°C.
• The reading is taken once every 15 minutes by the optical system of the equipment, which
measures the presence of any colored products of substrate metabolism (by advanced colorimetry
method)
• The result of identification is usually available within 4–6 hours
REFERENCES
• Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology – 7th edition
• Bailey & Scott’s Diagnostic Microbiology – 15th edition
• Mackie & McCartney Practical Medical Microbiology – 14th edition
• Essentials of Medical Microbiology – 3rd edition -Apurba S Sastry, Sandhya Bhat
•THANKYOU……

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PHENOTYPIC METHODS OF Bacterial identification- conventional & automated.pptx

  • 1. Presented by : Dr. ReshmaVP Moderator : Dr. Rashmi M.S
  • 2. Importance of bacterial identification • Determining the clinical significance of a particular pathogen ( a pathogen, a contaminant, or normal microbiota) • Guiding physician care of the patient through presumptive and final identification methods • Determining whether laboratory testing for detection of antimicrobial resistance is warranted • Determining the type of antimicrobial therapy that is appropriate • Determining whether the infecting organism is a risk for other patients in the hospital, the public, or laboratory workers • Collecting epidemiologic data to monitor the control and transmission of organisms
  • 3. BACTERIAL IDENTIFICATION PHENOTYPIC METHODS • Based on observable physical or metabolic characteristics of bacteria • Identification is through analysis of gene products rather than through the genes themselves. • Microscopic morphology and staining characteristics • Macroscopic (colony) morphology, including odor and pigmentation • Environmental requirements for growth • Resistance or susceptibility to antimicrobial agents • Nutritional requirements and metabolic capabilities • Biochemical reactions including enzymatic reactions or chemical profiles GENOTYPIC METHODS • Detecting the presence of a gene, or a part thereof, or an RNA product that is specific for a particular organism. • In principle, the presence of a specific gene or a particular nucleic acid sequence unique to the organism is interpreted as a definitive identification of the organism. • Highly specific and often very sensitive.
  • 4. • Conventional methods • Automated methods
  • 5. CONVENTIONAL METHODS • Direct Microscopy • Culture • Morphology of Colony • Culture Smear and Motility Testing • Biochemical Reactions
  • 6. DIRECT MICROSCOPY • Microscopy is defined as the use of a microscope to magnify objects too small to be visualized with the naked eye so that their characteristics are readily observable. • Bright-field (light) microscopy • Phase contrast microscopy • Fluorescent microscopy • Darkfield microscopy.
  • 7. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) Direct examination of unstained specimens • Examination of wet preparation/ saline mount: • Bacterial morphology, arrangement • Presence of yeast cells • Presence of inflammatory cells • Presence of epithelial cells • Motility • Serologic reactivity in specific antisera (quellung reaction)
  • 8. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) Direct examination of unstained specimens (contd.,) • Hanging drop procedure: for motility • India ink/ Nigrosin preparation : for capsules • Dark field examination : to visualize delicate organisms , invisible by bright field optics- Treponema pallidum • KOH mount, Iodine mount
  • 9. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) APPLICATIONS OF MICROSCOPY IN DIAGNOSTIC MICROBIOLOGY: • Rapid preliminary organism identification by direct visualization in patient specimens • Detection of different organisms present in the same specimen • Detection of organisms not easily cultivated in the laboratory • Evaluation of patient specimens for the presence of cells indicative of inflammation or contamination • Determination of an organism’s clinical significance • Preculture information about which organisms might be expected to grow so that appropriate cultivation techniques are used • Determination of which tests and methods should be used for identification and characterization of cultivated organisms
  • 10. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) All appropriate specimens should have a direct microscopic examination (smear of the primary specimen). Purposes: Quality of the specimen can be assessed Early indication of what may be wrong with the patient Workup of the specimen can be guided by comparing what grows in culture to what was seen on the original smear.
  • 11.
  • 12.
  • 13. DIRECT MIICROSCOPY(contd.,) • PREPARATION: • Specimen samples are placed on the slide using a swab or by using a pipette into which liquid specimen has been aspirated • Material to be stained is dropped (if liquid) or rolled (if on a swab) onto the surface of a clean, dry, glass slide.
  • 14. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) • Squash or crush prep : tissue, bone marrow aspirate, or other aspirated sample. • The aspirate may be placed in the anticoagulant EDTA tube and inverted several times to mix the contents. • To prepare the slide, a drop of the aspirate is placed on a slide and a second slide is gently placed on top; the two slides are pressed together, crushing or squashing any particulate matter. • The two slides are then gently slid or pulled apart using a horizontal motion and air-dried before staining. • Cytocentrifugation or concentration of a sterile body fluid such as CSF • In a cytocentrifuge, the hydraulic forces of the liquid cause the fluid to move away from the sediment, which is then collected on an absorbent material, leaving the particulate matter and cellular debris in the center of the microscope slide. • The slide may then be stained for microscopy.
  • 15. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) Staining methods: 1. Gram stain: Principal stain used for microscopic examination of bacteria Rapid presumptive identification of pathogens, Quality of a specimen To know whether bacterial pathogens from a specific body site are considered normal microbiota colonizing the site or the actual cause of infection. Nearly all clinically important bacteria can be detected using this method- EXCEPTIONS : Organisms that exist almost exclusively within host cells (e.g., chlamydia) Lack cell wall (e.g., mycoplasma and ureaplasma) Insufficient dimension to be resolved by light microscopy (e.g., spirochetes). Differential stain  Procedure
  • 16. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) Staining methods (contd.,): Gram Stain Examination (Direct Smear): • 400X magnification : WBCs , epithelial cells, debris, and larger organisms such as fungi or parasites. • Oil immersion: • Presence of bacterial cells as well as the Gram reactions, morphologies (e.g., cocci or bacilli), and arrangements (e.g., chains, pairs, clusters) of the cells seen • Presence of inflammatory cells (e.g., phagocytes) that are key indicators of an infectious process. • Presence of other host cells, such as squamous epithelial cells in respiratory specimens • Background tissue debris and proteinaceous material- indicates that specimen material was adequately affixed to the slide.
  • 17. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) Staining methods (contd.,): CLINICAL APPLICATIONS OF GRAM STAINING: • To differentiate Gram positive and Gram negative organisms. • To know the morphology of bacteria. • Direct diagnosis of emergency conditions like – Meningococcal meningitis, Pneumococcal meningitis. • Diagnosis of – Candidiasis, Gonococcal urethritis etc., • Choose antibiotics for antibiotic sensitivity testing. • Choose antibiotics for presumptive treatment in emergency condition
  • 18. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) Staining methods: 2. Ziehl Neelsen staining: • Acid fast and non acid fast bacteria • Mycobacterium tuberculosis • Nocardia spp., coccidian parasites, such as Cryptosporidium spp • To detect acid-fast bacteria (e.g., mycobacteria) directly in clinical specimens • Only performed on specimens from patients highly suspected of having a mycobacterial infection. • Procedure: • Grading:
  • 19. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) Staining methods: • Albert’s staining Procedure  Albert’s stain – 3-5 min  Albert’s iodine – 1 min  Wash & blot dry • Granules- Bluish black • Protoplasm – green • Other organisms –Light green
  • 20. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) Staining methods: Silver Impregnation stains • Spirochaetes, Bartonella henselae • Too slender to be visualized by bright field microscopy • Warthin Starry, Dieterle, Steiner silver impregnation stains
  • 21. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) Staining of spores:  Unstained wet films under phase contrast microscope: large, refractile, oval or spherical bodies within bacterial mother cells or else free from the bacteria.  Ordinary dyes/ Gram’s stain:  body of the bacillus –deeply coloured  Spore unstained and appear as clear area  Modified ZN stain : 0.25% sulphuric acid as decolourizer  Red spores in blue stained bacteria • MALACHITE GREEN STAIN FOR SPORES • Colours the spores green & the vegetative bacilli red
  • 22.
  • 23. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) Capsule Staining methods: • India Ink method • Nigrosin
  • 24. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) PHASE CONTRAST MICROSCOPY • Wet mount – non viscous liquid- urine • Sample suspended in sterile saline – vaginal sample • Observation of viable microorganisms
  • 25. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) FLOURESCENT MICROSCOPY • Fluorochroming and immunofluorescence • Fluorochroming : direct chemical interaction between fluorescent dye & component of bacterial cell • Min concentration of 104 /mL organisms • Acridine orange: binds to nucleic acid - bright orange fluorescence • to confirm the presence of bacteria in blood cultures when Gram stain results are difficult to interpret • To detect bacteria , when the presence is highly suspected but none are detected using light microscopy. • Nonspecific. • Does not discriminate between gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria. • For detection of cell wall–deficient bacteria (e.g., mycoplasmas) grown in culture that are incapable of retaining the dyes used in the Gram stain • Auramine-rhodamine: binds to mycolic acid- all mycobacteria • Bright yellow/orange against a greenish background • Calcofluor white : for fungus
  • 26.
  • 27.
  • 28. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) DARK-FIELD MICROSCOPY • For detecting certain bacteria directly in patient specimens • Cannot be seen by light microscopy - because of their thin dimensions • Difficult to grow in culture- because of their physiology, • To detect spirochetes- Treponema pallidum- appear extremely bright against a black field.
  • 29. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) RECENT ADVANCES: DIGITAL AUTOMATED MICROSCOPY • Automation in digital microscopy- using sophisticated software and unique technology • To acquire microscopic digital images of Gram stains using a web-based interface. • This interface allows images to be viewed on a single screen, using a fully automated microscope • Allows the viewer to track the slide on the x and y axis, very much like using a standard microscope. • A number of technologies, including Leica and PathXL, currently provide mobile device viewers for virtual microscopy.
  • 30. DIRECT MICROSCOPY (contd.,) RECENT ADVANCES: DIGITAL HOLOGRAPHIC MICROSCOPY • To visualize bacteria in aqueous environments without the loss of resolution in samples 1mm thick. • 100 fold greater resolution than most bright field microscopes • Has the potential to improve the identification of low concentrations of organisms in clinical samples.
  • 31. CULTURE • Purposes: • To grow and isolate all bacteria present in a clinical specimen • To determine which of the bacteria that grow are most likely causing infection and which are likely contaminants or colonizers • To obtain sufficient growth of clinically relevant bacteria to allow identification, characterization, and susceptibility testing • Cultivation is the process of growing microorganisms in culture by taking bacteria from the infection site (i.e., the in vivo environment) by some means of specimen collection and growing them in the artificial environment of the laboratory (i.e., the in vitro environment). • The successful transition from the in vivo to the in vitro environment requires that the nutritional and environmental growth requirements of bacterial pathogens be met. • EXCEPTIONS : Treponema pallidum, Mycobacterium leprae
  • 32. CULTURE MEDIA (contd.,) • Broth (liquid)/ solid(agar) / biphasic • Broth media- nutrients are dissolved in water • Bacterial growth is indicated by a change in the broth’s appearance from clear to turbid • At least 106 bacteria per milliliter of broth are needed for turbidity to be detected with the unaided eye. • Some broths contain a pH indicator, such as phenol red
  • 33. CULTURE MEDIA (contd.,) Thioglycollate broth, which contains a small amount of agar (making it a semisolid medium) • Provides an indication of the type of organism present based on oxygen requirements. • Strict anaerobes will grow at the bottom of the broth tube • Aerobes will grow near the surface. • Microaerophilic organisms will grow slightly below the surface where oxygen concentrations are lower than atmospheric concentrations. • Facultative anaerobes and aerotolerant organisms will grow throughout the medium, because they are unaffected by the variation in oxygen content
  • 34.
  • 35. CULTURE MEDIA (contd.,) • Solid medium : solidifying agent added to the nutrients and water. • Agar- melting at high temperatures (≥95°C) but resolidifying after the temperature falls below 50°C. • Agar plate. • Agar deep • Agar slant • Different agar media usually are identified according to the major nutritive components of the medium • The resulting bacterial population is considered to be derived from a single bacterial cell and is known as a pure colony. • All bacterial cells within a single colony are the same genus and species, having identical genetic and phenotypic characteristics (i.e., are derived from a single clone). • Pure cultures are required for subsequent procedures used to identify and characterize bacteria.
  • 36. CULTURE MEDIA (contd.,) Primary culture media: Nutritive media, selective media, differential media, enrichment media . Nutritive media: tryptic soy agar, nutrient agar • Support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms • Nonselective the growth of most organisms is supported. Selective media support the growth of one group of organisms but not another, by adding antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol to a particular medium. • MacConkey agar, Columbia agar with colistin and nalidixic acid. • Selective media can also be differential media
  • 37. CULTURE MEDIA (contd.,) • Enrichment media: • Contain specific nutrients for the growth of particular bacterial pathogens that may be present alone or with other bacterial species in the specimen • Buffered Charcoal –Yeast Extract agar (BCYE)- Legionella pneumophilia (L-cysteine) • Differential media : employ some factors that allows bacterial colonies of one type to exhibit certain metabolic or culture characteristic to distinguish from other bacteria. • MacConkey agar, blood agar
  • 38. CULTURE (contd.,) • BACK UP BROTH: • In some cases (sterile body fluids, tissues, or deep abscesses in a patient receiving antimicrobial therapy) • Along with primary solid (agar) media, backup broth (also called supplemental or enrichment broth) medium is inoculated, so small numbers of organisms present may be detected. • Allows detection of anaerobes in aerobic cultures and organisms that may be damaged by either previous or concurrent antimicrobial therapy. • Thioglycollate broth, brain-heart infusion broth (BHIB), and tryptic soy broth (TSB)
  • 39. CULTURE (contd.,) Selection of media - usually based on the organisms most likely to be involved in the disease process. • Example: for a CSF specimen- blood /chocolate agar at a minimum • Example : if a specimen is collected from a source likely to be contaminated with normal microbiota – selective media
  • 40. CULTURE (contd.,) Sheep Blood Agar : • Supports growth for all but the most fastidious clinically significant bacteria. • The medium consists of a base containing a protein source (e.g., tryptones), soybean protein digest (containing a slight amount of natural carbohydrate), sodium chloride, agar, and 5% sheep blood. • Certain bacteria produce extracellular enzymes that lyse red blood cells in the agar (hemolysis). • Beta -hemolysis • Alpha -hemolysis • Gamma - hemolysis or nonhemolytic. • Transmitted light
  • 41. CULTURE (contd.,) Chocolate agar: • During preparation the red blood cells are lysed when added to molten agar base. • Release of intracellular nutrients such as hemoglobin, hemin (“X” factor), and the coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (“V” factor) • Fastidious bacteria :Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Haemophilus spp.
  • 42. CULTURE (contd.,) Columbia CNA with Blood • Three peptone sources and 5% defibrinated (whole blood with fibrin removed to prevent clotting) sheep blood. • Differentiate bacterial colonies based on the hemolytic reactions they produce. • CNA refers to the antibiotics colistin (C) and nalidixic acid (NA) • Colistin disrupts the cell membranes of gram-negative organisms • Nalidixic acid blocks DNA replication in susceptible organisms
  • 43. CULTURE (contd.,) MacConkey agar • Selective and differential agar. • Crystal violet dye - inhibit the growth of gram-positive bacteria and fungi and allows many types of gram-negative bacilli to grow. • Neutral red - pH indicator • Fermentation of lactose results in acid production, which decreases the pH of the medium and causes the neutral red indicator to give bacterial colonies a pink to red color. • Non–lactose-fermenters, such as Shigella spp., remain colorless and translucent • Slow fermenters and may not demonstrate a positive fermentation reaction in the first 24 hours of growth.
  • 44. CULTURE (contd.,) CLED agar (Cysteine Lactose Electrolyte Deficient agar) • Differential, non selective culture medium • Used for the isolation, enumeration and differentiation of urinary microorganisms. • It promotes the growth of urinary pathogens, but prevents excessive swarming of Proteus species due to its lack of electrolytes. • The medium allows quantitative determination of urinary pathogens when calibrated loops are used for inoculation. • Cysteine- promotes coliforms • Lactose – energy source • Bromothymol blue –indicator – yellow(acid), dark blue (alkalinization)
  • 45.
  • 46. CULTURE (contd.,) Gram-Negative Broth • A selective broth for the cultivation of gastrointestinal pathogens (i.e., Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.) from stool specimens and rectal swabs. • The broth contains several active ingredients, including sodium citrate and sodium deoxycholate- inhibit gram-positive organisms and the early multiplication of gram-negative, non enteric pathogens. • Mannitol - primary carbon source. • GN broth should be subcultured 6 to 8 hours after initial inoculation and incubation.
  • 47. CULTURE (contd.,) Hektoen Enteric Agar • Selective medium : Bile salts and dyes (bromthymol blue & acid fuchsin) • Slow the growth of most nonpathogenic gram-negative bacilli found in the GIT • Allow Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp. to grow. • Differential: many non enteric pathogens that do grow will appear as orange to salmon-colored colonies. • Fermentation of lactose, sucrose or salicin in the medium, resulting in the production of acid, which lowers the medium’s pH and causes a color change in the pH indicator bromthymol blue. • Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.- do not ferment these carbon compounds - no color change occurs and their colonies maintain the original blue-green color of the medium. • Contains ferric ammonium citrate - 𝐻2S -producing organisms, such as Salmonella spp., can be visualized as colonies exhibiting a black precipitate
  • 48. CULTURE (contd.,) Phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) agar: • Sheep blood agar that is supplemented with phenylethyl alcohol to inhibit the growth of gram- negative bacteria. • The 5% sheep blood in PEA provides nutrients for common gram-positive cocci such as enterococci, streptococci, and staphylococci . • Although it contains sheep blood, PEA agar should not be used in the interpretation of hemolytic reactions
  • 49. CULTURE (contd.,) Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) agar • Enrichment and selective medium • For the isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitidis • Enrichment :basal components +chocolatized blood • Selective capacity : Antibiotics • Colistin - to inhibit other gram-negative bacteria • Vancomycin- to inhibit gram-positive bacteria • Nystatin - to inhibit yeast. • Trimethoprim - to inhibit Proteus spp. • Martin-Lewis agar, substitutes ansamycin for nystatin and has a higher concentration of vancomycin
  • 50. CULTURE (contd.,) Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate (XLD) agar • Selective and differential for Shigella spp. and Salmonella spp. • Sodium deoxycholate- inhibits many gram-negative bacilli that are not enteric pathogens and inhibits gram positive organisms. • Phenol red indicator - detects increased acidity from carbohydrate (i.e., lactose, xylose, and sucrose) fermentation. • Enteric pathogens, such as Shigella spp. - do not ferment these carbohydrates, so their colonies remain colorless (i.e., the same approximate pink to red color of the uninoculated medium). • Salmonella spp. - Even though they ferment xylose- colorless colonies on XLD because of the decarboxylation of lysine, which results in a pH increase that causes the pH indicator to turn red. • These colonies often exhibit a black center that results from Salmonella spp. producing 𝐻2S • Several of the nonpathogenic organisms ferment one or more of the sugars and produce yellow colonies
  • 51. CULTURE (contd.,) • Combination of Blood agar & MacConkey agar • Chocolate agar : respiratory and sterile body fluids • Stool specimen : • Mildly selective media : MacConkey agar • Highly selective media : DCA, XLD, TCBS agar • Blood- blood culture bottles • CLED agar – urine specimen
  • 52. ANAEROBIC CULTURE MEDIA • Robertson’s cooked meat (RCM) broth: • It contains chopped meat particles (beef heart), which provide glutathione (a sulfhydryl group containing reducing substance) and unsaturated fatty acids. • It is the most widely used anaerobic culture medium . • It is also used for maintenance of stock cultures. • Thioglycollate broth • Anaerobic blood agar • Egg yolk agar • Phenyl ethyl agar
  • 53. CONVENTIONAL BLOOD CULTURE MEDIA • BHI broth • Biphasic medium
  • 55. Other culture media • Mannitol salt agar: yellow colonies of Staphylococcus aureus • Milk agar • Loeffler’s serum slope • Tellurite blood agar • TCBS agar
  • 56. • Carrom coin appearance – Pneumococcus • Medusa head appearance of colony on NA
  • 57. CULTURE MEDIA- INOCULATION • Specimen inoculation onto solid media can be done: • Quantitatively by a dilution procedure or by means of a quantitative loop • Semiquantitatively using an ordinary inoculating loop. • Semiquantitation is referred to as streaking for isolation • The microorganisms present in the specimen are successively diluted out as each quadrant is streaked until finally each morphotype is present as a single colony. • Numbers of organisms present can subsequently be graded as: • 4+ (many, heavy growth) if growth is out to the fourth quadrant, • 3+ (moderate growth) if growth is out to the third quadrant • 2+(few or light growth) if growth is in the second quadrant • 1+ (rare) if growth is in the first quadrant.
  • 58.
  • 59.
  • 60. INOCULATED MEDIA - INCUBATION The four most critical environmental factors : • Oxygen and carbon dioxide (CO2 ) availability • Temperature • pH • Moisture content of the medium
  • 61. INOCULATED MEDIA- INCUBATION (contd.,) • Aerobes grow in ambient air, which contains 21% O2 and a small amount (0.03%) of CO2 . • Anaerobes usually cannot grow in the presence of O2 • Anaerobe jars, bags, or chambers - 5% to 10% H2, 5% to 10% CO2 , 80% to 90% N2 , 0% O2 . • Capnophiles- increased concentrations of CO2 (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O2 . • Candle jar (3% CO2 ) or a CO2 incubator, chamber jar, or bag. • Microaerophiles grow under reduced O2 (5% to 10%) and increased CO2 (8% to 10%). • Specially designed chamber jars or bags. • Automated microprocessor-controlled system, the Advanced Axonomat: • to create the desired atmospheric balance of gases required for specific organismal growth • Both anaerobic and microaerophilic environments may be produced
  • 62. INOCULATED MEDIA- INCUBATION (contd.,) TEMPERATURE : • Most medically relevant bacteria uses incubators with temperatures maintained in the 35°C to 37°C • For others, an incubation temperature of 30°C (i.e., the approximate temperature of the body’s surface) may be preferable • Recovery of certain organisms can be enhanced by incubation at other temperatures. • Campylobacter jejuni is able to grow at 42°C - Incubation at this temperature can be used as temperature enrichment procedure. • Listeria monocytogenes and Yersinia enterocolitica, can grow at 4°C to 43°C but grow best at temperatures between 20° and 40°C - Cold enrichment
  • 63. INOCULATED MEDIA- INCUBATION (contd.,) pH • Most clinically relevant bacteria prefer a near-neutral pH range, from 6.5 to 7.5. Moisture • Water is provided as a major constituent of both agar and broth media. • When media are incubated -> a large portion of water content can be lost by evaporation. • Loss of water from media can be deleterious to bacterial growth in two ways: • Less water is available for essential bacterial metabolic pathways • Relative increase in the solute concentration of the media. • An increased solute concentration can osmotically shock the bacterial cell and cause lysis. • In addition, increased atmospheric humidity enhances the growth of certain bacterial species. • Measures such as sealing agar plates or using humidified incubators are used to ensure appropriate moisture levels are maintained throughout the incubation period
  • 64. MORPHOLOGY OF BACTERIAL COLONY • Size • Shape • Surface • Edge • Elevation • Consistency • Density • Hemolysis • Pigmentation
  • 65.
  • 66.
  • 67.
  • 68.
  • 69. HEMOLYSIS ON BLOOD AGAR • ALPHA • BETA • GAMMA
  • 70. PIGMENT PRODUCTION • DIFFUSIBLE PIGMENTS : P. aeruginosa • NON-DIFFUSIBLE PIGMENTS: S. aureus
  • 71.
  • 72. CELL CULTURES • Obligate intracellular parasites - require viable host cells for propagation. • Chlamydiae, rickettsiae, and rickettsiae-like organisms are bacterial pathogens • Comprise layers of living cells growing on the surface of a solid matrix such as the inside of a glass tube or the bottom of a plastic flask. • The presence of bacterial pathogens within the cultured cells is detected by specific changes in the cells’ morphology. • Specific stains, composed of antibody conjugates, may be used to detect bacterial antigens within the cells. • Cell cultures may also detect certain bacterial toxins (e.g., Clostridium difficile cytotoxin). • Cell cultures are most commonly used in diagnostic virology.
  • 73. CULTURE SMEAR • Indirect smear : contains organisms obtained after growth in artificial media. • Prepared from solid / semisolid media / broth. • Occasionally an organism may grow in culture that was not seen in the direct smear. • Liquid broth culture smears - more clearly and accurately represent the native cellular morphology and arrangement compared with smears from solid media. • Preparation : • Solid medium : using a sterile loop or needle - Emulsified in a drop of sterile water or saline on the slide. • For small amounts of growth - a sterile wooden applicator stick • Allowed to air-dry and is affixed to the slide by placing it on a slide warmer (60° C) for at least 10 minutes or by flooding it with 95% methanol for 1 minute. • Liquid medium : an aspirated sample of the broth culture is applied to the slide, air-dried, and fixed before staining
  • 74. MOTILITYTESTING • Tumbling motility – Listeria • Gliding motility – Mycoplasma • Stately motility – Clostridium • Darting Motility – Vibrio cholerae, Campylobacter • Swarming on agar plate – Proteus, Clostridium tetani • Corkscrew, lashing, flexion extension- Spirochete
  • 75. BIOCHEMICAL REACTIONS • Catalase test • Oxidase test • ICUT • Sugar fermentation test • MR test • VP test • OF test • Nitrate reduction test • Decarboxylase test • PPA test • Coagulase test • DNase test • CAMP test • Bile esculin hydrolysis test • Heat tolerance test • Sugar fermentation test • PYR test • Bile solubility test • Novobiocin susceptibility test • Optochin susceptibility test • Bacitracin susceptibility test
  • 76. ENZYME BASEDTESTS • Enzymatic content of an organism is a direct reflection of the organism’s genetic makeup -> is specific for individual bacterial species. • Enzyme-based tests are designed to measure the presence of a specific enzyme or a complete metabolic pathway that may contain several different enzymes. • Single Enzyme Tests :to determine the presence of a single enzyme. • Usually provide rapid results because they can be performed on organisms already grown in culture. Play a key role in the identification scheme. • Used extensively to determine which subsequent identification steps should be followed. • Catalase test, oxidase test, indole test, urease test, PYR test
  • 77. Tests for the Presence of Metabolic Pathways • Based on determining what metabolic pathways an organism uses and the substrates processed by these pathways. • These pathways may involve several interactive enzymes. • The presence of an end product resulting from these interactions is measured in the testing system. • Three general categories: • Carbohydrate oxidation and fermentation • Amino acid degradation • Single substrate utilizations
  • 78. Tests for the Presence of Metabolic Pathways 1. Oxidation and Fermentation Tests • Oxidative processes require oxygen; fermentative ones do not. • Observe acid byproducts are produced in the presence or absence of oxygen (fermentation). • Presence of acid byproducts is detected by a change in the pH indicator incorporated into the medium. • Usually accomplished using a special semisolid medium (oxidative fermentative [O-F] medium) that contains low concentrations of peptone and a single carbohydrate substrate such as glucose. • The organism to be identified is inoculated into two glucose O-F tubes, one of which is then overlaid with mineral oil as a barrier to oxygen. • Common pH indicators : • Bromocresol purple : purple to yellow • Andrade’s acid fuchsin indicator: pale yellow to pink • Phenol red - red to yellow • Bromothymol blue: green to yellow.
  • 79.
  • 80. Tests for the Presence of Metabolic Pathways 2. Amino acid degradation • Determining the ability of bacteria to produce enzymes that either deaminate, or decarboxylate certain amino acids • Lysine, tyrosine, ornithine, arginine, and phenylalanine • Decarboxylases cleave the carboxyl group from amino acids so that amino acids are converted into amines; lysine is converted to cadaverine, and ornithine is converted to putrescine. • Because amines increase medium pH, they are readily detected by color changes in a pH indicator. • Decarboxylation is an anaerobic process that requires an acid environment for activation. • The most common medium used for this test is Moeller decarboxylase base that contains glucose, the amino acid substrate of interest and a pH indicator. • Deamination, the cleavage of the amine group from an amino acid, occurs in air. • Lysine iron agar medium is a combination medium used for the identification of decarboxylation and deamination in a single tube.
  • 81. Tests for the Presence of Metabolic Pathways 3. Single Substrate Utilization • Whether an organism can grow in the presence of a single nutrient or carbon source • Such tests entail inoculating organisms to a medium that contains a single source of nutrition (e.g., citrate, malonate, or acetate) and, after incubation, observing the medium for growth. • Growth is determined by observing the presence of bacterial colonies or by using a pH indicator to detect end products of metabolic activity
  • 82. Establishing Inhibitor Profiles • The ability of a bacterial isolate to grow in the presence of one or more inhibitory substances • Growth in the presence of various NaCl concentrations (identification of Enterococci spp. and Vibrio spp.) • Susceptibility to optochin and solubility in bile (identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae) • Ability to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile (identification of Enterococci spp. in combination with NaCl) • Ethanol survival (identification of Bacillus spp.)
  • 83. 1. CATALASE TEST • Principle : • Aerobic & facultative anaerobic organisms produce 𝐻2𝑂2& 𝑂2 − . • Catalase enzyme • 2𝐻2𝑂2 → 2𝐻2𝑂 + 𝑂2 • 3% 𝐻2𝑂2 • METHODS : • Slide method • Tube method • 1 mL 𝐻2𝑂2 is poured over a 24 hr nutrient agar slope culture
  • 84. 1. CATALASE TEST (contd.,) • Expected results: • Positive : rapid production of bubbles • Negative : no or few bubbles • LIMITATIONS : • Some organisms produce a peroxidase that slowly catalyzes breakdown of 𝐻2𝑂2 (Enterococci) • Test performed from colonies grown in blood agar. • CAUTION : • Possibility of airborne transmission of pathogen
  • 85. 1. CATALASE TEST (contd.,) • QUALITY CONTROL : • Positive : S. aureus ATCC 25923 • Negative : S. pyogenes ATCC 19615 CATALASE POSITIVE CATALASE NEGATIVE Staphylococci Streptococci Listeria monocytogenes Enterococci Corynebacteria Gram positive spore forming bacilli Bacillus Lactobacillus Micrococcus , Macrococcus, Planococcus Gardnerella vaginalis Gonococci Eikenella corrodens Alloiococcus Kingella kingae Enterobacteriaceae Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Actinomycetes Acranobacterium hemolyticum
  • 86. 2. OXIDASE TEST • PRINCIPLE : • To determine the presence of cytochrome oxidase using the oxidation of the substrate tetra methyl –p- phenylene diamino dihydrochloride. • METHOD : • Kovac’s method • Plate method • Dry filter paper method • Wet filter paper method
  • 88. 2. OXIDASE TEST (contd.,) • CAUTION/ LIMITATION: • Freshly prepared reagent • Platinum loop/ clean glass rod • Avoid iron/ chromium/ nichrome loops • Avoid picking colonies from media containing fermentable sugars • QUALITY CONTROL : • Positive : P. aeruginosa ATCC 27853 • Negative : E. coli ATCC 25922
  • 89. 2. OXIDASE TEST (contd.,) OXIDASE POSITIVE OXIDASE NEGATIVE Neisseria Enterobacterales Vibrio Staphylococcus Campylobacter Acinetobacter spp. Pseudomonas Stenotrophomonas maltoplilia Aeromonas, Plesiomonas Bordetella Micrococcus Alcaligenes Chromobacterium Chryseobacterium
  • 90. 3. INDOLE TEST • PRINCIPLE : • To determine an organism’s ability to hydrolyze tryptophan to form indole • Tryptophan Indole + Pyruvic acid + Ammonia • Indole + p- di methyl amino benzaldehyde RED coloured product Tryptophanase KOVAC’S REAGENT EHRLICH’S REAGENT Amyl / iso amyl alcohol Absolute ethyl alcohol p- dimethylamino benzaldehyde p- dimethylamino benzaldehyde HCl (conc.) HCl (conc.)
  • 91.
  • 92.
  • 93. 3. INDOLE TEST (contd.,) • Medium rich in tryptophan must be used. • METHOD • EXPECTED RESULTS: • Positive : pink to wine coloured ring • Negative : no colour change/ yellow ring • QUALITY CONTROL : Kovac’s method Ehrlich’s method Positive E. coliATCC 25922 H. influenzae ATCC 49766 Negative K. pneumoniae ATCC 13883 H. parainfluenzae ATCC 76901
  • 94. 3. INDOLETEST (contd.,) INDOLE POSITIVE INDOLE NEGATIVE E. coli K. pneumoniae K. oxytoca Shigella sonnei Citrobacter koseri Salmonella genus Edwardsiella tarda Citrobacter freundii Proteus vulgaris Enterobacter aerogenes Morganella morganii Enterobacter cloacae Providencia Hafnia Serratia marcescens Proteus mirabilis Pseudomonas
  • 95. 4. CITRATE UTILIZATION TEST • PRINCIPLE : • To identify organisms capable of using sodium citrate as the sole carbon source & inorganic ammonium salts as the sole nitrogen source • Citrate Oxaloacetic acid + acetate • Pyruvic acid + CO2 CITRASE
  • 96. 4. CITRATE UTILIZATION TEST (contd.,) KOSER’S MEDIUM SIMMON’S CITRATE MEDIUM NaCl (5 g) Koser’s medium 1L MgSO4 (0.2 g) Agar (20 g) NH4PO4 (1 g) Bromothymol blue (0.2%) – 40 mL KH2PO4 (1 g) Sodium citrate (5 g) Distilled water ( 1L)
  • 97. 4. CITRATE UTILIZATION TEST (contd.,) • METHOD : • EXPECTED RESULTS : KOSER’S CITRATE MEDIUM SIMMON’S CITRATE MEDIUM POSITIVE Turbidity Growth on the medium with/ without change in colour of indicator NEGATIVE No turbidity No growth and no colour change
  • 98. 4. CITRATE UTILIZATION TEST (contd.,) • QUALITY CONTROL • Positive : K. aerogenes ATCC 13048 • Negative : E. coli ATCC 25922 • EXAMPLES CITRATE POSITIVE CITRATE NEGATIVE Salmonella E. coli Citrobacter Shigella Klebsiella Edwardsiella Enterobacter Hafnia Serratia Yersinia Providencia Vibrio vulnificans
  • 99. 5. UREA HYDROLYSIS TEST • PRINCIPLE :
  • 100. 5. UREA HYDROLYSIS TEST (contd.,) CHRISTENSEN’S MEDIUM STUART’S UREA BROTH Components Peptone 1g NaCl 5 g K2PO4 2 g Phenol red 6 ml Agar 20g Distilled water 1 L Glucose ( 10%) 10mL Urea 20% - 100 mL Yeast extract 0.1 g Monopotassium phosphate 9.1 g Disodium phosphate 9.5 g Urea 20 g Phenol red 0.01 g Distilled water 1 L Final pH 6.8 6.8 Less buffered Heavily buffered with phosphate salts POSITIVE Change in colour of slant from light orange to magenta Red colour throughout the medium Negative No colour change No colour change
  • 101. 5. UREA HYDROLYSIS TEST (contd.,) • QUALITY CONTROL : • Positive :Proteus vulgaris ATCC 13315 • Weak positive : K. pneumoniae ATCC 13883 • Negative : E. coli ATCC 25922 Strong / most rapid urease producers Brucella , H. pylori Rapid urease producers Proteus, Morganella Slow urease producers Klebsiella , Enterobacter Urease producing fungi Cryptococcus neoformans Trichophyton mentagrophytes
  • 102. 6. TRIPLE SUGAR IRON (TSI) AGAR TEST • PURPOSE : To determine whether a Gram Negative Bacilli ferments glucose and lactose/ sucrose and forms gas/ H2S • TSI Composition : • 10 parts lactose : 10 parts sucrose : 1 part glucose & peptone • Phenol red • Ferrous sulfate • After 8-12 hrs of incubation, glucose fermenting bacteria ferments glucose -> produces acid -> turns entire medium acidic (yellow) • 18-24 hrs –in the butt- glucose fermentation under anaerobic conditions -> organic acids formed -> acidic (yellow)
  • 103. 6. TRIPLE SUGAR IRON (TSI) AGAR TEST (contd.,) • 18- 24 hrs – in the slant – oxidation of fermented products under aerobic conditions -> alkaline amines are formed -> alkaline slant (red) • 18- 24 hrs - in addition to glucose, lactose and/ or sucrose are also fermented -> large amount of fermentation products formed on slant neutralizes alkaline amines and renders the slant acidic -> acidic slant (yellow) • CO2 and H2 formation -> bubbles/ cracks in agar/ separation of agar from bottom/ sides of tube • H2S production -> blackening of agar
  • 104. TSI AGAR KLIGER’S IRON AGAR Beef extract 3g Yeast extract 3 g Peptone 20 g Glucose 1 g Lactose 10 g Sucrose 10 g Ferric citrate 0.3 g NaCl 5 g Agar 12 g Phenol red (0.2%) 12 mL Distilled water 1 L Sodium thiosulfate 0.3 g Beef extract 3 g Yeast extract 3 g Peptone 15 g protease peptone 5 g Lactose 10 g Glucose 1 g Ferrous sulfate 0.2 g NaCl 5 g Sodium thiosulfate 0.3 g Agar 12 g Phenol red 0.024 g Distilled water 1L Final pH: 7.3 Final pH: 7.4
  • 105. 6. TRIPLE SUGAR IRON (TSI) AGAR TEST (contd.,) • METHOD : • EXPECTED RESULTS : • Non fermenter (K/K) • Non Lactose( and sucrose) fermenter : only ferments glucose (K/A) • Lactose and/ or sucrose fermenter : A/A • H2S production • CO2 production
  • 106. 6. TRIPLE SUGAR IRON (TSI) AGAR TEST (contd.,) • QUALITY CONTROL : • A/A + gas production : E.coli ATCC 25922 • K/A +/- gas production, H2S + : Salmonella enterica subsp.enterica serovar typhimurium ATCC 14028 • K/K : P. aeruginosa ATCC 27853 • K/A, H2S + : Proteus mirabilis ATCC 12453 • K/A : Shigella flexneri ATCC 12022
  • 107. 6. TRIPLE SUGAR IRON (TSI) AGAR TEST (contd.,) REACTION EXAMPLES K/K P. aeruginosa K/A Citrobacter koseri, Hafnia, Serratia, Providencia, Morganella K/A, 𝐻2S + Salmonella, C. freundii, Proteus, Edwardsiella tarda A/A E.coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter A/A with more gas Klebsiella, Enterobacter
  • 108. 7. SUGAR FERMENTATION TEST • Carbohydrate fermentation is the process microorganisms use to produce energy. • Most microorganisms convert glucose to pyruvate during glycolysis; however, some organisms use alternate pathways. • A fermentation medium consists of a basal medium containing a single carbohydrate (glucose, lactose, or sucrose) for fermentation. • Medium may contain various colour indicators, such as Andrade’s indicator, bromocresol, or others. • A Durham tube is placed in each tube to capture gas produced by metabolism. Basal media: • Pancreatic digest of casein (10 g), beef extract (3 g), NaCl (5 g), carbohydrate (10 g) • Specific indicator (Andrade’s indicator [10 mL, pH 7.4] or bromocresol purple [0.02 g, pH 6.8]).
  • 109. 7. SUGAR FERMENTATION TEST (contd.,) PROCEDURE: Peptone Medium with Andrade’s Indicator (for Enterics and Coryneforms) • Inoculate each tube with one drop of an 18- to 24-hour brain-heart infusion broth culture. • Incubate at 35°C to 37°C for up to 7 days in ambient air. • Examine the tubes for acid (indicated by a pink color) and gas production. • Tubes must show growth for the test to be valid. • If no growth in the fermentation tubes or control is seen after 24 hours of incubation, add one to two drops of sterile rabbit serum per 5 mL of fermentation broth to each tube. Expected Results • Positive: Indicator change to pink with or without gas formation in Durham tube • Negative: Growth, but no change in color. Medium remains clear to straw colored
  • 110. 7. SUGAR FERMENTATION TEST (contd.,) Broth (Brain-Heart Infusion Broth May Be Substituted) with Bromocresol Purple Indicator (for Streptococci and Enterococci) • Inoculate each tube with two drops of an 18- to 24-hour brain-heart infusion broth culture. • Incubate 4 days at 35°C to 37°C in ambient air. • Observe daily for a change of the bromocresol purple indicator from purple to yellow (acid). Expected Results • Positive: Indicator change to yellow • Negative: Growth, but no change in color. Medium remains purple
  • 111. 7. SUGAR FERMENTATION TEST (contd.,) Quality Control • Peptone Medium with Andrade’s Indicator • Dextrose: Positive, with gas: Escherichia coli (ATCC25922) • Positive, no gas: Shigella flexneri (ATCC12022) • Brain-Heart Infusion Broth with Bromocresol Purple Indicator • Dextrose: Positive, with gas: Escherichia coli (ATCC25922) • Negative, no gas: Moraxella osloensis (ATCC10973)
  • 112.
  • 113. 8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (Moeller’s Method) • Decarboxylases - group of substrate-specific enzymes that are capable of reacting with the carboxyl (COOH) portion of amino acids, forming alkaline-reacting amines. • Decarboxylation - forms carbon dioxide as a second product. • Each decarboxylase enzyme is specific for an amino acid. • Lysine, ornithine, and arginine - amino acids routinely tested in the identification of the Enterobacteriaceae. • Lysine → Cadaverine • Ornithine → Putrescine • Arginine → Citrulline • The conversion of arginine to citrulline is a dihydrolase, rather than a decarboxylase reaction • An NH2 group is removed from arginine • Citrulline is next converted to ornithine, which then undergoes decarboxylation to form putrescine.
  • 114. 8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (contd.,) • Moller decarboxylase medium. • The amino acid to be tested is added to the decarboxylase base before inoculation with the test organism. • A control tube, consisting of only the base without the amino acid, must also be set up in parallel. • Both tubes are anaerobically incubated by overlaying with mineral oil. • During the initial stages of incubation, both tubes turn yellow - fermentation of the small amount of glucose in the medium. • If the amino acid is decarboxylated, alkaline amines are formed and the medium reverts to its original purple color.
  • 115.
  • 116. 8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (contd.,) • Moller Decarboxylase Broth Base • Peptone 5 g • Beef extract 5 g • Bromcresol purple 0.01 g • Cresol red 0.005 g • Glucose 0.5 g • Pyridoxal 0.005 g • Distilled water 1 L • Final pH 6.0 • Amino Acid • Add 10 g (final concentration = 1%) of the L (levo) -form of the amino acid (lysine, ornithine, or arginine). • Double this amount if the D (dextro) -form is to be used, because only the L-form is active.
  • 117. 8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (contd.,) • PROCEDURE : • From a well-isolated colony of the test organism previously recovered on primary isolation agar, inoculate two tubes of Moeller decarboxylase medium • TEST : containing the amino acid to be tested • CONTROL: devoid of amino acid. • Overlay both tubes with sterile mineral oil to cover about 1 cm of the surface • Incubate at 35°C for 18–24 hours. :
  • 118. 8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (contd.,) • QUALITY CONTROL : • Positive: • Lysine—Klebsiella pneumoniae (ATCC33495)—yellow to purple • Ornithine—Enterobacter aerogenes (ATCC13048)—yellow to purple • Arginine—Pseudomonas aeruginosa (ATCC27853)—yellow to purple • Base Control: • Positive Glucose Fermenters: Klebsiella pneumoniae (ATCC27736)—yellow Enterobacter aerogenes (ATCC13048)—yellow • Negative: • Lysine—Citrobacter freundii (ATCC331218)—yellow • Ornithine—Proteus vulgaris (ATCC6380)—yellow • Arginine—Escherichia coli (ATCC25922)—yellow
  • 119. 8. DECARBOXYLASE TEST (contd.,) • INTERPRETATION : • Conversion of the control tube to a yellow color indicates that • The organism is viable and • The pH of the medium has been lowered sufficiently to activate the decarboxylase enzymes. • POSITIVE : Reversion of the tube containing the amino acid to a blue-purple color ( formation of amines from the decarboxylation reaction)< Alkaline (purple) color change compared with the control tube > • Negative: No color change or acid (yellow) color in test and control tube. Growth in the control tube.
  • 120. 9. METHYL RED TEST • PRINCIPLE : • Quantitative test for acid production • Requires positive organisms to produce strong acids (lactic acid, acetic acid, formic acid) from glucose through mixed acid fermentation pathway • Organisms that can maintain the low pH after prolonged incubation (48- 72 hrs ) overcoming the pH buffering system of the medium can be called methyl red positive. • Methyl red : pH 6.0- yellow; pH 4.4 – red
  • 121.
  • 122. METHYL RED TEST (contd.,) • COMPONENTS • METHYL RED TEST BROTH- GLUCOSE PHOSPHATE PEPTONE WATER • Peptone : 5 g • K2HPO4 : 5 G • Water : 5 L • Glucose (10%) : 50 mL • Methyl red indicator solution : • Methyl red : 0.1 g • Ethanol : 300 ml • Distilled water : 200 ml
  • 123. METHYL RED TEST (contd.,) • METHOD : • Inoculate the medium lightly and incubate at 37C for 48 hrs • Add five drops of methyl red reagent • Mix and read immediately • EXPECTED RESULTS : • Positive : bright red • Negative : yellow
  • 124. METHYL RED TEST (contd.,) • QUALITY CONTROL : • Positive : E.coli • Negative : E. aerogenes MR POSITIVE MR NEGATIVE E. coli K. ozaenae K. rhinoscleromatis K. ornitholytica Edwardsielleae Salmonellae Proteae Citrobacter Yersinia K. pneumoniae Enterobacter spp.
  • 125. 10. VOGES – PROSKAUER TEST (acetoin production) • Many bacteria ferment carbohydrates with the production of acetyl methyl carbinol or its reduction product 2,3 butylene glycol • These substances can be tested by a colorimetric reaction between diacetyl (formed by oxidation ) and a guanidino group under alkaline conditions
  • 126.
  • 127. VOGES – PROSKAUER TEST (contd.,) • Medium : glucose phosphate peptone water • Reagent 1 : α-Naphthol, 5% color intensifier • α-Naphthol 5 g • Absolute ethyl alcohol 100 mL • Reagent 2. Potassium hydroxide, 40%, oxidizing agent • Potassium hydroxide 40 g • Distilled water 100 mL
  • 128. VOGES – PROSKAUER TEST (contd.,) • METHOD • Inoculate a tube of MR/VP broth with a pure culture of the test organism. • Incubate for 24 hours at 35°C. • At the end of this time, aliquot 1 mL of broth to a clean test tube. • Add 0.6 mL of 5% αnaphthol, C-13 followed by 0.2 mL of 40% KOH. • It is essential that the reagents be added in this order. • Shake the tube gently to expose the medium to atmospheric oxygen and allow the tube to remain undisturbed for 10–15 minutes.
  • 129. VOGES – PROSKAUER TEST (contd.,) • EXPECTED RESULTS : • Positive test : development of a red color 15 minutes or more after addition of the reagents, indicating the presence of diacetyl. • QUALITY CONTROL • Positive : E. aerogenes • Negative : E.coli VP POSITIVE VP NEGATIVE K. Pneumoniae E. Cloacae Serratia Ewingella americana Aeromonas sobria Vibrio cholerae Chryseomonas E. Coli Edwardsiella tarda Salmonellae Proteae Yersinieae
  • 130. 11. OXIDATION – FERMENTATION TEST • Saccharolytic microorganisms degrade glucose either fermentatively or oxidatively • The end products of fermentation are relatively strong mixed acids that can be detected in a conventional fermentation test medium. • The acids formed in oxidative degradation of glucose are extremely weak • More sensitive oxidation-fermentation medium of Hugh and Leifson (OF medium) is required for their detection.
  • 131. O/F TEST (contd.,) • The OF medium of Hugh and Leifson differs from carbohydrate fermentation media as follows: • The concentration of peptone is decreased from 1% to 0.2%. • The concentration of carbohydrate is increased from 0.5% to 1.0%. • The concentration of agar is decreased from 1.5% to 0.3% -> semisolid • The lower protein/carbohydrate ratio reduces the formation of alkaline amines that can neutralize the small quantities of weak acids that may form from oxidative metabolism. • The relatively larger amount of carbohydrate serves to increase the amount of acid that can potentially be formed. • The semisolid consistency of the agar permits acids that form on the surface of the agar to permeate throughout the medium, making interpretation of the pH shift of the indicator easier to visualize. • Motility can also be observed in this medium.
  • 132. O/F TEST (contd.,) • MEDIA &REAGENTS : • pH adjusted to 7.1 before adding bromothymol blue • Medium autoclaved in a flask at 121C for 15 min • Carbohydrate (glucose) to be added is sterilized separately and added to give a final concentration of 1%. • OF medium should be poured without a slant into tubes with an inner diameter of 15–20 mm to increase surface area. • Depth 4 cm.
  • 133. O/F TEST (contd.,) • PROCEDURE: • Two tubes are required for the OF test, each inoculated with the unknown organism, using a straight needle, stabbing the medium three to four times halfway to the bottom of the tube. • One tube of each pair is covered with a 1-cm layer of sterile mineral oil or melted paraffin • Other tube left open to the air. • Incubate both tubes at 35°C • Examine daily for several days (upto 30 days)
  • 134. O/F TEST (contd.,) • QUALITY CONTROL: • Glucose fermenter: Escherichia coli • Glucose oxidizer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa • Nonsaccharolytic: Moraxella species • INTERPRETATION:
  • 135. 12. NITRATE REDUCTION TEST • Organisms demonstrating nitrate reduction have the capability of extracting oxygen from nitrates to form nitrites and other reduction products • The presence of nitrites in the test medium is detected by the addition of α- naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid, with the formation of a red diazonium dye, p- sulfobenzeneazo-αnaphthylamine
  • 136. 12. NITRATE REDUCTION TEST (contd.,) Nitrate Broth or Nitrate Agar (Slant) • Beef extract 3 g • Peptone 5 g • Potassium nitrate (KNO3 ) 1 g • Agar (nitrite-free) 12 g • Distilled water 1 L • Reagent A • α-Naphthylamine 5 g • Acetic acid (5 N), 30% 1 L • Reagent B • Sulfanilic acid 8 g • Acetic acid (5 N), 30% 1 L
  • 137. 12. NITRATE REDUCTION TEST (contd.,) • METHOD : • Inoculate the nitrate medium with a loopful of the test organism isolated in pure culture on agar medium, and incubate at 35°C for 18–24 hours. • At the end of incubation, add 1 mLeach of reagents A and B to the test medium, in that order.
  • 138. 12. NITRATE REDUCTION TEST (contd.,) • EXPECTED RESULTS: • POSITIVE : The development of a red color within 30 seconds after adding the test reagents indicates the presence of nitrites • If no color develops after adding the test reagents: • True negative :nitrates have not been reduced • False negative :Nitrates have been reduced to products other than nitrites, such as ammonia, molecular nitrogen (denitrification), nitric oxide (NO) or nitrous oxide (N2O), and hydroxylamine. • It is necessary to add a small quantity of zinc dust to all negative reactions. • Zinc ions reduce nitrates to nitrites, and the development of a red color after adding zinc dust indicates the presence of residual nitrates and confirms a true negative reaction.
  • 139. 12. NITRATE REDUCTION TEST (contd.,) QUALITY CONTROL : • Positive control: Escherichia coli • Negative control: Acinetobacter baumannii
  • 140. 13. PHENYL PYRUVIC ACID TEST • Phenylalanine on deamination forms a keto acid, phenylpyruvic acid. • Of the Enterobacteriaceae, only members of the Proteus, Morganella, and Providencia genera possess the deaminase enzyme necessary for this conversion. • The phenylalanine test depends on the detection of phenylpyruvic acid in the test medium after growth of the test organism. • The test is positive if a visible green color develops on addition of a solution of 10% ferric chloride.
  • 141.
  • 142. PHENYL PYRUVIC ACID TEST (contd.,) • MEDIA & REAGENTS: • Phenylalanine agar is poured as a slant into a tube. • Meat extracts or protein hydrolysates cannot be used because of their varying natural content of phenylalanine. • Yeast extract serves as the carbon and nitrogen source.
  • 143. PHENYL PYRUVIC ACID TEST (contd.,) • QUALITY CONTROL : • Positive: Proteus mirabilis (ATCC12453) • Negative: Escherichia coli (ATCC25922) • PROCEDURE: • The agar slant of the medium is inoculated with a single colony of the test organism isolated in pure culture of primary plating agar. • After incubation at 35°C for 18–24 hours, 4 or 5 drops of the ferric chloride reagent are added directly to the surface of the agar. • As the reagent is added, the tube is rotated to dislodge the surface colonies.
  • 144. PHENYL PYRUVIC ACID TEST (contd.,) • Interpretation • POSITIVE : The immediate appearance of an intense green color indicates the presence of phenylpyruvic acid • Negative: Slant remains original color after the addition of ferric chloride
  • 145. 14. COAGULASE TEST • S. aureus produces 2 forms of coagulase. BOUND COAGULASE FREE COAGULASE Clumping factor Thrombin like substance Bound to bacterial cell wall Secreted extracellularly Reacts directly with fibrinogen in plasma Causes clot formation when S. aureus colonies are incubated with plasma Precipitation of fibrinogen on staphylococcal cell -> rapid agglutination/ clumping Free coagulase + Coagulase reacting factor in plasma -> Coagulase- CRF complex -> react with fibrinogen -> clot formation Not present in culture filtrates Present in culture filtrates
  • 146. SLIDE COAGULASETEST TUBE COAGULASETEST For bound coagulase For free coagulase Rabbit plasma with EDTA Method 1: 1 in 6 dilution of plasma in 0.85% NaCl Place 1 mLof diluted plasma in a tube Emulsify Staphylococcus colony into it Incubate at 37C for 4 hrs Method 2: using undiluted plasma (0.5ml) and 0.1 ml of culture Positive :clumping within 10 sec Positive : any degree of clot formation Negative : no clumping Negative : no clot Kit slide tests are also available
  • 147. COAGULASE TEST (contd.,) • QUALITY CONTROL : • Positive : S. aureus ATCC 25923 • Negative : S. epidermidis ATCC 12228 • EXAMPLES • Coagulase positive : S. aureus • Coagulase negative : CoNS
  • 148. 15. Deoxyribonucleic Acid Hydrolysis (DNase Test Agar) • To determine the ability of an organism to hydrolyze DNA. • The medium is pale green because of the DNA–methyl green complex. • If the organism growing on the medium hydrolyzes DNA, the green color fades and the colony is surrounded by a colorless zone. • Media: • Pancreatic digest of casein (10 g), • yeast extract (10 g), • deoxyribonucleic acid (2 g), • NaCl (5 g), agar (15 g), • methyl green (0.5 g), • pH 7.5
  • 149. Method • Inoculate the DNase agar with the organism to be tested and streak for isolation. • Incubate aerobically at 35°C to 37°C for 13 to 24 hours. Expected Results • Positive: When DNA is hydrolyzed, methyl green is released and combines with highly polymerized DNA at a pH of 7.5, turning the medium colorless around the test organism • Negative: If no degradation of DNA occurs, the medium remains green
  • 150. Quality Control • Positive: Staphylococcus aureus (ATCC25923) • Negative: Escherichia coli (ATCC25922)
  • 151. 16. CAMP test • Presumptive identification of group B β-hemolytic streptococci • First described in 1944 by Christie, Atkins, and Munch–Petersen • The hemolytic activity of the β-hemolysin produced by most strains of Staphylococcus aureus is enhanced by an extracellular hemolytic protein (CAMP factor) produced by group B streptococci. • Interaction of the β-hemolysin with this factor causes “synergistic hemolysis,” which is easily observed on a blood agar plate. • This phenomenon is seen with both hemolytic and nonhemolytic isolates of group B streptococci. • Other bacteria, such as Listeria monocytogenes, Rhodococcus equi, and certain strains of Vibrio cholera, are also CAMP-positive.
  • 152. CAMP test (contd.,) • MATERIALS: • β-hemolysin-producing strain of Staphylococcus aureus • Sheep blood agar plate • QUALITY CONTROL : • Positive: Streptococcus agalactiae (ATCC13813)—enhanced arrowhead hemolysis • Negative: Streptococcus pyogenes (ATCC19615)—beta-hemolysis without enhanced arrowhead formation
  • 153. CAMP test (contd.,) • PROCEDURE: • Down the center of a blood agar plate, and make a single straight line streak of βhemolysin-producing S. aureus. • Taking care not to intersect the staphylococcal streak, inoculate a streak of the β-hemolytic streptococcus to be identified perpendicular to the staphylococcal streak. • Make these streaks so that, after incubation, the growth of the two organisms will not be touching. • The streptococcal streak should be 3–4 cm long. • Known group A and B streptococcal strains should be similarly inoculated on the same plate as negative and positive controls, respectively. • Incubate the plate at 35°C in ambient air for 18–24 hours.
  • 154. CAMP test (contd.,) • INTERPRETATION: • Positive: Enhanced hemolysis is indicated by an arrowheadshaped zone of beta- hemolysis at the juncture of the two organisms • Negative: No enhancement of hemolysis • The area of increased hemolysis occurs where the β-hemolysin secreted by the Staphylococcus and the CAMP factor secreted by the group B Streptococcus intersect. • Any bacitracin-resistant, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole–resistant, CAMP test- positive, β-hemolytic Streptococcus can be reported as “β-hemolytic Streptococcus, presumptive group B by CAMP test.”
  • 156. 17. ESCULIN HYDROLYSIS TEST • Esculin medium without bile is useful in differentiating several species on nonfermenting bacilli. • Esculin is a substituted glucoside that can be hydrolyzed by certain bacteria to yield glucose and esculetin. • Esculin is a fluorescent compound that fluoresces under long-wave UV light at 360 nm. • When esculin is hydrolyzed, fluorescence is lost, and the medium turns black due to the reaction of esculetin with the ferric ions in the medium.
  • 157.
  • 158. ESCULIN HYDROLYSIS test (contd.,) • MEDIA & REAGENTS:
  • 159. ESCULIN HYDROLYSIS test (contd.,) • Quality Control • Positive control: Aeromonas hydrophila ATCC 7965 • Negative control: P. aeruginosa ATCC 27853 • Procedure : • After touching the center of one well-isolated colony with a sterile inoculation loop or wooden stick, inoculate the organism onto the surface of the agar slant or into the broth. • Incubate for 18– 24 hours at 35°C
  • 160. ESCULIN HYDROLYSIS test (contd.,) • Interpretation: • POSITIVE : The development of a black color or the loss of fluorescence under UV light (360 nm) • NEGATIVE : Fluorescence or lack of a black color
  • 161. ESCULIN HYDROLYSIS test (contd.,) • EXAMPLES: • ESCULIN POSITIVE : Several species of Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, as well as C. luteola, B. vesicularis, S. paucimobilis, S. maltophilia, R. radiobacter, and some species of B. cepacia, B. pseudomallei, and O. anthropic • ESCULIN NEGATIVE :
  • 162. 18 . PYR TEST (l-Pyrrolidonyl Arylamidase) • The enzyme l-pyrrolidonyl arylamidase hydrolyzes the l-pyrrolidonyl-b-naphthylamide substrate to produce a b-naphthylamine. • The b-naphthylamine can be detected in the presence of N,N-methylamino-cinnamaldehyde reagent by the production of a bright red precipitate. • Method • Before inoculation, moisten the disk slightly with reagentgrade water. Do not flood the disk. • Using a wooden applicator stick, rub a small amount of several colonies of an 18- to 24-hour pure culture onto a small area of the PYR disk. • Incubate at room temperature for 2 minutes. • Add a drop of detector reagent, N,N-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde, and observe for a red color within 1 minute.
  • 163. PYR Test (contd.,) Expected Results • Positive: Bright red colour within 5 minutes • Negative: No colour change or an orange colour Quality Control • Positive: Enterococcus faecalis (ATCC29212) Streptococcus pyogenes (ATCC19615) • Negative: Streptococcus agalactiae (ATCC10386)
  • 164. 19. BILE SOLUBILITY TEST • Bile solubility reagent (10% sodium deoxycholate) - presumptive identification and differentiation of S. pneumoniae from other α-hemolytic streptococci. • S. pneumoniae cells visibly lyse when 10% sodium deoxycholate is applied, while other αhemolytic streptococci do not. • Bile or a solution of a bile salt (e.g., sodium deoxycholate) rapidly lyses pneumococcal colonies. • Lysis depends on the presence of an intracellular autolytic enzyme, amidase. • Bile salts lower the surface tension between the bacterial cell membrane and the medium, thus accelerating the organism’s natural autolytic process
  • 165. 19. BILE SOLUBILITY TEST Reagents • Sodium desoxycholate, 10% aqueous solution • Blood agar plate with growth of an α-hemolytic Streptococcus Quality Control • Bile (deoxycholate) soluble: Streptococcus pneumoniae (ATCC49619) • Bile (deoxycholate) insoluble: Enterococcus faecalis (ATCC29212)
  • 166. 19. BILE SOLUBILITY TEST (contd.,) Tube Test • Prepare a saline suspension of the test isolate from an 18- to 24-hour, pure culture. • Adjust turbidity to that of a 0.5 to 1.0 McFarland standard or equivalent. • Aliquot 0.5 mL of the suspension into each of two tubes. Label one tube as Test, the other as Control. • Add 0.5 mL of 10% bile solubility reagent to the tube marked Test, and 0.5 mL of saline (pH 7.0) to the tube marked Control. • Gently agitate tubes to suspend bacteria. • Incubate tubes at 35°C to 37°C and examine periodically for up to 3 hours. • Observe for clearing in the Test suspension. The Control suspension should remain turbid. Plate Spot Test • Place one drop of 10% bile solubility reagent near suspected 18- to 24-hour-old colonies growing on sheep blood agar. • Gently roll the drop over several representative colonies by tilting the plate. Take care not to dislodge the colonies. • Incubate the plate aerobically in an upright position at 35°C to 37°C, and examine periodically for up to 30 minutes. • Leave lid slightly ajar to enhance evaporation of the reagent. • Observe the colony for disintegration or solubility.
  • 167. 19. BILE SOLUBILITY TEST (contd.,) Tube Test • Positive test — Clearing or loss of turbidity of the test suspension within 3 hours. The Control suspension remains turbid. • Negative test — Test and Control suspensions remain turbid after 3 hours. Spot Test • Positive test—Disintegration of colonies and/or the appearance of an α-hemolytic zone on the plate where the colony was located within 30 minutes. • Negative test—Colonies on the plate remain intact with no change in colony integrity within 30 minutes.
  • 168. 20. BILE ESCULIN TEST • The bile esculin test is based on the ability of certain bacteria (group D streptococci and Enterococcus species ) to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile (4% bile salts or 40% bile). • Esculin is a glycosidic coumarin derivative (6-β-glucoside-7-hydroxy-coumarin). • The two moieties of the molecule (glucose and C-29 7-hydroxycoumarin) are linked together by an ester bond through oxygen. • For this test, esculin is incorporated into a medium containing 4% bile salts. • Bacteria that are bile esculin–positive are able to grow in the presence of bile salts • Subsequent hydrolysis of the esculin in the medium results in the formation of glucose and a compound called esculetin. • Esculetin, in turn, reacts with ferric ions (supplied by the inorganic medium component ferric citrate) to form a black diffusible complex.
  • 169. 20. BILE ESCULIN TEST (contd.,)
  • 170. 20. BILE ESCULIN TEST (contd.,) Medium: Bile esculin agar medium - agar slants or plates. • Peptone 5 g • Beef extract 3 g • Oxgall (bile) 40 g • Esculin 1 g • Ferric citrate 0.5 g • Agar 15 g • Distilled water 1 L • pH 7.0
  • 171. 20. BILE ESCULIN TEST (contd.,) Quality Controls • Positive: Enterococcus faecalis (ATCC19433)—growth; black precipitate • Negative: Escherichia coli (ATCC25922)—growth; no color change Streptococcus pyogenes (ATCC19615)—no growth; no color change Procedure • With an inoculating wire or loop, touch two or three morphologically similar streptococcal colonies and inoculate the slant of the bile esculin medium with an S-shaped motion, or streak the surface of a bile esculin plate for isolation. • Incubate the tube or plate at 35°C for 24–48 hours in an ambient air incubator.
  • 172. 20. BILE ESCULIN TEST (contd.,) Interpretation : • On plates, black haloes will be observed around isolated colonies and any blackening is considered positive. • Positive: Growth and blackening of the agar slant • Negative: Growth and no blackening of medium No growth • All group D streptococci will be bile esculin–positive within 48 hours.
  • 173. 21. NOVOBIOCIN SUSCEPTIBILITY TEST • CoNS can be divided into novobiocin-susceptible and novobiocin resistant species. • Among the novobiocin-resistant species, S. saprophyticus is the one commonly recovered from humans as a cause of urinary tract infections. • Therefore, screening coagulase-negative staphylococci isolated from quantitative urine cultures for susceptibility to novobiocin provides a reliable presumptive identification of this species. • Reagents • Novobiocin disks, 5 mg • Sheep blood agar plate
  • 174. 21. NOVOBIOCIN SUSCEPTIBILITY TEST (contd.,) • Quality Control • A known S. saprophyticus strain and an S. epidermidis strain • Procedure • Prepare a suspension of the organism to be identified in sterile distilled water or broth. • The suspension should be equivalent in turbidity to a 0.5 McFarland standard. • With a sterile swab, spread some of the suspension over half of a blood agar plate. • Aseptically place a novobiocin disk on the inoculated area. • Susceptibility to furazolidone may be assessed on the same plate by placing the disks about 4 cm apart on the inoculated area. • Gently tap the disk(s) with sterile forceps to assure contact with the agar surface. • Incubate the plate aerobically for 18–24 hours at 35°C.
  • 175. 21. NOVOBIOCIN SUSCEPTIBILITY TEST (contd.,) Interpretation : • S. saprophyticus are novobiocin-resistant and will show zones of inhibition of 6 mm (no zone)–12 mm. • Other Coagulase-Negative Staphylococci and S. aureus are novobiocin- susceptible and will show zones of 16 mm or larger.
  • 176. 22. OPTOCHIN SUSCEPTIBILITY TEST • Ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride (optochin), a quinine derivative, selectively inhibits the growth of Streptococcus pneumoniae at very low concentrations (5 mg/mLor less). • Optochin may also inhibit other Viridans Streptococci, but only at much higher concentrations. • The test has a sensitivity of more than 95%, is simple to perform, and is inexpensive. • Optochin is water-soluble and diffuses readily into agar medium. • Filter paper disks impregnated with optochin - disk diffusion test - to determine susceptibility of suspected pneumococci • S. pneumoniae cells surrounding the disk are lysed owing to changes in the surface tension, and a zone of inhibition is produced.
  • 177. Media and Reagents • Well-isolated colonies of the organism to be tested on sheep blood agar • Sheep blood agar plate • Optochin disks (5 μg) Quality Control • Positive control: Streptococcus pneumoniae • Negative control: Viridans Streptococcus or Enterococcus faecalis
  • 178. Procedure • Using an inoculating loop or wire, select three to four well-isolated colonies of the organism to be tested and streak onto one-half to a one-third of a blood agar plate. • The inoculated area should be about 3 cm2 . • Place an optochin disk in the upper third of the streaked area. • Tap down the disk with flamed or otherwise sterilized forceps so that the disk adheres firmly to the agar surface. • Incubate the plate at 35°C for 18–24 hours in a candle jar or in 5%–7% CO2 .
  • 179. Interpretation • A Viridans Streptococcus can be presumptively identified as S. pneumoniae if it shows a zone of inhibition of 14 mm or more around a 6-mm or a zone of 16 mm or more around a 10-mm disk • Organisms showing zones smaller than these should be tested for bile solubility.
  • 180. 23. BACITRACIN & SXT SUSCEPTIBILITY TEST • Susceptibility to low concentrations of the polypeptide antibiotic bacitracin and to the combination sulfonamide–trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (SXT) - presumptive identification of both group A and group B β-hemolytic streptococci. • Group A Streptococci are susceptible to relatively low concentrations of bacitracin and are resistant to SXT. • Group B Streptococci are resistant to both antibiotics. • Other β-hemolytic Streptococci show varying susceptibility to bacitracin, but these organisms are usually susceptible to SXT. • The performance of the SXT test along with the bacitracin test increases the sensitivity and predictive value of the bacitracin test. • Bacitracin is also used to distinguish Staphylococci species (resistant) from Micrococci (susceptible).
  • 181. Reagents • Sheep blood agar plate • Bacitracin disks (0.04 units/disk) • SXT disks (trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole, 1.25 μg/23.75 μg) Quality Control Positive: Streptococcus pyogenes (ATCC19615)—susceptible Micrococcus luteus (ATCC10240)—susceptible Negative: Streptococcus agalactiae (ATCC27956)—resistant Staphylococcus aureus (ATCC25923)—resistant
  • 182. Procedure • Pick three to four isolated colonies of the β-hemolytic Streptococcus, and streak the inoculum down the center of half of a blood agar plate. • Using a sterile swab or a bacteriologic loop, spread the inoculum as a lawn over the entire half of the plate. • Aseptically place a bacitracin disk and an SXT disk on the inoculated area. Make sure that the disks are spaced evenly. Using flamed forceps, gently tap down the disks so that they adhere to the agar surface. • Incubate the plate in ambient air at 35°C.
  • 183. • Interpretation : • Susceptible (S): Any zone around either of the disks • Resistant (R): Growth up to the edge of the disk
  • 184.
  • 185. AUTOMATED CULTURETECHNIQUES Automated blood culture techniques • BacT/ALERT 3D • Bact/ALERT VIRTUO • BACTEC • VersaTREK Automated systems for bacterial identification • MALDI TOF • VITEK • Phoenix • MicroScanWalkAway system
  • 186. CONVENTIONAL BLOOD CULTURE METHODS • Often yield poor results • Low bacterial load • Increased chance of contamination • Less sensitive • Takes more time • More labour intensive AUTOMATED BLOOD CULTURE METHODS • Continuous automated monitoring • More sensitive • Rapid • Less labour intensive • High cost of instrument & culture bottles • Inability to observe colony morphology as liquid medium is used.
  • 187. BacT/ALERT 3D • Principle : colorimetric detection of bacterial growth • BacT/ALERT bottles – • Tryptic soy broth • Brain heart infusion broth • Adsorbent polymeric beads • Liquid emulsion sensor – bottom of each bottle; differentially permeable membrane • CO2 produced by growing microorganisms – diffuse across the sensor – reacts with water- generates hydrogen ions • H+ ions -> pH -> blue green sensor becomes yellow • The algorithm of detection of growth is based on the analysis of the rate of change of CO2 concentration occurring in each individual bottle.
  • 188. BacT/ALERT VIRTUO • Automatic loading & unloading of bottles • Faster detection of growth • Can determine the volume of blood present in the bottle
  • 189. BACTEC • Flourometric detection • BACTEC bottle • Soybean- casein digest broth • Polymeric resin beads • Oxygen sensitive fluorescent compound dissolved in the broth • Uninoculated broth : large amount of dissolved oxygen quenches the fluorescence dye • Actively dividing microorganisms consume oxygen, remove the quenching effect, and allow the fluorescence to be detected.
  • 190. VersaTREK • PRINCIPLE : CO2 liberated from bacteria, causes a pressure change which is then detected by manometry. • Differs from the BacT/ALERT3D and the BD BACTEC systems in the following ways: • The production of CO2 is monitored manometrically • Both gas consumption and production are monitored • Changes in the concentrations of H2 and O2 in addition to CO2 are detected.
  • 191. VersaTREK (contd.,) • The data unit is also a cabinet that serves as a self-contained incubator, agitator and detector. • Capacity : 96-to-240 or up to 528 bottles are currently available. • After inoculation of up to 10 mL of venous blood, each bottle is fitted with a disposable connector, which includes a recessed needle that penetrates the septum of the blood culture bottle. • Each bottle is then placed in a defined position on a carrying rack that is aligned such that the connector attaches directly to a sensing probe located at the top of each position. • Once the bottle is properly aligned, the pressure of the head–gas is continuously monitored. • A reading is taken every 12 minutes
  • 192. Versa TREK ( contd.,) • When the change in reading exceeds a delta value, lights are illuminated that indicate the position of any positive bottle. • A reading may occur during a phase of consumption of 𝐻2 and 𝑂2 . • Oxygen consumption is accelerated at the time replicating organisms enter the log phase of growth. • A reading may be possible, therefore, early in the incubation period before a detectable amount of CO2 is produced. • Testing multiple gases is a theoretical advantage for the electrostatic precipitator (ESP) system, especially for the detection of a saccharolytic microorganisms that may not produce sufficient CO2 for detection by the indicator.
  • 193. CONTINUOUS MONITORING BLOOD CULTURE SYSTEMS ADVANTAGES • Decrease in laboratory workload • Decrease in the number of false-positive results and pseudobacteremia (because of decreased handling and sampling of the bottles) • Significant increase in the speed of detection and in the rate of microbial recovery.. DISADVANTAGES • Limited selection of media • Large size of the instruments • Expensive
  • 194. AUTOMATED SYSTEMS FOR BACTERIAL IDENTIFICATION • MALDITOF • VITEK 2 • Phoenix • MicroScanWalkAway system
  • 195. MALDITOF • It can identify bacteria, fungi, and mycobacteria with a turnaround time of few minutes and with absolute accuracy • Two systems are commercially available: VITEK MS (bioMérieux) and Biotyper system (Bruker). • MALDI-TOF examines the pattern of ribosomal proteins present in the organism. Sample preparation: • The colony of an organism is smeared onto a well of the slide and one drop of matrix solution (composed of cyano-hydroxy-cinnamic acid) is added to the same well and mixed • Slide is loaded in the system.
  • 196. Steps after loading: • Ionization chamber: • Wells are irradiated with the laser beam. • The matrix absorbs the laser light causing desorption and ionization of bacterial ribosomal proteins, generating singly protonated ions • Analyzer: • These ions are then accelerated into an electric field which directs them to the analyzer chamber. • The analyzer (mass spectrometer) separates them according to their time-of-flight (TOF) in the flight tube • . The smaller molecules travel faster, followed by the bigger, according to the mass to charge (m/z) ratio • Detector: • It converts the received ion into an electrical current which is then amplified and digitized to generate a characteristic spectrum that is unique to a species due to its conserved ribosomal proteins. • The test isolate is identified by comparing its spectrum with a known database.
  • 197.
  • 198. • A summation of the time of flight for all molecules present will produce a spectrum • This spectrum is then electronically compared with all the spectra in the library to determine the best match • Subsequently the identification of the microbe
  • 199. VITEK 2 AUTOMATED SYSTEM • Perform both identification and antimicrobial susceptibility testing (AST) of bacteria and yeast. • It uses colorimetric reagent card containing 64 wells; each well contains an individual test substrate. • Separate cards are available for gram-negative, gram-positive bacteria, fastidious bacteria and yeasts • Substrates in the well measure various metabolic activities such as acidification, alkalinization, enzyme hydrolysis, etc. which helps in identification of the organism
  • 200. • The reaction pattern obtained from the test organism is compared with the database and the identification is reported with a confidence level of matching • The cards are incubated in the system at 35.5 ± 1°C. • The reading is taken once every 15 minutes by the optical system of the equipment, which measures the presence of any colored products of substrate metabolism (by advanced colorimetry method) • The result of identification is usually available within 4–6 hours
  • 201. REFERENCES • Koneman’s Color Atlas and Textbook of Diagnostic Microbiology – 7th edition • Bailey & Scott’s Diagnostic Microbiology – 15th edition • Mackie & McCartney Practical Medical Microbiology – 14th edition • Essentials of Medical Microbiology – 3rd edition -Apurba S Sastry, Sandhya Bhat

Editor's Notes

  1. Specificity refers to the percentage of patients without disease that will test negative for the presence of the organism. Sensitivity indicates the percentage of patients in whom the organism is present who actually test positive. characterizations based on the antigenic makeup of the organisms and involve techniques based on antigen-antibody interactions -immunologic methods.
  2. Phenotypic criteria are based on observable physical or metabolic characteristics of bacteria—that is, identification is through analysis of gene products rather than through the genes themselves.
  3. Because most infectious agents cannot be detected with the unaided eye, microscopy plays a pivotal role in the laboratory. Microscopes and microscopic methods vary.
  4. Microscopic examination of a wet preparation demonstrates the size difference between most yeast cells, such as those of Candida albicans (arrow A), and bacteria, such as Staphylococcus aureus (arrow B)
  5. Direct examinations are usually not performed on throat, nasopharyngeal, or stool specimens because of the presence of abundant normal microbiota but are indicated from most other sources. Purposes: 1. eg: sputa can be rejected that represent saliva and not lower respiratory tract secretions by quantitation of white blood cells or squamous epithelial cells present in the specimen. Bartlett scoring. 2. eg: GPC in clusters in an exudate 3. eg: Gram stain- 3 morphotypes seen; culture –only 2 grown -> 3rd organism could be anaerobe More than 3 grown in culture ; not seen in Grams -> possible contamination. It is imperative that the Gram stain results and specimen culture correlate to the type of specimen to ensure accurate information is provided to the clinician
  6. Cytocentrifugation or concentration of a sterile body fluid such as CSF ,enhances the ability to identify cells in a specimen that may contain small numbers of microorganisms. If the specimen is too old, the biologic cells may have disintegrated, resulting in a high protein content or background material. If the sample contains numerous cells, such as in a bloody spinal tap, the organisms may be indistinguishable from the background material.
  7. Gram stain- most common stain in bacteriology- to visualize rods, cocci, white blood cells, red blood cells, or squamous epithelial cells present in the sample. most common direct fungal stains are KOH ,PAS, GMS (Grocott’s methenamine silver stain), and calcofluor white. the most common direct acid-fast stains are AR (auramine rhodamine), ZN (Ziehl-Neelsen), and Kinyoun. l
  8. Therefore the absence of bacteria or inflammatory cells on such a smear is a true negative and not likely the result of loss of specimen during staining
  9. The acid-fast stain is the other commonly used stain for light-microscopic examination of bacteria 1% sulphuric acid Cryptosporidium parvum Cyclospora cayetanensis Cystoisospora belli Microsporidia Eggs of T.saginata Hooklets of hydatid cyst Miracidium of S.mansoni 0.5 -1% sulphuric acid Sperm head Legionella micdadei
  10. STAINING SOLUTION Toluidine blue 1.5g Malachite green 2 g Glacial acetic acid – 10 ml 95% ethanol 20 ml Distilled water 1 L Albert’s Iodine Iodine - 6g Potassium iodide – 9 g Distilled water – 900ml
  11. Used commonly to identify medically important fungi grown in culture
  12. acridine orange stains all nucleic acids, it is nonspecific. Therefore all microorganisms and nucleic acid–containing host cells will stain and give a bright orange fluorescence
  13. A- Gram stain of mycoplasma demonstrates the inability to distinguish cell wall–deficient organisms from amorphous gram-negative debris B- Staining the same specimen with acridine orange confirms the presence of nucleic acid–containing organisms C- Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria D- but all bacteria stain the same with the nonspecific acridine orange dye
  14. Ziehl-Neelsen–stained (A) and auramine-rhodamine–stained (B) Mycobacterium spp. (arrows)
  15. Digital imaging, including scanning entire slides, provides an opportunity for standardization, cost reductions, and quality improvement. Digital or virtual microscopy can greatly aid departments, college programs, and professional organizations in the delivery of quality cost-effective microscopy training.
  16. . After direct gram stain, the specimen or patient sample is then processed for identification by either a phenotypic method, genotypic method (nucleic acid–based) , and/or an immunologic method The environmental transition is not necessarily easy for bacteria. In vivo they are utilizing various complex metabolic and physiologic pathways developed for survival on or within the human host. Then, relatively suddenly, they are exposed to the artificial in vitro environment of the laboratory. The bacteria must adjust to survive and multiply. Once grown in culture, most bacterial populations are easily observed without microscopy and are present in sufficient quantities to allow laboratory identification procedures to be performed.
  17. The turbidity of the broth results from light deflected by bacteria present in the culture More growth indicates a higher cell density and greater turbidity. Some broths contain a pH indicator, such as phenol red, that may change color in the presence of bacterial metabolites rather than relying solely on the growth of the organism.
  18. 0.075% agar to prevent convection currents from carrying atmospheric oxygen throughout the broth. This agar supplement and the presence of thioglycolic acid, which acts as a reducing agent to create an anaerobic environment deeper in the tube, allow anaerobic bacteria to grow Gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic bacilli (i.e., those that can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen) generally produce diffuse, even growth throughout the broth, whereas gram-positive cocci demonstrate flocculation or clumps
  19. Growth characteristics of various bacteria in thioglycollate broth. A, Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative bacilli (i.e., those that grow in the presence or absence of oxygen) grow throughout the broth. B, Gram-positive cocci exhibit flocculation. C, Strictly aerobic organisms (i.e., those that require oxygen for growth), such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, grow toward the top of the broth. D, Strictly anaerobic organisms (i.e., those that do not grow in the presence of oxygen) grow in the bottom of the broth.
  20. The addition of agar allows a solid medium to be prepared by heating to an extremely high temperature, which is required for sterilization, and cooling to 55°C to 60°C for distribution into petri dishes. On further cooling, the agarose-containing medium forms a stable solid gel referred to as agar. The petri dish containing the agar is referred to as the agar plate. Agar deep- tube with flat surface Agar slant- tube with slanted surface The ability to select pure (individual) colonies is one of the first and most important steps required for bacterial identification and characterization.
  21. Nutritive media can be differential : in that microorganisms can be distinguished on the basis of certain growth characteristics evident on the medium. Blood agar is considered both a nutritive and differential medium because it differentiates organisms on hemolysis type. Selective media : MacConkey agar- contains the dye crystal violet, which inhibits gram-positive organisms. Columbia agar with colistin and nalidixic acid (CNA) is a selective medium for gram-positive organisms,- antimicrobials colistin and nalidixic acid inhibit GN bacteria. Fastidious organisms : specific nutritional and environmental conditions for their growth, Chocolate agar for Hemophilus species.
  22. Selection of media to inoculate for any given specimen is usually based on the organisms most likely to be involved in the disease process CSF – most likely pathogens : Pneumococcus, Meningococcus, E.coli, H. influenzae- selects media that will support their growth Example 2 – source likely to be contaminated with normal microbiota – eg: anal fistula- selective media- CNA- to suppress GNB , to allow GP bacteria and yeast to be recovered.
  23. Red blood cell lysis gives the medium the chocolate-brown color from which the agar gets its name. Neither of these organisms is able to grow on sheep blood agar PREPARATION: Melt the desired amount of nutrient agar Cool it in a water bath at 75ºC Add 10% sterile blood and allow the medium to remain at 75ºC, mixing the blood andagar by gentle agitation from time to time until the blood becomes chocolate brown in colour , within about 10 min Pour as slopes or plates
  24. CNA refers to the antibiotics colistin (C) and nalidixic acid (NA) that are added to the medium to suppress the growth of most gram-negative organisms while allowing gram-positive bacteria to grow, thus conferring a selective property to this medium.
  25. Mannitol is the favored energy source for many enteric pathogens, but it is not utilized by many other nonpathogenic enteric organisms To optimize its selective nature, GN broth should be subcultured 6 to 8 hours after initial inoculation and incubation. After this time, the non enteric pathogens begin to overgrow the pathogens that may be present in very low numbers
  26. . Many gram-positive bacteria (with a few exceptions, such as certain Enterococcus spp., Lactobacillus spp., Leuconostoc spp., and Pediococcus spp.) are susceptible to vancomycin, an antimicrobial agent that acts on the bacterial cell wall. In contrast, most clinicallyimportant gram-negative bacteria are resistant to vancomycin. With few exceptions (e.g., certain Chryseobacterium spp., Moraxella spp., or Acinetobacter spp. isolates may be vancomycin susceptible), truly gram-negative bacteria are resistant to vancomycin. Conversely, most gram-negative bacteria are susceptible to the antibiotics colistin or polymyxin, whereas gram-positive bacteria are typically resistant to these agents Trimethoprim - to inhibit Proteus spp., which tend to swarm over the agar surface and mask the detection of individual colonies of the pathogenic Neisseria spp.
  27. Urine cultures and tissues from burn victims are plated quantitatively; everything else is usually plated semiquantitatively. Plates inoculated for quantitation are usually streaked with a 1:100 or 1:1000 loop. Plates inoculated for semiquantitation are usually streaked out in four quadrants. LAST: This tells the clinician the relative numbers of different organisms present in the specimen; such semiquantitative information is usually sufficient for the physician to be able to treat the patient
  28. A - Dilution streak technique for isolation and semiquantitation of bacterial colonies. B, Actual plates show sparse, or 1+bacterial growth that is limited to the first quadrant. C, Moderate, or 2+ , bacterial growth that extends to the second quadrant. D, Heavy, or 3+ to 4+, bacterial growth that extends to the fourth quadrant
  29. A, Streaking pattern using a calibrated loop for enumeration of bacterial colonies grown from a liquid specimen such as urine. B, An actual plate shows well-isolated and dispersed bacterial colonies for enumeration obtained with the calibrated loop streaking technique
  30. Inoculated media are incubated under various temperatures and environmental conditions, depending on the organisms suspected—for example, 28° to 30°C for fungi and 35° to 37°C for most bacteria, viruses, and acid-fast bacillus. A number of different environmental conditions exist. Capnophiles, such as Haemophilus influenzae and Neisseria gonorrhoeae Microaerophiles (Campylobacter jejuni, Helicobacter pylori)
  31. Although most bacteria grow readily on artificial media, certain pathogens require factors provided by living cells.
  32. Occasionally an organism may grow in culture that was not seen in the direct smear. - possibilities- 1. a slow-growing organism was present, 2. the patient was receiving antibiotic treatment to prevent growth of the organism, the specimen was not processed appropriately the organisms are no longer viable the organism requires special media for growth. Care should be taken to ensure the smear is not too thick when preparing the slide from solid media. In addition, smear from a liquid broth should not be diluted. Smears should be air-dried completely before heat fixing to prevent the distortion of cell shapes before staining.
  33. Enzymes are the driving force in bacterial metabolism. Enzymes are genetically encoded
  34. bacteria use various metabolic pathways to produce biochemical building blocks and energy. For most clinically relevant bacteria, this involves utilization of carbohydrates (e.g., sugar or sugar derivatives) and protein substrates. Determining whether substrate utilization is an oxidative or fermentative process is important for the identification of several different bacteria.
  35. when acid production is detected in both tubes, the organism is identified as a glucose fermenter, because fermentation can occur with or without oxygen. If acid is only detected in the open, aerobic tube, the organism is characterized as a glucose oxidizer. some bacteria do not use glucose as a substrate and no acid is detected in either tube (a nonutilizer). The glucose fermentative or oxidative capacity is generally used to separate organisms into major groups (e.g., Enterobacteriaceae are fermentative; Pseudomonas spp. are oxidative). However, the utilization pattern for several other carbohydrates (e.g., lactose, sucrose, xylose, maltose) is often needed to help identify an organism’s genus and species
  36. Organisms are inoculated into the tube medium, which is then overlaid with mineral oil to ensure anaerobic conditions Early during incubation, bacteria utilize the glucose and produce acid, resulting in a yellow coloration of the pH indicator. Organisms that can decarboxylate the amino acid then begin to attack the substrate and produce the amine product, which increases the pH and changes the indicator back from yellow to purple (if bromcresol purple is the pH indicator used; red if phenol red is the indicator). Therefore after overnight incubation, a positive test is indicated by a purple color, and a negative test (i.e., lack of decarboxylase activity) is indicated by a yellow color. With each amino acid tested, a control tube of the glucose-containing broth base without amino acid is inoculated. The standard’s (control) color is compared with that of the tube containing the amino acid after incubation Breakdown of arginine is more complicated than that of lysine or ornithine, because it is a two-step process Arginine is first dehydrolyzed to citrulline, which is subsequently converted to ornithine. Ornithine is then decarboxylated to putrescine, which results in the same pH indicator changes as just outlined for the other amino acids. Deamination of the amino acid phenylalanine results in the presence of the end product (phenylpyruvic acid). Phenylpyruvic acid is detected by the addition of 10% ferric chloride, which results in the development of a green color. Lysine iron agar medium is a combination medium used for the identification of decarboxylation and deamination in a single tube. Dextrose is incorporated in the medium in a limited concentration of 0.1%. The organism is then stabbed into the media approximately within 3 mm of the bottom of the tube. When removing the inoculating needle from the stab, the slant of the medium is streaked. Organisms capable of dextrose fermentation will produce acid resulting in a yellow butt. Organisms that decarboxylate lysine will produce alkaline products that will return the yellow color to the original purple color of the medium. Hydrogen sulfide–positive organisms produce gas that reacts with iron salts, ferrous sulfate, and ferric ammonium citrate in the media, producing a black precipitate. It is important to note that Proteus spp. are capable of deaminating lysine in the presence of oxygen, resulting in a red color change on the slant of the medium
  37. tdifferentiates catalase-positive micrococcal and staphylococcal species from catalase-negative streptococcal species.
  38. Some organisms (enterococci) produce a peroxidase that slowly catalyzes the breakdown of H2 O2 , and the test may appear weakly positive. This reaction is not a truly positive test. False positives may occur if the sample is contaminated with blood agar
  39. . Inoculate Simmons citrate agar lightly on the slant by touching the tip of a needle to a colony that is 18 to 24 hours old. Do not inoculate from a broth culture, because the inoculum will be too heavy. 2. Incubate at 35°C to 37°C for up to 7 days.
  40. LIMITATION: Some organisms are capable of growth on citrate and do not produce a color change. Growth is considered a positive citrate utilization test, even in the absence of a color change.
  41. Fermentation media are used to differentiate organisms based on their ability to ferment carbohydrates incorporated into the basal medium. Andrade’s formula is used to differentiate enteric bacteria from coryneforms, bromocresol purple is used to distinguish enterococci from streptococci
  42. Tubes are held only 4 days for organisms belonging to the Enterobacteriaceae family.
  43. to differentiate decarboxylase-producing Enterobacteriaceae from other gram-negative rods This test measures the enzymatic ability (decarboxylase) of an organism to decarboxylate (or hydrolyze) an amino acid to form an amine. Decarboxylation, or hydrolysis, of the amino acid results in an alkaline pH and a color change from orange to purple.
  44. Prepare a suspension (McFarland No. 5 turbidity standard) in brain-heart infusion broth from an overnight culture (18 to 24 hours old) growing on 5% sheep blood agar. Inoculate each of the three decarboxylase broths (arginine, lysine, and ornithine) and the control broth (no amino acid) with four drops of broth. Add a 4-mm layer of sterile mineral oil to each tube. Incubate the cultures at 35°C to 37°C in ambient air. Examine the tubes at 24, 48, 72, and 96 hours.
  45. Limitations : The fermentation of dextrose in the medium causes the acid color change. However, it would not mask the alkaline color change brought about by a positive decarboxylation reaction
  46. All negative slide tests must be confirmed using the tube test
  47. LIMITATIONS: Slide Test Equivocal: Clumping in both the rabbit plasma reagent and water or saline control drops indicate that the organism autoagglutinates and is unsuitable for the slide coagulase test. Tube Test Test results can be positive at 1 to 4 hours and then revert to negative after 24 hours. 2. If negative at 4 hours, incubate at room temperature overnight and check again for clot formation.
  48. d to differentiate organisms based on the production of deoxyribonuclease. It is used to distinguish Serratia spp. (positive) from Enterobacter spp., Staphylococcus aureus (positive) from other species, and Moraxella catarrhalis (positive) from Neisseria spp.
  49. Limitations: Agar must be inoculated with a suspension of a young broth culture (4 hours old) or an 18- to 24-hour overnight colony in 1 to 2 mL of saline
  50. . to differentiate group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae– positive) from other streptococcal species. Certain organisms (including group B streptococci) produce a diffusible extracellular hemolytic protein (CAMP factor) that acts synergistically with the beta-lysin of Staphylococcus aureus to cause enhanced lysis of red blood cells. The group B streptococci are streaked perpendicular to a streak of S. aureus on sheep blood agar. A positive reaction appears as an arrowhead zone of hemolysis adjacent to the place where the two streak lines come into proximity
  51. Limitations: A small percentage of group A streptococci may have a positive CAMP reaction. The test should be limited to colonies with the characteristic group B streptococci morphology and narrow-zone beta-hemolysis on sheep blood agar
  52. for the presumptive identification and differentiation of Enterobacteriaceae.
  53. LIMITATION: This medium is a nonselective agar
  54. for the presumptive identification of group A streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes) and enterococci by the presence of the enzyme l-pyrrolidonyl arylamidase.
  55. store in its original container atom temperature until used. Some flocculation may occur if product is stored below 20°C. This will not reduce the effectiveness of the reagent. Protect product from light. This product should not be used if the color has changed, the expiration date has passed, or there are other signs of deterioration. Keep away from heat and flame. May cause irritation to skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. Avoid breathing vapor and eye/skin contact.
  56. : A tube test is performed with 2% sodium deoxycholate.(bailey)
  57. Limitations: Test only α-hemolytic streptococci. When performing the spot test, keep the plate level to prevent reagent from running, which may cause some nonpneumococcal colonies to be washed away and result in a false-negative test. Colonies that are older than 24 hours may have lost their active enzyme, resulting in a false negative test. Optochin-susceptible and -resistant, bile-insoluble isolates of S. pneumoniae, and optochinresistant, bile-soluble viridans streptococcal isolates have been reported
  58. The test differentiates enterococci and group D streptococci from non–group D viridans streptococci Gram-positive bacteria other than some streptococci and enterococci are inhibited by the bile salts in this medium
  59. : Beef extract (11 g), enzymatic digest of gelatin (34.5 g), esculin (1 g), ox bile (2 g), ferric ammonium citrate (0.5 g), agar (15 g) per 1000 mL, pH 6.6 (bailey)
  60. Positive control: Enterococcus species (e.g., E. faecalis) Negative control: Viridans group streptococci, not group D
  61. Limitations : Some viridans streptococci (approximately 3%) may also hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile. As a result of nutritional requirements, some organisms may grow poorly or not at all on this medium
  62. Disks should be stored at 4°C when not in use.
  63. Limitations: Occasionally, viridans streptococci will show small zones of inhibition around the optochin disk. These organisms, however, will not be bile-soluble.
  64. The antibiotic bacitracin inhibits the synthesis of bacterial cell walls
  65. Bacitracin S, SXT R: Group A Streptococcus Bacitracin R, SXT R: Group B Streptococcus Bacitracin S or R, SXT S: β-Hemolytic Streptococcus, groups C, F, or G
  66. Limitations: Only β-hemolytic streptococci should be tested, because many α-hemolytic streptococci (including pneumococci) are susceptible to low concentrations of bacitracin. No data are available to indicate that zones of inhibition should be measured. Interpretation of SXT susceptibility may be difficult, because the organisms may grow slightly before total inhibition of growth occurs. The lawn of bacterial inoculum should be confluent. Too light an inoculum will cause non– group A streptococci to appear susceptible to bacitracin.
  67. certain cases, staining characteristics alone are used to definitively identify a bacterial species. Examples are mostly restricted to the use of fluorescent-labeled specific antibodies and fluorescent microscopy to identify organisms such as Legionella pneumophila and Bordetella pertussis.
  68. revolutionized the identification of organisms in clinical microbiology laboratories.
  69. the greatest advantages are in the clinical impact. These instruments identify a wide variety of organisms within minutes with a high degree of accuracy. The delivery of accurate organism identification information early to treating physicians affords the opportunity for providers to assure appropriate therapeutic coverage. In addition to the direct identification of cultivated microorganisms, others have processed the sediment of blood culture bottles that signal positive as a means to more rapidly identify the causes of bloodstream infections. There are, of course, some limitations, but these are few. For example, this technology cannot differentiate Shigella from E. coli. As with any assay, it is important to appropriately validate every assay and determine means to handle any shortcomings. Overall, MALDI-TOF is a cost-effective significant advance in the identification of a wide variety of microorganisms in clinical microbiology.