CAD/CAM/CAE - MCQ

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Modules Questions
1 70
2 21
3 63
4 23
5 12
6 42
Total 231
CAD/CAM/CAE
MOD - 06 - RAPID PROTOTYPING AND TOOLING
Q1 -_________is one of the important steps in a product design.
a) Tooling
b) Prototyping
c) STL
d) LOM
Q2 - Which of the following process is suitable for making injection molding tools?
a) SL
b) SLS
c) EBM
d) FDM
Q3 - Which one of the following is not Extrusion-Based RP Systems?
a) Fused Deposition Modelling (FDM)
b) 3D Printing
c) Sheet Lamination (Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM))
d) Electron Beam melting (EBM)
Q4 - In Fused Deposition Modelling, the raw material is used in the form of _____.
a) wax
b) wire
c) powder

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d) all the above mentioned
Q5 - In extrusion-based 3D Printing RP system, raw material form used is ________ .
a) wax
b) powder
c) rubber
d) wire
Q6 - How many approaches of the Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM) process available?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Q7 - Ultrasonic Additive Manufacturing (UAM) is a hybrid sheet lamination process combining
________.
a) ultrasonic metal spot welding + CNC milling
b) ultrasonic metal spot welding + CNC turning
c) ultrasonic metal seam welding + CNC milling
d) ultrasonic metal seam welding + CNC turning
Q8 - Which of the following is an additive-plus-subtractive process?
a) 3D Printing
b) Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM)
c) Laser Engineered Net Shaping (LENS)
d) Ultrasonic Additive Manufacturing (UAM)
Q9 - Polymerization happens ______ .
a) when the light of appropriate wavelength falls on liquid photopolymer
b) when the light of short wavelength falls on liquid photopolymer
c) when the light of appropriate wavelength falls on solid photopolymer
d) all the above mentioned
Q10 - In the process of Selective Laser Sintering, raw material used is in the form of ______.
a) machining wax
b) foam core
c) powder
d) rubber

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Q11 - Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies, which one is the most
widely used?
a) Ballistic particle manufacturing
b) Selective laser sintering
c) Solid ground curing
d) Stereolithography
Q12 - Which one of the following is not a rapid indirect tooling method?
a) Vacuum Casting
b) Investment Casting
c) Laser-Engineered Net Shaping
d) Injection molding
Q13 - Which one of the following is not a direct rapid tooling method?
a) LOM Composite
b) Direct AIM (ACES Injection Molding)
c) Sand Molding
d) Injection molding
Q14 - Which of the following RP technologies uses molten material as the starting material?
a) Three-Dimensional Printing
b) Fused-Deposition Modeling
c) Stereolithography
d) Selective Laser Sintering
Q15 - Which one of the following RP technologies uses solid sheet stock as the starting material?
a) Droplet deposition manufacturing
b) Fused-deposition modeling
c) Laminated-Object Manufacturing
Q16 - Ballistic-particle manufacturing is another name for which one of the following RP
technologies?
a) Droplet Deposition Manufacturing

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Q17 - Which of the following are examples of appropriate applications of additive manufacturing
in the actual production of parts and products?
a) Castings made in small quantities
b) Plastic parts in small batch sizes
c) Mass-produced metal parts
d) Special textile products
Q18 - Which of the following are problems with the current rapid prototyping and additive
manufacturing technologies?
a) Limited material variety
b) Inability to convert a solid part into layers
c) Poor machinability of the starting material
d) The inability of the designer to design the part
Q19 - A computer model of a part design on a CAD system is called which of the following?
a) Computer Prototype
b) Geometric Prototype
c) Solid Prototype
d) Virtual Prototype
Q20 - Which one of the following rapid prototyping processes uses a photosensitive liquid polymer
as the starting material?
b) Used-Deposition Modeling
Q21 - Which of the following RP technologies uses powders as the starting material?
c) Selective Laser Sintering
Q22 - Which model of 3D printer available in PERDA-TECH?
a) Z310
b) Z450
c) Z510
d) Z650
Q23 - Which of the following is NOT the color binder of a 3D Printer?
a) Cyan

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b) Black
c) Magenta
d) Yellow
Q24 - Which of the following is the process of the pre-processing stage?
a) Remove support
b) Checking 3D CAD data
c) De-powdering loose material
d) Dip in a binder to strengthen the part
Q25 - From the following, in which process, the input material is in solid form?
a) SLA
b) SLS
c) FDM
d) MJM
Q26 - Which of the process, the input material is in liquid form?
a) LOM
b) SLS
c) FDM
d) MJM
Q27 - Which of the process, the input material is in powder form?
a) LOM
b) SLS
c) FDM
d) MJM
Q28 - Which material is NOT available for LOM process?
a) Paper
b) Plastic
c) Metal
d) Glass
Q29 - Which of the process is using the extrusion concept?
a) SLA
b) SLS
c) FDM
d) MJM
Q30 - Which one of the process is subtractive prototyping?

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a) 5 axis CNC Milling
b) Fused Deposition Modeling
c) Multi-Jet Modeling
d) Stereolithography Apparatus
Q31 - Which CAD software can not be used to create data for the prototyping machine?
a) CREO
b) CATIA
c) NX Unigraphics
d) Adobe Illustrator
Q32 - What is the format for the prototyping machine file?
a) .prt
b) .slt
c) .stl
d) .iges
Q33 - Which of the following is one of the design process steps?
a) Build
b) Concept
c) Pre-processing
d) Transfer to machine
Q34 - Which of the following is latest technology?
a) Manual Prototyping
b) Virtual Prototyping
c) Soft Prototyping
d) Rapid Prototyping
Q35 - Which of the following is the last step of the rapid prototyping process?
a) 3D Modeling
b) Data Conversion
c) Building
d) Postprocessing
Q36 - Selective laser Sintering (SLS) is developed by ______.
a) Chalmers University of Technology
b) Optomec Inc.
c) Arcam AB, Sweden
d) University of Texas, Austin

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Q37 - Forging, bending injection moulding are the example of which process ?
a) Subtractive manufacturing process
b) Differentiative manufacturing process
c) Formative manufacturing process
d) Additive manufacturing process
Q38 - Turning and milling are the example of ______process
a) Subtractive manufacturing process
b) Differentiative manufacturing process
c) Formative manufacturing process
d) Additive manufacturing process
Q39 - STL Stands for _________
a) Standard transaction language
b) Standard tessellation language
c) Standard transverse language
d) Standard transmission language
Q40 - LPF Stands for______
a) Laser powder format
b) Laser power forming
c) Laser powder forming
d) Laser power format
Q41 - _______is one of the most expensive and slowest steps in the manufacturing process.
a) Tooling
b) Prototype
c) SLA
d) SLS
Q42 - Which is not the error in th STL file format
a) Soft tooling facets
b) Overlapping facets
c) Missing facets
d) Degenerated facets

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MOD - 05 - COMPUTER INTEGRATED MANUFACTURING & TECHNOLOGY
DRIVEN PRACTICES
Q1 - _________is the complete integration an automation of all functions of factory.
a) Computer Aided Manufacturing
b) Computer Integrated Manufacturing
c) Flexible Manufacturing System
d) Computer Aided Engineering
Q2 - The _____predicts that manufacturing engineers will need to have man management skills
and technical skills.
a) Profile 21
b) Profile 18
c) Profile 20
d) Profile 25
Q3 - Which is not a impact of CIM on Personnel
a) function as business administration
b) downsizing of workforce
c) cultural change in management
d) requirements of change in skill sets
Q4 - Active involvement of all the employees of a company, in one other way, in decision making
and managing resources is known as_______
a) Input management
b) Output Management
c) Participative Management
d) Non- Participative management
Q5 - Which is not the socio-techno-economic aspects of CIM
a) Engineering aspects
b) Economic aspects
c) Social aspects
d) Technological aspects
Q6 - The _____is used for connecting different computers in CIMS
a) SLS
b) LAN
c) WWW
d) CAE

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Q7 - WAN stands for
a) Wide area network
b) Width area network
c) Wide aspect network
d) Wide aided network
Q8 - CAQC stands for
a) Computer aided quantity control
b) Computer aided quality control
c) Computer aided quality center
d) Computer aided quantity center
Q9 - Identify island 3 of Automation of CIM
a) CABF
b) CAD
c) CAM
d) CAMPC
Q10 - The first major innovation in machine control is the ______
a) CNC
b) DNC
c) NC
d) CAD
Q11 - CIM software are
a) Sensors
b) printer
c) cables
d) analysis
Q12 - The need for a product is identified by the _________
a) Marketing
b) product
c) finance
d) planning

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MOD - 04 - COMPUTER AIDED ENGINEERING
Q1 - ______is the use of computer software to solve engineering problem with the improvement
of graphics displays, engineering workstation and graphic standard
a) CAD
b) CAM
c) CAE
d) CIM
Q2 - In any FEA software, the large amount of mathematical work is done in ________ phase.
a) preprocessing
b) solution
c) postprocessing
d) designing
Q3 - The equation for thermal stress in each element is ________.
a) σ = E (Bq + α Δt)
b) σ = E (Bq - α Δt)
c) σ = E (B + α Δt)
d) σ = E (B - α Δt)
Q4 - In FEA, the use of smaller-sized elements will lead to _______ computation time
a) less
b) more
c) depends on other factors
d) can't say
Q5 - Elements with an aspect ratio of near to ______ generally yield best results in FEA.
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 1
d) 2
Q6 - In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation ______.
a) R=KQ+F
b) R=KQ-F
c) R=K+QF
d) R=K-QF
Q7 - The strain energy per unit volume is equal to _________.

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a) (1/2) * Force * Deflection
b) (1/4) * Force * Deflection
c) (1/2) * Stress * Deflection
d) (1/4) * Stress * Deflection
Q8 - How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Q9 - How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron with curved sides element?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12
Q10 - If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to be ______ accurate.
a) more
b) less
c) depends on other factors
d) can't say
Q11 - Which of the following is not an FEA package?
a) ANSYS
b) Nastran
c) Abaqus
d) AutoCAD
Q12 - Which of the following module of FEA is used to determine natural frequency?
a) Static analysis
b) Thermal analysis
c) Modal analysis
d) stress analysis
Q13 - For thermal analysis, the field variable is _________.
a) stress
b) strain
c) displacement
d) temperature
Q14 - In FEA of a fluid mechanics problem, we need to find _______.

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a) stress distribution
b) heat flux distribution
c) pressure distribution
d) fluid distribution
Q15 - The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known as
______.
a) local coordinates system
b) natural coordinates system
c) global coordinate system
d) stiffness matrix system
Q16 - As per the penalty approach, the equation of reaction force is _____.
a) R = -CQ
b) R = CQ
c) R = -C (Q-a)
d) R = -C (Q+a)
Q17 - In the penalty approach, the magnitude of the stiffness constant should be at least _______
times more than the maximum value in the global stiffness matrix.
a) 10
b) 100
c) 1000
d) 10000
Q18 - Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix?
a) The minimum potential energy principle
b) Galerkin's principle
c) Weighted residual method
d) Inverse matrix method
Q19 - When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is called
________.
a) plane stress
b) plane strain
c) zero stress
d) zero strain
Q20 - Example of 2-D Element is ___________ .
a) bar
b) triangle
c) hexahedron

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d) tetrahedron
Q21 - To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, ______are used.
a) shape function
b) node function
c) element function
d) coordinate function
Q22 - A plane truss element has a stiffness matrix of order
a) 2 x 2
b) 4 x 4
c) 6 x 6
d) 1 x 1
Q23 - How many nodes in 3-D brick element
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8

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MOD 3 -DESIGN TO MANUFACTURING
Q1 - Which machine tool reduces the number of set-ups in machining operation, time spent in
setting machine tools and transportation between sections of machines?
a. Computer Numerical Control machine tool
b. Direct Numerical Control machine tool
c. Adaptive Control Systems
d. Machining centre
Q 2 - The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions like depth of
cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control system itself, is called
a. Computer Numerical Control System
b. Direct Numerical Control System
c. Machining Centre System
d. Adaptive Control System
Q3 - Part-programming mistakes can be avoided in
a. NC (Numerical Control) machine tool
b. CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tool
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
Q4 - Several machine tools can be controlled by a central computer in
a. NC (Numerical Control) machine tool
b. CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tool
c. DNC (Direct Numerical Control) machine tool
d. CCNC (Central-Computer Numerical Control) machine tool
Q5 - In CNC machine tool, the part program entered into the computer memory
a. can be used only once
b. can be used again and again
c. can be used again but it has to be modified every time
d. cannot say
Q6 - Which of the following options is correct for the control unit and panel of NC (Numerical
Control) and CNC (Computer Numerical Control) machine tools?
a. The control unit of NC machine tool works in ON-line mode and the control unit of CNC
machine tool works in batch processing mode

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b. The control unit of NC machine tool works in batch processing mode and the control
unit of CNC machine tool works in ON-line mode
c. The control units of both NC and CNC machines work in ON-line mode
d. The control units of both NC and CNC machines work in batch processing mode
Q7 - In NC (Numerical Control) machine tool, the position feedback package is connected between
a. control unit and programmer
b. programmer and machine tool
c. control unit and machine tool
d. programmer and process planning
Q8 - The device, fed to the control unit of NC machine tool which sends the position command
signals to sideway transmission elements of the machine, is called as
a. controller
b. tape
c. feedback unit
d. none of the above
Q9 - Numerical control:
a. is a method for controlling the operation of a machine by means of a set of instructions
b. applies only to milling machines
c. is a method for producing an exact number of parts per hour
d. All of the above
Q10 - CNC machining centres do not include operations like ______
a. welding
b. tapping
c. milling
d. boring
Q11 - In CNC systems multiple microprocessors and programmable logic controllers work ______
a. in series
b. in parallel
c. for 80% of the total machining time
d. one after the other
Q12 - Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?
a. Reduced scrap rate
b. Improved strength of the components
c. Higher flexibility
d. Improved quality

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Q13 - 7 In how many ways CNC machine tool systems can be classified?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 2
Q14 - In part programming, interpolation is used for obtaining _______ trajectory.
a. helicoidal
b. zig-zag
c. pentagonal
d. triangular
Q15 - Point-to-point systems are used for _____
a. facing
b. parting
c. reaming
d. grooving
Q16 - In a point-to-point type of NC system
a. Control of position and velocity of the tool is essential
b. Control of only position of the tool is sufficient
c. Control of only velocity of the tool is sufficient
d. Neither position nor velocity need to be controlled
Q17 - What is full form of APC?
a. Automatic place changer
b. Automatic pallet controller
c. Automatic pallet changer
Q18 - Which feedback device translate physical motion into electrical data?
a. Encoder
b. transducer
c. Digital system monitoring
Q19 - In servo motor, input command is
a. Magnetic field
b. Electrical pulses
c. Mechanical device
d. Hydraulic device

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Q20 - The interpolation in a CNC machine tool controls
a. Feed rate
b. Spindle speed
c. Tool change
d. Coolant flow
Q21 - CNC drilling machine is considered to be a controlled machine
a. Straight line
b. Point to point
c. Interpolated path
d. Continuous path
Q22 - The full form of APT is
a. Advance programming tools
b. Automatic positioning tools
c. Advance programming techniques
d. Automatically programmed tools
Q23 - CNC machine coordinate system is described based on
a. Polar coordinate system
b. Cartesian coordinate system
c. Both a and b
Q24 - On which unit is the tool setting done on NC machine ?
a. On special device away from the machine
b. On machine itself while the other operation is being performed
c. On the NC machine during ideal time
d. On the pre-setting setting
Q25 - An ATC plays a significant role in reducing
a. Tool change time
b. Idle time
c. Machining time
d. Control time
Q26 - Which type of motor is not suitable for rotary axis of spindle drives of CNC machine tools?
a. Stepper motor
b. DC servo motor
c. Induction motor
d. Line servo motor

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Q27 - The purpose of a feedback device in a CNC machine tool is to provide information of
a. Force
b. Speed
c. Displacement
d. Both speed and displacement
Q28 - Which one of the following CNC machines is highly suited for machining on cubical
component in a single set up?
a. HMC
b. VMC
c. Horizontal boring machine
d. Turn mill center
Q29 - The setting of tools to a specific length is called
a. Tool on setting
b. Specific setting
c. Presetting
d. Post setting
Q30 - The axis perpendicular to work holding surface of a CNC machine is
a. X
b. Y
c. Z
d. W
Q31 - What is the purpose of using recirculating ball screw nut mechanism in CNC machine?
a. To reduce the setup time
b. For higher surface finish
c. For carrying out up milling
d. To remove backlash
Q32 - CNC drilling machine is considered to be a
a. Point-to-point controlled machine
b. Straight line controlled machine
c. Continuous path-controlled machine
d. Servo-controlled machine
Q33 - The lost motion in CNC machine tool is on account of
a. Backlash in gearing
b. Wind-up of drive shafts
c. Deﬂection of machine tool members

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d. All the above
Q34 - The axes of turning machine are
a. Z and X-axes
b. X and Y-axes
c. Z and Y-axes
d. X, Y and Z-axes
Q35 - The most preferred transmission system in CNC machining center is
a. Timing belt and pulley
b. V-belt
c. Recirculating ball screw
d. Rack and pinion
Q36 - What kind of controller system is found in CNC machine tools?
a. Personal computer
b. Hardwired logic
c. Programmable logic controller
d. Microprocessor based
Q37 - In NC (Numerical Control) machine tool, the position feedback package is connected
between
a. control unit and programmer
b. programmer and machine tool
c. control unit and machine tool
d. programmer and process planning
Q38 - In a DNC system
a. many machine tools can be controlled simultaneously
b. only a single machine tool can be controlled
c. NC machine cannot be controlled
d. none of the mentioned
Q39 - DNC stands for
a. Direct Numerical Complain
b. Direct Numerical Control
c. Direct Note Control
d. Direct Note Complain
Q40 - NC contouring is an example of
a. continuous path positioning

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b. point-to-point positioning
c. absolute positioning
d. incremental positioning
Q41 - Which of the following code will change specified input values in inches?
a. G00
b. G01
c. G20
d. G21
Q42 - The highest level of automation is found in
a. CNC machine tools
b. automatic transfer machines
c. DNC machining system
d. machine tools with electrohydraulic positioning and control
Q43 - In which one of the following machinings, only manual part programming is done?
a. CNC
b. NC
c. DNC
d. FMS machining
Q44 - In a CNC program block, N002 GO2 G91 X40 Z40……, GO2 and G91 refer to
a. circular interpolation in a counterclockwise direction and incremental dimension
b. circular interpolation in a counterclockwise direction and absolute dimension
c. circular interpolation in a clockwise direction and incremental dimension
d. circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension
Q45 - The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10, 10) while
performing an operation. The center of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following NC tool
path command performs the above-mentioned operation?
a. N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
b. N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
c. N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
d. N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Q46 - In an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2)
along a circular path with center at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5, 4). The
correct G code for this motion is
a. N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
b. N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
c. N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

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d. N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0
Q47 - During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type
of tool motion will be
a. circular Interpolation – clockwise
b. circular Interpolation – counterclockwise
c. linear Interpolation
d. rapid feed
Q48 - Which of the following code is used to specify coolant off?
a. M05
b. M08
c. M09
d. M02
Q49 - Which of the following code is used to specify coolant on?
a. M05
b. M08
c. M09
d. M02
Q50 - Which of the following code is used to specify the spindle stop?
a. M02
b. M03
c. M04
d. M05
Q51 - Which of the following code is used to specify feed per revolution in turning?
a. G99
b. G98
c. G78
d. G45
Q52 - Which of the following code is used to specify the location of the co-ordinate Axes system
origin relative to the starting location of the cutting tool?
a. G01
b. G41
c. G00
d. G50

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Q53 - Which of the following code is used in programming in absolute coordinates?
a. G90
b. G32
c. G92
d. G01
Q54 - Which of the following code is used to select the YZ plane in milling?
a. G32
b. G00
c. G02
d. G19
Q55 - M-codes are also known as
a. preparatory codes
b. spindle speed codes
c. tool selection codes
d. miscellaneous codes
Q56 - Which is not the type of part programming format?
a. Fixed block format
b. Variable block format
c. Tab sequential format
d. Word address format
Q57 - Which of the following code will give rapid linear movement?
a. G00
b. G01
c. G56
d. G94
Q58 - G-codes are also known as
a. preparatory codes
b. spindle speed codes
c. tool selection codes
d. miscellaneous codes
Q59 - A standard punch tape is ______ mm wide.
a. 20
b. 25
c. 27
d. 30

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Q60 - Which of the following is not types of NC program reader?
a. Card readers
b. Punched tape readers
c. Laser tape reader
d. Mechanical tape reader
Q61 - In how many ways CNC machine tool systems can be classified?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Q62 - Continuous path control system is suitable for which type of applications?
a. Milling profile
b. Reaming
c. Drilling
d. Broaching
Q63 - A typical punched card used in IBM systems has _______ columns.
a. 70
b. 80
c. 85
d. 90

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MOD 2 - TRANSFORMATION, MANIPULATION & DATA STORAGE
Q1 - A translation is applied to an object by :
a. Repositioning it along with a straight-line path
b. Repositioning it along with a circular path
c. Repositioning it along with an elliptical path
d. All of these
Q2 - Matrix for 2D reflection about x=-y line(for column major matrix) is :
a.
𝟎 −𝟏 𝟎
−𝟏 𝟎 𝟎
𝟎 𝟎 𝟏
b.
0 1 0
−1 0 0
0 0 1
c.
0 −1 0
1 0 0
0 0 1
d.
0 1 0
1 0 0
0 0 1
Q3 - Correct matrix for 2D rotation(for column major matrix) is :
a.
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 0
−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑠 0
0 0 1
b.
𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝜽 −𝒔𝒊𝒏𝜽 𝟎
𝒔𝒊𝒏𝜽 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽 𝟎
𝟎 𝟎 𝟏
c.
−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 0
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 0
0 0 1
d.
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 0
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 −𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 0
0 0 1

S E M - V I I
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Q4 - Which is the correct 2D Shearing matrix for shearing in the y-direction(for column-major
matrix)?
a.
1 𝑠ℎ 𝑦 0
0 1 0
0 0 1
b.
1 0 𝑠ℎ 𝑦
0 1 0
0 0 1
c.
1 0 0
0 1 𝑠ℎ 𝑦
0 0 1
d.
𝟏 𝟎 𝟎
𝒔𝒉 𝒚 𝟏 𝟎
𝟎 𝟎 𝟏
Q5 - Correct scaling factor for Window to Viewport transformation are :
a. 𝑠 𝑥 =
𝑥 𝑚𝑎𝑥+𝑥 𝑚𝑖𝑛
, 𝑠 𝑦 =
𝑦 𝑚𝑎𝑥+𝑦 𝑚𝑖𝑛
b. 𝑠 𝑥 =
𝑥 𝑚𝑎𝑥−𝑥 𝑚𝑖𝑛
, 𝑠 𝑦 =
𝑦 𝑚𝑎𝑥−𝑦 𝑚𝑖𝑛
c. 𝒔 𝒙 =
𝒙 𝒎𝒂𝒙−𝒙 𝒎𝒊𝒏
, 𝒔 𝒚 =
𝒚 𝒎𝒂𝒙−𝒚 𝒎𝒊𝒏
d. 𝑠 𝑥 =
, 𝑠 𝑦 =
Q6 - After applying 2D shearing transformation in x-direction unit square becomes :
a. Parallelogram
b. Parabola
c. Rectangle
d. Hyperbola
Q7 - In which transformation, the shape of an object can be modified in any direction depending
upon the value assigned to them?
a. Reflection
b. Shearing
c. Translation
d. Rotation

S E M - V I I
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Q8 - _______refers to the result obtained by multiplying the matrix of the individual
transformation representation sequences.
a. Wireframe model
b. Constructive solid geometry methods
c. Composite transformation
d. None of these
Q9 - Sometimes it may require undoing the applied transformation, In such a case which of the
following will be used?
a. Shear
b. Translation
c. Reflection
d. Inverse transformation
Q10 - The transformation that produces a mirror image of an object relative to an axis is called :
a. Rotation
b. Translation
c. Reflection
d. All of these
Q11 - A transformation that slants the shape of objects is called :
a. Shear
b. Translation
c. Reflection
d. Rotation
Q12 - The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is called :
a. Scaling
b. Reflection
c. Rotation
d. Translation
Q13 - For reducing the size of the object we set both scale factor :
a. Less than 0
b. Greater than 1
c. Equals to 1
d. In between 0 and 1
Q14 - For uniform scaling :
a. 𝑺 𝒙 = 𝑺 𝒚
b. 𝑆 𝑥 > 𝑆 𝑦

S E M - V I I
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c. 𝑆 𝑥 < 𝑆 𝑦
d. 𝑆 𝑥! = 𝑆 𝑦
Q15 - The basic geometric transformations are :
a. Rotation
b. Reflection
c. Shear
d. Scaling
Q16 - A two-dimensional rotation is applied to an object by :
a. Repositioning it along with a straight-line path
b. Repositioning it along with a circular path
c. Repositioning it along with an elliptical path
d. None of these
Q17 - ________ is the rigid body transformation.
a. Scaling
b. Shear
c. Rotation
d. Translation
Q18 - We translate a two-dimensional point by adding :
a. Translation distances
a. Translation difference
b. Both A & B
c. None of these
Q19 - The point (4, 1) undergoes the following 3 transformations successively.
I. Reflection about the line y = x
II. Translation through a distance of 2 units along the positive x-axis
III. Rotation through an angle of 7d4 about the origin in the counter clockwise direction.
The final position of the point will be
a. (-1 / √2 , 7/√2)
b. (1,4)
c. (3/√2 , -5 /√2)
d. (3/√2 , 5 /√2)
Q20 - Reflection of a point about x-axis, followed by a counter-clockwise rotation of 90° , is
equivalent. to reflection about the line
a. x = -y

S E M - V I I
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b. y=-x
c. x=y
d. x + y = 1
Q21 - The point (x,y) becomes (y,x) in____________transformation.
a. Reflection about origin y-axis
b. Reflection about x-axis
c. Reflection at line Y=XD. Reflection about y-axis
d. Reflection about opposite on y-axis

S E M - V I I
P a g e | 29
MOD - 01 - COMPUTER GRAPHICS & TECHNIQUES FOR GEOMETRIC MODELING
Q1 - Correct scaling factor for Window to Viewport transformation are :
a. 𝑠 𝑥 =
, 𝑠 𝑦 =
b. 𝑠 𝑥 =
, 𝑠 𝑦 =
c. 𝒔 𝒙 =
, 𝒔 𝒚 =
d. 𝑠 𝑥 =
, 𝑠 𝑦 =
Q2 - Which is not a line clipping algorithm?
a. NLN algorithm
b. Cohen-Sutherland algorithm
c. Weiler-Atherton algorithm
d. All of these
Q3 - Clipping is used for :
a. The display small size image
b. The display large size image
c. The display part of an image
d. All of these
Q4 - Window defines :
a. Where to display
b. What to display
c. Why to display
d. None of these
Q5 - In 2D viewing we have :
a. 3D window and 2D viewport
b. 3D window and 3D viewport
c. 2D window and 2D viewport
d. 2D window and 3D viewport
Q6 - Viewport defines :
a. Where to display
b. What to display
c. Why to display
d. None of these

S E M - V I I
P a g e | 30
Q7 - ________refers to the result obtained by multiplying the matrix of the individual
transformation representation sequences.
a. Wireframe model
b. Constructive solid geometry methods
c. Composite transformation
d. None of these
Q8 - In Cohen-Sutherland line clipping algorithm a line with endpoints codes as 0000 and 0100 is
:
a. Partially invisible
b. Completely visible
c. Completely invisible
d. Trivially invisible
Q9 - Which of the following points lies on the same side as the origin, with reference to the line
3x + 7y = 2 ?
a. (3,0)
b. (1,0)
c. (0.5,0.5)
d. (0.5,0)
Solution: If (0, 0) is substituted in the equation, we get 0, which is less than 2. So, any point on
the same side as that of the origin, should yield a value less than 2, when substituted in the equation.
Hence the result (0.5,0)
Q10 - Perform window to viewport transformation for the point (20, 15). Assume that (𝑋 𝑤𝑚𝑖𝑛,
Ywmin) is (0, 0) (Xwmax, Ywmax) is (100, 100); (Xvmin, Yvmin) is (5, 5); (Xvmax ,Yvmax) is (20, 20).
The value of x and y in viewport is
a. x=4, y=4
b. x=3, y=3

S E M - V I I
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c. x=8, y=7.25
d. x=3, y=4
Solution :
x(view port) = (Xv max - Xv min) (Xw - Xw min) / (Xw max - Xw min) + Xvmin
y(viewport) = (Yvmax- Yvmin)( Yw - Ywmin) / (Ywmax- Ywmin ) + Yvmin
Q11 - Find the incorrect statement(s).
a. A perspective projection produces realistic views.
b. A parallel projection gives realistic representation of 3-D objects.
c. A perspective projection preserves realistic dimensions.
d. Both (b) & (c)
Q12 - Consider the three points, A(3, 6,4); B(2, 5, 5); C(O, 3, 7) and the view point V(l, 4,6).
Choose the correct option(s).
a. C hides A and B, if viewed from V
b. C hides A but not B, if viewed from V
c. A hides B but not C, if viewed from V
d. B hides A but not C, if viewed from V
Solution: The equation of the line joining V and A is given by x = t + 3; y = t + 6; z = 4 - t. Since
B and C satisfy this, all the four points are collinear. We can find that t = 0 for A, t = -1 for B, t =
-2 for V and t = -3 for C. From these values it is clear that these points lie in the order C, V, B, A.
Hence the answer
Q13 - Which of the following curves are symmetric about the line x = y?
a. 1 + x + y = 0
b. | x | + | y | = 9
c. y=x3
d. Both (a) & (b)
Solution: lf the equation of the curve is unaltered, if x is replaced by y and y by x, then the curve
will be symmetric about the line x = y.
Q14 - A line connecting the points (1, 1) and (5,3) is to be drawn, using the DDA algorithm. Find
the value of x and y increments.
a. x-increment = 1 ; y-increment = 1
b. x-increment = 0.5; y-increment = 1
c. x-increment = 1 ; y-increment = 0.5
Solution:

S E M - V I I
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x - increment = x2 -x1 / max ((x2 -x1), (y2 - y1))
y - increment = y2 -y1 / max ((x2 -x1), (y2 - yl))
Q15 - A rectangle is bound by the lines x = 0; y = 0; x = 5 and y = 3.
The line segment joining (-1, 0) and (4, 5), if clipped against this window will connect the points
a. (0, 1) and (3,3)
b. (0,1) and (2,3)
c. (0, 1) and (4, 5)
Solution: The equation of the line joining (-1, 0) and (4, 5) is x - y + 1 = 0. This cuts the window
boundaries x = 0 and y = 3 at the points (0, 1) and (2,3) respectively.
Q16 - In Sutherland-Hodgman algorithm for polygon clipping, assume P (present point) lies inside
the window and S (previous point) lies outside the window. Then, while processing through that
window boundary, we should
a. store the intersection point of line PS (S') only
b. store the points P and S'
c. store the point P only
d. store the points S and S'
Q17 - Assuming that one allows 256 depth value levels to be used, how much memory would a
512 x 512 pixel display require to store the Z-Buffer?
a. 512 K
b. 256 K
c. 1024 K
d. 128 K
Q18 - A frame buffer array is addressed in row-major order for a monitor with co-ordinate
locations varying from (0, 0) to (100, 100). Assuming that one bit of storage is required per pixel
and address of(0, 0) is 0000, the address of the co-ordinate position (5,10) is given by
a. 1015
b. 515
c. 1005
d. 505
Solution: ADDRESS (x,y) = ADDRESS(0,0) + y ( ( x - max ) + 1 ) + x
Q19 - Let the maximum number of pixels in a line be M. The number of subdivisions at most
necessary using the mid-point subdivision method of clipping is
a. N= log2 M
b. N= 2M

S E M - V I I
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c. n = 2 M
d. N=4M
Q20 - The selection and separation of a part of text or image for further operation are called
a. Translation
b. Shear
c. Reflection
d. Clipping
Q21 - The complex graphics operations are
a. Selection
b. Separation
c. Clipping
d. None of these
Q22 - In computer graphics, a graphical object is known as
a. Point
b. Segment
c. Parameter
d. None of these
Q23 - _______is very important in creating animated images on the screen
a. Image transformation
b. Morphing
c. Clipping
d. None of these
Q24 - The graphics method in which one object is transformed into another object are called
a. Clipping
b. Morphing
c. Reflection
d. Shear
Q25 - Example of morphing are
a. Oil takes the shape of a car
b. A tiger turns into a bike
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
Q26 - A many sided figure is termed as
a. Square

S E M - V I I
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b. Polygon
c. Rectangle
d. None
Q27 - The end point of polygon are called as
a. Edges
b. Vertices
c. Line
d. None of these
Q28 - The line segment of polygon are called as
a. Edges
b. Vertices
c. Line
d. None of these
Q29 - How many types of polygon are
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Q30 - What are the types of polygon
a. Convex polygon
b. Concave polygon
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
Q31 - If a line joining any of its two interior points lies completely within it are called
a. Convex polygon
b. Concave polygon
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
Q32 - If a line joining any two of its interior points lies not completely inside are called
a. Convex polygon
b. Concave polygon
c. Both a & b
d. None of these

S E M - V I I
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Q33 - In which polygon object appears only partially
a. Convex polygon
b. Concave polygon
c. Both a & b
d. None
Q34 - If the visit to the vertices of the polygon in the given order produces an anticlockwise loop
are called
a. Negatively oriented
b. Positively oriented
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
Q35 - If the visit to the vertices of the polygon in the given order produces an clockwise loop are
called
a. Negatively oriented
b. Positively oriented
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
Q36 - The space in which the image is displayed are called
a. Screen coordinate system
b. Clipping window
c. World coordinate system
d. None of these
Q37 - The rectangle portion of the interface window that defines where the image will actually
appear are called
a. Transformation viewing
b. View port
c. Clipping window
d. Screen coordinate system
Q38 - The rectangle space in which the world definition of region is displayed are called
b. Clipping window or world window
d. None of these
Q39 - The object space in which the application model is defined

S E M - V I I
P a g e | 36
b. Clipping window or world window
d. None of these
Q40 - Cohen-Sutherland clipping is an example of _________________
a. polygon clipping
b. text clipping
c. line clipping
d. curve clipping
Q41 - The Cohen-Sutherland algorithm divides the region into _____ number of spaces.
a. 8
b. 6
c. 7
d. 9
Q42 - The centre region of the screen and the window can be represented as________
a. 0000
b. 1111
c. 0110
d. 1001
Q43 - . The 4-bit code of top-left region of the window is ____________
a. 1001
b. 1100
c. 0101
d. 1010
Solution: The sequence for reading the codes’ bits is LRBT (Left, Right, Bottom, Top). Since it is
in the top-left corner of the window, hence its code will be 1001.
Q44 - The logical ______ of the endpoint codes determines if the line is completely inside the
window.
a. AND
b. OR
c. NOT
d. NOR
Q45 - ‘Skala’ is an example of which type of clipping?
a. curve clipping
b. point clipping
c. polygon clipping

S E M - V I I
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d. line clipping
Q46 - ‘Vatti’ clipping algorithm is used in _________________
a. curve clipping
b. point clipping
c. polygon clipping
d. line clipping
Q47 - . The process of removal of hidden surfaces is termed as _______________
a. clipping
b. copying
c. culling
d. shorting
Q48 - A bitmap is collection of ________ that describes an image.
a. bits
b. colors
c. algorithms
d. pixels
Q49 - By changing the dimensions of the viewport, the _________ and ___________ of the objects
being displayed can be manipulated.
a. Number of pixels and image quality
b. X co-ordinate and Y co-ordinate
c. Size and proportions
d. All of these
Q50 - Drawing of number of copies of the same image in rows and columns across the interface
window so that they cover the entire window is called ____________
a. Roaming
b. Panning
c. Zooming
d. Tiling
Q51 - The shape of the Bezier curve is controlled by _______ .
a. control points
b. knots
c. end points
d. all the above

S E M - V I I
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Q52 - In Beizer Curve, the flexibility of the shape would increase with _______ of the polygon.
a. decrease in the number of vertices
b. increase in the number of vertices
c. decrease in control points
Q53 - The number of control points can be added or subtracted in _____________.
a. Bezier curve
b. B-spline curve
c. Cubic spline curve
d. all of the above
Q54 - The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points in _______.
a. Hermite cubic spline curve
b. Bezier curve
c. B-spline curve
d. Hyperbola
Q55 - In Beizer Curve, __________ of polygon actually lie on the curve.
a. only the first control point
b. only the last control point
c. only the first and last control point
d. all the control points
Q56 - ________curves allow local control of the curve.
a. Analytical
b. Hermite cubic spline
c. Beizer
d. B-Spline
Q57 - In Beizer Curve, the curve follows ____________.
a. the control points
b. the shape of the defining polygon
c. the defining points
Q58 - In synthetic curves, second-order continuity yields
a. a position continuous curve
b. a slope continuous curve
c. a curvature continuous curve

S E M - V I I
P a g e | 39
Q59 - The B-spline curve has a
a. first-order continuity
b. second-order continuity
c. zero-order continuity
Q60 - To determine the coefficients of the equation – two end-points and the two tangent vectors.
This statement is true for which of the following?
a. B-spline curve
b. Hermite Cubic Spline Curve
c. Beizer curve
Q61 - The Bezier curve is smoother than the Hermite cubic spline because it has _________ order
derivatives.
a. lower
b. higher
c. lower and higher both
Q62 - In the bezier curve, the curve is always________ to first and last segments of the polygon.
a. normal
b. parallel
c. tangent
Q63 - In synthetic curves, zero-order continuity yields
Q64 - In synthetic curves, first-order continuity yields
Q65 - A circle is represented in the CAD/CAM database by storing the values of its
a. angle and center
b. diameter

S E M - V I I
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c. radius
d. center and radius
Q66 - The parabola is defined mathematically as a curve generated by a point that moves such that
its distance from the focus is always__________ the distance to the directrix.
a. larger than
b. smaller than
c. equal to
Q67 - Which of the following is not an analytical entity?
a. Spline
b. Hyperbola
c. Parabola
d. Ellipse
Q68 - When the curve passes through all the data points, then the curve is known as
a. approximation curve
b. pitch curve
c. data curve
d. interpolant curve
Q69 - The slope of line segment is represented by
a. dy/dx
b. dx/dy
c. x/y
d. y/x
Q70 - Synthetic curve pass through defined data points and thus can be represented by
a. polynomial equations
b. exponential equations
c. partial differential equations
d. differential equations

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