Sebi mcq

www.letslearnindia.in CA Abhishek Bansal
SEBI – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – MAY 2019 ONWARDS
1. The Securities and Exchange Board of India was established in _______
a. 1992
b. 1988
2. SEBI was primarily set up to
a. regulate the activities of the merchant banks
b. to control the operations of mutual funds
c. to work as a regulator of the stock exchange activities
d. all of the above
3. The prime objective of the SEBI Act,1992 is to protect the interests of
a. Creditors
b. Investors
c. Directors
4. The Board consists of ….. members from the RBI
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
5. The central government does not have the right to terminate the services of
a. Its own officials
b. RBI officials
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
6. The Chairman and other members shall have the right to relinquish office at any time
before the expiry of their tenure by giving a notice of ………… in writing to the Central
Government.
a. Two months
b. Three months
c. Four months
d. Five months
7. the Chairman and Whole time Members may hold office for a period of three years
a. three years
b. thirty years
c. six years
d. five years
8. The Central Government shall have the power to remove a member or the Chairman
appointed to the Board, if he has been convicted of an offence which in the opinion of the
Central Government, does not involve a moral turpitude.
a. True
b. False
9. The Board can call for furnishing information to, other authorities, in the matters relating
to the prevention or detection of violations in respect of securities laws without the prior
approval of the central government
a. True
b. False
10. the Board provides for measures for
a. promoting fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to securities markets

b. promoting investors' education and training of intermediaries' of securities
markets
c. promoting insider trading in securities
d. all of the above
11. the Board may take measures to undertake inspection of any book, or register, or
other document or record of
a. all public companies
b. only listed companies
c. only unlisted companies
d. all listed public companies and public companies which intend to get listed
12. the Board can pass on order
a. on completion of investigation
b. on completion of inquiry
c. both of the above
13. transactions involved in …………….. are allowed to be attached with the order
a. violation of any of the provisions of this Act
b. violation of any of the rules or the regulations made
d. the entire business
14. The amount disgorged, pursuant to a direction issued shall be credited to
a. The shareholders
b. The creditors
c. IPEF
15. The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 had given certain powers to
a. The central government
b. SEBI
16. It shall be open to SEBI to inspect at all reasonable times books of accounts and
other documents to be maintained by the Stock Exchanges for periods
a. Not less than five years
b. Not exceeding five years
c. Not less than seven years
d. Not exceeding seven years
17. SEBI may make bye-laws on matters specified in Section 9 of SCRA or amend any bye-
laws made by a stock exchange on
a. Its own motion
b. Request received by the governing body of a stock exchange
c. Any of the above
18. To be a collective investment scheme,
a. the contributions, or payments made should be pooled and utilized for the
purposes of the scheme
b. the property, contribution or investment forming part of scheme should be
managed on behalf of the investors
c. it should be not be made or offered by a co-operative society registered under
the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
d. all of the above
19. An insurance scheme is a collective investment scheme
a. True
b. False
20. Schemes under which contributions made are in the nature of subscription to a mutual
fund are not a collective investment scheme
a. True
b. False
21. It shall be the duty of ……………….. to produce to the Investigating Authority or any person
authorised by it in this behalf all related documents
a. Manager
b. Managing director
c. Employee
d. All of the above

22. The Investigating Authority may keep in its custody any books, registers, other
documents and record produced for six months
a. Six years
b. Six months
c. Three months
d. Five months
23. If any person fails without reasonable cause or refuses to produce to the Investigating
Authority any record, he shall be punished with
a. imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years
b. with fine, which may extend to ten crore rupees
c. a further fine which may extend to five lakh rupees for every day after the first
during which the failure or refusal continues.
d. All of the above
24. Notes taken by the examiner and not signed by the person examined can be used as
evidence
a. True
b. False
25. the Investigating Authority may make an application to the Magistrate or Judge of such
designated court in Mumbai, as may be notified by the ………… for an order for the
seizure
a. Central Govt
b. State Govt
c. RBI
26. the Magistrate or Judge of the Designated Court shall not authorise seizure of books,
registers, other documents and record, of
a. listed companies
b. public companies indulging in insider training
c. unlisted public companies intending to get listed
d. a and c
27. The Impounded documents will remain in the custody of…………
a. Manager of the company
b. SEBI
c. Investigating authority
28. A ………… is authorized to buy, sell or deal in securities
a. Depository
b. Credit rating agency
c. Stock broker
d. All of the above
29. Nobody shall directly or indirectly acquire control of any company or securities more
than the percentage of equity share capital of a company whose securities are listed
or proposed to be listed on a recognised stock exchange
a. True
b. False
30. ,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, should be credited to Securities and Exchange Board of India General
Fund
a. grants, fees and charges received by the Board
b. public deposits
31. The Fund shall be applied for
a. the salaries, allowances and other remuneration of the members, officers
and other employees of the Board
b. the expenses of the Board in the discharge of its functions under section 11
c. the salaries, allowances and other remuneration of the members, officers
and other employees of listed companies
d. all of the above
e. a and b

32. The Board shall maintain proper accounts and prepare an annual statement of
accounts in such form as may be prescribed by
a. The central government
b. The CAG
33.any expenditure incurred in connection with such audit shall be payable
by …………….. to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
a. RBI
b. Central Govt
c. SEBI
34.The accounts of the Board shall be forwarded annually to the Central
Government by the CAG
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
35. If any person, who is required under this Act or any rules or regulations made thereunder
fails to ……………………. shall be liable to a penalty which shall not be less than one lakh
rupees but which may extend to one lakh rupees for each day during which such failure
continues subject to a maximum of one crore rupees
a. furnish any document, return or report to the Board
b. file any return or furnish any information, books or other documents within the
time specified therefor in the regulations
c. maintain books of account or records
d. all of the above
36. If any listed company or any person who is registered as an intermediary fails to redress
the grievances of investors in ………………, they shall be liable to a penalty
a. Five months
b. Six months
c. One month
d. Time specified by the Board
37. If a person registered as a stock broker fails to deliver any security, he is liable to a penalty of
a. More than Rs. 1 lakh
b. Upto Rs. 1 lakh
c. More than Rs. 10 lakh
d. Upto Rs. 10 lakh
38. Any insider shall be liable to a penalty of
a. more than one lakh rupees extending upto twenty five crore rupees/thrice the
amount of profits made out of insider trading, whichever is higher
b. more than ten lakh rupees extending upto twenty five crore rupees/ thrice the
c. more than one lakh rupees extending upto twenty crore rupees/ thrice the amount
of profits made out of insider trading, whichever is higher

d. more than ten lakh rupees extending upto twenty five crore rupees thrice the
39. An insider will not be penalized if he
a. communicates any unpublished price-sensitive information to any person, with his
request
b. counsels, or procures for any other person to deal in any securities of any body
corporate on the basis of unpublished price-sensitive
d. none of the above
40. The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall consist of …………. to exercise the powers and
discharge the functions conferred
a. a Presiding Officer
b. Judicial Members
c. Technical Members
d. All of the above
41. every Bench constituted shall include at least
a. one Presiding officer
b. one Judicial Member and one Technical Member
c. one Judicial Member
d. a and b
e. a and c
42. a Bench may be constituted by the Presiding Officer of the Securities Appellate Tribunal
a. Judicial member
b. Presiding officer
c. Technical member
43. the Benches of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall ordinarily sit at Mumbai
a. Mumbai
b. New Delhi
c. Kolkata
44. A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the Presiding Officer unless he is or
has been
a. a Judge of the Supreme Court for at least seven years
b. a Judge of High Court for at least five years
c. a Chief Justice of a High Court for at least five years
d. a and c
45. The Presiding Officer and Judicial Members of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall be
appointed by
a. Central Govt
b. Chief Justice of India
c. SEBI
46. A member or part time member of the Board shall not be appointed as Presiding
Officer or Member of the Securities Appellate Tribunal –
a. during his service or tenure as such with the Board
b. within two years from the date on which he ceases to hold office as such in the
Board

c. within four years from the date on which he ceases to hold office as such in the
Board
d. a or b
e. a or c
47. The Presiding Officer or every Judicial or Technical Member of the Securities Appellate
Tribunal shall hold office for a term of
a. Three years
b. Five years
c. Four years
d. Ten years
48. The Presiding Officer or every Judicial or Technical Member of the Securities Appellate
Tribunal can hold office upto the age of
a. Sixty-five years
b. Seventy years
c. Fifty years
d. Seventy-five years
49. In the event of occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the Presiding Officer of the
Securities Appellate Tribunal, ………………. shall act as the Presiding Officer until the date
on which a new Presiding Officer is appointed
a. First Judicial member
b. Seniormost technical member
c. Seniourmost judicial member
50. the Presiding Officer or any other Member shall continue to hold office until
a. expiry of his term
b. expiry of three months from the date of receipt of such notice
c. expiry of one month from the date of receipt of such notice
d. a or b, whichever is earlier
e. a or c, whichever is earlier
51. the Presiding Officer and Member appointed before the commencement of Part XIV
of Chapter VI of the Finance Act, 2017
a. shall be governed by SEBI, 1992
b. shall be governed by the provisions of section 184 of that Act.
52. The officers and employees of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall discharge their
functions under general superintendence of
a. Judicial member
b. Presiding officer
c. Technical member
53. Any person aggrieved by an order ………………….. may prefer an appeal to a Securities
Appellate Tribunal having jurisdiction in the matter.
a. of the Board made, on and after the commencement of the Securities Laws
(Second Amendment) Act, 1999
b. made by an adjudicating officer
c. of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority or the Pension Fund
Regulatory and Development Authority
d. all of the above

54. Every appeal shall be filed within a period of forty-five days from the date on which a
copy of the order made is received by him
a. Thirty days
b. Fifty days
c. Forty-five days
d. Sixty days
55. The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall send a copy of every order made by it to
a. The board
b. the parties to the appeal
c. the concerned Adjudicating Officer.
d. All of the above
56. The appeal filed before the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall be disposed finally
within six months from the date of receipt of the appeal.
a. One year
b. Six months
c. Eight months
d. Ten months
57. The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down by the
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
a. True
b. False
58. The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall have, for the purposes of discharging their
functions under this Act, the powers for
a. setting aside any order of dismissal of any application for default or any order
passed by it ex parte
b. issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents
59. No civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of
any matter which an adjudicating officer appointed under this Act or a Securities
Appellate Tribunal constituted under this Act is empowered by
a. True
b. False
60. Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Securities Appellate Tribunal may
file an appeal to the …………….. within sixty days from the date of communication of the
decision
a. High court
b. Supreme court
61. Supreme Court may, if it is satisfied that the applicant was prevented by sufficient
cause from filing the appeal within the said period, allow it to be filed within a further
period not exceeding ………… days.
a. Thirty
b. Forty-five
c. Sixty

62. If at any time the Central Government is of opinion that Board unable to perform its
functions, it may by notification, supersede the Board for such period, not exceeding six
months.
a. Six months
b. Three months
c. Two months
d. One year
63. The Board not being able to discharge its functions and duties on account of a grave
emergency can be considered as a reason for the Central Government to supersede the
Board
a. True
b. False
64. Upon the publication of a notification of superseding the Board all property owned or
controlled by the Board shall, until the Board is reconstituted vest in the Central
Government
a. Board
b. Board members
c. Central govt
65. In case of a supersession, any person or persons who vacated their offices, shall be
deemed disqualified for appointment on reconstitution of the Board
a. True
b. False
66. the Board shall, within ninety days after the end of each financial year, submit to the
Central Government a report in such form, as may be prescribed, giving a true and full
account of its activities, policy and programmes during the previous financial year.
a. Sixty
b. Thirty
c. Forty-five
d. ninety
67. if any person contravenes or attempts to contravene or abets the contravention of the
provisions of this Act or of any rules or regulations made thereunder, he shall be
punishable with imprisonment for a term
a. of minimum one month
b. which may extend to ten years
68. No immunity shall be granted by the Central Government in cases where the
proceedings for the prosecution for any such offence have been instituted after the date
of receipt of application for grant of such immunity.
a. True
b. False
69. An immunity granted to a person above may, at any time, be withdrawn by the
…………………., if it is satisfied that such person had, in the course of the proceedings, not
complied with the conditions on which immunity was granted.
a. Central government
b. Board

70. The person who has not complied with the conditions may
a. be tried for the offence with respect to which the immunity was granted
b. be tried for any other offence of which he appears to have been guilty
c. become liable to the imposition of any penalty under this Act to which such
person would have been liable, had not such immunity been granted.
d. All of the above
71. A Special Court shall consist of a single judge who shall be appointed by the Central
Government with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the
a. Supreme Court
b. The High Court
72. where an offence under this Act has been committed by a company and it is proved
that the offence has been committed with the neglect of any director of the company,
such director shall also be deemed to be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to
be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
a. True
b. False
73. the Recovery Officer shall proceed to recover from such person the amount specified
in the certificate by
a. attachment and sale of the person's immovable property
b. arrest of the person and his detention in prison
c. attachment of the person's bank accounts
d. all of the above
74. The SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2009 lays down guidelines relating to
a. listing of different segments of the capital market
b. disclosure norms
c. public issues
d. all of the above
75. …………………. is when an unlisted company makes either a fresh issue of securities or an
offer for sale of its existing securities to the public.
a. Rights issue
b. Further public issue
c. Initial Public Issue
76. FPO is when a listed company which proposes to issue fresh securities to its existing
shareholders as on a record date
a. True
b. False
77. A ……………… is an issue of shares or of convertible securities by a company to a select
group of persons
a. Bonus issue
b. Private placement
78. An issuer may make an initial public offer, if
a. They have a net tangible assets of at least three crore rupees in each, of the
preceding three full years
b. They have a net tangible assets of at least two crore rupees in each, of the
preceding three full years

c. They have a net tangible assets of at least two crore rupees in each, of the
preceding two full years
79. An unlisted company intending to be listed should have at least …….. % of its net tangible
assets held in monetary assets
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 25
80. An unlisted company intending to be listed should have a minimum average pre-tax
operating profit of rupees fifteen crore, calculated on a restated and consolidated
basis, during the
a. Preceding three years
b. Preceding five years
c. the three most profitable years out of the immediately preceding five years
d. the two most profitable years out of the immediately preceding five years
81. An issuer not satisfying the conditions may make an Initial Public Offer if the issue is
made through the book-building process and the issuer undertakes to allot, at least of
the net offer to public, to qualified institutional buyers
a. 50
b. 75
c. 80
d. 60
82. An issuer cannot make an initial public offer of Convertible Debt Instruments without
making a prior public issue of its equity shares and listing thereof
a. True
b. False
83. An issuer shall make an allotment pursuant to a public issue if the number of
prospective allottees is more than 1000.
a. True
b. False
84. For an IPO, ……………… is appointed
a. Investment banker
b. Merchant banker
85. Any amendments to be made in the prospectus should be done within 21 days of filing
the offer document.
a. 14
b. 28
c. 27
d. 21
86. Book Building is essentially a process used by companies raising capital through
a. IPO
b. FPO

87. ………………… is a mechanism where, during the period for which the book for the offer
is open, the bids are collected from investors at various prices, which are within the
price band specified by the issuer.
a. Book building Issue
b. Fixed price issue
88. The issue price is determined after the bid closure based on ……………., under the book
bulding issue
a. the demand generated
b. the highest bid
c. the capital required
89. Bids can be revised by the bidders before the book closes.
a. True
b. False
90. …………….. decide the final price at which the securities shall be issued, under the book
building issue
a. Book runners
b. Issuer
91. Issue size should not be …………… as per the audited balance sheet of the preceding
year.
a. Not more than 3 times pre-issue net-worth
b. Not more than 5 times pre-issue net-worth
c. More than 5 times pre-issue net-worth
92. if the issue price is ` 500 or more then the Company may fix the face Value
a. below ’10 per share but not lower than ‘1 per share
b. below ‘100 per share but not lower than ’10 per share
c. below ’50 per share but not lower than ’10 per share
d. below ’50 per share but not lower than ’20 per share
93. if the issue price is less than ` 500 then the Company must have a face Value of ` 10 per
share
a. ’10 per share
b. ‘1 per share
c. ’50 per share
94. The promoter group includes
a. any body corporate in which the promoter holds 10% or more of the equity
share capital
b. a body corporate which holds 10% or more of the equity share capital of the
promoter
95. In case the promoter is an individual, ……………… counts as a promoter
a. an immediate relative of the promoter who holds upto 10% of the equity share
capital in a body corporate

b. any Hindu Undivided Family or firm in which the aggregate shareholding of the
promoter and his immediate relatives is equal to or more than 10% of the total
96. ………………. shall not be deemed to be a promoter merely by virtue of the fact that 10 %
or more of the equity share capital of the issuer is held by such person.
a. Immediate relative of promoter
b. Foreign institutional investor
c. Scheduled bank
d. All of the above
e. B and c
97. In case of an FPO, the promoters’ minimum contribution should be
a. not less than 20% of the post issue capital
b. to the extent of 20 % of the proposed issue size
c. not less than 20% of the proposed issue size
98. in case of a composite issue, the post-issue capital ……………… the rights issue component for
calculating the promoters’ contribution
a. includes
b. excludes
99. Under lock-in period, shares are ………..
a. Non-transferable
b. Partially transferable
100. Locked-in shares cannot be pledged or transferred inter-se between promoters
a. True
b. False
101. In case of an IPO, the entire pre-issue capital of an Unlisted Company subject
to certain exceptions is locked in for
a. 1 year from date of allotment
b. 1 year from commencement of commercial production
c. 3 years from commencement of commercial production
d. 3 years from date of allotment
102. is the listing of a company's common shares on a different exchange than its
primary and original stock exchange
a. external listing
b. secondary listing
c. cross-listing
103. Cross-listing gives issuing companies more liquidity and a greater ability to raise
capital.
a. True
b. False
104. A listed issuer company cannot make any rights issue of securities, where the
aggregate value of such securities, including premium, if any exceeds 50 lakhs unless a
draft letter of offer has been filed with the board
a. 1 crore
b. 75 lakhs

c. 65 lakhs
d. 50 lakhs
105. The draft letter must be filed within ……. Days prior to the filing of the letter of
offer with the designated Stock Exchange.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 15
d. 45
106. If the issuer withdraws the rights issue after announcing the record date, it shall
not make an application for listing of any of its specified securities on any recognized
stock exchange for a period of ten months from the record date announced.
a. true
b. false
107. Bonus issue cannot be made out of
a. Revaluation reserves
b. Free reserves
108. Bonus shares can be issued on partly paid up shares
a. True
b. False
109. Before issuing bonus shares, it is to be ensured that the company hasn’t defaulted in
a. payment of interest or principal in respect of fixed deposits
b. payment of statutory dues of the employees
c. all of the above
110. issuer can issue of bonus shares in lieu of dividend
a. true
b. false
111. Issuer company cannot make preferential allotment to an person who has sold
any equity shares during …………….months preceding relevant date
a. Six
b. Three
c. Two
d. Four
112. for the preferential issue by listed Company, existing proposed allottees shall
have shares in ………………….. form
a. physical
b. dematerialized
113. a company cannot make a preferential issue unless it has acquired PANs of ……….
Possible allottees
a. all
b. existing
114. ………………. Is considered as a QIB for a Qualified Institutional Placement
a. Provident fund with a minimum corpus of twenty five crore rupees
b. pension fund with minimum corpus of twenty five crore rupees

c. scheduled commercial bank
d. all of the above
115. The Company shall pass a …………….. resolution approving the qualified
institutional placement by its shareholders.
a. Special
b. General
116. the allotment of securities shall be completed within a period of 12 months
from the date of passing of the resolution.
a. One year
b. Six months
c. Three months
d. Two years
117. no single allottee shall be allotted more than 50% of the issue size in a QIP
a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 65%
118. the minimum number of allottees for each placement of eligible securities
that has to be made under QIPs shall not be less than ……….., where the issue size is
less than or equal to ……………..; and ………………, where the issue size is greater than
……………
a. two, less than or equal to `250 crores; five, greater than `250 crores;
b. five, less than or equal to `250 crores; greater than `250 crores;
119. At the time of allotment under the QIPs, minimum 10% of the eligible
securities shall be allotted to ………..
a. provident funds
b. pension funds
c. venture capital funds
d. mutual funds
120. The applicants in qualified institutional placement can withdraw their bids after
the closure of the issue.
a. True
b. false
121. The aggregate of the proposed qualified institutional placement and all previous
qualifies institutional placements made by the issuer in the same financial year shall
not exceed 5 times the net worth
a. 2 times
b. Half of
c. 3 times
d. 5 times
122. QIPs shall be made on the basis of a …………… which shall contain all material
information.
a. Qualification document
b. PAN
c. Placement document

123. The (final) placement document shall be serially numbered and copies shall be
circulated only to ……
a. The Board
b. Merchant banker
c. QIBs
124. Securities and Exchange Board of India (Listing Obligations and Disclosure
Requirements) Regulations, 2015 applies only to companies
a. True
b. False
125. Securities and Exchange Board of India (Listing Obligations and Disclosure
Requirements) Regulations, 2015 regulations shall apply to the listed entity who has
listed
a. Specified securities listed on SME Exchange
b. Indian depository receipts
c. Non-convertible debt securities
d. All of the above
126. A listed entity shall appoint a qualified Company Secretary as the Compliance
Officer.
a. Qualified CA
b. Qualified Company Secretary
c. Lawyer
d. Finance manager
127. One ………………. Director on Board shall be a Director on Board of Unlisted
Material Subsidiary.
a. Independent
b. Managing
128. A listed entity shall not dispose of shares in its material subsidiary resulting in
reduction of its shareholding (either on its own or together with other subsidiaries) to
less than 50 % or cease the exercise of control over the subsidiary without passing a
………………………
a. General resolution
b. Special resolution
129. A listed entity shall submit a statement showing holding of securities and
shareholding pattern separately for each class of securities
a. On a quarterly basis
b. On a monthly basis
c. On a half-yearly basis
d. On an annual basis
130. A listed entity shall submit a statement showing holding of securities and
shareholding pattern separately for each class of securities Within 10 days of any
capital restructuring of the listed entity resulting in a change exceeding …… per cent
of the total paid-up share capital
a. 1
b. 5
c. 2

d. 4
131. For declaration of dividend, Intimation shall be required to be made at least 2
working days in advance
a. Seven
b. Two
c. Fourteen
d. Ten
132. The listed entity shall give intimation of Any alteration in the form or nature of
any of its securities that are listed to the stock exchange(s) at least 11 working days
before
a. Altering the given securities
b. Placing the proposal in front of the Board
c. Declaring dividend on said securities
133. A listed entity shall recommend or declare all dividend and/or cash bonuses
At least ……… working days (excluding the date of intimation and the record date) before
the record date.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
134. A listed entity shall update any change in the content of its website Within …..
working days from the date of such change in content.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
135. Listed entity shall submit audited standalone financial results for the financial
year, along with the audit report and either Form A or Form B within ………days from
end of Financial Year.
a. 30
b. 45
c. 50
d. 60
136. A listed entity shall submit the annual report to the stock exchange within 21
working days of it being
a. Sent by the auditor
b. Approved in Board Meeting
c. Approved in AGM
137. The role of a Compliance Officer is
a. Report to Board
b. Determining materiality of information to be reported to stock exchange
c. assist board in conduct of affairs of the Company
d. all of the above
138. Compliance Report is to besubmitted within 6 months from the end of financial
year to the Board

a. 6 months
b. 60 days
c. 3 months
d. 4 months
139. Every listed entity shall constitute a qualified and independent audit committee
which consist of
a. minimum two directors as members
b. 1/3rd
of members being independent directors
c. All of the above
140. Every listed entity shall constitute a qualified and independent audit committee
which consist of
a. A CS acting as the secretary to the committee
b. One independent director as the chairman
141. The audit committee shall meet at least ……. times in a year
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Six
142. At least ….. percent of the directors shall be independent directors in the
nomination and remuneration committee
a. 25
b. 45
c. 75
d. 50
143. All directors of the nomination and remuneration committee shall be ………..
Directors
a. Executive
b. Non-executive
144. The listed entity shall constitute a …… …… … . Committee to specifically look
into the mechanism of redressal of grievances of shareholders, debenture holders and
other security holders.
a. Audit
b. Grievance
c. Stakeholders Relationship
145. The provisions of this regulation regarding risk management committee shall be
applicable to top ……. listed entities, determined on the basis of market capitalization,
as at the end of the immediate previous financial year.
a. 50
b. 75
c. 120
d. 100

146. The Board of directors shall define the role and responsibility of the Risk
Management Committee
a. SEBI
b. Chairman
c. BoD
ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. D 3. B
4. A 5. C 6. B
7. A 8. B 9. B
10. B 11. D 12. C
13. C 14. C 15. A
16. B 17. C 18. D
19. B 20. A 21. D
22. B 23. D 24. B
25. A 26. D 27. C
28. C 29. B 30. A
31. E 32. A 33. C
34. d 35. d 36. d
37. a 38. b 39. d
40. d 41. d 42. b
43. a 44. a 45. a
46. e 47. b 48. b
49. c 50. d 51. a
52. b 53. d 54. c
55. d 56. b 57. b
58. c 59. a 60. b
61. c 62. a 63. a
64. c 65. b 66. d
67. b 68. b 69. a
70. d 71. b 72. a
73. d 74. c 75. c
76. b 77. b 78. a
79. b 80. c 81. b
82. b 83. a 84. b
85. d 86. c 87. a
88. a 89. a 90. c
91. b 92. a 93. a
94. c 95. b 96. e
97. b 98. b 99. a
100. b 101. a 102. c
103. a 104. d 105. b
106. b 107. a 108. b
109. c 110. b 111. a
112. b 113. a 114. d
115. a 116. a 117. c
118. a 119. d 120. b

121. d 122. c 123. c
124. b 125. d 126. b
127. a 128. b 129. a
130. c 131. b 132. b
133. d 134. a 135. d
136. c 137. d 138. a
139. d 140. c 141. c
142. d 143. b 144. c
145. d 146. c
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Abhishek Bansal
abhishekbansal30
Abhishek Bansal
#DuaMeinYaadRakhna

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