The document provides sample tests for numerical reasoning, verbal reasoning, and European public administration that could be used for European Union recruitment competitions. It includes 4 tests of numerical reasoning with a total of 20 questions and sample answers. The tests cover topics such as statistics, percentages, profit margins, drug use, employment rates, housing, and more. Answers are provided after each test for verification.

2. SAMPLE TESTS
FOR EUROPEAN UNION
RECRUITMENT COMPETITIONS

3. 2 /3
TABLE OF CONTENS
SAMPLE TESTS
FOR EUROPEAN UNION
RECRUITMENT COMPETITIONS
PROJECT SUPERVISOR: BC. RADEK STAVINOHA
AUTHORS:
NUMERICAL REASONING: ING. MICHAL KRUPÍK
VERBAL REASONING: GUY BORG
EUROPEAN PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION: ING. JOSEF ABRHÁM, ING. MARTIN BAKULE, ING. RADKA BICANOVÁ,
ING.ADÉLA KROUŽKOVÁ, ING. ZUZANA NOVOTNÁ
TRANSLATION:
NUMERICAL REASONING: MGR.TOMÁŠ JACKO
PROOFREADING: GUY BORG
©TUTOR, S.R.O. 2003
COVER DESIGN: MARTIN VÁCHA - STUDIO DETAIL
COVER PHOTO: ČTK
GRAFIC DESIGN: SEL@
TABLE OF CONTENS
NUMERICAL REASONING 5
TEST N1 6
TEST N1 - KEY: 14
TEST N2 18
TEST N2 - KEY: 26
TEST N3 30
TEST N3 - KEY: 38
TEST N4 42
TEST N4 - KEY: 50
VERBAL REASONING 55
TEST V1 56
TEST V1 - ANSWER KEY: 66
TEST V2 72
TEST V2 - ANSWER KEY: 82
EUROPEAN PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION 89
TEST A1 90
TEST A1 - KEY: 100
TEST A2 108
TEST A2 - KEY: 118
TEST A3 126
TEST A3 - KEY: 136
TEST A4 146
TEST A4 - KEY: 156
TEST A5 BASICS 164
TEST A5 BASICS - KEY: 172

4. 4 /5
NUMERICAL REASONING
N1 - N4 TESTS

5. NUMERICAL REASONING
6
TEST N1
/7
TEST N1
1. In which year did the proportion of households with access to the Internet out
of all the households with home computer increase the most in relative terms
as against the previous year the statistics were taken?
a) 1995
b) 1998
c) 2000
d) in 1996 and 1998 by the same rate
2. Assuming the TV license was €6 and the radio license €3 in years 1994-2000,
which year brought the highest sum collected for TV and radio licences in
households if the change in number of households is negligible? N.B.: If there
are more than 1 television or 1 radio in a household, TV or radio license is paid
just for one piece.
a) 1994
b) 1996
c) 1998
d) 2000
3. Assuming there are 10 million households in country X and 2% of households
that own a registered radio did not pay radio license in 1998, how much
money did the government fail to collect? N.B.: the statistics above is based on
numbers of registered radios.
a) €510,000
b) €540,000
c) €570,000
d) €600,000
4. In which year did the percentage of households owning a particular consumer
durable rise the most in absolute terms with respect to the previous year the
statistics were taken?
a) 1996
b) 1998
c) 2000
d) in 1996 and 1998 by the same rate
5. Assuming 40% of all households have both a CD player and a home computer
in 2000, how many per cent of households in total have only a computer or only
a CD player in 2000?
a) 50%
b) 62%
c) 78%
d) 90%
radio 98 97 95 98 0 9
CD player 50 60 70 80
home comp 24 36 40 50
access to in 4 12 30 40
16,67% 33,33% 75,00% 80,00% 200,00% 225,00%
Selected consumer durables in households, country X
0
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
90
100
percent
television 97 98 99 98
radio 98 97 95 98
CD player 50 60 70 80
home computer 24 36 40 50
access to internet
at home
4 12 30 40
1994 1996 1998 2000

6. NUMERICAL REASONING
8
TEST N1
/9
6. Extraction of which mineral shows the widest profit margin? (The profit
margin is profit as a percentage of turnover)
a) iron ore
b) copper
c) silver
d) tin
7. How much profit in Euros is made from iron ore in country X in 2000? (Profit
is the difference between turnover and production costs)
a) €8 million
b) €80 million
c) €12 million
d) €120 million
8. Assuming that the income from copper and tin goes down by 10%, what will
be the total decrease in the profit made on copper and tin?
a) €18 million
b) €36 million
c) €44 million
d) €144 million
9. If the profit margin for iron ore extraction falls to a half, with costs and the
volume of production remaining the same, how much is the profit?
a) €12 million
b) €24million
c) €40 million
d) €160 million
Drug Consumption: percentage of young people who had used
selected drug at least once in the year 2000, country X
Age Group 16-19 20-24
Cannabis 28 26
Amphetamine 9 10
Ecstasy 4 6
Poppers 4 5
Magic mushrooms 4 3
Cocaine 3 5
LSD 2 3
Any drug 31 28
10. If there are 2 million people at the age of 16-19, and 2.5 million people at the age
of 20-24, how many people at the age of 16-24 took a drug in 2000 altogether?
a) 1,205,000
b) 1,370,000
c) 12,050,000
d) 13,200,000
11. Use of which drug changes the most in relative terms when the two age groups
are compared?
a) cannabis
b) ecstasy
c) cocaine
d) LSD
12. What percentage of people aged 16-19 used a drug but did not use ecstasy in
2000?
a) less than 5%
b) 27%
c) 50%
d) 96%
Extraction of selected minerals in country X, 2000
0
200
400
600
800
1000
1200
1400
1600
Extraction in thousands of
tonnes
400 300 200 300
Production costs per tonne in
euro
300 200 500 400
Turnover per tonne in euro 500 300 1500 900
Iron ore Copper Silver Tin

7. NUMERICAL REASONING
10
TEST N1
/11
13. What percentage of people work in the secondary sector in Geelkite and
Leegenfort?
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 33%
d) 42%
14. The unemployment rate in Roezengine in 2001 was 10%.The government
launched a programme that helped 40,000 people from this region to find
a job. How many people stayed jobless?
a) 220,000
b) 260,000
c) 300,000
d) 340,000
15. Assuming Korwatoo and Roezengine became administratively united in
2001, what is the difference between the percentage of people employed
in the tertiary sector in this new region and in the former region of
Korwaltoo?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
16. How many more people work in the secondary sector than in the primary
sector, in Volkish and Leegenfort combined?
a) 600,000
b) 650,000
c) 1,050,000
d) 1,700,000
17. Supposing the average percentage of workforce in the tertiary sector in
country X is 60%, which region(s) is/are below this average?
a) Geelkite and Korwatoo
b) Geelkite and Leegenfor
c) Korwatoo and Leegenfor
d) Korwato only
Leegenfort 2050 1300 250 0,569444
Roezengine 1900 600 200 0,703704
Volkish 2100 800 150 0,688525
Workforce by sectors in selected regions of country X in
thousands, 2001
0
1000
2000
3000
4000
5000
primary 300 400 250 200 150
secondary 1400 1000 1300 600 800
tertiary 2800 1400 2050 1900 2100
Geelkite Korwatoo Leegenfort Roezengine Volkish

8. NUMERICAL REASONING
12
TEST N1
/13
18. Approximately how many more semi-detached and terraced houses with
residents are there in all the three regions altogether than in detached houses
with residents?
a) 700,000
b) 900,000
c) 950,000
d) 2,300,000
Terraced 23
Flat maisonette o 22
Other 5
All household spaces by types in country X, 2001
20%
30%
23%
22%
5%
Detached
semi-detached
Terraced
Flat maisonette or
apartment
Other
Household spaces in selected regions of country X, 2001
10
500
20
45
1 000
30
50
15
1 200
0 200 400 600 800 1000 1200 1400
second
residence/holiday
accommodation
vacant
withnoresidents
with
residents
thousands
Boltstad
Sternwald
Walterbern
All household spaces in country X in 2001
Detached 20
semi-detached 30
Terraced 23
Flat maisonette o 22
Other 5
All household spaces with residents by types in these
regions, 2001
20%
30%
23%
22%
5%
Detached
semi-detached
Terraced
Flat maisonette or
apartment
Other
Household spaces in selected regions of country X, 2001
10
500
20
45
1 000
30
50
15
1 200
0 200 400 600 800 100
0
120
0
140
0
second
residence/holiday
accommodation
vacant
withnoresidents
with
residents
thousands
Boltstad
Sternwald
Walterbern
19. In which region is the proportion of household spaces with no residents less
than 1:20?
a) Boltstad
b) Sternwald
c) Walterbern
d) nowhere
20. How many household places are there in total in all the three regions?
a) 2,530,000
b) 2,700,000
c) 2,870,000
d) 3,000,000

9. NUMERICAL REASONING
14 /15
TEST N1 - KEY
Test N1 - KEY:
1. b)
In 1994, 30% of households owned a home computer, 5% had access to the Internet at
home. We can say that 4/24 = 1/6 of households owing a home computer also had access
to the Internet at home. In 1996 (and 1998 and 2000) 1/3 (3/4 and 4/5 respectively) of
households owing a home computer had also access to the Internet at home.
Compared to the previous year, the proportion of households with a home computer and
households with access to the Internet doubled in 1996 (from 1/6 to 1/3 = 2/6). In 1998,
the proportion more than doubled (from 1/3 to 3/4), and in 2000, it did not double (from
3/4 to 4/5). Therefore, the biggest increase compared to the previous year occurred in
the year 1998.
2. d)
The years 1994 and 1996 can be excluded straight away, because the sum collected for TV
and radio licences was definitely the highest in 2000 as the number of households owning
both television and radio was higher there than in 1994 and 1996.
In 1998, 1% more households than in 2000 paid for TV licence, but 3% fewer
households than in 2000 paid for radio licence.
Generally, the sum of money collected for TV and radio licences was lower in 1998
than in 2000.
If the method described above seems difficult to the reader, he/she can follow a clearer
but more difficult way of multiplying the percentage from the table, for both years that
are being compared, by €3 for radio and by €6 for television. In this way, we get the
sum in Euros collected from 100 households for radio and television, respectively. Then
we compare the results.
1998: €6 × 99 + €3 × 95 = €594 + €285 = €879
2000: €6 × 98 + €3 × 98 = €9 × 98 = 980 - 98 = €882
3. c)
In 1998, 9.5 million households (95% out of 10 million) owned a registered radio
and 28.5 million of Euros were to be collected from them. However, 2 % of these
households did not pay, so the state lost 2% out of €28.5 million, which is €570
thousand ( 2×285,000 Euro).
4. b)
We can see that the greatest changes occured in the number of households with access
to the Internet. Between 1996 and 1998, 18% of population got access to the Internet
at home, which is the biggest noticeable change in the table.
5. a)
If 80% of households own a CD player and 40% of households own both a CD player
and a home computer, then 40% of households own only a CD player.
If 50% of households own a home computer and 40% of households own both a CD
player and a home computer, then 10% of households own only a home computer.
Altogether 50% of households own only a home computer or only a CD player.
6. c)
We calculate the profit for each mineral as turnover minus production costs, then we
get the marginal profit as the quotient of this number and the overall profit. The highest
quotient appears with silver, where the marginal cost is 1,000 : 1,500 = 2 : 3.
7. b)
We calculate the profit for iron ore in thousands of Euros as (turnover per tonne
– production cost per tonne) × extraction in thousand tonnes.
(500 – 300) × 400 = €80,000 thousand = €80 million
8. b)
We calculate the profit for copper and tin as in the previous exercise:
Copper: (300 – 200) × 300 = €30,000 thousand
Tin: (900 – 400) × 300 = €150,000 thousand
Tin + copper: €180,000 = €180 million
If the income goes down by 10%, the total decrease in the profit will be €18 million.
9. b)
The profit margin for iron ore is 2/5. In 2001, the profit margin is to fall to a half, which
means to 1/5. In 2001, unaltered costs (€300 per tonne) represent 4/5 of the turnover.
Therefore, the turnover must amount to €360 (300 × 5/4). From this we calculate the profit
€60 per tonne (360 - 300), which is €24,000 thousand (60 × 400) in total production.
10. b)
31% out of 2 million people at the age of 16–19 who took a drug in 2000 represent
exactly 620 thousand people (2 million × 0.31= 200,000 × 3.1 = 620,000). 28% out of
2.5 million people at the age of 20–24 who took a drug in the previous year represent
a little fewer than 750 thousand people (2.5 million × 0.28 is a little fewer than 2.5
million × 0.3 = 250,000 × 3 = 750,000). Therefore, the sum is almost 1,370,000, the
correct answer is b).

10. NUMERICAL REASONING
16 /17
TEST N1 - KEY
11. c)
In order to be able to compare effectively the relative change in the numbers of given
drug users in these two groups, we will always take “the bigger number over the lower
number”, which means that the values of the fractions always be higher than 1. Of
course, we could compare the inverse rate as well. From the given fractions the highest
one obviously relatest to cocaine: 5/3. The second biggest proportions are shown by
ecstasy and LSD, 2/3. The others are clearly lower.
12. b)
In 2000, 4% of people took ecstasy and 31% of people at the age of 16 –19 took some
drug in general. Therefore, another drug was taken by 31% – 4% = 27% of people.
13. c)
Altogether 8.1 million people work in these two regions, from which 2.7 million people
work in the secondary sector, which is 1/3; ie approximately 33%.
14. b)
If the unemployment rate reaches 10%, then 2.7 million people employed in Rozengine
in all three sectors represent altogether 90% of all working population. Therefore, there
are 9 times more employed people than unemployed ones (because 90% is 9 times more
than 10%). Thus there are 300,000 unemployed people (2.7 million : 9).
If 40,000 people found work, there would stay 260,000 people without work in Rozengine.
15. b)
There were 1.4 million people employed in the tertiary sector in Korwatoo out of total
2.8 million, which is 50%.
In the newly formed region, 3.3 million people work in the tertiary sector out of total 5.5
million, which is 60% of population (3.3/5.5 = 3/5, ie 60%). Thus, the difference is 10%.
16. d)
In these two regions, 2.1 million people work in the secondary sector and 0.4 million
people work in the primary sector; therefore the difference is 1.7 million people.
17. c)
By dividing the number of workers in the tertiary sector by the total number of workers
in each sector, we find out that less than 60% of workforce are employed in this sector
only in Korwatoo (50%) and Leegenfort (57%).
18. b)
There are 2.7 million households with residents altogether in the three regions.
53% represent households in semi-detached or detached houses, 20% represent
housholds in detached houses. Thus, the difference is 33%, which is approximately
1/3 of all households. The difference expressed in the number of households is 1/3 ×
2,700,000 = 900,000 households.
19. c)
The number of household spaces with no residents is 80, 75 and 25 thousand in
Boltstad, Sternwald and Walternbern, respectively. If these numbers were to represent
1/20 or less from the total number of household spaces, then there should be altogether
at least 20 times more household spaces, which is 1,600,000; 1,500,000; 500,000.
There are altogether 525,000 of these in Walterbern, in other regions there are fewer
household spaces than it is required by the theoretical minimum.
20. c)
By adding the number of all households, either with or without residents, we get the
result 2,870,000.

11. NUMERICAL REASONING
18
TEST N2
/19
TEST N2
Population Statistics - 2000
Country
Area
(sq km)
Population
(thousand)
Annual
births
(per 1,000
population)
Annual
deaths
(per 1,000
population)
Eligible to
vote
(per cent)
A 64,000 6,000 11.4 10.0 71
B 220,000 17,000 12.4 11.8 69
C 125,000 13,000 11.7 10.7 68
D 235,000 20,000 12.8 12.6 73
1. Which country has the lowest population per square km?
a) country A
b) country B
c) country C
d) country D
2. Approximately how many people were born in country D in 2000?
a) 2,560
b) 256,000
c) 512,000
d) 2,560,000
3. Approximately how many people in country A are eligible to vote?
a) 420,000
b) 560,000
c) 4,200,000
d) 5,600,000
4. Which country was growing in population by the largest number of people in
2000, ignoring immigration/emigration?
a) country A
b) country B
c) country C
d) country D
5. Assuming that only 53% of people eligible to vote turned out in country C,
approximately how many voters participated in voting?
a) 3,500,000
b) 4,500,000
c) 5,500,000
d) 6,500,000
6. Which of the selected commodity groups underwent the greatest relative
change between 1998 and 2002 as concerns the proportion of average
consumer spending?
a) food
b) alcoholic drinks
c) tobacco
d) transport
7. Assuming average expenditure on alcoholic drinks and tobacco per year was
€890, €730 and €500 in 1998, 2000 and 2002 respectively, how high was the
lowest spending on alcoholic drinks in these years?
a) €30
b) €300
c) €333
d) €470
Tobacco 7 5 4
Housing 10 11 13
Transport 8 10 12
Consumer spending on selected commodities in country X
in per cent, 1998-2002
0
2
4
6
8
10
12
14
16
18
20
percent
Food 17 18 15
Alcoholic drinks 8 9 6
Tobacco 7 5 4
Housing 10 11 13
Transport 8 10 12
1998 2000 2002

12. NUMERICAL REASONING
20
TEST N2
/21
8. Given an average salary went down by 15% and the average price of
commodities necessary for transport and vehicles stayed at a steady level in
1998-2002, consumers’ demand for these commodities
a) went up
b) went down
c) stayed unchanged
d) cannot be determined
Supply of milk in countries A and B, 2001
(million litres)
domestic
production
of which
exported
imported
Country A 14.5 0.8 1.3
Country B 9.2 0.4 1.2
9. What is the ratio between the amount of milk supplied to domestic markets in
country A and in country B?
a) 2:3
b) 3:2
c) 1:4
d) 4:1
10. How much milk is utilised for manufacture of condensed milk, butter and
cheese in country B?
a) 1.8 m litres
b) 3.5 m litres
c) 3.8 m litres
d) 5.7 m litres
11. Which of the two countries exports more than 5% of its milk production?
a) country A
b) country B
c) both
d) none
12. How much more milk is used for manufacture than for liquid consumption in
country A?
a) 1.45 million litres
b) 1.5 million litres
c) 2.9 million litres
d) 3 million litres
Domestic use
Manufacture
Liquid consumptiCondensed milButter Milk powdeCheese Other use
Country A 40 4 6 20 25 5
Country B 45 1 4 13 33 4
Milk use in country A
40%
4%6%20%
25%
5%
Liquid consumption Condensed milk
Butter Milk powder
Cheese Other use
Milk use in country B
45%
1%4%13%
33%
4%
Liquid consumption Condensed milk
Butter Milk powder
Cheese Other use
Domestic use
Manufacture
Liquid consumptiCondensed milButter Milk powdeCheese Other use
Country A 40 4 6 20 25 5
Country B 45 1 4 13 33 4
Milk use in country A
40%
4%6%20%
25%
5%
Liquid consumption Condensed milk
Butter Milk powder
Cheese Other use
Milk use in country B
45%
1%4%13%
33%
4%
Liquid consumption Condensed milk
Butter Milk powder
Cheese Other use

13. NUMERICAL REASONING
22
TEST N2
/23
13. How much profit did Moltavan make on arable farming, cattle farming and
horticulture?
a) €8 million
b) €14 million
c) €72 million
d) €86 million
14. All figures remain the same for the year 2002, except that the profit per
kilogram of horticultural production in Luthenstad doubles and the
production increases by 25%. How much will the turnover (costs plus profits)
from arable farming, cattle farming and horticulture in Luthenstad increase?
a) €48 million
b) €78 million
c) €108 million
d) €138 million
15. Which of the three regions achieved the largest turnover from arable farming
in 2001? Two regions may reach the same profit.
a) Kolvia
b) Luthenstad
c) Moltavan
d) Kolvia and Moltavan
Profit in country X, 2001
0
1
2
3
4
5
eurosper10kilograms
Kolvia 2 1 1
Luthenstad 1 1 4
Moltavan 2 2 4
Arable
farming
Cattle farming Horticulture
Production costs in country X,2001
0
1
2
3
4
5
eurosper10kilograms
Kolvia 2 2 4
Luthenstad 4 2 2
Moltavan 2 1 2
Arable
farming
Cattle farming Horticulture
Production
0
50
100
150
200
250
thousandtonnes
Kolvia 240 120 200
Luthenstad 80 60 120
Moltavan 160 40 800
Arable
farming
Cattle farming Horticulture
Profit in country X, 2001
0
1
2
3
4
5
eurosper10kilograms
Kolvia 2 1 1
Luthenstad 1 1 4
Moltavan 2 2 4
Arable
farming
Cattle farming Horticulture
Production costs in country X,2001
0
1
2
3
4
5
eurosper10kilograms
Kolvia 2 2 4
Luthenstad 4 2 2
Moltavan 2 1 2
Arable
farming
Cattle farming Horticulture
Production
0
50
100
150
200
250
thousandtonnes
Kolvia 240 120 200
Luthenstad 80 60 120
Moltavan 160 40 800
Arable
farming
Cattle farming Horticulture
Profit in country X, 2001
0
1
2
3
4
5
eurosper10kilograms
Kolvia 2 1 1
Luthenstad 1 1 4
Moltavan 2 2 4
Arable
farming
Cattle farming Horticulture
Production costs in country X,2001
0
1
2
3
4
5
eurosper10kilograms
Kolvia 2 2 4
Luthenstad 4 2 2
Moltavan 2 1 2
Arable
farming
Cattle farming Horticulture
Production
0
50
100
150
200
250
thousandtonnes
Kolvia 240 120 200
Luthenstad 80 60 120
Moltavan 160 40 800
Arable
farming
Cattle farming Horticulture

14. NUMERICAL REASONING
24
TEST N2
/25
Production and export of wheat, 2002
tonnes
production of which exported
Lavagne 130 80
Laroix 40 30
Tolonie 150 120
Bolondie 70 40
16. Which region is the greatest producer of cereals?
a) Lavagne
b) Laroix
c) Tolonie
d) Bolondie
17. How much barley in tonnes was reaped in Bolondie?
a) 8
b) 14
c) 35
d) 140
18. Which region exports the greatest part of its wheat production?
a) Lavagne
b) Laroix
c) Tolonie
d) Bolondie
19. What percentage of cereal production would corn have taken in Laroix in
2003 in case that its production had doubled? Production of all other cereals
remained unchanged.
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%
20. What ratio of wheat produced in all 4 regions is grown for domestic markets?
a) 1:3
b) 4:13
c) 9:13
d) 9:22
0%
20%
40%
60%
80%
100%
Production of cereals in country X, 2002
wheat 60% 33% 75% 40%
barley 13% 35% 12% 20%
corn 18% 25% 10% 35%
other 9% 7% 3% 5%
Lavagne Laroix Tolonie Bolondie

15. NUMERICAL REASONING
26 /27
TEST N2 - KEY
Test N2 - KEY:
1. b)
Country A, country C and country D reach values from 1/12 to 1/9 in the number of
inhabitants per sq kilometre.
Note: If we multiply the number of inhabitants by 9, we get the area that would be in
accordance with the density of population 1/9 inhabitants per sq km. Taking into consi-
deration that the real area of the given state is larger, the density has to be smaller. If we
then multiply the number of inhabitants by 12, we get the area that would correspond to
the density 1/12 of inhabitants per sq km. Taking into consideration that the real area of
the given state is smaller, the density has to be greater.
Only in country B, the density of population is smaller than 1/12. We calculate this
using the same method: multiplying the number of inhabitants by 12 we get the area
204 thousand sq km, which is less than the real 220 thousand sq km; therefore the real
density is definitely smaller.
2. b)
The population of country D is “20 thousand thousand” people, and there are 12.8
newborn babies in each thousand; thus the total number of newborn babies is
20.000 × 12.8 = 256.000.
3. c)
71% (rounded to 70%) out of the total population of 6 million is
0.7 × 6,000,000 = 7 × 600,000 = 4,200,000 people.
4. c)
We calculate the growth of population in each state as (annual births per 1,000 persons
– annual deaths per 1,000 persons) × population in thousands. The fastest growth of
population occured in country C (13,000 persons).
5. b)
53% of participating voters out of all 68% eligible to vote represent approximately
35% of total population (0.53 x 68%), which is, by a very rough estimation, 0.35 × 125
million = 3.5 × 12,500,000 = 4,550,000 voters.
6. d)
Spendings on transport underwent the greatest relative change. In 2002, an average
consumer spent on transport about a half bigger amount of money than in 1998. With
the others the change was not so striking. E.g. the second biggest change occured with
tobacco, which sank by about 3/7.
7. b)
If we use as a starting point the amount of money that was spent on alcoholic drinks
and tobacco by an average consumer in a given year, we can calculate the spending on
alcoholic drinks using the proportion of percentages of alcoholic drinks to alcoholic
drinks + tobacco.
In 1998, the spendings on alcoholic drinks represented 8/15 of spendings on both
alcoholic drinks and tobacco, factually €890 × 8/15, which is a little less than
€900 × 8/15 = €60 × 8 = €480.
In 1999, people spent a little more than €450 on alcoholic drinks (€730 × 9/14 is a little
more than €700 × 9/14 = €50 × 9 = €450) and in 2000, they spent €300 (€500 × 6/10).
Therefore the lowest amount of money spent is €300.
8. a)
Considering that the basis from which the consumer spendings were derived, ie an
average salary, went down by only about 15% while the spendings on transport went
up by about 50% between years 1998 and 2002, we can conclude that the spendings on
transport expressed in Euros went up.
9. b)
We calculate the amount of milk supplied to domestic markets in each country as
Domestic production – Export + Import. Thus it is 15 million litres in country A and 10
million litres in country B. Then the ratio is 3 : 2.
10. c)
The proportional portion of milk utilised for manufacture of condensed milk, cheese
and butter is 38% in country B, which is 3,800,000 litres out of total 10 million litres.
11. a)
5% of domestic production in country A is 14.5/20, which is definitely less than 0.8
million litres, and in country B it is 9.2/20, which is more than 0.4 million litres. Export
comprises more than 5% only in country A.
Another, perhaps a simpler solution, is to multiply the amount of export by 20 and thust
to find out the maximum limit of the overall production for which the export would
exceed 5%. It is 16 million litres for country A and 8 million litres for country B. Thus
only country A meets the requirements of the task.

16. NUMERICAL REASONING
28 /29
TEST N2 - KEY
12. d)
40% is intended for liquid consumption and remaining 60% is for other usage.
Therefore about 20% more milk is intended for liquid consumption, which is, in other
words, 0.2 × 15,000,000 = 3,000,000 litres
13. c)
We multiply the profit from the individual branches (in Euros per 10 kg) by the volume
of production (thousands tonnes) and add the results.
Reducing orders of magnitude: We divide the numbers from the table “Production” by
10 (the resulting values will not be thousands of tonnes = millions of kg, but millions of
“decakilograms”) so that the result of multiplying and adding the profits of individual
branches of agriculture will be in millions of Euros.
2 × 16 + 2 × 4 + 4 × 8 = €72 million
14. c)
The production of horticulture farming in Luthenstad increases by about 25%; thus the
result is 120 + 120/4 = 150 thousand tonnes, the profit doubles to 8 Euros per 10 kg,
the costs do not change. As we are interested only in the increase in the overall turnover
from the three branches of agriculture and as the profit in the other two branches does
not change, it is sufficient to calculate the increase in profit only in horticulture
farming.
Reducing orders of magnitude: similar as above: (8 + 2) × 15 – (4 + 2) × 12 = 150 – 72 =
= €72 million
15. a)
We get the turnover from arable farming in individual regions by multiplying the
turnover from 10 kg (profit + costs) by the volume of production.
Reducing orders of magnitude: similar as above. Because the resulting values of the
profit from arable farming in individual countries come out in the same orders of
magnitude (millions of Euros), it is not necessary to be concerned about the orders
(“zeros”); it is enough to compare the individual results.
Kolvia: (2 + 2) × 24 = 96
Luthenstad: (1 + 4) × 8 = 40
Moltavan: (2 + 2) × 16 = 64
16. a)
To solve this question we have to use the values of the production of wheat in tonnes
in each region, and also the proportional portion of the production of cereals that
is comprised by wheat in the given region. 130 tonnes of wheat, which is 60% of
the overall production, were produced in Lavagne. The overall production can be
determined by the following calculation: 130/0.6 = 10 × 130/6 ≅ 210 tonnes
The overall production of cereals is lower in the other regions (Laroix approximately
3 × 40 = 120 tonnes; Tolonie 150 × 4/3 = 200 tonnes; Bolondie 70 × 5/2 = 175 tonnes)
17. c)
The amount of barley reaped in Bolondie is 20% or 1/5 of the overall production of
cereals. If we use the overall production calculated in the previous exercise, then the
solution is as follows: 0.2 × 175 = 2 × 17.5 = 35 tonnes
We can also draw on the amount of produced wheat (70 tonnes) and on the fact that
barley represents 20% and wheat 40% of the production; therefore there is twice less
barley, ie 35 tonnes.
18. c)
Tolonie exports 120/150 = 4/5 of its production, which is more than 3/4 in Laroix, 8/13
in Lavagne and 4/7 in Bolondie.
19. b)
To solve this problem it is neither necessary to calculate the specific amount of produced
corn nor the total weight of produced cereals; we can solve this task generally. After the
double increase in production, corn represents 2 × 25 = 50 parts, the overall production
of cereals represents 125 parts, the proportional part of barley is then calculated as
50/125 = 0.4, ie 40%
20. b)
The overall production of wheat provided for domestic markets can be calculated
by adding up the productions of wheat in the individual regions (390 tonnes), then
we subtract the sum of exported wheat from the result (270 tonnes), and we get the
amount that has been grown for domestic markets (120 tonnes). Thus the desired ratio
is 120 : 390 = 4:13

17. NUMERICAL REASONING
30
TEST N3
/31
TEST N3
1. When did cows represent the highest proportion of cattle on all agricultural
holdings in Fartenza?
a) 1998
b) 1999
c) 2000
d) 2001
2. If milk yield of an average dairy cow is 8,000 litres per annum, how much more
milk was produced in Fartenza in years 1998-1999 than 2000-2001?
a) 120 thousand litres
b) 120 million litres
c) 200 thousand litres
d) 200 million litres
3. Between which years was the relative decrease in number of dairy cows
greater than the relative decrease of other cattle (i.e. other than dairy and beef
cows)?
a) only between 1998-1999
b) between 1998-1999 and 2000-2001
c) only between 2000-2001
d) never
4. If the net profit from a hectolitre of milk went up from €5 in 2000 to €6 in 2001
and all milk was sold, how did the net profit from entire milk production in
Fartenza change in 2001 compared to 2000?
a) it fell by €160,000
b) it fell by €1,600,000
c) it increased by €7,200,000
d) it fell by €7,200,000
5. Assuming the EU commenced to subsidize cattle farming in Fartenza by €0.5
per head per annum but set maximum subsidy of €200,000 per annum. How
much subsidy did Farentza obtain in years 1998-2001 altogether?
a) €600,000
b) €730,000
c) €745,000
d) €800,000
Cattle on agricultutral holdings in Fartenza,
1998-2001
90 85
40 40
300
235
70
90
30
55
200
350
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
1998 1999 2000 2 001
livestockinthousands
Beef cows Dairy cows Other cattle

18. NUMERICAL REASONING
32
TEST N3
/33
6. Did the total turnover from industrial gas sale exceed the turnover from
industrial electricity sale in country X in 2001?
a) yes
b) no, it was lower
c) no, it was equivalent
d) cannot be determined
7. If the average cost of production and distribution of electricity to an industrial
consumer is €5 per MWh, which of the sectors brought the lowest profit from
electricity supply?
a) agricultural sector
b) commercial sector
c) transport sector
d) public lighting
8. How much would the turnover from industrial electricity consumed outside
the agricultural and transport sector increase if with the level of consumption
unaltered, the average selling value increased by 20%?
a) €8.4 million
b) €140 million
c) €840 million
d) €14 milliard
9. What is the ratio between electricity consumed by the commercial sector and
by the other industrial consumers altogether?
a) 3:1
b) 1:3
c) 7:15
d) 15:7
Public lighting 5 7
Public admin. and other services 20 7
110
3
75
7 5
20
0
20
40
60
80
100
120
x million MWh
Agricultural
sector
Commercial
sector
Transport
sector
Public
lighting
Public
admin.and
other
services
Gas Electricity
Industrial use of gas and electricity in country X, 2002
10
9
7
6
7 7
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Euros per MWh
Agricultural
sector
Commercial
sector
Transport
sector
Public
lighting
Public
admin.and
other
services
Gas Electricity
Average selling value of electricity and gas for industrial use,
country X, 2002
Public admin. and other services 20 7
110
3
75
7 5
20
0
20
40
60
80
100
120
x million MWh
Agricultural
sector
Commercial
sector
Transport
sector
Public
lighting
Public
admin.and
other
services
Gas Electricity
Industrial use of gas and electricity in country X, 2002
10
9
7
6
7 7
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Euros per MWh
Agricultural
sector
Commercial
sector
Transport
sector
Public
lighting
Public
admin.and
other
services
Gas Electricity
Average selling value of electricity and gas for industrial use,
country X, 2002

19. NUMERICAL REASONING
34
TEST N3
/35
Marital status of males in country X, 2000
thousands
20-39 40-59 60 and over
Total 8 000 7 000 5 000
Single1
3 800 1 000 400
Married 3 700 5 000 3 500
Widowed 20 100 700
Divorced 480 900 400
1
Single men are those who have never married
10. In which age group is the number of males living in a marriage and outside
a marriage most balanced?
a) 20-39
b) 40-59
c) 60 and over
d) 40-59 and “60 and over” (they are equally balanced)
11. In 1980, the number of married males was 4.3 million and the number of
divorced or widowed males 0.7 million in age group 20-39. A negligible
percentage of them died by the age of 60. Approximately how many single men
from this age group got married in the following 20 years?
a) 0.7 million
b) 1 million
c) 1.7 million
d) impossible to say
12. In which age group(s) is the percentage of widowed or divorced males
combined more than 20%?
a) only in 20-39
b) only in 40-39
c) only in 60 and over
d) in 40-59 and 60 and over
Railway statistics in selected countries, 2000
Country
Length of railway
lines (thousand km)
of which: Electrified
lines (thousand km)
Railway density
(km per 1000 sq km)
A 60 25 30
B 30 9 50
C 15 6 20
D 9 3 18
Railway traffic in selected countries, 2000
Country
Passengers
(thousand)
Freight
(thousand tonnes)
A 900,000 60,000
B 600,000 50,000
C 250,000 25,000
D 180,000 15,000
13. In which country is the proportion of electrified lines highest?
a) country A
b) country B
c) country C
d) country D
14. Supposing the transport of freight in all the four countries rises by 20%, what
will be the increase in the amount of freight conveyed by railway in these
countries?
a) 30 thousand tonnes
b) 28 million tonnes
c) 30 million tonnes
d) 180 million tonnes
15. Supposing an average passenger journey was 50km, if the passenger fare
was €8 per 100km, how much was the approximate income from passenger
transport?
a) €180 million
b) €360 million
c) €720 million
d) €1,440 million

20. NUMERICAL REASONING
36
TEST N3
/37
16. Which country has the largest area?
a) country A
b) country B
c) country C
d) country D
17. Supposing the number of passengers fell by 10% in country B in 2001 and
length of rails did not alter, by how much did the number of passengers per km
of rail change?
a) rose by 2,000
b) fell by 2,000
c) rose by 20,000
d) fell by 20,000
18. If we consider the level of pollution in the three industrial regions altogether,
which of the selected pollutants contributes by the greatest proportion to its
total emission in country X?
a) particulate matter
b) sulphur dioxide
c) nitrogen oxides
d) cannot be determined
19. Assuming the three regions carry out 30% of the entire volume of mining
and quarrying and 50% of the entire volume of all manufacturing in country
X, which of these two industries releases more nitrogen oxides per unit of
production than the national average?
a) both
b) only mining and quarrying
c) only manufacturing
d) neither
20. If the ecological cost of nitrogen oxides emission is estimated at €1000 per
tonne and of sulphur dioxide at €2000 per tonne, which region brings about
the highest ecological harm by these two gases?
a) Intala
b) Kostarna
c) Piolia
d) Kostarna and Piolia by the same rate
Air pollutants: emission of selected gases in foremost
industrial regions in country X, 2002
0
1000
2000
3000
thousandtonnes
Intala 100 200 700
Kostarna 70 300 800
Piolia 50 250 500
Country X in total 400 2000 3000
particulate matter sulphur dioxide nitrogen oxides
Emission of nitrogen oxides by selected industries
0
200
400
600
800
1000
1200
thousandtonnes
Intala 30 40 100 420 120
Kostarna 20 40 120 450 150
Piolia 20 30 70 100 160
Country X in total 400 300 600 1200 800
agriculture
mining &
quarrying
manufacturing
electricity
supply
road transport
Air pollutants: emission of selected gases in foremost
industrial regions in country X, 2002
0
1000
2000
3000
thousandtonnes
Intala 100 200 700
Kostarna 70 300 800
Piolia 50 250 500
Country X in total 400 2000 3000
particulate matter sulphur dioxide nitrogen oxides
Emission of nitrogen oxides by selected industries
0
200
400
600
800
1000
1200
thousandtonnes
Intala 30 40 100 420 120
Kostarna 20 40 120 450 150
Piolia 20 30 70 100 160
Country X in total 400 300 600 1200 800
agriculture
mining &
quarrying
manufacturing
electricity
supply
road transport

21. NUMERICAL REASONING
38 /39
TEST N3 - KEY
Test N3 - KEY:
1. c)
There were 125 thousand head of cattle in Fartenza in 2000 (beef cows + diary cows =
85,000 + 40,000) out of total amount of 360,000 head of cattle, so the ratio is 125,000
: 360,000 = 12.5 : 36, which is more than 1/3. As concerns the other year, the ratio
reached exactly 1/3 in 2001 and less than 1/3 in 1998 and 1999.
2. d)
There were 180 thousand diary cows in Fartenza between 1998 and 1999 and 155
thousand between 2000 and 2001, which is about 25 thousand fewer. If milk yield of
each diary cow was 8,000 litres per annum, then the production of milk between 1998
and 1999 was about 8,000 × 25,000 = 200 million litres higher than between 2000 and
2001.
3. b)
Between 1998 and 1999, the number of diary cows in Fartenza decreased by about 15/
55 = 3/11, the number of other cattle decreased less (about 1/7). The number of diary
cows did not change between 2000 and 2001, the number of other cattle decreased.
Between 2000 and 2001, the number of diary cows decreased by about 1/4, but the
number of other cattle decreased less. Thus, the number of diary cows decreased less
than the number of other cattle in the years 1998-1999 and 2000-2001.
4. b)
40,000 × 8,000 litres = 40,000 × 80 hectolitres = 3,200,000 hectolitres of milk were
sold in 2000 with the net profit €16,000,000 (5 × 3,200,000). 30,000 × 80 hectolitres
= 2,400,000 hectolitres of milk were sold in 2001 with the net profit €14,400,000
(2,400,000 × 6). Thus the general profit from milk decreased by about €1,600,000.
5. b)
The maximum subsidies €200,000 correspond to 400,000 head of cattle. In 1998 and
1999, more than 400,000 head of cattle were bred, so the subsidies for these two years
were €400,000 altogether. Then in 2000 and 2001, the number of cattle did not exceed
400,000 head so that the maximum subsidies were paid out, ie €180 thousand in 2000
and €150 thousand in 2001, altogether 400,000 + 180,000 + 150,000 = €730,000
thousand.
6. a)
The turnover of gas sale reached €1,100 million. The turnover of electricity sale for the
commercial sector, public lighting and public administrative and other services can be
easily calculated together as (75 + 5 + 20) × 7 million = 700 million.
The agricultural sector (27 million) and public lighting (35 million) bring together the
turnover of €62 million.
Therefore the final turnover of electricity sale is 762 million, which is less than that of
gas sale.
7. c)
It is necessary to compare only the profits from the agricultural sector, transport sector
and public lighting, the profits from the other sectors are obviously greater due to the
volume of supply.
The profit from one MWh is €1, €2 and € 4 in the transport sector, public lighting
and agricultural sector, respectively. If we multiply these values by the corresponding
volume of supply, we easily find out that the transport sector has brought the lowest
profit of €7 million.
8. b)
As the average selling price of electricity supplied to the commercial sector, public
lighting and public administration and other services changes identically (about 20%),
it is easier to multiply the amount of sold electricity (in millions MWh) only by the 0.2nd
multiple of the original selling value (so we find out 20% from this value), by which
we directly calculate the desired increase in turnover (in millions of Euros). What is
more, we can take the advantage of the fact that the selling price of electricity is the
same in all the three branches so that we can add the supplies (in millions of MWh)
before multiplying them by the price. These “intricacies” are shown in the following
mathematical expression as factorization of 0.2 × 75:
0.2 × 7 × 75 + 0.2 × 7 × 5 + 0.2 × 7 × 20 = 0.2 × 7 × (75 + 5 + 20) = 0.2 × 7 × 100 =
= €140 million
9. d)
Electricity consumed by the commercial sector is 75 MWh, while the consumption of
electricity in the other sectors altogether is 35 million MWh. Therefore the ratio desired
is 75 : 35 = 15 : 7

22. NUMERICAL REASONING
40 /41
TEST N3 - KEY
10. a)
The most balanced number of males living in a marriage and outside a marriage is
clearly in age group 20-39, with the ratio 37 : 43. In the other groups the ratios are 5 : 2
and 35 : 15
11. b)
In 1980 there were altogether 5 million (4.3 + 0.7) married, divorced and widowed men
in age group 20-39. After 20 years, when these men reached the age 40-59, there were
6 million of them. It means that 1 million men must have got married.
Deriving the result from the following reasoning is incorrect: number of men who got
married = number of married men in 2000 – number of married men in 1980 (ie 0.7
million)
This is because the married men from 1980 could get divorced or possibly become
widowers, and those who got married during those 20 years could get divorced or
become widowers before 2000.
12. c)
20% of the total number of men is 1.6 million, 1.5 million and 1 million in the given
age groups, respectively (we divide the total number by 5). The number of divorced or
widowed men exceeds the given 20% limit only in the case of men who are older than 60.
13. a)
The proportion of electrified lines to the length of all lines in country A was 5 : 12,
which is more than 40%. In the other countries the proportion was 3 : 10, 2 : 5 and 1 : 3,
which is obviously less.
14. c)
In 2000, 150,000 thousand tonnes, which is 150 million tonnes, were conveyed in all
the four countries altogether. 30% from this is 30 million tonnes.
15. c)
180 million passengers were transported by the railway and they paid €4 (a half from
€8 per 100 km) for an average journey of 50 km. Thus the turnover from the passenger
service was €720 million (4 × 180 million).
16. a)
If we divide the length of railway lines in thousands of km by the value of railway
density in km of rails per 10 sq km, we get the area of the state in ten thousands sq km.
Country A has obviously the largest area.
17. b)
The 10% decrease in the number of passengers corresponds to the decrease by 60
million (0.1 × 600 million). If the length of the rails remains 30 thousand km, then the
decrease in the number of passengers per 1 km of rail is 2,000 passengers per 1 km
(60 million/30 thousand).
18. c)
Nitrogen oxides represent the greatest proportion to the total emission in country X,
exactly 2/3, which we calculate by adding the emissions of nitrogen oxides in the
individual regions (700 + 800 + 500 = 2,000 thousand tonnes) and by comparing this
with the total emissions in the country (3,000 thousand tonnes).
The other two gases show lower proportionate volume (220 : 400 = 11 : 20 in particulate
matter and 750 : 2,000 in sulphur dioxide, which is apparently less than a half).
19. b
Mining and quarrying release 110 thousand tonnes of nitrogen oxides (40 + 40 + 30) in
the three selected regions, which is definitely more than 30% of the total emission from
this process in the country X, ie the pollution exceeds the national average in relation
to the volume of production.
290 tonnes of nitrogen oxides are produced by manufacture, which is less than 50% of
the total emission from this process in the country X, ie the pollution is lower than the
national average in relation to the volume of production.
20. b
The highest ecological harm expressed in the of its disposal is caused by Costarna (1 ×
8 + 2 × 3 = 14), smaller is caused by Intala (1 × 7 + 2 × 2 =11) and the smallest is caused
by Piolia (1 × 5 + 2 × 2.5 = 10).
Reducing orders of magnitude: As we compare the quantity of the final values of
ecological harm and we do not need to know their exact quantity (“how many zeros
there are”), we can cancel an accurately given number of orders of magnitude, which
means eg to count with the costs for disposal in thousands Euros (as 1 or 2 Euros per
tonne) and to compute the volume of pollution in hundreds of thousands tonnes, as is
shown in the brackets above.

23. NUMERICAL REASONING
42
TEST N4
/43
TEST N4
*/ hens and pullets kept mainly for producing eggs for eating.
1. On average, how many kilograms of chicken meat were gained per head in the
years 1998-2001?
a) 1,2
b) 1,5
c) 1,7
d) 1,9
2. In which year was the greatest proportion of chickens in country X sent for
slaughter?
a) 1998
b) 1999
c) 2000
d) 2001
3. Assuming the EU took measures at the end of 2001 to cut turkey, duck and
goose farming to 4 million head by the end of 2004, by how many head do
duck, turkey and goose flocks have to be reduced every year if the rate is to
remain constant?
a) 1 million
b) 2 million
c) 3 million
d) 4 million
4. If the average of a bird in the laying flock is 300 eggs a year, approximately
how many more eggs were produced in 2000-2001 than in the previous two
years?
a) 3 milliard
b) 6 milliard
c) 9 milliard
d) 12 milliard
5. The figures in graph 1 show the number of chickens at the close of each year.
Assuming no live chickens were exported, in which year were most of the
chickens born or imported to country X?
a) 1999
b) 2000
c) 2001
d) impossible to say
Poultry in country X, 1998-2001
0
50 000
100 000
150 000
200 000
250 000
300 000
350 000
'000head
chickens 300 000 250 000 370 000 340 000
of which
slaughtered
200 000 180 000 240 000 230 000
birds in the laying
flock*
10 000 15 000 25 000 30 000
turkeys, ducks and
geese
15 000 18 000 13 000 10 000
1998 1999 2000 2001
Production of chicken meat
330
290
315
340
0
50
100
150
200
250
300
350
1998 1999 2000 2001
'000tonnesofcarcaseweight
Poultry in country X, 1998-2001
0
50 000
100 000
150 000
200 000
250 000
300 000
350 000
'000head
chickens 300 000 250 000 370 000 340 000
of which
slaughtered
200 000 180 000 240 000 230 000
birds in the laying
flock*
10 000 15 000 25 000 30 000
turkeys, ducks and
geese
15 000 18 000 13 000 10 000
1998 1999 2000 2001
Production of chicken meat
330
290
315
340
0
50
100
150
200
250
300
350
1998 1999 2000 2001
'000tonnesofcarcassweight

24. NUMERICAL REASONING
44
TEST N4
/45
Average trip length in country X
Walk Car Bus, Coach or Rail
1990 2 km 20 km 62 km
2000 1.5 km 25 km 70 km
6. How many more trips did an average person take in country X in 2000 than in
1990?
a) 35
b) 65
c) 85
d) 105
7. Assuming an average person travelled 26,000 kilometres in 2000, did the
distance travelled by car, bus, coach or rail make up more than two thirds?
a) yes
b) no, it was less
c) no, it’s exactly two thirds
d) cannot be determined
8. By which mode did an average person travel longer distance in 1990 than an
average person in 2000? “Bus, coach or rail” is treated as one mode of travel
for the sake of this comparison.
a) walk
b) car
c) bus, coach or rail
d) none
9. How many more kilometres did an average person travel in car in 2000 than in
1990?
a) 400 km
b) 1, 400 km
c) 5, 000 km
d) 14, 000 km
Trips per person per year
680
50100
600
400
6590
380
0
100
200
300
400
500
600
700
800
Walk Car Bus, Coach or
Rail
Other Mode
1990
2000

25. NUMERICAL REASONING
46
TEST N4
/47
10. Which of the three minerals took up the greatest share on domestic markets
when total weight is considered?
a) salt
b) graphite
c) phosphate
d) salt and phosphate at the same rate
11. What was the balance of international trade with all these three minerals?
a) € 70,000
b) €270,000
c) €760,000
d) €1,360,000
12. Assuming that, in the following year, exports of phosphate went up by 5%, its
average export selling value went down by €5 per tonne and all other figures
remained unchanged, how did the balance of trade with phosphate change?
a) went down by €20,000
b) went up by €20,000
c) went down by €80,000
d) went up by €80,000
salt graphite phosphate
export 12 120 25
import 10 100 20
Supply of salt, granite and phosphate in country X, 2001
0
50
100
thousand tonnes
extraction 100 20 50
of which exported 80 10 20
imported 20 15 10
salt graphite phosphate
Average selling value in country X, 2001
0
50
100
euros per tonne
export 12 120 25
import 10 100 20
salt graphite phosphate
salt graphite phosphate
export 12 120 25
import 10 100 20
Supply of salt, granite and phosphate in country X, 2001
0
50
100
thousand tonnes
extraction 100 20 50
of which exported 80 10 20
imported 20 15 10
salt graphite phosphate
Average selling value in country X, 2001
0
50
100
euros per tonne
export 12 120 25
import 10 100 20
salt graphite phosphate

26. NUMERICAL REASONING
48
TEST N4
/49
Berry harvest in Piesnia, 1996-1999
1000kg per annum
1996 1997 1998 1999
Strawberries 260 200 320 210
Raspberries 200 170 140 280
Blackberries 90 60 80 100
Cranberries 100 70 20 80
13. Between which years did the harvest of any particular berry change the most
in absolute terms?
a) 1997 and 1998
b) 1997 and 1999
c) 1996 and 1997
d) 1998 and 1999
14. Assuming all berries are sold, if the profit from a kilogram of cranberries
is three times as high as that from a kilogram of strawberries, how did the
aggregate profit on these two kinds of berries develop between 1997 and 1998?
a) increases
b) decreases
c) stays the same
d) impossible to say
15. In which year was the biggest harvest for raspberries and blackberries combined?
a) 1996
b) 1997
c) 1998
d) 1999
16. What is the ratio between the total weight of blackberries and the total weight
of strawberries that were grown between 1996 – 1999?
a) 1:2
b) 1:3
c) 2:1
d) 3:1
17. Raspberries and cranberries are subsidised in Piesnia. For every 10kg
which are harvested, the farmers receive €1 subsidy. In which year did the
government paid out the greatest subsidies?
a) 1996
b) 1997
c) 1998
d) 1999
GDP And Balance of Trade In Country X, 2001
million Euros
Country A Country B Country C Country D
Gross Domestic
Product (GDP)
160,000 420,000 225,000 540,000
Value of Exports 21,000 112,000 68,000 152,000
Value of Imports 18,000 118,000 64,000 138,000
Population (million) 8 30 15 30
18. For country C, by how much do exports exceed imports?
a) €4,000 million
b) €40,000 million
c) €157,000 million
d) €161,000 million
19. Which country has the highest GDP per head of the population?
a) country A
b) country B
c) country C
d) country D
20. Which country is the biggest net exporter, measured as a percentage of GDP?
a) country A
b) country B
c) country C
d) country D

27. NUMERICAL REASONING
50 /51
TEST N4 - KEY
Test N4 - KEY:
1. b)
850 million chickens (sum of the line “of which slaughtered”) were supplied to the
market in the years 1998-2001, which is, according to the second graph, 1,275 thousand
tonnes (1,275 million kilogrames). Thus the average amount of meat gained from one
chicken is 1,275 : 850 = 1.5 kg/head.
2. b)
We compare the proportion of stanghtered and all chickens in each year. We get the
following fractions: 2/3 in 1998, 18/25 in 1999, 24/37 in 2000, and 23/34 in 2001. 24/
37 is clearly less than 2/3, and 18/25 is more than 2/3. Then we partially divide 18 by
25 and 23 by 34 and we see that 18/25 is ofreater.
3. b)
The numbers of turkeys, ducks and geese are to be cut from 10 million to 4 million
in the following 3 years, which means the difference is 6 million. So, the average
reduction rate per annum is 2 million head (6 million head/3 years).
4. c)
There were about 30 million birds in the laying flock more in the years 2000-2001 than
there were in the years 1998-1999. If each bird in the laying flock laid 300 eggs, then
9 milliard more eggs were laid.
5. b)
The number of chickens left at the close of each year in country X equals the number of
chickens in that year minus the number of the slaughtered ones.
Thus there were 70 million of them at the end of 1999. In 2000 there were altogether
370 million chickens in country X, which means 300 million must have been born or
imported during 2000.
These numbers are smaller in the years 1999 and 2001 (150 million and 210 million).
6. b)
By computing the difference between all trips taken in 2000 and 1990 we get the result
380-400+680-600+90-100+65-50 = -20+80-10+15 = 65
7. a)
The total distance travelled by an average person by bus, coach or rail in 2000 was
90 × 70 = 6,300 km; by travelling by car comprised 680 × 25 = 68,000 : 4 = 17,000 km.
The total 23,300 is definitely more than 2/3 out of 26,000.
8. a)
We can see very easily that the possibility of an average person travelling more km by
car in 1990 than in 2000 need not be considered, because the distance elongated and the
number of trips by car rose in 2000.
We can also see that an average person walked more in 1999 than he/she did in 2000,
because the number of roads lowered as well as the length of one trip.
However, we have to compute the figures concerning travelling by bus, coach or rail.
An average person travelled 100 × 62km = 6,200km by bus, coach or rail in 1990 and
90 × 70 km = 6,300 km in 2000.
9. c)
An average person travelled 17,000km (680 × 25) by car in 2000 and
600 × 20km = 12,000km in 1990. So, the difference is 5,000 km.
10. d)
We get the amount of each mineral designated for domestic markets as
extraction-export+import. 40 thousand tonnes (100-80+20) of salt, 25 thousand tonnes
of graphite and 40 thousand tonnes of phosphate were supplied to domestic markets.
Therefore salt and phosphate took up the greatest share on domestic markets.
11. c)
The balance of international trade with these three minerals is calculated as the value of
export minus the value of import. If we calculate with thousands of tonnes we have to
consider the result in thousands of Euros:
80×12+10×120 +20×25 -20×10-15×100 -10×20 =
= (80+100)×12 +20×25 -(20+150)×10 -10×20 =
= 2,160 +500 -1,700 -200 = €760 thousand

28. NUMERICAL REASONING
52 /53
TEST N4 - KEY
12. c)
Assuming that the volume and the average selling price per tonne did not change for
the export of phosphate between 2001 and 2002, it is enough to trace the changes in the
turnover from export.
The value of export of phosphate was €500 thousand (25×20,000) in 2001. It went up to
21 thousand tonnes (20+20/20) in 2001 and the average selling price went down to €20
per tonne (25-5). Therefore the value of export was €420 thousand (21×20) in 2002,
which is 80 thousand fall.
13. d)
Raspberries saw the greatest growth of harvest between 1998 and 1999 (about 140
tonnes). The greatest attainable difference between prognoses of production of the
other berries is 120 tonnes within strawberries (1997-1998), 40 tonnes within blackber-
ries (1997-1999) and 80 tonnes within cranberries (1996-1999).
14. b)
The production of cranberries went down by 50 tonnes and the production of straw-
berries went up by 120 tonnes between 1997 and 1998. Assuming the profit from
cranberries is three times as high as that from strawberries, then the 50 tonnes fall of
cranberries would balance the increase in the production of strawberries by 150 tonnes.
It is clear that the aggregate profit decreased on these two kinds of berries.
15. a)
The biggest harvest for raspberries and blackberries combined was in the year 1999
(380 tonnes). We get this result by comparing the sums of harvest values for these two
berries in the individual years.
16. b)
After adding the values from the relevant lines we get the number 330 tonnes for
blackberries and 990 tonnes for strawberries. Their ratio is 330 : 990 = 1 : 3.
17. d)
It is not necessary to compute the exact amount of Euros which the farmers get, it is enough
to find out in which year was the biggest harvest of raspberries and cranberries, because
this was the year the farmers were given the greatest subsidies. After adding the amount of
harvested raspberries and cranberries in the individual years, we easily calculate that the
greatest harvest of raspberries and cranberries combined was in 1999 (360 tonnes).
18. a)
By subtracting the value of export from import in the column “Country C” we get the
result in million Euros.
68,000-64,000 = €4,000 million
19. a)
Dividing the GDP by the value of “Population” (both in millions) for the individual
countries, we get the GDP per head for 2001. By comparing the results we can see that
the country A had the highest GDP per head (€20,000) in 2001 and the country D had
the second highest GDP (€18,000).
Reducing orders of magnitude: As we are comparing the amounts we can cancel zeros
when working with the numbers. Eg when calculating with GDP values we can cancel
3 zeros for all countries and we can compute only with values 160, 420, ...
20. d)
By subtracting the value of imports from the value of exports we get net export for
each country. By subsequent dividing the result by the relevant value of GDP we get
proportional part of the net export in the total GDP. Having compared the results we
can see that country D is the greatest exporter with more than 2% (= 14 : 5.4), because
countries A and B do not even reach 2% (3 : 1.6 for A and 4 : 2.25 for B) and country
C imports more than it exports.
Reducing orders of magnitude: For computing the proportional part we need to divide
the net export by GDP and we can cancel fractions. Eg we can divide the sums (in
million Euros) in country D as 3,000 : 160,000 but also as 3 : 160. To calculate the
result directly in percentage terms, we can divide the numbers as 3 : 1.6, too. Follow
the similar pattern with the other countries.

29. 54 /55
VERBAL REASONING
V1 - V2 TESTS
There are two tests in this section. They are based on the Verbal Reasoning
part of the EU competition, and there are 25 questions in each. In the EU
competition itself, there are 20 questions.
Each question consists of a paragraph of text followed by four statements
(a, b, c, d) about the text. Only one of these statements is correct. Your task
is to identify this statement. At first glance, more than one of the statements
may appear to be true. Often, there are only subtle differences between
them – the addition or omission of a negative, for example, or the use of an
inappropriate conjunction. Sometimes, information is wrongly interpreted.
Be careful to check every word of the answer and double-check that
it corresponds to the information given in the text. If you are stuck on
a question, it may be helpful to work out the answer by a process of
elimination – if a, c, and d are not possible, the answer must be b.
The subject matter of the texts is various. It ranges from scientific and
historical information to the results of surveys, social and political affairs,
and biographical information about historical and cultural figures.

30. VERBAL REASONING
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TEST V1
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TEST V1
1. Most of us are aware that water is of vital importance to a healthy lifestyle and that
we should drink eight glasses a day. But the kind of water we drink should also be
taken into account. A new study shows that all waters are not the same. Bottled
water labelled Natural Mineral Water is said to be better than others, because by law
it must be safe to drink in its natural state. Furthermore, it has undergone a natural
process of filtration and has a consistent mineral composition.
a) Although most of us know the importance of water in our lives, none of us know
what kind of water we are drinking.
b) One of the advantages of Natural Mineral Water is the process of filtration it goes
through.
c) According to a new study, some kinds of mineral water can be bad for us.
d) By law, all bottled water should be labelled.
2. There have been concerns expressed in EU circles about voter apathy in member
states. It is feared that the decline in turnouts for elections that has been seen in
several countries in recent years could be an irreversible trend. The challenge for
EU leaders is to reawaken their people's interest in politics. Politicians are being
encouraged to become more ‘voter-friendly', to make themselves accessible to the
public through television and the internet.
a) Politicians have decided to appear on television more often to increase their
popularity with the voters.
b) EU leaders are faced with a challenge to get their people interested in politics for
the first time.
c) There is concern about the decreasing number of people who vote in elections in
EU countries.
d) Voter apathy is a problem unique to EU member states.
3. Statistics show there has been a marked drop in rainfall in many parts of Britain in
recent decades compared with the figures for the first two-thirds of the twentieth
century. The change hasn't been in the form of a gradual downward trend, but rather
a step-change appears to have taken place in the 1970s. In the twenty-first century,
July and August in Britain are now drier than they were, March has seen an increase
in rainfall, and there is more sunshine in November and December.
a) November and December in Britain are now warmer than they used to be.
b) The drop in rainfall in Britain has been a step-by-step process over the course of
the last century.
c) There is more sunshine in 21st-century Britain in July and August than there was
previously.
d) The drop in rainfall in parts of Britain has been more dramatic in recent decades
than in much of the twentieth century.
4. The sheer scope of New York's Central Park is what surprises the first-time visitor.
It covers 843 acres in all, and boasts 58 miles of pedestrian paths and 150 acres of
water. The park is now a hugely popular oasis in the middle of a fast-paced city. In
the daytime, thousands use it as a ball field. On summer evenings, concerts - with
music ranging from opera to pop - are given on the lawns. Other cities whose parks
are in need of restoration are looking to Central Park as a model.
a) Thousands of people watch baseball matches during the day in Central Park.
b) Other cities would like to replicate Central Park.
c) The park is popular because the pace of life in New York is so fast.
d) People visiting Central Park for the first time don't expect it to be as big as it is.
5. Every week, one to two child deaths are caused by violence or neglect on the part of
parents or carers in the UK. One child, eight-year-old Johnny, was lucky to escape
from his violent father. His father began smacking him when he was four, thinking
that threatening Johnny was a way of controlling his wife, Johnny's mum. But when
he hit Johnny with a closed fist one day, a crisis point was reached. Johnny's mum
left her husband and took the child with her.
a) One to two deaths of children each week are the result of violence.
b) Johnny's father used to smack him because he couldn't control his wife.
c) Johnny's mother left her husband because he started smacking their son.
d) Johnny escaped his violent father after a domestic problem became a crisis.
6. Hypnosis has long been used as a tool of therapy, but its popularity has been on the
increase in the last twenty years. Part of the reason for this is the increased interest
in alternative therapies in general, but it is also partly because hypnosis can seem
less intimidating than an involved discussion with a counsellor. Although there are
some who still worry that their minds will be changed under hypnosis, hypnothera-
pists insist they are simply helping patients to tap into their unconscious mind.
a) Hypnosis can be seen as a preferable alternative to a discussion with a counsellor.
b) Hypnosis is becoming more popular purely because there is more interest in
alternative therapies.
c) Having a discussion with a counsellor can help people overcome their fears
of hypnosis.
d) Despite the fact that hypnotherapy has been around for a long time, it has only
recently become popular.

31. VERBAL REASONING
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TEST V1
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7. The writer Johann Wolfgang von Goethe (1749 - 1832) took a degree in law and
practised it for a short time as a young man. However, such work always seemed
unlikely to fulfil him, and his preference had long been for expressing himself in
writing. He achieved international fame in the 1770s with his novel ‘The Sorrows of
Young Werther', and went on to write in a wide variety of literary genres and styles,
even producing poetry in his eighties.
a) J. W. von Goethe even wrote poetry in the 1780s.
b) The writer J. W. von Goethe only practised briefly for his legal exams.
c) Goethe didn't confine himself to a single literary style.
d) By the time Goethe became famous, he was in his eighties.
8. According to a member of the UK Association of Doctors in Sport, exercise is the
key to ageing successfully. We begin to lose suppleness in our 20s, but the real
physical decline starts in our 30s, when we lose up to one per cent of our aerobic
capacity each year. Over the next thirty years, we lose about a tenth of our strength,
and our co-ordination decreases too. Exercise, however, can reverse these ageing
trends, strengthen bones, enlarge muscles, and improve heart function.
a) By exercising, we can combat the physical decline that comes with getting
older.
b) Serious physical deterioration starts when we are in our 20s.
c) Without exercise, we all lose one per cent of our aerobic capacity each year when
we are in our 30s.
d) We can lose weight by exercising.
9. When a pupil was expelled from an exclusive boarding school for being drunk, a lot
of people felt the school had acted too strictly. The boy was brought up on a rough
council estate and it was felt he should have been given another chance. The incident
shows up the discrepancy between the standards imposed in boarding schools and
those encouraged in society. Many feel that boarding schools are too old-fashioned
in their expectations and out of step with modern society. Others, however, feel
that the standards still insisted on in boarding schools simply highlight how far that
society has fallen.
a) There is a similarity between the standards imposed in boarding schools and in
society.
b) Some people felt the boy had been punished because he came from a council estate.
c) A lot of people feel that boarding schools are old-fashioned, but other people
think society itself is old-fashioned.
d) Whereas some people feel the expectations of boarding schools are too high for
modern society, others feel that these standards show us the extent of the decline
in society.
10. The philanthropist George Peabody had an up-and-down business career. Having
established an extremely successful business, including the bank that would later
be known as Morgan Greenfell, Peabody almost went broke. He had borrowed
more than he could pay back. But he bounced back from this perilous situation
by focusing on the simple things he knew he could do well, such as investing and
banking. By the time he retired, he had made a fortune.
a) Peabody attributed his success in life to good fortune.
b) Peabody first established a successful business by focusing on investing and
banking.
c) Having almost lost all his money, Peabody recovered by doing what he was good
at and eventually retired a rich man.
d) Peabody went broke because he borrowed too much money.
11. A criticism often aimed at what used to be called the anti-globalisation movement
was that it knew what it didn't want (corporate capitalism), but couldn't seem
to come up with a coherent alternative to it. The leaderless movement attracted
extensive publicity for its protests in Seattle, Prague, and London, but its devotees
could only agree that capitalism should be replaced by something fairer, without
declaring exactly what. Until now, it has not produced an official manifesto,
although attempts have been made to set out some of the group's ideas in print.
a) Supporters of the anti-globalisation movement can't agree on whether capitalism
should be replaced.
b) Although no official manifesto of the movement exists, some of its beliefs have
appeared in published form.
c) The anti-globalisation movement is often criticised for being incoherent.
d) The anti-globalisation movement has only protested in Seattle, Prague, and London.
12. The philosopher Martin Heidegger once claimed that science ‘does not think,'
and this view expresses a prejudice held by many people with a background in
humanities. Science, so these people claim, is about calculation and technical
knowledge rather than insight and understanding. If we want something more than
hard data and facts, if we really want some kind of revelation of our being, we must
look to philosophy and art. Some scientists, however, beg to differ.
a) Heidegger's claim that science ‘does not think' was prejudiced against people
with a background in humanities.
b) People in humanities argue that, rather than being about reflection and
comprehension, science is concerned with facts and figures.
c) In the face of criticisms of science, some scientists are trying hard to be different.
d) Some scientists have begged critics of science to change their opinions.

32. VERBAL REASONING
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TEST V1
/61
13. Most people presume that the chief executive or owner of a company is a man.
Women in these positions are often asked who their boss is - it seems some people
feel more comfortable with the idea of an older man in a smart suit in the role of top
dog. Even when people contemplate the idea of a female chief executive, the image
that comes to mind is of a 50-year-old woman in a ‘power suit.' In reality, though,
some female bosses dress casually for work and do not fit this stereotype.
a) A lot of people expect company bosses to fit a stereotype.
b) People cannot imagine what a female chief executive might look like.
c) The reality is that some female bosses wear different suits to ‘power suits.'
d) Not many women are chief executives or owners of a company.
14. It's not surprising that the Trimmington spa resort has become a favourite
destination for people in need of relaxation. The complex is built from local stone
and timber and combines traditional spa treatments with fitness classes and outdoor
activities like rock-climbing and abseiling. All rooms have a balcony or patio with
breathtaking views of mountain scenery, and there's a quiet restaurant which serves
dishes made from local meat and fish and organic vegetables. All this luxury comes
at a price, though, so be prepared to spend a little extra for your stay.
a) At the Trimmington spa resort you can choose to either have spa treatments and
fitness classes or go rock-climbing and abseiling.
b) The spa is expensive, so not many people go there.
c) The Trimmington spa complex was built entirely from different kinds of local
stone.
d) Whichever room you stay in at the Trimmington spa resort, you have the
opportunity to sit outside.
15. The writer Mary Wesley didn't publish her first novel until she was seventy. The
novel featured several racy storylines which shocked the public at first. Surely
a woman of Wesley's age should be writing about more sedate things? Yet friends
of this ‘little old lady' were not at all surprised at the passion with which she wrote.
When she was in her twenties, her upper-class family forced her to marry an
unsuitable man. Mary later risked it all for love, divorcing the man and running off
with her married lover. This scandal prompted Mary's family to disown her and left
her almost penniless. It changed her life.
a) The public was shocked because Mary Wesley was so old when her first novel
was published.
b) Mary's friends were not surprised that she wrote passionately - they knew she
liked scandal.
c) The public was shocked by Mary Wesley's first novel - but her friends knew
better.
d) After her divorce, Mary Wesley married her lover.
16. According to UN estimates, 1.2 million children are ‘trafficked' every year.
‘Trafficking' is the transportation of children against their will to countries where
they are forced to work for others, often in the sex industry. Many of these children
end up in EU countries. A Unicef campaign called End Child Exploitation is
aiming to raise millions of pounds to fight trafficking and the sexual exploitation
of children. It is also hoping to convince governments to change laws and make
it illegal to traffic children into countries. Poverty is the biggest cause of child
exploitation, and Unicef is working with politicians and communities to provide
children with healthcare and education programmes, to help them achieve their
potential.
a) ‘Trafficking' is a term for the selling of innocent children into the sex
industry.
b) The only reason children are exploited is because of poverty.
c) One of the aims of Unicef's campaign is to effect a change in the legal position
on trafficking.
d) Healthcare and education programmes have been implemented to help children
achieve their potential.
17. Some airlines allow customers to pre-book seats when they buy their tickets, par-
ticularly for long-haul flights. If you have very young children (under two years of
age) or are very tall, you are sometimes allowed to pre-book a ‘bulkhead' seat at
the front of the plane. If you are a vegetarian or have special dietary requirements,
many airlines are prepared to provide you with an appropriate meal, but you should
let them know when you book. Some charter flights offer the option of a low-calo-
rie meal for those who are watching their weight.
a) Suitable meals for people with special dietary needs can be prepared to order
during the flight.
b) It is sometimes possible for seats at the front of the plane to be reserved for very
tall people or those with very young children.
c) You can pre-book seats when you buy your tickets on some airlines, but only for
long-distance flights.
d) People who are concerned about their weight should take charter flights.

33. VERBAL REASONING
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TEST V1
/63
18. The alto saxophonist Johnny Hodges was a difficult man to shock. During one of
his performances, an audience member was stabbed to death in front of the stage.
Hodges didn't miss a beat. Perhaps the only time he was taken aback was when
a journalist asked him if he had ever played a wrong note. ‘Why on earth should
I?' Hodges replied. For much of his career, he was a member of Duke Ellington's
orchestra, although he also made a number of small group recordings.
a) Hodges was not even distracted from his playing when someone from the
audience was murdered in front of him during a performance.
b) Hodges made some recordings in small groups with Duke Ellington.
c) Hodges was angry when a journalist asked him why he had played a wrong
note.
d) Johnny Hodges was an unshockable saxophone player.
19. It was the most anticipated liberation of a political prisoner since Nelson Mandela
was freed. One May day in 2002, it happened at last. 56-year-old Aung San Suu
Kyi walked out of a villa in Rangoon, the capital of Burma, and was greeted by
cheering crowds. She had been under house arrest almost continually for longer
than a decade, and her release gave hope to thousands of pro-democracy supporters
in the country and beyond.
a) The last time the release of a political prisoner was so much anticipated was
when Nelson Mandela was let out of prison.
b) Aung San Suu Kyi spent ten years under house arrest.
c) When Aung San Suu Kyi was under house arrest, she gave hope to a lot of people
who support democracy.
d) Nelson Mandela greeted Aung San Suu Kyi on her release from house arrest.
20. In the past, children were taught to address their parents and other adults with the
utmost respect. These days, although respect is still considered important, children
are frequently encouraged to see adults not as ‘superiors' but as friends. Research
in the UK shows that the terms ‘uncle' and ‘aunt' are becoming less and less used.
Nephews and nieces instead use first names to address these relatives. The modern
extended family could be one reason for the new informality. A parent or relative's
‘partner' may be part of that family, and this partner is an adult the child has no
direct family connection to. If grandpa's live-in girlfriend is known to them as
Maggie, why shouldn't other grown-ups be called by their first names?
a) Some children don't use the terms ‘uncle' and ‘aunt' because they don't respect
their relatives.
b) One reason why children are less formal with their elders is that they don't know
some of the members of their extended family.
c) If there is a ‘partner' in the family, the child has to be more respectful.
d) If a child calls a family member's partner by a first name, it seems reasonable that
other adults should be called by their first names.
21. The history of cannabis is similar to the substance itself. Both can either be illumi-
nating or simply confusing. The history presents us with a number of contradictions:
today, when cannabis is still illegal in many places, it is used in great numbers. And
yet, when the drug was legally available in Europe and America in the 19th-century,
it was only used by a small ‘elite.' Sometimes the history can give us an insight
into modern arguments over the drug. Contemporary campaigners for the legalisa-
tion of cannabis point to its medicinal properties; in Victorian times, cannabis was
much-used as a patent medicine.
a) Cannabis is widely used at the present time because it is illegal in a lot of
places.
b) Cannabis was made illegal in Europe and America in the 19th-century.
c) The history of cannabis can help us understand present-day debates about it.
d) The history of cannabis tells us facts which are impossible to understand.
22. Teaching unions claim that verbal and physical abuse by parents towards pupils,
teachers and other parents is a growing problem. Not long ago, a father lost his
temper while watching a school play. He got up from his seat and started shouting
at the child ‘actors,' complaining that his son hadn't been given a big enough part.
Such behaviour is perhaps more commonplace at school sports events, where
fathers have been heard urging their boys to ‘break the legs' of an opponent, or
abusing a child for not making the grade at the athletics day. A teaching union
spokeswoman says that the ‘me' culture of the '80s and '90s was to blame. ‘People
are more selfish these days,' she says.
a) According to a teaching union spokeswoman, the problem of abusive parents has
its roots in the recent past.
b) A father recently got angry with children in a school play because his son hadn't
been chosen to act in it.
c) Parents do not often become abusive towards children at school sporting events.
d) At sports events in schools, some fathers have promised their boys that they will
break the legs of an opposition player.

34. VERBAL REASONING
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TEST V1
/65
23. The significance of the poet Pushkin to Russian culture cannot be overstated.
Many Russians, whether cultured or not, can quote entire sections from his poems.
His work greatly influenced the development of Russian literature in terms of
themes and methods of expression. He is even given credit for creating the language
of modern Russian literature. This claim may be exaggerated, but it shows how
much Pushkin has been mythologised in Russia, to the point at which he has the
status of a demi-god.
a) Pushkin's importance to culture in Russia is often exaggerated.
b) Pushkin's work had an impact on the subject matter and style of Russian
literature.
c) Only Russians with a knowledge of culture know parts of Pushkin's poems by
heart.
d) Pushkin has become a mythological figure because he invented modern Russian
literary language.
24. After finishing their studies, most students would be glad to have a holiday.
However, the increasingly tough competition for graduate jobs means that some
job searches have to start almost as soon as studies finish. Ruth Grundle is a trainee
teacher from Manchester in England. ‘When my course finishes,' she says, ‘there
will be fifty people in my year looking for jobs in schools in this area.'The pressure
to find work is increased by the fact that government subsidies paid to students
during their studies are stopped the moment they finish.
a) Students are glad that, after finishing their studies, they can have a holiday.
b) Students are under pressure to find a job immediately after they finish studying
because a lot of students are competing for similar jobs.
c) Government funding for students make it easier for them to find work.
d) Students like Ruth Grundle don't have enough money to have a holiday when
they finish studying.
25. It is estimated that as much as a half of all car crashes are caused by distracted
drivers. Drivers who try to do something else besides steering the car - such as
sending messages on a mobile phone, eating, or applying make-up - are being
targeted in a new safety warning. An insurance company survey has found that
almost a third of drivers talk on hand-held mobile phones while driving; one in ten
sends text messages; one in five reads at the wheel and one in twenty writes at the
wheel. More disturbingly, almost 40 per cent of drivers admit to ‘multi-tasking'
(doing several things at once) on main roads. 24 per cent do so on motorways.
a) Drivers who ‘multi-task' and are not giving their full attention to the road are
responsible for up to fifty per cent of car accidents.
b) According to a survey by an insurance company, more drivers send text messages
while driving than talk on hand-held phones.
c) Only 24 percent of drivers say they don't multi-task on motorways.
d) A new safety measure wants to ban multi-tasking drivers from driving.

35. VERBAL REASONING
66 /67
TEST V1 - KEY
Test V1 - ANSWER KEY:
1.
a) It is likely that some of us know the kind of water we're drinking, so none is too
strong here.
b) CORRECT.
c) The study only says that all waters are not the same - so some may be better for us
than others, but it does not say that any are actually bad for us.
d) The law is only mentioned in connection with Natural Mineral Water which, because
of its name, must legally be drunk in its natural state.
2.
a) The passive form (are being encouraged) tells us that other people - perhaps
advisors - are encouraging the politicians. The text does not say that the politicians
have made a decision about this themselves.
b) The text says re-awaken interest, implying there was interest in the past.
c) CORRECT.
d) There is concern about this problem is EU member states, but the text does not say
this is the only place suffering from the problem, as the word unique implies.
3.
a) The text says there is more sunshine in these months - that doesn't necessarily mean
it will be warmer.
b) A dramatic change (step-change) happened in the 1970s. Step-by-step implies the
change was gradual during the century.
c) The text says these months will be drier - not necessarily sunnier.
d) CORRECT.
4.
a) Thousands use it as a ball field - the implication is that people play ball games (not
necessarily baseball) in the park
b) To replicate the park would be to make an exactly identical park, which would be
impossible.
c) Although the text says the pace of life is fast, and contrasts it with the oasis of the
park, it doesn't give the pace of life as the reason for the park's popularity. There
could be various reasons for its popularity.
d) CORRECT.
5.
a) Not only violence, but also neglect are given as causes.
b) The violence against Johnny was one way of controlling his wife. It is not implied
that it was the only way, or that he couldn't control her without it.
c) No - she only left him when he progressed from smacking to hitting with a closed
fist.
d) CORRECT.
6.
a) CORRECT.
b) The text says that interest in alternative therapies is part of the reason for the
increased popularity of hypnotherapy. Purely implies it is the only reason.
c) The text only uses the counsellor as a means of comparing two different forms
of therapy.
d) The text says that its popularity has increased, which implies that it was popular in
the past, and is more popular now.
7.
a) The text says Goethe produced poetry in his eighties. This means between the ages
of 80 and 90.
b) to practise law means to work as a lawyer - not to study for exams.
c) CORRECT.
d) The text says he became famous in the 1770s and was born in 1749 - so he was in
his twenties.
8.
a) CORRECT.
b) The text says the real (i.e. serious) decline starts in our 30s.
c) The text says we lose up to one per cent, which implies that some people lose less
than one per cent, and that one per cent is the maximum lost.
d) Although this statement may be generally true, it is not put forward in the text, in
which bone strength, muscle size and heart function are said to benefit from exercise.
9.
a) The text says there is a discrepancy (i.e. a difference) between these standards.
b) The text says that people felt that he should have been given another chance because
of his background - not that he was punished because of it.
c) Other people do not think that society is old-fashioned. They believe in the standards
expected in boarding schools and feel that society has fallen short of those standards.
d) CORRECT.

36. VERBAL REASONING
68 /69
TEST V1 - KEY
10.
a) In the text, fortune is used to mean a great amount of money - not luck, which good
fortune implies.
b) Peabody had already established a successful business when he almost went broke
because of over-borrowing. He later focused on investment and banking to recover
from his financial difficulties.
c) CORRECT.
d) He didn't actually go broke. The text says he almost went broke.
11.
a) They only disagree on what should replace capitalism.
b) CORRECT.
c) The criticism is that they offer no coherent alternative - not that they are incoherent
in general.
d) The text does not state this. It simply highlights three protests that were
well-publicised.
12.
a) Heidegger's view expressed the prejudice of these people - it was the same as their
view.
b) CORRECT.
c) The expression beg to differ means that the scientists express a different point of
view to those who criticise science.
d) See (c).
13.
a) CORRECT.
b) People do imagine what she might look like, but in a limited way - most of them
imagine a 50-year-old woman in a ‘power suit.'
c) The text says that they dress casually - this implies not in a suit.
d) The text says nothing about the amount of women in these positions.
14.
a) It is not an either/or choice. The text says the spa combines spa treatments with
outdoor activities and exercise, so you can do all of them.
b) The spa is expensive (all this luxury comes at a price), but it is a favourite destination
and so is popular.
c) It was built from local stone and timber (wood).
d) CORRECT.
15.
a) They were not shocked that she had published a novel at 70, but they were shocked
by the content (the storylines) of the novel.
b) Her actions earlier in her life (divorcing her husband and running off with a married
lover) were scandalous, but the text does not suggest that Mary Wesley liked
scandal.
c) CORRECT.
d) The text doesn't tell us this. It says that her lover was married (to someone else).
16.
a) ‘Trafficking'describes the transportation of these children. They are often forced to
work in the sex industry after being trafficked to another country.
b) It is the biggest cause (i.e. there are others), so not the only one.
c) CORRECT.
d) have been implemented suggests the programmes are already in place. But the
text says Unicef is working on the programmes, i.e. work on the programmes is in
progress.
17.
a) The text says you should request such meals when you book.
b) CORRECT.
c) The text says these seats can be booked particularly for long-haul flights, not only
for these flights.
d) This statement is too strong. These flights provide low-calorie meals, but this is not
reason enough to say these people should take these flights.
18.
a) CORRECT.
b) He played with Duke Ellington's Orchestra and also made small group recordings
(the implication is, without Ellington).
c) The journalist asked Hodges if he had ever played a wrong note.
d) Difficult to shock doesn't mean impossible to shock (or unshockable).

37. VERBAL REASONING
70 /71
TEST V1 - KEY
19.
a) CORRECT.
b) The text says longer than a decade.
c) The text says it was her release from prison that gave them hope - not her
imprisonment itself.
d) The text says cheering crowds greeted her.
20.
a) Respect is still considered important. They use first names because they see these
adults as friends, not superiors.
b) Children may have no direct (i.e. family) connection with ‘partners,'but that doesn't
mean that they don't know them.
c) The presence of a ‘partner' in the family actually encourages greater informality,
because he/she is known to the child by a first name.
d) CORRECT.
21.
a) The illegality is not the reason why it is used. The implication is that it is widely
used despite its illegality.
b) The drug was legally available (could be legally bought and used) at this time.
c) CORRECT.
d) It gives us contradictions (seemingly opposing facts), but the text does not say these
are impossible to understand - although they may be confusing.
22.
a) CORRECT.
b) He complained that his son hadn't been given a big enough part - so the son was
taking part in the play, but in a small role.
c) Abuse at sporting events is more commonplace than at school plays, i.e. it happens
more often, is more usual.
d) The text says they have urged their boys to break an opponent's leg - in other words,
they have strongly suggested that the boys should do this; the fathers haven't offered
to do it themselves.
23.
a) His significance to Russian culture cannot be overstated, i.e. it is impossible to
exaggerate when talking about this significance. Later in the text, a specific claim is
described as being possibly exaggerated, but this specific claim (about language) is
not connected to the idea of Pushkin's general significance, which is beyond doubt.
b) CORRECT.
c) The text says this is true of Russians whether cultured or not - so for both cultured
and uncultured Russians.
d) The other way around - because of his mythological status, people make the
exaggerated claim that Pushkin invented modern Russian literary language.
24.
a) The text says that students would be glad if this were true, but it isn't, because most
of them have to start looking for a job almost as soon as studies finish.
b) CORRECT.
c) It increases the pressure on students to find work - they have to find jobs quickly.
It doesn't make finding a job any easier, though.
d) Government funding (subsidies) stops at the end of the course, but the text does not
say that this means they don't have enough money to have a holiday or some time
off. Tough competition for jobs is given as the reason why some students don't have
a holiday after finishing their studies.
25.
a) CORRECT.
b) The text says almost a third (about 33 per cent) talk on these phones, but one in ten
(or 10 per cent) send text messages.
c) The text says 24 per cent do so (which refers back to multi-tasking in the previous
sentence), so 24 per cent multi-task on motorways. This means about 76 per cent say
they don't.
d) These drivers are only targeted by the warning. In other words, it is a warning aimed
at them - not as strong as a ban.

38. VERBAL REASONING
72
TEST V2
/73
TEST V2
1. In a survey of reading habits, it was revealed that the most popular author among
women between the ages of 20 and 40 is a man. This will come as a surprise to those
who assumed that younger women were only interested in so-called ‘chick lit'- books
written by women about the private lives of career girls living in the city. The results
of the survey, however, show that women are interested in an extremely broad range
of genres. Not a single ‘chick lit' writer was among the 25 most popular.
a) A survey shows that women have broader tastes in books than some people had
thought.
b) The results of a survey of reading habits were surprising to all.
c) Despite the fact that young women are only interested in ‘chick lit,' no ‘chick lit'
writer was in the top 25.
d) Most women between 20 and 40 read only male authors.
2. It is not surprising that many people see California as an attractive place to live.
It offers not only great natural beauty, but also significant opportunities to make
money. But is California safe? The Los Angeles Basin and the San Francisco Bay
Area are now so heavily-populated that they are the second and fourth largest urban
areas in the United States. They are also in an area at high risk from earthquakes.
In fact, some geologists think it could be just a matter of time before a really serious
quake. Many Californians don't seem overly bothered by the threat.
a) People who live in California make lots of money.
b) Although it lies in an area at risk from earthquakes, California is essentially
a safe place to live.
c) Some geologists believe a really serious earthquake would last a long time.
d) Not many Californians seem concerned about the possibility of earthquakes in
the area.
3. Scientific advisors to the European Union say that the survival of the cod fish is
under threat in the North Sea. They say that last year's levels of cod stock (between
33,000 and 38,000) could drop to 28,000 next year if steps are not taken to stop
illegal fishing. Some scientists are recommending a total ban on cod fishing in the
area. Others have expressed concerns that an agreement stating that vessels should
stop fishing for several days a month is not working.
a) One reason for the threat to cod fish is the drop in cod stocks.
b) It is illegal to fish for cod in the North Sea area.
c) Some scientists are worried about the fact that vessels are not stopping fishing at
certain times each month.
d) Scientific advisors to the EU say that cod stocks could drop by half next year if
illegal fishing is not stopped.
4. James Tilly Matthews was the first man ever to be diagnosed with schizophrenia.
In 1797, he was sent to the only hospital for the insane in England. He spent the
rest of his life in this hospital, which was called Bedlam, in a cell without windows
or heating and with minimal sanitation. His wife was not allowed to visit him and
he spent a great amount of time in handcuffs, chained to his bed. At the time, these
were considered normal conditions for Bedlam patients, and those who failed to
recover from their madness were usually judged incurable and discharged.
a) The conditions suffered by James Tilly Matthews were standard for patients at
Bedlam at that time.
b) James Tilly Matthews' wife couldn't see him because he was chained to his bed.
c) If a Bedlam patient didn't recover from his madness, he was never released from
the hospital.
d) There were no windows in Bedlam hospital.
5. Most people accept that university can be difficult, but few would think of the
holidays as contributing to that difficulty. But holidays can be a miserable time for
students. Some students leave work uncompleted during term-time because they
think they can leave it for the lecture-free weeks. This can result in a build-up of
work and stress that can fill the holiday period and leave the student longing for
more relaxing ways of spending the ‘time off.'
a) Some students choose to complete their work at a time in the term when there are
no lectures.
b) The idea that the holidays could be a difficult time for students doesn't occur to
many people.
c) Sometimes students leave their work uncompleted during the holidays so they
can do more relaxing things in this period.
d) Everybody knows that university is a difficult time.
6. The famous water taxis of Venice, which are also famously expensive, will soon be
affordable to ordinary Venetians as well as wealthy tourists. The city council has
agreed that the taxis will be required to install meters with tariffs that will run up
according to the length of each ride. It has also ordered the police to be vigilant in
enforcing the new law.
a) Venice taxis will soon be affordable to ordinary Venetians rather than wealthy
tourists.
b) Under the new law, the cost of a ride on a water taxi in Venice will depend on
how long the ride is.
c) The police have been ordered to set the price of Venice water taxis.
d) The cost of Venice water taxis is what makes them famous.

39. VERBAL REASONING
74
TEST V2
/75
7. Vanessa Birrell had ambitions to be an entrepreneur but lacked a good idea to
pursue. When she went to a party in Rajasthan, she found it: the guests at this
desert party slept in tents made from brightly-coloured cotton. She thought
about her young nephew and niece and how much they would love such a tent as
a playhouse. A business plan soon grew out of this inspiration, and since then the
tents have been a great success.
a) When Vanessa Birrell was at a party in Rajasthan she thought about how much
her nephew and niece would have enjoyed the party.
b) Vanessa Birrell went to a party in Rajasthan because she couldn't think of
a business idea to follow.
c) Vanessa Birrell was an ambitious entrepreneur when she went to a party in
Rajasthan.
d) A party in Rajasthan gave Vanessa Birrell an idea which she used to start
a successful business.
8. The philosopher Bernard Williams was recognised for his brilliance and creative
power even during the early part of his career. It was his elegant prose-style,
as well as his quick mind, that helped him transcend the philosophical debates
of the time and reveal entirely new ways of looking at problems. These fresh
perspectives were often followed-up by other scholars, who would use them as
a starting point for extensive research. A period teaching at University College
in London (1959-1964) was followed by a stint as Professor of Philosophy at
Cambridge.
a) Bernard Williams' writing style was one of the things that enabled him to deal
with philosophical problems in fresh ways.
b) Other scholars later had the same ideas as Bernard Williams.
c) Even when he was a young boy, Bernard Williams was recognised for his
abilities.
d) Bernard Williams taught at University College in London after being Professor
of Philosophy at Cambridge.
9. Why be rich if being rich just leads to worries about how to manage your money?
There are a lot more entertaining ways to spend your time than analysing your
assets, and that's why a wealth management service could be worth considering.
They invest your money for you, in the way that best suits your requirements.
But while you can rest easy in the knowledge that your money is in safe and
knowledgeable hands, you will have to part with a fair amount of that money to
pay for the service.
a) A wealth management service is available at a fair price.
b) Being rich makes you worry about money.
c) A wealth management service enables you to relax because you know that your
money is being wisely invested.
d) A wealth management service may seem like a good idea, but it is really a waste
of money.
10. St. Petersburg's Hermitage Museum is known throughout the world for its
magnificent collection of painting and sculpture. It is home to a vast number of
works of art - it is said that if a visitor to the museum spent ten seconds in front of
every work in the rooms and vaults, he could be there for as long as eleven years.
Some things at the Hermitage are not perhaps as well-known as they should be.
A good example of this is the collection of about 40,000 photographs of Russia
from the 1840s to the 1920s.
a) The collection of the Hermitage Museum in St. Petersburg is so big that it could
take years to see all of it.
b) The collection of photographs of Russia from the 1840s to the 1920s is a good
example of the Hermitage's well-known collection.
c) The Hermitage collection includes a very valuable set of photographs of Russia
from the 1840s to the 1920s.
d) The Hermitage Museum is well-known throughout the world because visitors
take so long to look at its collection.
11. Gasoline-electric cars have not proved popular up to now, but in Japan there are
high hopes that they will eventually overtake the less environmentally-friendly,
petrol-consuming cars that most people drive now. These gasoline-electric cars,
known as ‘hybrid cars,' emit up to forty per cent less carbon dioxide than the
average internal-combustion engine. They are being touted as the cars of the
future, but it remains to be seen whether drivers will use them in significant
numbers.
a) Drivers think gasoline-electric cars are the best cars for the future.
b) Gasoline-electric cars are fast enough to overtake petrol-consuming cars.
c) The fact that ‘hybrid' cars are better for the environment than petrol-consuming
cars is one reason for their popularity.
d) In Japan it is hoped that ‘hybrid'cars will become more popular, but whether this
will happen remains uncertain.

40. VERBAL REASONING
76
TEST V2
/77
12. To those who are cynical about the output of Hollywood, it seems the town only
really functions at three points in the year. The Christmas season, when the studios
rush their prestige films into the cinemas so that they qualify for the Oscars; the
awards season itself, full of egotism and self-congratulation; and the summer, when
the big blockbusters come out. Summer is the most profitable season for Hollywood,
and the blockbusters (or ‘popcorn films') usually share particular characteristics:
they are aimed at teenagers and children, big on action and special effects, upbeat,
and deal with simple themes.
a) Christmas is the awards season on Hollywood.
b) Blockbuster films usually feature up-tempo music.
c) Cynical people think that Hollywood studios get awards for egotism.
d) ‘Popcorn films' are responsible for Hollywood's biggest profits of the year.
13. The housing market is unpredictable, so the way a property is presented can be just
as important as its location. In general, a well-presented property has more chance
of attracting a buyer than a shabby one. Some buyers want a property that is ready to
move into, rather than one which will need time and expense spent on it. However,
this is only a general rule, and there are exceptions. Much depends on the type of
buyer most active in your area. It pays to do some research into this before putting
your property on the market.
a) A property that can be moved into immediately is always preferred to one that
needs money spent on it.
b) If a property looks untidy, it is generally less likely to find a buyer.
c) You should pay for research to be done into the buyers active in your area before
you put your property up for sale.
d) Where a property is situated is more important than how it looks.
14.The Smithsonian Institute in America is hoping to dispel some myths about the
Wright brothers 100 years after their flight in a homemade aircraft started the
aviation age. The popular belief is that Orville and Wilbur Wright were just a pair
of bicycle mechanics whose achievements owed much to good luck. The Insti-
tute now says they were excellent engineers who were not just curious about
the possibilities of flight, but determined to make the notion of man in flight
a reality.
a) The Smithsonian Institute wants to promote some stories about the Wright
Brothers.
b) A combination of engineering skills, determination and luck contributed to the
Wright Brothers' achievements.
c) While people think of the Wright Brothers as mechanics who got lucky, the
Smithsonian Institute paints a very different picture.
d) 100 years after the Wright Brothers flew in a home-made aircraft, some myths
about them have appeared.
15. One of the first things that attracts people to photography is the actual equipment
used. There is an appeal in pressing buttons and clicking things into place. Cameras
can also be fun to collect. Another thing that draws people to photography is the
process of it - the care that must be taken, the control over the machinery necessary,
the reward of a final object you produced yourself. This process enables the pho-
tographer to ‘capture time,' and the camera can be called a kind of time machine,
which can freeze people, places and situations. It seems to give a certain power to
the user.
a) The manual, mechanical aspect of photography is one reason why people take
it up.
b) A person becomes more powerful when using a camera.
c) Timing is one of the most important aspects of photography.
d) People find the equipment the most attractive thing about photography.
16. Museums, national parks and churches all use collection boxes to solicit donations
from the public. They have recently been joined by the Golden Gate Bridge,
seemingly sufficiently cash-strapped to have to approach the public with a begging
bowl. The prototype cash box appeared two weeks ago on the south-east side of the
span. There will be a brief test period, and then more boxes are expected to appear
in the summer. But some locals are not sure just why the bridge suddenly seems so
desperate for help.
a) The Golden Gate Bridge now has the same status as museums, national parks and
churches.
b) Local people don't think the bridge needs the money.
c) If the first cash box on the Golden Gate Bridge has a successful trial period,
further boxes will probably be added.
d) The public will be asked to put money into a bowl to help the Golden Gate
Bridge.

41. VERBAL REASONING
78
TEST V2
/79
17. These days, the conductor Andre Previn looks frail when he takes to the stage. He
shuffles onto the podium, appearing hunched and diminutive, a man who looks his
age. It is hard to reconcile this image with the energetic music director we remember
from the 1970s. It could almost be a different man. That is, until he picks up his
baton. His rapport with the players in the orchestra is so strong that all he has to do
is raise a finger to coax from them a remarkably rich sound.
a) Although he is older now, when Andre Previn starts conducting he is as energetic
as he was in the 1970s.
b) Andre Previn's command of an orchestra contrasts sharply with the image he
projects when he comes on stage.
c) It is sad to see how much Andre Previn has aged since the 1970s.
d) It is shocking that Andre Previn looks so old when he comes on stage.
18. Airline crews could soon be informed as to whether a passenger is a potential
terrorist, afraid of flying, or in danger of developing blood clots. Where will they get
this information? From ‘intelligent seats.' A company has been working on airline
seats which have sensors that assess a passenger's behaviour and send signals to
a central computer. The designers believe these seats could provide a means of
identifying dangerous situations more quickly than at present, and giving the crew
more time to react to them.
a) ‘Intelligent seats'can respond to the way a passenger behaves and send messages
directly to the air stewards.
b) According to designers of ‘intelligent seats,' the seats could help crew members
minimise potential in-flight dangers.
c) The sensors on ‘intelligent seats' can affect the way a passenger behaves.
d) ‘Intelligent seats' could make people less afraid of flying.
19. The writer Marcel Proust was born in Auteil in 1871. When he was in his twenties,
he was a regular visitor to the most fashionable salons in Paris, and he became
a well-known society figure. A combination of the death of his parents, the chronic
asthma he suffered, and his disillusionment with humanity caused him to retire from
society and lead a more secluded life. He slept during the day and wrote at night.
His great work was ‘In Search of Lost Time,' although he died before the last three
volumes of it were published.
a) After being very sociable when he was young, Marcel Proust later became
comparatively reclusive.
b) After working in society as a young man, Marcel Proust retired and lived a quiet
life.
c) When Marcel Proust died, his great work remained unpublished.
d) After the death of his parents, Marcel Proust became a chronic asthmatic.
20. It wasn't so long ago that gardeners regarded wild flowers as weeds. There has been
a change in attitudes, however, and some now actually encourage them to grow
in their gardens. Wild flowers add a relaxed touch, a spontaneity, which is almost
impossible to achieve by deliberate planning. The main danger, though, is that they
have a tendency to overrun gardens - particularly country gardens - so they need to
be regularly managed to ensure they stay within bounds. If wild flowers don't grow
by themselves, it is possible to grow them from seed or buy them like other garden
plants.
a) Gardeners think of wild flowers as weeds, but they have recently accepted the
fact that they grow in their gardens.
b) Wild flowers should be tied up to make sure they don't take over the garden.
c) Wild flowers can make gardeners more relaxed and spontaneous.
d) If wild flowers are not carefully attended to, there is a risk of them taking over
the garden.
21. According to a recently published book, more than 60 per cent of Americans are
clinically overweight. So you wouldn't think that, in the land of the heavyweight
portion, it is proving hard to find a new generation of heavyweight boxers. But
that's the situation in US boxing today, according to one top trainer. The teenage
giants of American cities no longer want to fight their way out of poverty in the
ring. Attracted by higher salaries and lower risks, these young men are turning to
American football, basketball and baseball as preferable routes to wealth.
a) Among big American teenagers, boxing is a popular way out of poverty.
b) Sports like American football, basketball and baseball offer a safer, more
lucrative way out of poverty to young Americans.
c) It is difficult to find young heavyweight boxers in America because many
of them are overweight.
d) Young Americans do not regard boxing as a way to get rich.

42. VERBAL REASONING
80
TEST V2
/81
22. A leading film producer claims that making films for children simply isn't worth
it, since there are not enough kids to fill cinemas. He claims that the safest market
for films is the middle-aged group. The over-40s cinema audience is growing faster
than any other, and statistics show that 45 per cent of people who go to the cinema
more often than once a month are in this age group. But many people still feel that
films made for teenagers are the most lucrative, especially because of the merchan-
dising that often goes with them.
a) In the view of a leading film producer, targeting films at people over 40 makes
the best financial sense.
b) A leading film producer thinks that there is no point making films for children
because they don't go to the cinema more than once a month.
c) Child audiences for films are not growing, but the middle-aged cinema audience
is.
d) The merchandising that accompanies films aimed at teenagers makes these films
easier to watch.
23. Neighbourhoods in Britain are changing. In the past, you could ask the friendly
people down the road to water your plants when you went on holiday. These
days, you may not know your neighbours at all. Some people now pay ‘lifestyle
management' companies to help them run their households - and that could mean
anything from feeding pets to keeping an eye on the builders when the house's
occupant is at work. Longer working hours and an increase in the number of
one-person households have made it difficult for working people to look after things
at home, and some are willing to pay these companies good money for doing the
simplest domestic chores.
a) Nowadays, if you want someone to water your plants when you go on holiday,
you have to pay a ‘lifestyle management' company.
b) Some people are prepared to pay ‘lifestyle management' companies money to
help them with household tasks they don't have time for.
c) People are willing to pay ‘lifestyle management' companies to help them with
the housework because they are too lazy to do it themselves.
d) In the past, friendly neighbours would have watered your plants when you went
on holiday. Now, they would refuse to do so.
24. The methods of American theologian Jonathan Edwards (1703-58) might seem
shocking today, but they were not considered controversial when he was working in
New England. He once took a group of children to the scene of a house fire which
had killed two young girls. Why? To make them aware that divine judgement was
near. He also told his daughter (who was 12 at the time) she was so delicate that
she would probably die sooner than the rest of the family. But some things proved
too much even for his contemporaries: when he was a pastor in Northampton,
Massachusetts, he was forced out of town because people grew tired of his frenzied
sermonising.
a) Jonathan Edwards took some children to see where a house fire had happened
because he wanted to punish them.
b) When he worked in New England, the methods Jonathan Edwards used were
thought to be dangerous.
c) Although Jonathan Edwards' contemporaries were not shocked by his methods,
even they could only tolerate him up to a point.
d) When Jonathan Edwards' daughter was 12, he predicted the exact date of her
death.
25. A 102-year-old woman was recently forced to leave the care home where she had
spent the last ten years of her life. The local council had been paying Winnifred
Humphrey's fees at the home, but the owners decided she had to leave to make
space for more profitable, private residents. Two elderly women protested as Mrs
Humphrey was evicted. Her son, who is 68, said that the move from the home could
kill his mother. He believes the people responsible for the decision will come to
regret it.
a) Winnifred Humphrey's son thinks that the people who decided to evict his
mother from the care home will eventually change their minds.
b) The owners of the care home wanted Winnifred Humphrey to leave because they
wanted to convert the home into private flats.
c) Winnifred Humphrey protested the decision with two other elderly women.
d) The owners of the care home decided to evict Winnifred Humphrey for financial
reasons.

43. VERBAL REASONING
82 /83
TEST V2 - KEY
Test V2 - ANSWER KEY:
1.
a) CORRECT.
b) The text says the results will surprise those who assumed women were only
interested in ‘chick lit,' i.e. a specific group of people, not everybody.
c) The survey proves that young women are not only interested in ‘chick lit,' but are
interested in a broad range of genres.
d) The text only says the most popular author for these women is a man - not that these
women don't read any female authors.
2.
a) The text says there are opportunities to make money in California. It is not stated
whether people in California generally do make a lot of money.
b) Geologists think a really serious quake is just a matter of time. So California is not
a safe place to be!
c) The expression just a matter of time before... means that a big quake is inevitable. It
does not relate to the duration of the quake itself.
d) CORRECT.
3.
a) The drop in cod stocks is proof of the threat, not a reason for it.
b) Some fishing is illegal but not all. That's why scientists are recommending a total
ban on cod fishing in the area.
c) CORRECT.
d) The drop would be from 33-38,000 to 28,000. This does not amount to half.
4.
a) CORRECT.
b) James Tilly Matthews being chained to his bed was not the reason his wife couldn't
see him. It, and the fact that his wife wasn't allowed to see him are 2 separate
examples of the conditions he suffered.
c) The text says such patients were discharged, i.e. allowed to leave or told to leave the
hospital.
d) There may have been windows in the hospital. The text only says there were no
windows in Matthews' cell.
5.
a) The text says their work is uncompleted in term-time. The phrase lecture-free weeks
refers to the holidays.
b) CORRECT.
c) The text says they leave work uncompleted in term-time. In the holidays, they long
for more relaxation (i.e. they want it but they don't have it).
d) The text says that most people accept this - not everybody.
6.
a) The water taxis will be affordable to both groups.
b) CORRECT.
c) The prices will be set on tariffs agreed by the council. The police have been ordered
to be vigilant, or watchful, to make sure the taxis use these tariffs (to enforce the new
law).
d) The text implies that the taxis are generally famous, but also famous for being
expensive.
7.
a) She thought they would enjoy having similar tents as playhouses - not that they
would enjoy the party itself.
b) She didn't have an idea for a business and she went to the party. The two things are
independent of each other.
c) The text says she had ambitions to be an entrepreneur - she wasn't an entrepreneur
at the time. Ambitious entrepreneur suggests she already was one.
d) CORRECT.
8.
a) CORRECT.
b) The other scholars did research based on his ideas - they followed up his
perspectives.
c) His brilliance was recognised even during the early part of his career. The word
career here implies he was a young adult, not a child.
d) His time at University College London was followed by his time at Cambridge, i.e.
he was at Cambridge after University College London.

44. VERBAL REASONING
84 /85
TEST V2 - KEY
9.
a) The phrase a fair amount of money in this context implies quite a lot of money, an
implication reinforced by the expression you will have to part with... that comes
before it.
b) The use of the conditional if implies that worrying about money is one possible
consequence of being rich. If the question was ‘Why be rich when being rich leads
to worries..,' answer (b) would be correct.
c) CORRECT.
d) The text implies that the service is quite expensive, but that it is still worth considering.
10.
a) CORRECT.
b) The collection of photographs is mentioned as an example of something not as
well-known as it should be.
c) The value of the photographs is not mentioned in the text.
d) The mention of the visitor taking up to 11 hours to see the collection is purely
hypothetical.
11.
a) The text says it remains to be seen (i.e. it is uncertain) whether the cars will be used
by drivers who now use petrol cars, so it is unlikely that drivers have this opinion.
b) Overtaken is used in the text in terms of the popularity of the cars - i.e. it is hoped
they will become more popular than petrol-consuming cars.
c) ‘Hybrid' cars are more environmentally-friendly, but have not proved popular up to now.
d) CORRECT.
12.
a) The awards season and the Christmas season are mentioned as two separate points
in the year.
b) Upbeat films are films with a positive feel/message.
c) There is egotism to be found during the awards season, but the text doesn't say the
awards are given for egotism!
d) CORRECT.
13.
a) The text only says that some buyers prefer these properties - not all, so not always.
b) CORRECT.
c) The phrase it pays to do some research means it is a worthwhile thing to do - it
doesn't necessarily refer to spending money.
d) Location and presentation are just as important as each other.
14.
a) They want to dispel the myths, i.e. prove them wrong, get rid of them.
b) This sentence mixes two opposing point of view which shouldn't be combined:
the Smithsonian Institute thinks the Wright brothers were skilled and determined
engineers; the public that they were lucky.
c) CORRECT.
d) The word myth implies a story that has been in existence for a long time. 100 years
after the flight, the Smithsonian Institute now wants to dispel these myths (see note
for (a) ).
15.
a) CORRECT.
b) This isn't an accurate statement, because the text says the camera only seems to give
power to the user.
c) The references to time in the text are to the camera's ability to capture, or record,
moments in time. Timing suggests a mechanical skill on the part of the photographer.
d) The equipment is described as one of the...things that attracts people to photography,
i.e. there are other things. The text does not say that one of these things is the most
important.
16.
a) ‘Status'in this context would mean ‘position in public life.'The bridges'position and
function in public life is clearly different from churches, museums etc. What it has in
common with these institutions is simply that it is asking the public for donations.
b) Don't think is a lot stronger than are not sure why, which implies an uncertainty
about the reason for the introduction of cash boxes, but not a direct disagreement
with it (as don't think suggests.)
c) CORRECT.
d) Donations will be put into a cash box. The use of begging bowl is non-literal and
idiomatic.
17.
a) Andre Previn only has to raise a finger to get a great response from the orchestra.
The text implies that he can conduct just as well as in the 1970s because of his
rapport (relationship) with the players. A lot of physical energy is not required.
b) CORRECT.
c) The change in Previn's appearance is noted in the text, but it is not seen as sad
because he can still conduct an orchestra as well as ever.
d) The text describes Previn as a man who looks his age, i.e. this is the way we would
expect him to look. Therefore, it isn't shocking.

45. VERBAL REASONING
86 /87
TEST V2 - KEY
18.
a) The signals are sent to a central computer first.
b) CORRECT.
c) They can assess this behaviour, but not directly affect it.
d) The seats can detect if someone is afraid of flying, but not reduce that person's fear
of flying.
19.
a) CORRECT.
b) Proust became a society figure because of his socialising in the salons of Paris.
Work is not mentioned. He retired from society means he stopped this socialising in
society.
c) The last three volumes were published after his death, so earlier volumes (i.e. part of
his great work) had been published when he was alive.
d) The text mentions the death of Proust's parents and his chronic asthma as two
independent factors that led him to retire from society.
20.
a) The text says it wasn't so long ago that gardeners thought of wild flowers as weeds,
which suggests they thought this in the past and don't think it now. Also, they
haven't simply accepted wild flowers into their gardens - they encourage their
presence.
b) The phrase to ensure they stay within bounds means to make sure they stay within
a certain area - not literally to tie them up!
c) They make gardens, not gardeners, seem more relaxed and spontaneous.
d) CORRECT.
21.
a) Boxing is no longer (i.e. not any more) a popular way out of poverty. Other sports
are now more popular with teenagers.
b) CORRECT.
c) The general population is overweight, which makes it surprising (you wouldn't
think...) that the US is not producing more heavyweight boxers. It is not the boxers
themselves who are described as overweight.
d) American football, baseball and basketball are preferable routes to wealth -
preferable implies that boxing, too, is a route to wealth, but a less popular one.
22.
a) CORRECT.
b) The text specifies that the over-40s make up almost half the number of people who
go to the cinema more than once a month. This doesn't mean that some children (but
probably a smaller proportion) don't also go as often.
c) The middle-aged audience is growing faster than others, so those others (such as the
child audience) may be growing too, but more slowly.
d) It makes them more lucrative, i.e. they make a lot of money.
23.
a) Have to is too strong here. There is no obligation to use these companies. It is simply
becoming more common.
b) CORRECT.
c) The reasons given in the text for people using these companies are: longer working
hours and more people living alone (one-person households).
d) The text implies that neighbours no longer know each other well enough to even ask
for such favours. It doesn't speculate on whether they would accept or reject such
a request - it just suggests that the request can't be made at all.
24.
a) He wanted to show them that the judgement of God was coming - not to punish them
himself.
b) The text says they were not considered controversial, i.e. they were seen as
acceptable, they did not need to be questioned or discussed.
c) CORRECT.
d) He only predicted when she would die in relation to the rest of her family - not the
exact date it would happen.
25.
a) He thinks they will come to regret their decision, i.e. to feel bad/guilty about it - but
not necessarily to change it.
b) They wanted private residents. In the context of a care home, this means other
elderly people who could pay independently (without relying on the council) to live
in the home.
c) The text says that two other women protested as (while) Mrs Humphrey was evicted.
Mrs Humphrey herself did not participate in the protests.
d) CORRECT.

46. 88 /89
EUROPEAN PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
A1 - A4 AND A5 - BASIC TESTS
The chapter is divided into five tests (A1 – A5) containing 250 questions in
all. These tests are designed for the „European Public Administration“ field
of competitions to constitute a reserve pool from which to recruit Assistant
Administrators (A8), Assistant Translators (LA8) and Secretaries (C5/C4)
at the European Union institutions.
Each test is about the institutional system of the European Communities,
which is the only one of its kind in the world. Special attention is given to
the development and functioning of five European institutions (European
Commission, European Parliament, Council of the European Union,
European Court of Justice and European Court of Auditors) and ancillary
bodies (European Ombudsman, European Central Bank, European
Investment Bank, European Economic and Social Committee, Committee
of the Regions). The tests also concentrate on various issues of European
integration: common policies, Economic and Monetary Union, Common
Foreign and Security Policy, enlargement of the European Union, external
relations.
Test „A5 – basic“ comprises the simplest cross-sectional questions about
the European Union. It is designed especially for applicants for the post of
secretary (C5/C4).

47. EUROPEAN PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
90
TEST A1
/91
TEST A1
1. The highest inflation rate among EU Member States was registered in 2002 in:
a) Ireland
b) Greece
c) Spain
d) Italy
2. Which of the following programmes does not belong among the Community
initiatives within the framework of regional and structural policy of EU for the
period 2000-2006:
a) GARANT
b) Leader
c) URBAN
d) Interreg
3. The common EU budget for 2003 amounts to:
a) €120 mld.
b) €102 mld.
c) €150 mld.
d) €80 mld.
4. The Bureau of the European Parliament consists of:
a) President and Vice-Presidents
b) President, Vice-Presidents and Quaestors
c) Vice-Presidents and Quaestors
d) President, Vice-Presidents and Presidents of Political Groups
5. The strongest political group in the European Parliament is currently:
a) Group of the Party of European Socialists
b) Group of the Greens/European Free Aliance
c) Union for Europe of the Nations Group
d) Group of the European People´s Party (Christian Democrats) and European
Democrats
6. After its accession to the EU, Poland will have the same number of seats in the
European Parliament (according to the Treaty of Nice) as:
a) Spain
b) Italy and Spain
c) Italy
d) Spain and Sweden
7. Direct elections for the European Parliament have taken place since:
a) 1980
b) 1974
c) 1979
d) 1984
8. Michel Barnier is the European Commission Member responsible for:
a) regional policy and institutional reform
b) competition
c) environment
d) external relations
9. The European Commission (and its structures) employs about:
a) 6,000 employees
b) 16,000 employees
c) 20,000 employees
d) 26,000 employees
10. Which of the following is NOT a part of EU structures:
a) The European Anti-Monopoly Office
b) The EUROSTAT
c) The European Anti-Fraud Office
d) The Office for Official Publications of EC
11. Where is the European Court of Justice’s seat located?
a) Brussels
b) Luxembourg
c) Strasbourg
d) Hague
12. The International Court of Justice:
a) is the Community’s highest judicial body
b) was established in 1989 to relieve the pressure of work on the Court of Justice
c) is not a Community institution
d) is responsible for interpretation and further shaping of Community law

48. EUROPEAN PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
92
TEST A1
/93
13. Which countries preside over the Council of the European Union in 2003?
a) Greece and Italy
b) Greece and Ireland
c) Greece and Denmark
d) Greece and France
14. The General Affairs Council is composed of:
a) economic and finance ministers of the Member States
b) heads of state and government of the Member States
c) foreign Ministers or ministers for European Affairs of the Member States
d) ministers for social affairs of the Member States
15. COREPER II:
a) is composed of the Deputy Permanent Representatives
b) is composed of senior officials of national ministries
c) prepares meetings of the “technical” Councils, e.g. of the Internal Market, Consumer
Affairs, and Tourism Council, Environment Council, Industry and Energy Council
d) is responsible for the General Affairs and External Relations Council and issues
with inter-pillar, political, institutional and financial implications (e.g. ECOFIN,
JHA Council, Structural and cohesion funds)
16. The European Council consists of:
a) presidents of each Member State
b) ministers from each Member State, representatives of the European Commission
and a chairman of the Council
c) one ministerial level representative of each Member State
d) heads of state or government and foreign ministers from each Member State,
the president of the European Commission
17. Which of the following institutions constitutes the budgetary authorities of the Eu-
ropean Union?
a) the Council of the European Union and the European Parliament
b) the European Council and the European Parliament
c) the Council of the European Union and the European Commission
d) the European Parliament and the Court of Auditors
18. Which of the following Community programmes did not concern cultural cooperation?
a) Kaléidoscope
b) Ariane
c) Raphaël
d) Galileo
19. Which of the following statements is false? SAPARD is:
a) Special Accession Programme for Agriculture and Rural Development
b) developed within the framework of Agenda 2000
c) designed to assist the candidate Central and Eastern European countries in the area
of economic and social cohesion, especially environment and transport policies
d) designed to assist the candidate Central and Eastern European countries with
sustainable agricultural and rural development
20. The minimum price at which imported agricultural products may be sold in the
European Union is:
a) the indicative price
b) the intervention price
c) the threshold price
d) the guide price
21. The European Central Bank holds and manages the official foreign reserve assets of
the Member States of the Euro area an amount equivalent to up to:
a) €5 billion
b) €15 billion
c) €30 billion
d) €50 billion
22. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) The European Investment Bank was created by the Treaty of Rome.
b) The European Investment Bank has its headquarters in Paris.
c) The European Investment Bank has a legal personality.
d) The European Investment Bank is a specialised financial institution of
the European Union and its members are the EU Member States.
23. According to the Treaty of Nice, 15 members of the Court of Auditors are nominated:
a) for a five-year term by the Council, acting by qualified majority, after consulting
the European Parliament
b) for a five-year term by the Council, acting unanimously, after consulting the
European Parliament
c) for a six-year term by the Council, acting by qualified majority, on the proposal
of the European Commission
d) for a six-year term by the Council, acting by a qualified majority, after consulting
the European Parliament

49. EUROPEAN PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
94
TEST A1
/95
24. Which of the following statements is false:
a) The Court of Auditors undertakes external control of Community finances and
thus ensures good financial management.
b) The Court of Auditors produces an annual report by the end of each financial
year that is published in the Official Journal of the European Communities.
c) The Court of Auditors does not have to be consulted on acts concerning financial
regulations or its own resources.
d) The Court of Auditors has its headquarters in Luxembourg.
25. Which of the following statements is false?
a) The Economic and Social Committee must be consulted in defined areas (e.g.
internal market, education and culture, consumer protection, social affairs,
environment etc.) by the European commission and the Council of the EU.
b) The Treaty of Amsterdam has extended the fields in which the Economic and
Social Committee has to be consulted and has enabled the European Parliament
to consult the Economic and Social Committee.
c) The Economic and Social Committee is composed of the representatives of the
various economic and social sectors and those of the European Parliament and
the European commission.
d) The Economic and Social Committee was established by the Treaty of Rome.
26. The Committee of the Regions was established by the Treaty of Maastricht and
started its operations in March of:
a) 1992
b) 1993
c) 1994
d) 1995
27. The Committee created in 1988, with the Council’s mandate to study and propose
concrete stages of realisation of the project of economic and monetary union was
chaired by:
a) Robert Schumann.
b) Paul Werner.
c) Jacques Delors.
d) Jean Monnet.
28. Which of the following indicators does not belong among the criteria of nominal
convergence:
a) GDP per capita
b) price stability
c) fiscal discipline
d) exchange rates stability
29. Social dialogue is carried out by intermediaries of three main organisations (re-
presenting social partners at the European level). Which of the following does not
belong among them?
a) the European Trade Union Confederation
b) the Union of Industries of the European Community
c) the European Centre for Public Enterprises
d) the European Association for Consumer Protection
30. The Social protocol was finally integrated into the EC Treaty in:
a) Maastricht
b) Amsterdam
c) Nice
d) none of the above.
31. European Day (May 9) is one of the symbols of united Europe. It commemorates:
a) The date when the Rome Treaty was signed
b) The Birthday of Robert Schuman, father of European integration
c) The Robert Schuman Declaration
d) The date when the Maastricht Treaty was signed
32. The Treaty of Paris establishing the European Coal and Steel Community:
a) was signed in 1957
b) was signed for an undetermined period
c) expired in 2002 and is no longer in force
d) was integrated under the provisions of the Brussels Treaty in 2002
33. The second enlargement of the European Community:
a) took place in 1973 and accepted Ireland
b) took place in 1981 and accepted Spain
c) took place in 1986 and accepted Greece
d) took place in 1981 and accepted Greece
34. The Treaty on European Union:
a) was signed in Amsterdam and came into effect on January 1, 1999
b) was signed in Amsterdam on February 7, 1992
c) was signed in Maastricht on November 1, 1993
d) was signed in Maastricht and came into use on November 1, 1993

50. EUROPEAN PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
96
TEST A1
/97
35. The Treaty of Amsterdam did NOT reinforce the role and powers of:
a) The Council of the EU
b) the Commission
c) the European Parliament
d) the Court of Justice
36. The Schengen area was created following an agreement removing the border
controls between states which:
a) are among the 15 member states of the EU
b) include Iceland and Norway and all member states
c) include Iceland, Norway and 13 Member states
d) include all member states except Great Britain and Ireland
37. The White Paper on governance:
a) contains a set of recommendations on how to enhance democracy in Europe and
increase the legitimacy of the institutions
b) was published by the Commission in 1997
c) is subject to referenda in all Member States
d) contains the reports of 20 working groups
38. What is NOT true about the role of the Commission in competition policy?
a) Mario Monti, an Italian professor of economics is the commissioner responsible
for competition policy
b) After consulting the Consultative Committee, the Commission can by decision
impose fines on enterprises which are breaking the rules of competition
c) The Commission can prohibit mergers of enterprises if they will impede effective
competition on the common market
d) After decisions of the Court of Justice the Commission can carry out inspections
on business and demand to see necessary documents one week after giving notice
to the company
39. Visa policy for all Member states was included to the Community competence
under:
a) the Schengen agreements
b) the Treaty on European Union (Maastricht)
c) the Treaty of Amsterdam
d) the Single European Act
40. The European Monitoring Centre for Drugs and Drug Addiction was established:
a) in 1991 in the Hague
b) in 2000 in Amsterdam
c) in 1995 in Lisbon
d) in 1999 in Frankfurt
41. The European Ombudsman is nominated by:
a) the Council
b) the Commission
c) the Parliament
d) the Court of Justice
42. Which of the following internal procedures is NOT provided for in the Commissi-
on’s rules of procedure?
a) written procedure
b) decision by an authorized member
c) ad-hoc procedure
d) decision by oral procedure
43. The European Parliament gives its assent by absolute majority of its Members for:
a) the organization of structural funds
b) the conclusion of certain international agreements
c) the modification of the Central Banks System statute
d) the conclusion of accession agreements for new Member States
44. The Luxembourg Compromise of January 28, 1966 refers to:
a) the Council decision process
b) the headquarters of Community Institutions
c) the position on political co-operation in the EU
d) the conditions imposed on applicant countries for accession
45. The seats in the Institutions and their subsidiary bodies are fixed by:
a) the governments of the Member States by common assent
b) the Council acting by qualified majority
c) the Council on a proposal from the Commission
d) the Council after seeking an opinion from the European Parliament

51. EUROPEAN PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
98
TEST A1
/99
46. A European Official can be dismissed by several measures provided by the Staff
Regulations. Which reason is NOT provided there?
a) dismissal for incompetence
b) removal from the post by disciplinary sanction
c) dismissal for refusal to be re-assigned to another post
d) dismissal due to the reduction of staff
47. The Community Acts legislated by the Institutions do NOT include:
a) regulations
b) directives
c) communications
d) recommendations
48. The information published in the Official Journal includes:
a) Community legislative
b) Community legislative + communications
c) Community legislative + calls for tenders by Institutions
d) Community legislative + communications + calls for tenders by Institutions
49. MERCOSUR is
a) a financial instrument in favour of Mediterranean countries
b) a commercial grouping in Latin America
c) a framework agreement with Mediterranean countries
d) a Community programme in favour of Latin-American countries
50. The Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE):
a) was replaced by OECD
b) was integrated in the Treaty of Maastricht as a part of the second pillar
c) adopted the European Security Charter
d) is based in Geneva
51. “overseas countries and territories”:
a) means the same as the ACP, according to the Treaty
b) are countries with special relations with Denmark, France, the Netherlands and
the United Kingdom
c) form part of the custom territory of the Community
d) have signed an association agreement with the possibility of becoming full
members

52. EUROPEAN PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
100 /101
TEST A1 - KEY
Test A1 - KEY:
1. a)
Inflation rate in %, 2002
Ireland 4.7
Greece 3.9
Spain 3.6
Italy 2.6
Source: EUROSTAT
2. a)
3. b)
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
91.9 93.3 100.2 102 103 104.9 107
Source: European Commission
4. a)
5. d)
Group of the Party of European Socialists 175
Group of the Greens/European Free Aliance 45
Union for Europe of the Nations Group 23
Group of the European People´s Party (Christian Democrats) and European
Democrats
233
Source: www.europarl.eu.int
6. a)
The number of European Parliament members according to the Treaty of Nice is as follows:
Italy 72
Spain 50
Sweden 18
Poland 50
7. c)
8. a)
The Commissioners
Michel Barnier regional policy and institutional reform
Mario Monty competition
Margott Wallström environment
Chris Patten external relations
9. b) (Source: http://europa.eu.int/comm)
10. a)
11. b)
The European Court of Justice (ECJ) is the Community’s supreme judicial body. Its headquar-
ters are in Luxembourg. It was established in 1952 as the Court of Justice of the European
Coal and Steel Community. ECJ now exercises the judicial functions for the Communities,
and in more limited circumstances, for the third pillar of the European Union.
12. c)
The International Court of Justice is not a Community institution. It applies classical in-
ternational law, and only hears cases referred to it by states which are parties to the ICJ
Statute or by organs of the United Nations. It is based in The Hague (Netherlands).
13. a)
In 2003, the presidency of the Council of the European Union is held by Greece and
Italy. The presidency of the Council of the European Union rotates among the Member
States according to an established order. Each Member State holds the post for a period
of six months, beginning on 1 January or 1 July.
14. a)
The Council of the European Union meets in different formations, depending on the items
on the agenda. Each Council is composed of the relevant minister from each Member State,
as well as a representative of the European Commission and a chairman. The General Affairs
Council is usually made up of the foreign ministers of the Member States’ governments (it is
up to the Member State to decide who attends the GAC). It deals with questions of general
policy and coordination. Foreign Ministers also meet in the External Relations Council.
15. d)
COREPER is split into two formations based on a functional division of labour.
COREPER I comprises the Deputy Permanent Representatives. It is primarily responsible
for preparatory work on more technical matters dealt with by the various Councils (e.g.
Internal Market, Consumer Affairs, and Tourism Council; Environment Council; Industry
and Energy Council). COREPER II comprises Permanent Representatives (ambassadors)
themselves and is responsible for issues with inter-pillar, political, institutional and
financial implications (e.g. GAERC, ECOFIN, JHA Council, European Council).
16. d)
The European Council brings together the heads of state or government of the Member
States of the European Union and the president of the European Commission. They
are accompanied by the foreign ministers (article 4 of the Treaty on EU). When the
European Council deals with questions linked to economic and monetary union,
finance ministers are invited.

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TEST A1 - KEY
17. a)
The Council of the European Union and the European Parliament constitute the
budgetary authorities that adopt the Community’s budget. The Council establishes
the draft budget on the basis of the preliminary draft from the Commission (Article
272(3) EC), and issues a recommendation to Parliament on giving discharge to the
Commission in respect of the implementation of the budget (Article 276(1) EC).
18. d)
New Community’s competency in cultural affairs (under the Treaty of Maastricht) was
reflected in the implementation of three cultural programmes between 1996 and 1999:
Kaléidoscope (1996 – 1999, it aimed to encourage artistic and cultural creation and
cooperation of a European dimension), Ariane (1997 – 1999, for support in the field of
books and reading, including by means of translation), Raphaël (1997 – 1999, it aimed
to supplement Member State policies in the field of cultural heritage of European signi-
ficance). GALILEO is the Community’s satellite radio navigation programme.
19. c)
SAPARD (Special Accession Programme for Agriculture and Rural Development) is
the agricultural instrument for pre-accession aid, developed within the framework of
Agenda 2000. SAPARD, which is designed to assist the candidate CEECs with agricul-
tural development, will have an annual budget of 520 million euros for the period 2000
- 2006. Infrastructure investments in the environment and transport sectors are covered
mainly by the ISPA (Instrument for structural policies for pre-accession).
20. c)
The Council fixes three different notional prices for agricultural products at the
beginning of each marketing year: the indicative price (basic price or guide price),
the threshold price (sluicegate price) and the intervention price. The threshold price
(sluicegate price) is the minimum price at which imported agricultural products may
be sold. It is higher than the intervention price and encourages Community economic
operators to buy within the Community.
21. d)
The national central banks of the Member States participating in the euro area have
provided the ECB with foreign reserve assets of up to an amount equivalent to up to
€50 billion. The contributions of each national central bank were fixed in proportion to
its share of the ECB’s subscribed capital, while in return each national central bank was
credited by the ECB with a claim in euros equivalent to its contribution.
22. b)
The European Investment Bank is a specialised financial institution of the European
Union which was created by the Treaty of Rome and its seat is situated in Luxembourg.
23. d)
The Court of Auditors consists of 15 members (one per each Member State of the European
Union) nominated by the Council of the EU, acting by qualified majority, after consulting the
European Parliament for a six-year period. The Treaty of Nice changed the way the Council
of the made decisions EU - it acts by a qualified majority of votes, not unanimously.
24. c)
The Court of Auditors examines the income and expense accounts of the Community
and establishes an annual report following the close of each financial year. The Court
of Auditors is also authorised to present special reports and must be consulted on any
act regarding financial regulations and its own resources.
25. c)
The Economic and Social Committee is an advisory body of the European Communities
created by the Treaty of Rome in 1957 which must be consulted in defined areas by the
European commission and the Council of the EU and - after the Treaty of Amsterdam
came into effect - also by the European Parliament. It consists only of representatives
of the various economic and social sectors.
26. c)
The Committee of the Regions was established in Brussels on the basis of the Treaty of
Maastricht on March 15, 1994.
27. c)
The Committee whose task was to find ways achieving of economic and monetary
union and whose effort resulted in the Delors Report published in 1989 was chaired by
Jacques Delors (later president of the European Commission).
28. a)
The criteria of nominal convergence are specified in the Treaty of Maastricht as
conditions which must be fulfilled in order to get to opportunity to participate in the euro
area. Two types of criteria are distinguished: monetary (defined as price stability, stability
of long-term nominal interest rates and stability of exchange rates) and fiscal (defined
through the share of deficit of public finance and share of public debt on GDP).
29. d)
The European Trade Union Confederation (ETUC), the Union of Industries of the European
Community (UNICE) and the European Centre for Public Enterprises (CEEP) represent
social partners. The European Commission encourages dialogue with social partners about
future activities of the Community and inspects proposals concerning European social
policy (concentrated mainly on the labour market). The Treaty of Rome introduced a con-
sultative body, the Economic and Social Committee, with the aim of involving various
interest groups (employers, employees, etc.) in building the common market.

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TEST A1 - KEY
30. b)
In 1997, Great Britain finally signed the so-called Social Charter so that it could be
integrated in the Treaty of Amsterdam.
31. c)
On the 9th of May 1950, Robert Schuman presented his proposal (Schuman Declaration)
on the creation of an organised Europe, indispensable to the maintenance of peaceful
relations. Today, the 9th of May has become a European symbol (Europe Day) which
along with the single currency (the Euro), the flag and the anthem, identifies the
political entity of the European Union.
32. c)
The Treaty establishing the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) was signed
in Paris on 18 April 1951 by Belgium, Germany, France, Italy, Luxembourg and the
Netherlands. It was concluded for a period of fifty years and, having come into effect
on 23 July 1952, it expired on 23 July 2002. However, the sectors covered (steel, coal)
will fall under the rules and provisions of the EC Treaty. Three other basic treaties were
(EEC, Euratom, EU) were signed for an undetermined period.
33. d)
Since its creation the European Community has been enlarged four times - in 1973 by
the inclusion of Denmark, Ireland and Great Britain, in 1981 Greece, in 1986 Spain and
Portugal and in 1995 Austria, Finland, and Sweden. The unification of Germany is not
considered a new accession. The eastern enlargement will be the fifth in a row.
34. d)
The creation of the European Union (EU) by means of the Treaty of Maastricht marked
a further step along the path to the political unification of Europe. Although the Treaty
was signed in Maastricht on 7 February 1992, a number of obstacles to the ratification
process (approval by the people of Denmark only after a second referendum; legal
action in Germany to have Parliament’s approval of the Treaty declared unconstitutio-
nal) meant that it did not come into effect until 1st
November 1993.
35. a)
The Treaty of Amsterdam did not reinforce the Council’s powers. The changes only
concern its organization. The role of the president of the Commission has increased as
he defines the policies of the College. Extension of the co-decision procedure means
increasing powers of the Parliament. New responsibilities were also given to the Court
of Justice.
36. c)
The Schengen area does not include all the Member States, but Ireland and the United
Kingdom can join at a later date. Moreover, although Denmark has signed the Schengen
agreement, it can choose within the EU framework whether or not to implemented
any new decisions taken under the agreements. Iceland and Norway belong together
with Sweden, Finland and Denmark to the Nordic passport union, which abolished
their internal border checks. The Schengen arrangements also apply in Norway and
Iceland.
37. a)
The European Commission’s White Paper on European Governance contains a set of
recommendations on how to enhance democracy in Europe and increase the legitimacy
of the institutions. The main recommendations of the White Paper are based on twelve
reports, two studies and intense consultation with European, national and regional
actors, as well as academics and European citizens. The preparation of the White
Paper was organised in the form of six “working areas” and twelve Working groups by
the ex-team governance and according to the method set out in the work programme
approved by the Commission on 11 October 2000.
38. d)
The Commission has the task of ensuring that EU competition rules are respected.
It may act: on its own initiative; following complaints from Member States, firms or
individuals; following notifications of agreements by firms; or following notificati-
ons of state aid planned by a Member State. The Commission has wide investigative
powers. It can carry out inspections on business premises without giving prior notice
and can demand to see all necessary documents. Before taking a decision, it gives
the firms and Member States concerned the opportunity to explain their position at
specially organised hearings. It can fine enterprises which are breaking the rules of
competition.
39. b)
Article 100C of the Treaty of Maastricht concerns visa policy. According to consultation
procedure the Council can unanimously decide about the list of non-member countries
whose citizens will require a visa to enter the Community. Schengen Agreements also
provides for the creation of a no border zone but it is not implemented in all member
states. The Treaty of Amsterdam has amended the common visa policy.
40. c)
The European Monitoring Centre for Drugs and Drug Addiction was established on
September 26, 1995 in Lisbon. It provides information on drugs and their consequences
at European level.

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TEST A1 - KEY
41. c)
The Parliament nominates the Ombudsman, whose responsibility is to process the
complaints received from any EU citizen (any natural or legal person residing or having
an office registered in any of the Member States).
42. c)
The Commission establishes its own Rules of Procedure to ensure that both it and its
departments operate accordingly. These rules provide for 3 decisional procedures: oral,
written and habilitation procedure (one or several Members are empowered to take
decisions in the name of the Commission). See Article 218 of the EC Treaty.
43. d)
In general, the European Parliament acts by an absolute majority of votes cast. See
Article 198 of the EC Treaty. There are a few exceptions: the majority of its Members
is required for adopting the Parliament’s Rules of Procedure, the acceptance of new
accessions and the request made to the Commission to submit any proposal necessita-
ting the elaboration of a Community act. 25% of its Member votes are required to form
investigative temporary commission within the EP.
44. a)
Following France’s opposition to the Commission project on the EAGGF’s future
financing, the French permanent representative was called back to Paris creating
the “empty chair” policy. The Luxembourg Compromise provides for any decision
relating to a State’s vital interests to be subject to negotiations until unanimous assent
is reached. This creates the right of veto.
The Luxembourg Compromise was complemented by the Ioannina Compromise,
which provides for the reinforced qualified majority procedure.
45. a)
The Amsterdam Summit fixed the issue for the headquarters of the Institutions and
their subsidiaries in a protocol. Under Article 289 of the EC Treaty, seats in the Institu-
tions are determined by common accord of the governments. The rules governing the
languages of the Institutions are fixed by the Council acting unanimously.
46. d)
The EU Staff Regulations provide for 6 ways of dismissal: dismissal for incompetence,
retirement in the interest of service, removal from the post by disciplinary measures,
inadequate work during the probationary period, required resignation and expiry of
leave on personal grounds.
47. c)
See Article 249 of the EC Treaty. In order to carry out their task and in accordance with
the provisions of this Treaty, the European Parliament, acting jointly with the Council
and the Commission shall make regulations and issue directives, take decisions, make
recommendations or deliver opinions.
48. d)
The Official Journal is published in 11 languages and is divided in 3 sections: L series
(EU legislative acts), C series (information and communications) and S series (calls for
tenders launched by the Institutions).
49. b)
MERCOSUR (the common market of the South - 1991) is a regional commercial
grouping in Latin America composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay and Uruguay.
Chile and Bolivia are associated members. The Commission signed with MERCOSUR a
framework co-operation agreement in 1995. An interregional association agreement is
currently under negotiation.
50. d)
The Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe consists of 55 members from
Europe, Central Asia and North America. Its headquarters are located in Vienna, with
a liason office in Prague. In 1999 the OSCE adopted the European Security Charter
which lays down the foundations of European security. It was also signed by the EU,
which participates in its activities.
51. b)
The Community was associated with some non-European countries and territories
which have special relations with Denmark, France, the Netherlands and the United
Kingdom. They are listed in an annex to the Treaty. The purpose of association shall be
to promote the economic and social development of the countries and territories and to
establish close economic relations between them and the Community as a whole. See
Part Four of the EC Treaty.

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TEST A2
1. Which EU Member State registered the lowest unemployment rate in 2002:
a) Luxembourg
b) Netherlands
c) Austria
d) Sweden
2. Which is the most substantial source of income in the EU budget:
a) custom-duties
b) VAT in the EU member States
c) agricultural compensatory rates
d) income taxes collected in EU member States
3. The President of the European Parliament is elected for:
a) 2 1⁄2 years
b) 5 years
c) 5 1⁄2 years
d) 3 years
4. The current European Parliament President is:
a) Nicole Fontaine
b) Pat Cox
c) Romano Prodi
d) Wim Kok
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the political groups in the European
Parliament:
a) the Group for a Europe of Democracies and Diversities
b) the Confederal Group of the European United Left/ Nordic Green Left
c) the Group of the European Liberal, Democrat and Reform Party
d) the Group of the Party of European Democrats
6. According to the Treaty of Nice the maximum number of European Parliament
Members will be fixed at:
a) 726
b) 732
c) 720
d) 722
7. The European Parliament:
a) is based on the principle of inter-governmental cooperation
b) consist of members delegated by national parliaments
c) records fall of decision - making authority in favour of the Council of the EU and
the European Commission
d) make use of 17 constant committees, which prepare the materials for plenary
meetings
8. The European Commission consists of:
a) 20 Commissioners, ten of whom represent large member states
b) 15 Commissioners, each member state has one Commissioner
c) 20 Commissioners, eight of whom represent large member states
d) 15 Commissioners, eleven of whom represent small member states
9. The percentage of translators and interpreters out of the total number of Commission
employees is about:
a) 5 %
b) 10 %
c) 20 %
d) 30 %
10. The seat of the European Commission is:
a) Brussels
b) Strasbourg
c) Luxembourg
d) Maastricht
11. The Court of First Instance was established in:
a) 1957
b) 1979
c) 1988
d) 1993
12. The European Court of Justice:
a) is located in Strasbourg
b) monitors, interprets and applies Community law
c) deals with compensation claims for damage caused by the EC’s negligence or
lack of good faith
d) comprises 15 judges and 5 advocates-general

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13. How many Members does the European Court of Justice have today?
a) 15 judges
b) 15 judges and 8 advocates-general
c) 15 judges and 5 advocates-general
d) 15 judges and 15 advocates-general
14. The interpretation of Community law is carried out by:
a) the European Court of Justice
b) the Court of First Instance
c) the highest courts in EU Member States
d) the European Court of Human Rights
15. Which country will chair the Council of the European Union in the first half of 2004?
a) Italy
b) Greece
c) Ireland
d) France
16. Under the Treaty of Amsterdam, the Troïka means:
a) the current presidency of the Council of the EU, the Secretary General of the
Council and the European Commission
b) the European Commission, the Council of the European Union and the European
Parliament
c) the European Court of Justice, the Court of First Instance and the judicial panels
d) the Council presidency, the European Commission and the Secretary General
17. ECOFIN
a) is a contraction of the title “Council of Economic and Finance Ministers”
b) prepares the ground for the Council’s work and performs tasks assigned to it by
the Council
c) is a special committee of the European Parliament dealing with economic and
social affairs
d) provides administrative assistance to the Council
18. Which treaty or agreement gives the Community responsibility in cultural affairs?
a) the Single European Act
b) the Treaty of Maastricht
c) the Treaty of Amsterdam
d) the Treaty of Nice
19. The LIFE programme is the financial instrument for:
a) the environment
b) the programme Youth for Europe
c) economic and social conversion in areas facing structural difficulties
d) the protection of public health
20. The Common Agricultural Policy is not:
a) comprised of a set of rules and mechanisms, which regulate the production, trade
and processing of agricultural products in the European Union, with attention
being focused increasingly on rural development
b) financed from the European Agricultural Guidance and Guarantee Fund
(EAGGF)
c) a policy with the largest budget of all the European Community’s policy areas
d) aimed at intensification and maximization of agricultural production in the
European Union
21. Which of the following statements is false?
a) The European System of Central Banks (ESCB) and the European Central Bank
(ECB) were established on June 1, 1998.
b) The European Monetary Institute (EMI) was the predecessor of the ECB and
had responsibility and had responsibility for, among other things, the conduct of
monetary policy.
c) The decision-making bodies of the ECB are the Governing Council and the
Executive Board (the Board of Directors).
d) The General Council comprises the President of the ECB, the Vice-President of
the ECB and the governors of the national central banks of all 15 Member States
of the EU.
22. Which of the following statements is false?
a) The European Investment Bank finances projects particularly inside the European
Union but also outside its territory.
b) The European Investment Bank has an excellent rating on the financial markets.
c) The European Investment Bank imposes the highest possible interest rate on loans.
d) The European Investment Bank uses borrowed resources.
23. The Court of Auditors became a Community Institution under:
a) the Treaty of Rome
b) the Treaty of Maastricht
c) the Treaty of Amsterdam
d) the Treaty of Nice

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24. The investigative powers of the Court of Auditors were strengthened by:
a) the Single European Act.
b) the Treaty of Maastricht
c) the Treaty of Amsterdam
d) none of the above.
25. Members of the Economic and Social Committee are nominated by the Council,
acting unanimously, for:
a) 2 years
b) 4 years
c) 5 years
d) 6 years
26. The Committee of the Regions has 222 members. Which of the following
institutions/bodies has the same number of members?
a) The Economic and Social Committee
b) The Consumers Consultative Committee
c) The Committee on Employment and Work Market
d) The Committee on Policy and Safety
27. The members of the Committee of the Regions are nominated by:
a) the Commission, after consulting the European Parliament
b) the Council, acting on proposals from individual Member States
c) the Council
d) the European Parliament
28. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) The European Ombudsman has its headquarters in Strasbourg.
b) The European Ombudsman is nominated by the European Parliament after each
election to the EP.
c) The European Ombudsman is responsible for processing complaints from any
citizen of the European Union or from any natural or legal person who has
a registered office in any of the Member States of the Union.
d) The European Ombudsman deals with complaints concerning cases of
maladministration on the part of the institutions or bodies of the Community or
on the part of the national, regional or local administrative bodies of the Member
States.
29. How many Member States of the European Union fulfilled the necessary conditions
for the adoption of the euro and thus participated in the third stage of the EMU from
the very beginning (January 1, 1999)?
a) 6
b) 9
c) 11
d) 12
30. Which of the following statements is false? The European Social Fund:
a) was established by the Treaty of Rome in 1957
b) was allotted EUR 6 billion for the period of 2000-2006.
c) is one of the structural funds.
d) is financed from the funds of the Community budget.
31. The European flag - the emblem of European Union consists of:
a) a white background with 12 blue stars in a circle symbolizing the 12 states which
were members in 1986
b) a blue background with 15 golden stars in a circle symbolizing current number of
member states
c) a blue background with 12 golden stars forming a circle as a symbol of perfection
and unity
d) a blue background with 12 white stars in a circle symbolizing the number of
countries which signed the Treaty on European Union
32. The Single European Act signed in 1986 did NOT:
a) include the realisation of a large market without borders
b) provide for a common immigration policy
c) include the reform of the Institutions
d) increase the role of the European Parliament
33. The Treaty of Brussels:
a) established the European Economic Community (EEC) and was signed in 1957
b) established the Western European union (WEU) and was signed in 1954
c) is the Merger treaty which provided for a Single Commission and a Single
Council of the three European Communities
d) was signed in April 1965 and came into effect in July 1967

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34. The Treaty of Amsterdam renumbered and consolidated the basic treaties.
According to that version the Treaty on European Union:
a) is divided into six parts and contains 314 articles
b) is divided into eight sections and contains 53 articles
c) is divided into seven parts and contains 42 articles in 6 chapters
d) is divided into ten sections and contains 248 articles
35. The European Refugee Fund was established in:
a) 1960
b) 1986
c) 1990
d) 2000
36. Mr. Solana:
a) is the Council's Secretary-General and is the “high representative” for
CFSP
b) is a commissioner responsible for Common Foreign and Security Policy
c) is a general of the European military forces
d) has the authority to send European soldiers to conflicts in Europe
37. What article of the Amsterdam Treaty forbids the abuse of dominant position within
the common market?
a) Article 56 of the EC Treaty
b) There is no such article
c) Article 82 of the EC Treaty
d) Article 85 to 92 of the EC Treaty
38. European political cooperation:
a) was an integral part of the Rome treaties in 1957
b) started informally in the 1970s
c) started in the 1990s
d) was integrated in the third pillar of the Treaty on European Union
39. What is EUROJUST?
a) a new name for Europol
b) European Judicial Cooperation Unit
c) a new organization that replaces the European judiciary network
d) a Directorate General for Judicial Cooperation
40. What is NOT true? An asylum request made to a Member State:
a) is the sole responsibility of the European Commission
b) can be made by any person who is afraid of being persecuted for reasons of race
or religion
c) is the responsibility of a Member State according to common rules
d) will be reviewed according to a common rules and procedure by May 2004 at the
latest.
41. Which authorities make decision on the Union budget?
a) the Council and the Commission
b) the Parliament and the Court of Auditors
c) the Commission
d) the Council and the Parliament
42. The Treaty of Nice provides for:
a) a modified procedure for the nomination of the Commission President
b) the inclusion of the EU Treaty into the EC Treaty
c) a maximum of 700 Members of Parliament
d) abandonment of the reinforced co-operation procedure
43. What legal act is it obligatory to publish in the Official Journal?
a) an opinion
b) a regulation
c) a decision
d) a recommendation
44. In the framework of law enforcement and judicial co-operation in penal matters,
which new instrument did the Treaty of Amsterdam introduce?
a) a common measure
b) a general decision
c) a framework decision
d) a resolution
45. Which authority takes the legal decision to enable the accession of new members to
the European Union?
a) the Parliament
b) the Commission
c) the Council and the Parliament
d) the Council, the Court of Justice and the Parliament

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46. The President of the Commission does not:
a) define Commission policies
b) set Commission’s meeting agenda
c) nominate Vice-Presidents from the Members of the Commission
d) participate in European Council meetings
47. As regards the procedure of electing Members of the European Parliament (MEP),
which of the following statements is true?
a) elections are held according to the unified voting procedures in Member States
b) MEPs are nominated by national Parliaments
c) MEPs are elected by direct universal suffrage
d) seats are attributed to candidates who obtain most preferential votes
48. The Commission takes action based on:
a) a simple majority of its members
b) a qualified majority of its members
c) a qualified majority of the members present
d) unanimity
49. The “custom territory” of the Community does not include:
a) the Channel Islands
b) Northern Ireland
c) Ceuta and Melilla
d) Aland Islands
50. The European Economic Area (EEA):
a) was created by the Single Act
b) is composed of 18 European countries
c) regroups the Member States of the EU and the EFTA (European Free Trade
Agreement)
d) is integrated in the Treaty of Maastricht

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TEST A2 - KEY
Test A2 - KEY:
1. a)
Unemployment rate in %, 2002
Luxembourg 2.4
Netherlands 2.6
Austria 4.1
Sweden 4.9
Source: EUROSTAT
2. b)
3. a)
4. b)
5. d)
6. b)
7. d)
Committees of the European Parliament:
AFET: Committee for foreign affairs, human rights, common security and defence policy
BUDG: Budgets
CONT: Budgetary control
LIBE: Citizens’ freedoms and rights, justice and home affairs
ECON: Economic and monetary affairs
JURI: Legal affairs and the internal market
INDU: Industry, external trade, research and energy
EMPL: Employment and social affairs
ENVI: Environment, public health and consumer policy
AGRI: Agriculture and rural development
PECH: Fisheries
REGI: Regional policy, transport and tourism
CULT: Culture, youth, education, the media and sport
DEVE: Development and cooperation
AFCO: Constitutional affairs
FEMM: Women’s rights and equal opportunities
PETI: Petitions
8. a)
Composition of the European Commission
20 Members including 1 President and 2 Vice-Presidents
Belgium 1
Denmark 1
Germany 2
Greece 1
Spain 2
France 2
Italy 2
Ireland 1
Luxembourg 1
Netherlands 1
Austria 1
Portugal 1
Finland 1
Sweden 1
United Kingdom 2
Source: The ABC of Community law
9. b) (Source: http://europa.eu.int/comm)
10. a)
11. c)
The Court of First Instance was established under the Single European Act to
take pressure off the European Court of Justice in 1988. Its headquarters are in
Luxembourg.
12. b)
The European Court of Justice comprises 15 judges and 8 advocates-general and its
headquarters are in Luxembourg. It is the responsibility of the Court of Justice to ensure
that the law is observed in the interpretation and application of Treaties establishing
the European Communities and of provisions laid down by the competent Community
institutions. To enable it to carry out that task, the Court has wide jurisdiction to hear
various types of action and to give preliminary rulings.
13. c)
The Court of Justice comprises 15 judges and 8 advocates-general. The judges and
advocates-general are appointed by common accord of the governments of the Member
States and hold office for a renewable term of six years. They are chosen from jurists
whose independence is beyond doubt and whose competence is recognised.

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TEST A2 - KEY
14. a)
In general terms, the European Court of Justice’s task is to “ensure that in the inter-
pretation of (the) Treaty the law is observed” (Article 220 EC). It rules on: a Member
State’s failure to fulfil an obligation under the Treaty; the possible lump sums or
penalties imposed on a Member State; the legality of acts adopted by the Community
institutions; preliminary rulings concerning the interpretation of the Treaties.
15. c)
In the first half of 2004, the presidency of the Council of the European Union will be
held by Ireland. The Presidency of the Council is held in turn by each Member State
for six months.
16. a)
The old “Troïka” consisted of the previous, current and next Council presidencies to
ensure a degree of continuity in their work. According to the Treaty of Amsterdam,
the new Troïka consists of the current Council presidency, the next Council presidency
and the Secretary General and the Commission is closely associated.
17. a)
The Council of the European Union meets in different formations, depending on the
items on the agenda. Each Council is composed of the relevant minister from each
Member State. ECOFIN is the Council of Economic and Finance Ministers. It coordi-
nates the economic policies of Member States and plays a leading role in the context of
European Monetary Union.
18. b)
There have been ministerial resolutions and other calls for European cultural initiatives
since the 1970s, but it was not until 1991 that the EU officially began to deal with
culture: under the Treaty of Maastricht (Article 151), the Union “shall contribute to the
flowering of the cultures of Member States, while respecting their national and regional
diversity and at the same time bringing our common cultural heritage to the fore.”
19. a)
LIFE (The Financial Instrument for the Environment) is one of the spearheads of
Community environmental policy. It was launched in 1964 and LIFE consists of three
thematic components: LIFE-Nature, LIFE-Environment and LIFE-Third countries.
20. d)
The Council of the European Union sets up a market organisation (article 34 of the EC
Treaty). The main tasks of the market organisation include: fixing prices for agricul-
tural products on all European markets; granting aid to producers or operators in the
sector; controlling production; organising trade with non-member countries; organising
producers; providing state aids and safeguard measures. The system of quotas and
national guaranteed quantities allow for control of agricultural production and the
limitation of surplus production and storage.
21. b)
The European Monetary Institute (EMI, the predecessor of the ECB) was established
on January 1, 1994 and had no responsibility for the conduct of monetary policy in the
European Union (this remained the preserve of the national authorities). The EMI’s
main task was to strengthen central bank co-operation and monetary policy co-ordi-
nation and to make the necessary preparations for the establishment of the European
System of Central Banks (ESCB), for the conduct of the single monetary policy and for
the creation of a single currency. The EMI was replaced by the ECB on June 1, 1998.
22. c)
The European Investment Bank (EIB) primarily uses resources borrowed on the capital
markets. The excellent rating of the EIB enables it to acquire favourable conditions on
the financial markets which can be then passed on to projects financed by the EIB. The
EIB provides funds and imposes the lowest possible interest rate.
23. b)
Although the Court of Auditors was established in 1977, it became a Community
Institution only under the Treaty of Maastricht in 1992.
24. c)
The Treaty of Amsterdam strengthened the investigative powers of the Court of
Auditors.
25. b)
Members of the Economic and Social Committee (representatives of different
economic and social sectors - e.g. producers, farmers, employers (unions) traders etc.)
are nominated by the Council, acting unanimously, for a four-year term.
26. a)
The Committee of the Regions has the same number of members as the Economic and
Social Committee (222). According to the Treaty of Nice, the number of members
of both mentioned Committees should not exceed 350. It means in practice that the
existing number of representatives of each Member State won’t be changed after the
enlargement of the European Union.
27. b)
The members of the Committee of the Regions are nominated by the Council of the
European Union on the basis of the recommendations of individual Member States for
a four-year term.

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28. d)
The European Ombudsman is based in Strasbourg, is nominated by the European
Parliament and deals with complaints from any citizen of the European Union or from
any natural or legal person who has a registered office in any of the Member States of
the Union. The European Ombudsman conducts inquiries on complaints concerning
poor administrative practices on the part of the European Union Institutions and bodies
that are classified as confidential.
29. c)
The following 11 Member States have participated in the euro zone since the January
1, 1999: Austria, Belgium, Finland, France, Germany, Ireland, Italy, Luxembourg, the
Netherlands, Portugal, and Spain.
30. b)
The European Social Fund was established by the Treaty of Rome in 1957 and is
thus the oldest structural funds’ financial instrument. The European Social Fund was
allotted EUR 60 billion for the period 2000 - 2006.
31. c)
In 1986, the European Council adopted the flag that has become the emblem of the
European Union. Against a background of blue sky, twelve golden stars form a circle,
representing the union of the peoples of Europe. The number of stars is fixed, twelve
being the symbol of perfection and unity.
32. b)
The Single European Act is a first revision of all Treaties and it brings together in
a single document issves such as the creation of a single market, reform of Institutions,
the more prominent role of European Parliament and the extension of the Commissi-
on’s responsibilities.
33. b)
In 1954, the Western European Union (WEU) was created to strengthen security
cooperation between the countries of Europe. It brought together the 5 countries that
had concluded the Brussels Treaty (United Kingdom, France, Belgium, Luxembourg
and the Netherlands) with the addition of the Federal Republic of Germany and Italy.
34. b)
According to the Amsterdam revision the Treaty of Maastricht is divided into eight
sectios and contains 53 articles. The EC Treaty is divided into six parts and it contains
314 articles in total.
35. d)
The Council established the European Refugee Fund in September 2000. It is endowed
with 216 million euro for the period of 2000-2004. Emergency measures can be taken
in case of a sudden large scale influx of refugees or displaced persons.
36. a)
Since the Treaty of Amsterdam came into effect, the Secretary-General of the Council
has fulfilled the role of High Representative of the CFSP. Javier Solana is responsible
for assisting the Council in CFSP-related matters by contributing to the formulation,
preparation, and implementation of decisions. At the request of the president, he acts on
behalf of the Council in conducting political dialogue with third parties and endeavours
to improve the visibility and consistency of the CFSP.
37. c)
Article 82 (formerly Article 86) of the EC Treaty states that “any abuse by one or more
undertakings of a dominant position within the common market or in a substantial part
of it shall be prohibited as incompatible with the common market in so far as it may
affect trade between the Member States.”
38. b)
The European Political Cooperation (EPC) launched informally in 1970. Since then, two
key milestones have led to the significant development of the CFSP: the Treaty on European
Union, with the introduction of Title V, the second pillar of the EU, and the Treaty of
Amsterdam, with the strengthening of decision-making procedures and instruments.
39. b)
The Treaty of Nice provides for the creation of EUROJUST (the European Judicial
Cooperation Unit). It is composed of attorneys and magistrates detached from each
Member State. The mission of EUROJUST is to promote good coordination between
national authorities responsible for legal proceedings, and to provide assistance in in-
vestigations related to organized crime. EUROJUST will cooperate closely with the
European Judicial Network, established in 1998, which is responsible in particular for
carrying out judicial letters of request and establishing extradition requests.
40. a)
The right to asylum is guaranteed by the Charter of Fundamental Rights of the European
Union, with due respect for the rules of the Geneva Convention of 28 July 1951 and the
protocol of 31 January 1967 relating to the status of refugees and in accordance with
the Treaty establishing the European Community. The European Council in Tampere
in 1999 decided that a common asylum policy should be implemented and a common
European asylum system be established. A first set of standards and measures has to
adopted by May 2004. In the longer term, the rules should lead to a common asylum
procedure and uniform status valid throughout the Union for those granted asylum.

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TEST A2 - KEY
41. d)
The EU budget is prepared by the Commission and decided by the Council and the
Parliament. The definitive version is adopted by the President of the Parliament. See
Article 272 of the EC Treaty for the budgetary procedure.
42. a)
According to the Treaty of Nice the President of the Commission will be appointed by
the Council acting on a qualified majority. The Treaty also provides for a grouping of
Treaties in one act (not the integration of the EU Treaty into the EC Treaty), setting the
maximum number of Members of the Parliament at 732 and enabling the reinforced
co-operation on a common foreign and security policy, excepting military and defence
matters.
43. b)
If a regulation is to be applicable, it must be published in the Official Journal. Adirective
must also be published but it is not a condition of its applicability. A decision can be
published but without condition of its applicability. An opinion and a recommendation
do not have to be published.
44. c)
The Treaty of Amsterdam introduced a framework decision. See Article 34 of the EU
Treaty. Framework decisions are made for the purpose of harmonizing the laws and
regulation provisions of Member States. These obligate Member States to meet certain
expectations while leaving the national authorities responsible for the ways and means
of meeting them. They do not have any direct effect.
45. c)
Any European State, which respects certain principles, may apply to become a member
of the Union. It should address its application to the Council, which acts unanimously
after consulting the Commission and after receiving the assent of the European
Parliament, which acts by an absolute majority of its component members. See Article
49 of the EU Treaty.
The enlargement procedure is as follows:
- a request is lodged by the applicant State
- the Council forwards the request to the Commission for consultation
- the Commission prepares its opinion and identifies the possible effects of enlargement
- the Council decides to open negotiations
- the Council agrees unanimously on the accession
- the European Parliament votes by absolute majority
- ratification by Member States according to their respective rules
46. c)
The President of the Commission defines the political guidance on which the
Commission bases its priorities and adopts its work programme every year. On
the basis of the Commission’s Rules of Procedure, the President calls Commission
meetings (at least once a week) and sets the agenda according to the work programme.
He also represents the Commission in all European Council meeting. The Treaty of
Nice reinforces his powers regarding the internal organization of the Commission,
nomination of Vice-Presidents after assent from the college, and requests for the
resignation of Commission College Members.
47. c)
The European Parliament is elected every 5 years by direct universal suffrage according
to different procedures in force in the Members States (generally by proportional repre-
sentation). See Article 19 of the EC Treaty.
48. a)
The Commission shall act based on a majority among its Members. See Article 219 of
the EC Treaty.
49. c)
According to Article 9 of the EC Treaty the community is founded on the principle
of custom union which applies to a specific territory under custom control. The
“Community Custom Code” (1994) regroups the Community law on custom matters.
The Community territory under custom control consists of the territories of the 15
Member States including the Channel Islands and Aland Islands in Finland. Certain
regions or islands are excluded: the territory of Büsingen (Germany), the overseas
French territories, the territories of Ceuta and Melilla (Spain), the communes of Livigno
and Campione (Italy), Faeroe Islands, Greenland, Helgoland Island. Nevertheless, the
non-member territories of Monaco and San Marino form part of the custom territory.
50. b)
Creation of the European Economic is based on an agreement between the EU and
EFTA signed in Porto in 1992 which came into effect in 1994. The 18 participa-
ting countries are: the 15 members of the EU, Norway, Iceland and Liechtentein.
Switzerland, a member of the EFTA, voted against participation in a referendum. The
EEA’s objectives are: associate the EFTA countries (except Switzerland), extend the
implementation of Community policies to the participating EFTA countries and pursue
efforts to consolidate economic growth and reduce unemployment.

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TEST A3
1. In 2001, which of the following states had the highest GDP in PPS per inhabitant?
a) Germany
b) Denmark
c) Ireland
d) Netherlands
2. To which of the following Community Initiatives is most many allocated for the
period 2000-2006?
a) GARANT
b) Leader
c) URBAN
d) Interreg
3. It is not true of the common EU budget that:
a) the budget has to be well-balanced
b) there are no macroeconomic stabilization goals
c) the administrative expenditures reach about 10% of the budget
d) the common agricultural policy expenditures are the highest expenditure items.
4. The number of women in the European Parliament:
a) reaches up to 20 % of the number of Parliament members
b) reaches up to 30 % of the number of Parliament members
c) reaches up to 40 % of the number of Parliament members
d) has tripled since 1979
5. The current Commissions President is:
a) Nicole Fontaine
b) Pat Cox
c) Romano Prodi
d) Wim Kok
6. The European Parliament resides in:
a) Brussels
b) Strasbourg
c) Luxembourg
d) Maastricht
7. After its accession to the EU Slovakia will have (according to the Treaty of Nice)
the same number of European Parliament members as:
a) Lithuania and Ireland
b) Finland and Denmark
c) Lithuania and Denmark
d) Finland and Ireland
8. The number of European Parliament members of each member state:
a) corresponds exactly to the number of inhabitants of the state (1 European
Parliament member per 200,000 inhabitants)
b) is constituted according to the number of inhabitants and size of the member
state
c) does not depend on the geographical and demographical characteristics of the
country
d) is significantly influenced by the number of inhabitants of the member state
9. According to the Treaty of Nice, the following principle will apply for the next
functional period of the Commission:
a) the current member states will have two commissioners each and the acceding
countries one commissioner each.
b) each member state will have one commissioner until the EU reaches 27
members.
c) the member states as well as the acceding countries will get one Commissioner
each and the presidency of the Commission will rotate in half year periods.
d) each member state will have one commissioner until the number of member
states exceeds 25, than the rotation principle will be used.
10. The European Commission:
a) does not have primary power to initiate legislation in certain areas
b) is based on intergovernmental cooperation
c) approves the main part of the legislation of the EU
d) represents the Community in the courts of the member states
11. After EU enlargement in 2004, the European Court of Justice will have:
a) one judge per Member State
b) two judges per Member State
c) ten judges from the “large” Members States (Italy, Spain, France, Germany and
the United Kingdom) and five judges from the remaining Member States on an
alternating basis
d) twenty judges

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12. Which of the following statements is correct? The Court of First Instance:
a) is the Community’s supreme judicial body
b) comprises 15 judges and 8 advocates-general
c) deals with appeals of EC personnel
d) deals with actions for failure to fulfil obligations under the Treaties
13. Judgments of the European Court of Justice are NOT:
a) directly enforceable in all Member States
b) final, without appeal
c) liable to annulment appeal before the International Court of Justice
d) precedent over the national law of the EU’s Member States
14. The European Court of Human Rights:
a) is responsible for supervising the application of the Charter of Fundamental
Rights of the European Union
b) belongs among the Community’s most important judicial bodies
c) is not a Community institution
d) receive complaints from EU citizens relating to cases of poor administrative
practices on the part of EU institutions
15. The Council of the European Union’s headquarters are in:
a) Brussels
b) Luxembourg
c) Strasbourg
d) London
16. The presidency of the Council of the European Union:
a) rotates among the Member States according to an established order specified by
Council decision
b) was first held by France
c) is held by each Member State for a period of five months
d) is held by a Member State according to the order specified by the Treaty of
Amsterdam
17. The Council of Europe:
a) is not a Community institution
b) establishes policy guidelines for European integration in relation to both the EC
and EU
c) is responsible for concluding agreements between the Communities and
non-member countries
d) has a main task to lay down and implement the Community’s legislation
18. Which of the following statements is false? COREPER:
a) is the Permanent Representatives Committee
b) prepares the ground for the Council’s work and performs tasks assigned to it by
the Council
c) is divided up into COREPER I and COREPER II
d) carries out preparatory work for European Commission meetings
19. The Culture 2000 programme is NOT:
a) a single programming and financing instrument for Community measures
in the field of culture for the period from 1 January 2000 to 31 December
2004
b) open to participation for the countries of the European Economic Area, Cyprus
and the associated countries of Central and Eastern Europe
c) a framework programme replacing the previous Raphaël, Kaléidoscope and
Ariane programmes
d) an action programme for implementing the European Community's vocational
training policy, supporting and supplementing action taken by the Member
States
20. The European Agricultural Guidance and Guarantee Fund (EAGGF) is NOT:
a) administered by the Commission and the Member States, cooperating within the
EAGGF Committee
b) separated into two sections: the Guidance Section and the Guarantee Section
c) established to finance the common agricultural policy
d) the most important pre-accession instrument in the area of agricultural
development
21. Which of the following tasks is not carried out by the Eurosystem?
a) definition and implementation of the monetary policy of the euro zone
b) direct supervision of credit institutions
c) holding and managing the official foreign reserves of Member States
d) overseeing the smooth operation of payment systems
22. The European Central Bank’s capital amounts to:
a) €5 billion
b) €10 billion
c) €15 billion
d) €20 billion

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23. The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development:
a) does not have its headquarters in London
b) did not start its operations in 1991
c) does not help Central and Eastern European countries and the Commonwealth of
Independent States
d) is not a specialised United Nations Institution
24. The Court of Auditors does NOT control the activities of:
a) community institutions and bodies (with access to the funds of the Community
budget)
b) national, regional and local administrative bodies managing Community funds
c) the European Central Bank
d) any natural or legal person managing Community funds
25. The headquarters of the Economic and Social Committee, where the plenary
sessions take place monthly, are situated in:
a) Brussels
b) Amsterdam
c) Luxembourg
d) Strasbourg
26. The Committee of the Regions:
a) has a consultative function
b) has its headquarters in Brussels
c) represents the interests of the regional and local authorities in the European
Union in order to assure their participation in the integration process
d) was established in 1986
27. Which of the following statements is false? The European Ombudsman:
a) puts forward a report on his activities to the European Parliament at the end of
each year
b) deals only with complaints made within two years from the date on which the
facts were known
c) also deals with complaints that have already been settled by the Court
d) contacts directly the respective institution whose poor administrative practices
are the subject of complaint
28. The European Monetary Institute was established on:
a) January 1, 1990
b) January 1, 1991
c) July 1, 1993
d) January 1, 1994
29. Greece joined the euro zone on:
a) January 1, 2000
b) June 1, 2000
c) January 1, 2001
d) June 1, 2001
30. In the European Union, the highest share of total employment (by the end of the 90’s)
was emloyed by
a) the service sector (around 65%)
b) the service sector (around 50%)
c) the industry (around 50%)
d) the service sector (more then 80%)
31. In history there have been countries which applied for the EC accession but never
became members. Which country was refused accession by the Council of the EU?
a) Morocco
b) Norway
c) Switzerland
d) Lithuania
32. Which of the following institutions and bodies were NOT created by the Treaty of
Maastricht?
a) the Committee of the Regions
b) the European Central Bank
c) Europol
d) the European Economic Area
33. What is NOT true about the Treaty of Amsterdam? The Treaty of Amsterdam:
a) was an important revision of the EC and EU Treaties and it renumbered the Treaty
on the EU
b) incorporated the Charter of fundamental freedoms and human rights in community
law
c) Integrated the European Social Charter in Community law, ensuring that
fundamental social rights are applicable to all Members
d) incorporated the Schengen agreement in the Treaty on European Union

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34. The Treaty of Nice lays down the rules about EU Institutions in particular with
regard:
a) to procedures which have to be followed when there are more then five countries
accessing to the EU
b) to national composition of EU Institutions for a Union of 27 member states
c) to changed responsibilities of the Institutions after eastern enlargement
d) to their effective functioning before enlargement.
35. The Schengen agreement:
a) is an intergovernmental cooperation in the field of free movement of workers
which includes 13 European countries
b) was incorporated into EU law by the Amsterdam Treaty on 1 May 1999
c) does not include Great Britain, Ireland and Denmark
d) was signed as part of the Treaty on European Union
36. The Constitution of the European Union:
a) is part of the EC Treaty
b) is part of the EU Treaty
c) has been prepared as a draft by the European Convention
d) was agreed at Council’s meeting in Thessaloniki
37. Which of the following cases were concerned with a Commission examination of an
unauthorised merger of companies?
a) Costa and Enel
b) Bertelsmann/Kirch/Premiere and Deutsche Telekom/Beta Research
c) Volkswagen AG, Audi AG and Autogerma SpA
d) None of these
38. The Western European Union:
a) is an organization of 10 western European countries
b) is a political cooperation of all Member countries
c) was created in 1954 to strengthen security cooperation
d) does not include Spain and Portugal
39. Which programme is concerned with justice and internal affairs?
a) SOCRATES
b) DAPHNE
c) INOGATE
d) ASYLUM
40. Which of the following areas does NOT belong to a full extent to the EU 3rd
pillar?
a) judicial cooperation
b) police cooperation
c) combating organized crime and terrorism
d) asylum policy
41. According to the Treaty of Amsterdam:
a) the co-decision procedure substitutes the co-operation one
b) the consent procedure is repealed
c) the co-decision procedure provides for two mandatory readings
d) the co-operation procedure may no longer be applicable
42. As a result of the Nice Summit the qualified majority in the Council was modified.
The qualified majority in EU-27 will be reached when:
a) the decision gets a favourable vote from the majority of Member States,
representing at least 258 votes
b) the number of votes is at least 75% of all votes
c) the decision on the Commission’s proposal gets a minimum of 169 votes from
the majority of Member States
d) the decision on the Commission’s proposal gets a favourable vote of at least
two-thirds of Member States
43. The legislation initiative belongs to:
a) both the Council and the Commission
b) both the Member States and the Commission
c) both the European Parliament and the Commission
d) the Commission alone
44. The co-decision procedure:
a) gives the European Parliament the right of veto on certain legislative proposals
b) requires the Council to vote unanimously on projects amended by the EP
c) was established by the Single Act
d) requires the Commission to involve Member States in certain decision processes
45. A Member of the Commission can be compulsorily retired by:
a) a unanimous Council decision
b) the Court of Justice at the request of the Council or Commission
c) the Court of Justice at the request of the European Parliament
d) a motion of censure adopted by the European Parliament at two-thirds majority
of the vote cast

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46. The Council currently decides unanimously on:
a) taxation measures
b) mutual recognition of diplomas, certificates and degrees
c) projects in the unemployment field
d) consumer protection
47. Which authority cannot receive the Court of Justice’s opinion on an international
agreement’s compatibility with the provisions of the Treaty?
a) the European Parliament
b) the Council
c) the Commission
d) a Member State
48. The Cotonou Partnership Agreement was signed:
a) for a period of 5 years
b) as a substitute for the series of Lomé Conventions
c) to grant aid to ACP countries through the European Bank for Reconstruction and
Development instruments
d) as a supplement to the Lomé Convention and will expire in 2008
49. What type of agreement is NOT limited to economic matters?
a) a tariff agreement
b) a co-operation agreement
c) an association agreement
d) a free trade agreement
50. “Environment 2010: our future, our choice” is:
a) a new Community action programme in favor of the environment, proposed by
the Commission
b) the result of an international conference on the environment
c) a project launched by the European Environmental Agency
d) the fifth framework action programme in favor of the environment

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TEST A3 - KEY
Test A3 - KEY:
1. c)
GDP per capita in PPS, 2001
Germany 24,000
Denmark 26,660
Ireland 27,360
Netherlands 26,670
Source: EUROSTAT
2. d)
GARANT -
Leader €2.020 mld.
URBAN €0.700 mld.
Interreg €4.875 mld.
Source: European Commission
3. c)
Administrative costs constitute only about 5% of the EU budget.
4. b)
The proportion of women in the European Parliament was 29.7% after the last elections
and since 1979 that percentage has doubled.
5. c)
6. b)
7. b)
The number of European Parliament members (according to the Treaty of Nice) is as
follows:
Denmark 13
Finland 13
Ireland 12
Lithuania 12
Slovakia 13
8. d)
The number of European Parliament members of each member state is influenced by
the number of inhabitants of the member state but not in direct proportion. For example,
one German member in the European Parliament represents 806,000 inhabitants and one
member of the European Parliament for Luxembourg represents 60,000 inhabitants.
9. b)
As a result of the Nice Summit, the number of Commissioners was increased. Each
member state will have one Commissioner until the EU has 27 members. After that, the
rotation principle will be used.
10. d)
Responsibilities of the European Commission
- Initiatives for further development of the Community policy
- Monitoring observance and proper application of Community law
- Administration and implementation of Community legislation
- Representing the Community in international organisations
- Negotiating agreements with international organisations and non-member states
- Representing the Community in the courts of the member states – possibly
together with the Council - before the European Court of Justice
- The Commission has primary power to initiate legislation in certain areas.
Source: The ABC of Community law
11. a)
Today, the Court of Justice comprises one judge per Member State, and according to the
Treaty of Nice is planned to continue to do so after the coming accession in 2004.
12. c)
The Court of First Instance was established to relieve the pressure of work on the
European Court of Justice by dealing with disputes in which fact-finding plays an
important part, such as those on competition law and staff matters. Its principal task
is to hear annulment actions, compensation claims by individuals against Community
institutions, appeals on anti-dumping duties or matters dealing with measures to protect
trade.
13. c)
Judgments of the European Court of Justice are not liable to annulment appeal before
the International Court of Justice. Judgments are “final, without appeal” – there is no
possibility of appeal before any international court or the Member States’ supreme
courts.
14. c)
The European Court of Human Rights is not a Community institution. It is exclusively
responsible for supervising the application of the 1950 European Convention on
Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (European Convention), through hearing
complaints by individuals or contracting states. It is based in Strasbourg (France).

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TEST A3 - KEY
15. a)
The seat of the Council of the European Union is in Brussels. About 100 formal Council
meetings take place every year, normally in Brussels. However, as the result of an
agreement with the Luxembourg government, ministerial meetings convened in April,
June and October are held in the European Centre in Luxembourg. The presidency may
also schedule some ministerial meetings in its own country, especially informal ones.
16. a)
The Presidency of the Council of the European Union is held in turn by each Member
State for six months, on the basis of the principle that large and small Member States
should alternate. The Presidency changes hands on 1 January and 1 July each year. In
1999, it was first held by Germany, which was succeeded by Finland.
17. a)
The Council of Europe is an international organisation, not a Community institution.
It was established in 1949, to promote the protection of human rights and fundamental
freedoms. Its headquarters are in Strasbourg.
18. d)
The Permanent Representatives Committee – COREPER (a contraction of its French
title Comité des représentants permanents) prepares the ground for the Council of the
European Union’s work.
19. d)
The aim of the Culture 2000 programme, which combines the old “Raphaël”, “Ka-
leidoscope” and “Ariane” programmes, is to encourage creative activity and the
knowledge and dissemination of the culture of European peoples by fostering co-
-operation between cultural organisations and operators and the cultural institutions of
the Member States, and by supporting measures which, by their European scope and
character, promote the spread of European culture both inside and outside the Union.
20. d)
The European Agricultural Guidance and Guarantee Fund (EAGGF), was set up by
Regulation No 25 of 1962 on the financing of the common agricultural policy. The
Fund's Guarantee Section finances expenditure on agricultural market organisations,
the rural development measures that accompany market support, and rural measures
outside Objective 1 regions, relating to the CAP. The Guidance Section finances other
rural development expenditure (not financed by the EAGGF Guarantee Section). The
agricultural instrument for pre-accession aid is called SAPARD (Special Accession
Programme for Agriculture and Rural Development).
21. b)
The basic tasks carried out by the Eurosystem (the ECB + national central banks of the
Member States that have adopted the euro) are to define and implement the monetary
policy of the euro area, to conduct foreign exchange operations, to hold and manage
the official foreign reserves of the Member States and to oversee the smooth operation
of payment systems. In addition, the Eurosystem contributes to the smooth conduct
of policies pursued by competent authorities relating to the prudential supervision of
credit institutions and the stability of the financial system. The ECB has an advisory
role vis-à-vis the Community and national authorities. The ECB, assisted by the
national central banks, collects the necessary statistical information.
22. a)
The European Central Bank’s capital amounts to EUR 5 billion. The national central
banks are the sole subscribers to and holders of the capital of the ECB.
23. d)
The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) was founded
in 1990 (started operations in 1991) in London and specialises in providing credit
assistance particularly in Central and Eastern European countries and the Common-
wealth of Independent States. The EBRD is not a specialised UN Institution, it is a
separate international financial institution.
24. c)
The Court of Auditors can carry out audits in any community or national institution
or control activities of any natural or legal person managing Community funds. An
agreement concluded between the European Investment Bank (EIB), the Court of
Auditors and the Commission determines the rights of access to information held by
the EIB granted to the Court. (The financial activities of the EIB are audited by an
internal Audit Committee and external company auditors). The European Central Bank
has a particular statute – it only administrative expenditure is submitted to the Court
for auditing.
25. a)
The Economic and Social Committee is a consultative body of the European
Communities that consists of 222 members and which has its seat in Brussels.
26. a)
The Committee of the Regions is a consultative body of the European Union which
was established in Brussels on the basis of the Treaty of Maastricht on March 15, 1994
in order to represent the interests of the regional and local administrative bodies of
Member States and to enable them to participate in the process of integration.

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TEST A3 - KEY
27. c)
Any complaint must be handled within two years as from the date at which the facts
were made known. The European Ombudsman does not deal with complaints si-
multaneously handled by the Court or already settled by the Court. The European
Ombudsman report to the European Parliament and the Institution concerned.
28. d)
The establishment of the European Monetary Institute (the predecessor of the European
Central Bank) on January 1, 1994 marked the beginning of the second stage of realisation
of the project of Economic and Monetary Union. The EMI’s main task was to strengthen
central bank co-operation and monetary policy co-ordination and to make the necessary
preparation for the establishment of the European System of Central Banks (ESCB), for the
implementation of the single monetary policy and for the creation of a single currency.
29. c)
In 1998, Greece did not fulfil the economic criteria determined as prerequisite for par-
ticipation in the euro zone and thus was not chosen to join the euro zone. In 2000, the
European representatives witnessed a great effort on the part of the Greek economy to
meet all the conditions necessary to adopt the euro and so the European council decided to
accept Greece as the 12th
member of the euro zone with effect from the January 1, 2001.
30. a)
The service sector currently employs 97 million inhabitants of the EU which represents
about 65% of the total active population (Eurostat, 1999).
31. a)
Morocco put forward a request for accession in July 1987, but was refused by the Council
because it is not a European state. In other countries which applied for membership
(Iceland, Switzerland, Liechtenstein, Norway) accession was refused in referenda.
32. d)
The Treaty of Maastricht created several institutions such as the European System
of Central Banks and the European Central Bank, the Committee of the Regions and
the Conciliation Committee, and Europol. European Economic Area was created by
a treaty between the EU and EFTA signed in 1992.
33. b)
The Treaty of Amsterdam, signed on 2 October 1997, came into effect on 1 May 1999. It
amended and renumbered the EU and EC Treaties. The Treaty of Amsterdam introduces
into the EC Treaty new provisions on social policy, by integrating provisions of the
European Social Charter as well as the Community Charter on worker’s fundamental
social rights. It also integrated the Schengen agreement into the EU Treaty. The Charter
of Fundamental Rights will probably be a part of the Constitution of the EU which is
currently being prepared in the European Convention.
34. b)
The declaration of Nice deals with the reform of Institutions, altering the number of
delegates of Member States in different Institutions. It takes into account the applicant
states which have effectively begun accession negotiations. So the rules are laid down
for an EU with a maximum of 27 Members.
35. b)
The Schengen agreement was integrated by the Treaty of Amsterdam into the Treaty on
EU in 1999. This area is now within the legal and institutional framework of the EU, thus
coming under parliamentary and judicial scrutiny. Its application is still limited to thirteen
Member states. Ireland and the United Kingdom can join at a later date. Moreover,
although Denmark has signed the Schengen agreement, it can choose within the EU
framework whether or not to implement any new decisions taken under the agreements.
36. c)
The European Convention was asked to draw up proposals on the main topics of the
Laeken Declaration and related questions: better delimitation of competencies, the role
of national parliaments, simplification of the Treaties, and incorporation of the Charter
of Fundamental Rights. At the European Council in Thessaloniki in June 2003 the
Convention presented a draft treaty establishing a Constitution of Europe. It awaits
further discussion in the IGC.
37. b)
In the cases of Bertelsmann/Kirch/Premiere and Deutsche Telekom/Beta Research in
1998, the Commission prohibited a major project in digital television services in order to
prevent foreclosure of the emerging markets in this sector to other suppliers of pay-TV
and related systems and services. These two mergers would have created a grouping
with major strengths in all the key areas of packaging of goods and services required
to bring digital TV services onto the market. Since the parties concerned did not offer
appropriate remedies to the competition problems identified, it was not possible to
authorize the project. The case of Volkswagen AG, Audi AG and Autogerma SpA is
a case of restrictive agreements, not a merger.
38. c)
In 1954, the Western European Union (WEU) was created to strengthen security
cooperation between the countries of Europe. It brought together the 5 countries that
had concluded the Brussels Treaty (United Kingdom, France, Belgium, Luxembourg
and the Netherlands) with the addition of the Federal Republic of Germany and Italy.
Portugal, Spain and Greece are now also members of the WEU. It offers its members
a platform for close cooperation on security and defence, and thus serves both to
strengthen Europe’s political weight in the Atlantic alliance and to establish a European
identity in security and defence policy.

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TEST A3 - KEY
39. b)
There are several programs related to justice and internal affairs, such as: DAPHNE,
FALCONE, ODYSSEUS.
40. d)
The Maastricht treaty introduced the third pillar (Justice and home affairs) as a
cooperation agreement covering nine areas considered to be of common interest:
asylum policy; the crossing of external borders; immigration; combating drug
addiction; combating international fraud; judicial cooperation in civil matters ; judicial
cooperation in criminal matters; customs cooperation; police cooperation. However,
the Treaty of Amsterdam moved “Visas, asylum, immigration and other policies related
to the free movement of persons” into the EC Treaty, thus to the first pillar. For the first
five years after the Treaty of Amsterdam came into effect, however, they will be only
partly under the Community umbrella, as the Commission continues to share its right
of initiative with the Member States, Council decisions still have to be unanimous and
the European Parliament is still not directly involved in decision-making (it is simply
consulted). Police and judicial cooperation remained under the reshaped third pillar, to
which the Treaty of Amsterdam has added the prevention and combating of racism and
xenophobia.
41. c)
The European Parliament takes part in the Community decision-making process
through 4 measures:
consultation, co-operation, co-decision and assent. Co-decision is a complex procedure,
which was simplified by the Treaty of Amsterdam (two readings, Conciliation
Committee). See Article 251 of the EC Treaty.
42. a)
The IGC decided that the decision-making system should be modified starting on
January 1, 2005. A qualified majority will be reached when:
- the decision obtains at least a number of votes close to the current threshold
(71.36% of the votes) for 15 Member States. This number will evolve according
to new acceding countries to a maximum of 73.4%. Once the EU has 27 members
the qualified majority will be fixed at 258 votes of a total 345.
- the decision gets a favourable vote from the majority of Member States
- a Member State can inquire as to whether this majority includes at least 62% of the
population. If not, the decision will be adopted
43. d)
In the framework of the EC Treaty, the Commission enjoys its own initiative power, in
legislative as well as budgetary matters, while the Council is the decision-making body.
The Commission’s initiative monopoly is laid down in the Article 250 of The EC Treaty.
44. a)
The co-decision procedure, established by the Treaty of Maastricht, consists of 3
phases. It gives the European Parliament the right to veto proposals it receives. It does
not allow the Parliament to adopt acts but to reject the proposal, which consequently
becomes null and void. See Article 251 of the EC Treaty. The Amsterdam Treaty made
the produce more extensive, and also simplified it.
45. b)
Any Member of the Commission, who no longer performs his duties satisfactorily or is
guilty of serious misconduct, can be compulsorily retired by the Court of Justice at the
request of the Council or Commission. See Article 216 of the EC Treaty. The European
Parliament can vote on adopting a motion of censure and if it is adopted by a two-thirds
majority of the vote cast, the Commission must resign as a body. See Article 201 of the
EC Treaty.
46. a)
Unanimity (the right of veto) within the Council essentially concerns politically
sensitive issues (visas, asylum, immigration, additional entitlements and citizenship),
issues of great importance (state aids, taxation, co-ordination of social security systems)
or of constitutional nature (certain appointment eg. Secretary-General of the Council,
rules governing the languages of the institutions). The Treaty of Amsterdam defined
to 11 new provision of the EC Treaty where qualified majority rule will be applied
instead of unanimity. The Treaty of Nice abolished the right of veto in another 29 areas
(taxation remains under unanimous decision-making).
47. a)
The Court rules on proceedings brought on grounds of lack of competence, infringe-
ment of an essential procedural requirement, violation of the Treaty or any rule of law
or misuse of power committed by a Member State, the Council or the Commission. See
Article 230 of the EC Treaty.
The Council, the Commission or a Member State may obtain the opinion of the Court
of Justice as to whether an envisaged agreement is compatible with the provisions of
the Treaty. See Article 300 of the EC Treaty.
According to the EC Treaty, Parliament does not have this power. However, the Treaty
of Nice amends both articles, introducing this possibility for Parliament as well.
48. b)
In June 2000, the new Cotonou Partnership Agreement was signed for a period of 20
years. It relates to the ACP countries (77 countries of Africa, the Caribbean and the
Pacific). The Cotonou Agreement substitutes the current system of Lomé Conventions
which will be maintained for the transitional period of 2000-2008. The budget of the
new Agreement is financed by the European Development Fund, with some activities
fundet by the European Investment Bank.

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TEST A3 - KEY
49. c) (and also partially b))
The association agreements go beyond the economic domain. An association is not
limited to trade. It also embraces a series of provisions related to political dialogue, the
right to establishment enterprises, the release of payments and movement of workers
etc. The association can also be a means of preparation the future accession to the
Union.
Generally, there are 2 categories of economic agreements:
- non-preferential agreements (tariff agreements, trade agreements, commercial
co-operation agreements and framework agreements for economic and social co-
-operation)
- preferential agreements (free trade agreements, agreements on the European
Economic Area, co-operation agreements)
50. a)
In 2001, the Commission proposed a new action programme for the environment,
which lists priorities for the next 5 years. “Environment 2010: our future, our choice” is
the sixth action programme benefiting the environment, and should be adopted by the
Council and Parliament according to the co-decision procedure.

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TEST A4
1. In 2001, which of the following acceding countries had the highest GDP in PPS per
inhabitant?
a) Slovenia
b) Estonia
c) Poland
d) Lithuania
2. What can be listed among the objectives of EU regional policy of the EU for the
period 2000-2006:
a) Support for rural regions
b) Support for regions, whose GDP per inhabitant reaches less than 80% of the EU
average
c) Support for regions, whose GDP per inhabitant reaches less than 70% of the EU
average
d) Support for the adaptation and modernization of politics and systems of
education, professional training and employment
3. To Cohesion Fund gives support to regions with a GPD (per inhabitant) lower
than:
a) 70 % EU average
b) 75 % EU average
c) 80 % EU average
d) 90 % EU average
4. Which institutions are responsible for approving the EU budget?
a) The Commission and the European Parliament.
b) The Court of Auditors, the European Parliament and the European Council.
c) The European Council and the European Parliament.
d) The European Council and The Court of Auditors
5. The GPD of wich of the following countries was most strongly influenced by
agriculture in 2001?
a) Estonia
b) Poland
c) Latvia
d) Malta
6. The number of European Parliament members for the period 1999-2004 is:
a) 700
b) 732
c) 626
d) 696
7. According to the Treaty of Nice, which of the current EU member states will retain
the same number of European Parliament members as they have at present:
a) France and Germany
b) Luxembourg and Germany
c) Germany and United Kingdom
d) United Kingdom and France
8. The European Parliament can pass a vote of censure on the Commission and force
it to resign. To do this, the Parliament needs the agreement of:
a) 2/3 majority
b) absolute majority
c) 3/4 majority
d) The European Parliament cannot adopt a motion of censure on the Commission
9. The EU Commissioner for Health and Consumer Protection is:
a) Michaelle Schreyer
b) Antonio Vitorino
c) David Byrne
d) Pascal Lamy
10. The European Parliament is voted in for a period of:
a) 3 years
b) 4 years
c) 5 years
d) 6 years
11. Judges of the European Court of Justice are:
a) nominated by the Member State’s parliaments for a four-year term
b) appointed by common accord of the Member States governments for a six-year
term
c) chosen by the Commission from judges of the Member States highest courts for
a six-year term
d) elected by European Union citizens for a six-year term

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12. The Court of First Instance is NOT responsible for:
a) appeals of EC personnel
b) appeals for failure to act
c) appeals of anti-dumping duties
d) competition matters in first instance
13. Which of the following institutions is NOT a Community judicial body?
a) the European Court of Justice
b) the European Court of Human Rights
c) the Court of First Instance
d) the judicial panels
14. Which of the following does NOT belong among the sources of Community
law?
a) the EC’s international agreements
b) treaties establishing the Communities
c) Community regulations, directives and decisions
d) judgments of the European Court for Human Rights
15. Meetings of the Council of the European Union usually take place in:
a) Brussels and Luxembourg
b) Brussels
c) Luxembourg
d) Brussels, Luxembourg and Strasbourg
16. The Secretariat-general of the Council of the European Union is NOT responsible
for:
a) providing administrative assistance to the Council and COREPER
b) providing interpretation facilities for the Council
c) providing legal advice to the Council
d) managing policy decided by other European Union institutions
17. COREPER I:
a) comprises the Deputy Permanent Representatives
b) comprises the Permanent Representatives (ambassadors)
c) is basically responsible for all policy matters
d) is responsible for administration of the Council’s budget
18. Which of the following bodies does NOT belong among the Council’s depending
entities:
a) the Permanent Representative Committee
b) the European Union Satellite Centre
c) the Committee of Senior Officials on Scientific and Technical Research
(COST)
d) the Committee of the Regions
19. The Socrates programme does NOT include of:
a) Erasmus
b) Comenius
c) Ariane
d) Minerva
20. The objective of the Common Agricultural Policy, as set out in Article 33 of the EC
Treaty, is NOT:
a) to stabilise markets
b) to increase agricultural productivity
c) to favour and protect the national markets of Member States
d) to ensure a fair standard of living for the agricultural community
21. The intervention price (for agricultural products) is:
a) the guaranteed price for which an intervention body designated by a Member
State buys in and stores the quantities produced
b) the minimum price at which imported agricultural products may be sold
c) the price at which the Community authorities consider that transactions should
take place
d) called “the basic price” or “the guide price”
22. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The European System of Central Banks (ESCB) is composed of the European
Central Bank (ECB) and the national central banks of the Member States which
have adopted the euro.
b) The national central banks of the Member States which do not participate in the
euro zone are members of the ESCB with no special status.
c) The national central banks of the Member States which have adopted the euro are
allowed to conduct their respective national monetary policies.
d) The Eurosystem is the term used to refer to the European Central Bank and the
national central banks of the Member States which have adopted the euro.

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23. The Statute of the European System of Central Banks and the European Central
Bank form a part of:
a) the Werner Report
b) the Single European Act
c) the Treaty of Maastricht
d) the Treaty of Amsterdam
24. The annual volume of loans granted by the European Investment Bank is approxi-
mately:
a) €6 billion
b) €11billion
c) €15 billion
d) €26 billion
25. The Court of Auditors was established:
a) in 1958 by the Treaty of Rome.
b) in 1968, on request of the Commission
c) in 1977, on request of the European Parliament
d) in 1993 by the Treaty of Maastricht
26. Which countries of the EU have the largest number of representatives (24 per
country) in the Economic and Social Committee?
a) France, Germany, Italy
b) France, Germany, Italy, the United Kingdom
c) France, Germany, Italy, the United Kingdom, Spain
d) none of the above
27. The European Ombudsman:
a) is nominated by the European Parliament
b) is nominated by the Council, after consultation with the European Parliament
c) is nominated by the Commission, after consultation with the European Parliament
d) is nominated by the Council, after consultation with the Court of Justice
28. The Europol has its seat in:
a) Strasbourg
b) The Hague
c) Luxembourg
d) London
29. Which countries of the European Union have not adopted the single currency yet?
a) Norway, Denmark, the United Kingdom
b) Finland, Ireland, the United Kingdom
c) Finland, Sweden, the United Kingdom
d) Sweden, Denmark, the United Kingdom
30. The Stability and Growth Pact, the purpose of which is to provide for sound public
finances, was adopted at the European Council of:
a) Madrid in 1996
b) Dublin in 1997
c) Luxembourg in 1997
d) Barcelona in 1998
31. All the Member States of the European Union adopted the Social Charter in 1989
with the exception of the United Kingdom, which joined the Charter in:
a) 1992
b) 1997
c) 2000
d) 2002
32. Before it could come to effect, the Amsterdam treaty had to be ratified by all
member states. Where was it subject to a referendum?
a) Denmark and Ireland
b) Denmark and Great Britain
c) Ireland and Sweden
d) Sweden and Norway
33.Any citizen of the Union, as well as any natural or legal person residing or having
a registered office in a member state has the right of access to any documents
EU. This rule of transparency was firmly integrated into the EC Treaty:
a) as article 255 of the Amsterdam Treaty
b) as article 200 of the Treaty of Maastricht
c) as an amendment to the Single European Act
d) by a decision of the Council at the Copenhagen Council in 1993

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34. The Treaty of Amsterdam introduced new sections in the Treaty establishing the
European Community. One of them was:
a) fiscal cooperation
b) monetary policy
c) employment
d) e-health
35. The Treaty of Nice concluded on February 26, 2001
a) come into effect on 1 February 2003 after its ratification by all 15 Member States
b) will come into effect after the accession of Central and eastern European countries
c) come into effect on the day of the Irish referendum which approved the Treaty
d) will come into effect when the number of member states reaches 27
36. Agenda 2000 is a Commission communication presented in July 1997 and it
provides for, among other things:
a) reform of the common agricultural policy
b) reform of composition of Institutions
c) the immediate cancellation of budget correction in favour of the United Kingdom
d) criteria for eastern enlargement for the first time
37. The European Charter of Fundamental Rights
a) became part of acquis communautaire in the Amsterdam Treaty
b) was drafted by a Convention which included representatives of national
parliaments, the European Parliament, the Commission and Heads of State and
Government and it is not integrated in the EU Treaty
c) was integrated in the Constitution of the EU in 2001
d) was adopted in Rome in 1950
38. CERN
a) is a European Organization for Nuclear Research
b) was created as a part of EUROATOM
c) was established in the 1990s
d) is based in Brussels
39. Who is NOT present at the Convention on the Future of Europe:
a) delegates of governments of Member States
b) delegates of governments of Candidate countries
c) delegates of national parliaments (of Member States)
d) delegates of the Council of Europe
40. Common asylum and immigration policies
a) are part of the Schengen acquis
b) were created by the Treaty on European Union as part of the third pillar
c) are discussed in the European Convention
d) do not exist now but in five years, when the Treaty of Amsterdam comes
into effect, the Council will lay down some common measures in this area
41. The first pillar of the EU is concerned solely with:
a) common agricultural policy and common commercial policy
b) fundamental rights and civil freedoms
c) monetary policy and functioning of ECB
d) the three Communities (EC, ECSC, EAEC)
42. The subsidiarity principle stands for:
a) diminishing Member States’ powers
b) limiting the EU’s possibility to intervene
c) giving the Council the right of veto
d) providing for intervention by national parliaments in any decision
43. The President of the Commission is nominated by:
a) the Council alone
b) the Parliament after consultation with the Council
c) the Council after consultation with the Court of Justice
d) the Council after approva European Parliament
44. According to the Treaty of Amsterdam, the minority required to block a decision in
the Council is:
a) 26 votes
b) 27 votes
c) 30 votes
d) 23 votes with a minimum of one large country involved
45. The Court of Justice’s rules of procedure are established:
a) by the Council after consultation with the Parliament
b) by the Court of Justice with the unanimous approval of the Council
c) by the Council following a proposal from the Commission
d) by the Court of Justice after consultation with Parliament

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46. According to the Treaty of Amsterdam closer co-operation is a Council procedure:
a) different from the form in which it was introduced in the Single Act
b) solely in the field of CFSP (common foreign and security policy)
c) with the right of veto by any Member State
d) started by a minimum of two-thirds of Member States
47. The Barcelona Conference (1995) concerns:
a) European security issues
b) the Euro-Mediterranean Partnership
c) budgetary rules
d) the fifth framework research programme
48. The largest contributor to the developing world is:
a) the United States
b) Japan
c) the EU
d) Australia
49. The Development Cooperation Policy is:
a) a common policy adopted by the Commission related to developing countries
b) aimed at developing cooperation with Central and Eastern Europe
c) pursued exclusively by Member States aimed at granting aid to developing
countries
d) a Community policy aimed at supporting the campaign against poverty in
developing countries
50. The first Article devoted to environmental issues in the founding documents was
introduced by:
a) the ESCS Treaty
b) the Treaty of Maastricht
c) the Treaty of Amsterdam
d) the Single Act

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TEST A4 - KEY
Test A4 - KEY:
1. a)
GDP per capita in PPS, 2001
Slovenia 11,200
Estonia 8,960
Poland 9,410
Lithuania 9,240
Source: EUROSTAT
2. d)
Objectives of the regional policy in the period 2000-2006:
Objective 1: Narrow the gap between the development levels of the various regions
where the gross domestic product (GDP) is below 75% of the Community average.
Objective 2: To revitalise all areas facing structural difficulties, whether industrial,
rural, urban or dependent on fisheries. Though situated in regions whose development
level is close to the Community average, such areas are faced with different types of
socio-economic difficulties that are often the source of high unemployment.
Objective 3: Support of adaptation and modernization of politics and systems of
education, professional training and employment
3. d)
4. c)
5. a)
Share of Agriculture in GDP, 2001
Estonia 5.8
Poland 3.8
Latvia 4.7
Malta 2.4
Source: EUROSTAT
6. c)
The current number of Parliament members is 626.
7. b)
Number of Parliament members:
The Treaty of Amsterdam The Treaty of Nice
France 87 72
Germany 99 99
Luxembourg 6 6
United Kingdom 87 72
8. a)
9. c)
Commissioners
Michaelle Schreyer Budget
Antonio Vitorino Justice and Home Affairs
David Byrne Health and Consumer Protection
Pascal Lamy Trade
Source: http://www.europa.eu.int/comm/commissioners/index_en.htm
10. c)
11. b)
The judges and advocates-general of the European Court of Justice are appointed by
common accord of the governments of the Member States. The Court is currently the
only Community institution whose members are selected without being subject to any
direct or indirect scrutiny, though some Member States organize their own selection
procedure when nominating a candidate to the Community judiciary.
12. b)
The Court of First Instance was established to relieve the pressure of work on the European
Court of Justice by dealing with disputes in which fact-finding plays an important part
such as those on competition law and staff matters. Its principal task is to hear annulment
actions, compensation claims by individuals against Community institutions, appeals of
anti-dumping duties or matters dealing with measures to protect trade. Appeals failure to
act (article 232 EC) supplement the legal protection available against the Council of the
European Union, European Commission, European Parliament and the European Central
Bank. The European Court of Justice deals with these appeals.
13. b)
The European Court of Human Rights is not a Community institution. It is exclusively
responsible for supervising the application of the 1950 European Convention on
Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms (European Convention), through hearing
complaints by individuals or contracting states. It is based in Strasbourg (France).
14. d)
Sources of Community law: 1. primary legislation (treaties establishing the
Communities; general principles of law); 2. the EC’s international agreements;
3. secondary legislation (regulations, directives/ECSC recommendations, general
and individual decisions); 4. general principles of administrative law; 5. conventions
of Member States. The European Court for Human Rights is not a Community
institution.

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TEST A4 - KEY
15. a)
The seat of the Council of the European Union is in Brussels. About 100 formal Council
meetings take place every year, normally in Brussels. However, as the result of an
agreement with the Luxembourg government, ministerial meetings convened in April,
June and October are held in the European Centre in Luxembourg. The presidency may
also schedule some ministerial meetings in its own country, especially informal ones.
16. d)
The Secretariat-General provides administrative support to the Council of the European
Union (and COREPER and Committee for Agriculture). It handles the technical side
of preparations for meetings of the Council, provides interpretation facilities, provides
legal advice to the Council and the Committees, and administers the Council’s budget.
17. a)
COREPER is split into two formations based on a functional division of labour.
COREPER I comprises the Deputy Permanent Representatives. It is primarily
responsible for preparatory work on more technical matters dealt with by the various
Councils. COREPER II comprising Permanent Representatives themselves is
responsible for matters of a more political nature.
18. d)
The Committee of the Regions has an advisory role in EU decision-making and comprises
representatives of local and regional authorities from all Member States. It was created by
the Maastricht Treaty, in 1994. Entities dependet on the Council of the European Union:
COREPER; General Secretariat of the Council of the European Union; Association
Councils; Cooperation Councils; Council of Ministers of the African, Caribbean and
Pacific States; European Union Satellite Centre; European Union Institute for Security
Studies; Committee of Senior Officials on Scientific and Technical Research.
19. c)
Ariane was a cultural programme, implemented between 1997 and 1999, for support
in the field of books and reading, including translation. Socrates has eight constituent
parts: Comenius; Erasmus; Grundvig; Lingua; Minerva; observation and innovation of
education systems and policies; joint actions with other European programmes; accom-
panying measures.
20. c)
The objectives of the Common Agricultural Policy (CAP), as set out in Article 33 of the
EC Treaty are: to increase agricultural productivity (by promoting technical progress
and by ensuring the rational development of agricultural production and the optimum
utilisation of the factors of production); to ensure a fair standard of living for the agri-
cultural community; to stabilise markets; to assure the availability of supplies; to ensure
that supplies reach consumers at reasonable prices.
21. a)
The Council fixes three different notional prices for agricultural products at the
beginning of each marketing year: the indicative price (basic price or guide price), the
threshold price (sluicegate price) and the intervention price. The indicative price is the
price at which the Community authorities consider that transactions should take place;
the threshold price is the minimum price at which imported products may be sold; the
intervention price is the guaranteed price below which an intervention body designated
by the Member States buys in and stores the quantities produced.
22. d)
The European System of Central Banks (ESCB) is composed of the European
Central Bank (ECB) and the national central banks of all 15 EU Member States. The
“Eurosystem” is the term used to refer to the ECB and the national central banks of
the Member States which have adopted the euro. The national central banks of the
Member States which do not participate in the euro area, however, are members of the
ESCB with a special status - while they are allowed to conduct their respective national
monetary policies, they do not take part in decision-making with regard to the single
monetary policy for the euro area or in the implementation of such decisions.
23. c)
The realisation of the Economic and Monetary Union project is legally based particu-
larly on the Treaty of Maastricht, a component of which is the Statute of the European
System of Central Banks and the European Central Bank.
24. d)
The European Investment Bank is a flexible and cost-effective source of funds. Its
annual volume of loans reaches €26 billion.
25. c)
The Court of Auditors was created on June 1, 1977 on the initiative of the European
Parliament.
26. b)
There are four countries which are represented in the Economic and Social Committee
by 24 members: France, Germany, Italy, and the United Kingdom.
27. a)
The European Ombudsman is nominated by the European Parliament after every
election to the European Parliament for the same electoral period as that of the
European Parliament.

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TEST A4 - KEY
28. b)
The Europol is the European Police Office established in order to encouraged expansi-
onary police co-operation and to prevent and fight against various forms of organised
crime. The headquarters are situated in the Hague.
29. d)
There are only 3 Member States of the European Union that have not yet adopted the
euro: Sweden, Denmark, and the United Kingdom. The reasons for this are largely
related to domestic politics.
30. b)
The European Council adopted the Stability and Growth Pact in June 1997 in Dublin.
The aim of the Pact is to ensure budgetary discipline in Member States after they join
the euro zone.
31. b)
The Prime Minister of Great Britain Tony Blair (the representative of Labour Party),
signed the Social Charter on behalf of Great Britain. The charter then became an
integral part of the Treaty of Amsterdam.
32. a)
The Treaty of Amsterdam was subject to a referendum in Denmark and Ireland (May
1998). It came into effect on May 1999, the first day of the second month following
ratification by the last state France.
33. a)
The transparency policy was already provided for in declaration 17 which was annexed
from the Treaty of Maastricht. However, the new article 255 was introduced by the
Amsterdam Treaty and has firmly established this transparency in the EC Treaty.
34. c)
The Treaty of Amsterdam introduced three new titles in the EC Treaty:
Title IV Visas, asylum, immigration and other policies linked to free movement of
persons
Title VIII Employment
35. a)
The Treaty of Nice was signed on February 26, 2001 and came into effect on 1 February
2003 after it was ratified in Ireland by a second referendum on October 19, 2002. Im-
plementation of certain provisions, in particular with regard to accession, will start
on the date specified in the Treaty. Other regulations will apply once the number of
Member States reaches 27.
36. a)
Agenda 2000 is a document analysing the main issues the European Union will face at
the end of the century, such as enlargement, the definition of new financial prospects
and reform of common agricultural policy. It does not provide for abolishing the British
budget correction.
37. b)
The European Council in Cologne in June 1999 decided to set up an ad hoc body
composed of representatives of various constituent bodies in order to draw up the
draft charter. The precise composition of this body, already outlined at Cologne,
was determined at the European Council in Tampere on 15 and 16 October 1999.
The European Council in Nice (7-9 December 2000) welcomed the joint proclama-
tion by the Council, the European Parliament and the Commission, of the Charter of
Fundamental Rights, which combined in a single text the civil, political, economic,
social and societal rights hitherto laid down in a variety of international, European or
national sources. The European Charter of Fundamental Rights might be integrated in
the EU Treaties as part of the Constitution of the EU.
38. a)
CERN is the European Organization for Nuclear Research and was created as an inter-
governmental organization in 1953. It currently groups together 20 countries and it is
based in Geneva.
39. d)
The Convention on the Future of Europe brought together delegates of governments of
Member States and Candidate Countries (28), 2 delegates of the national parliaments
of each Member State and Candidate Country, (56), 16 delegates from the European
parliament, and 2 delegates from the European Commission. Each of the Convention
members had his/her alternate. There was also a Chairman (Giscard d’Estaing) and two
vice- chairmen (Amato, Dehaene).
40. d)
The Treaty of Amsterdam has set down a deadline (May 2004) for the Council to adopt
measures fixing the conditions in which citizens from non-member countries can enter
the Community and move freely on Union territory. These measures should lead to
common asylum and immigration policy in the future.
41. d)
The first pillar contains all acquis communautaire of the three Communities – that
means all common and coordinated policies, single market, monetary union.

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TEST A4 - KEY
42. b)
The subsidiarity limits EU interventions. See Article 5 of the Treaty: “In areas which do
not fall within its exclusive competence, the Community shall take action, in accordance
with the principle of subsidiarity, only if and in so far as the objectives of the proposed
action cannot be sufficiently achieved by the Member States and can therefore, by reason
of the scale or effects of the proposed action, be better achieved by the Community”.
43. d)
Governments designate the President and other members of the Commission by
common assent, after consultation with Parliament (approve = consult, according to the
Amsterdam Treaty). The President and the members of the Commission as a college are
submitted to a vote of approval by the Parliament and then definitively nominated by
the governments.
44. a)
There are 3 types of votes according to the EC Treaty: vote by simple majority
(exceptional), vote by unanimity (institutional fields) and vote by qualified majority (the
rule). For qualified decision-making the votes are weighted according to demographic,
political and economic criteria. The qualified majority is 62 and the minority required
to block a decision 26 votes.
45. b)
The Court of Justice establishes its own rules of procedure submitted to the unanimous
assent of the Council. Its Statute is not fixed by the Treaty but by a separate protocol,
which can be amended by the Council at the request of the Court of Justice after con-
sultation with Parliament and the Commission.
46. c)
Closer or reinforced co-operation was introduced by the Treaty of Amsterdam. See Article
43 of the EU Treaty. ”Member States which intend to establish closer cooperation between
themselves may be authorized to make use of the institutions, procedures and mechanisms
laid down by the Treaties provided that the cooperation is proposed”. It must respect
several principles further specified by the Treaty. This situation provides a right of veto
for any Member State if national policy is to be seriously affected. The Treaty of Nice
modifies the reinforced co-operation procedure, in particular by abolishing the veto.
47) b
The Barcelona Ministerial Conference (1995) laid the foundations for the Euro-Me-
diterranean Partnership. It had 3 main objectives: to speed up economic development,
improve living conditions and promote co-operation and regional integration. The
partners are: Algeria, Cyprus, Egypt, Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Malta, Marocco, Syria,
Tunisia, Turkey and the Palestinian Authority. Libya and Mauretania are special guests.
The Barcelona Declaration was signed there.
48. c)
The European Union remains the biggest contributor to the third world. The
Commission finances direct aid by several means. ASid from Member States is coupled
with Community activities.
49. d)
The Development Cooperation Policy is a Community policy in the sphere of
development cooperation, which is complementary to the policies pursued by the
Member States. It supports:
- the sustainable economic and social development of developing countries, and
particularly the most disadvantaged among them
- the smooth and gradual integration of developing countries into the world
economy
- the campaign against poverty in the countries.
The Commission may take any useful initiative to promote the coordination. The Com-
munity and the Member States coordinate their policies on development cooperation
and consult each other on their aid programmes, both within international organizations
and during international conferences. See Title XX of the EC Treaty.
50. d)
It was not until 1987 that the first Article on environmental issues appeared in the EC
Treaty. The Treaty of Maastricht confirmed and reinforced the role of the Community
in the preservation of the environment. The Treaty of Amsterdam introduced the
co-decision procedure for environment-related actions, modified general objectives
and integrated the environmental protection into all sectoral policies and modified
provisions relating to the internal market.

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TEST A5 BASICS
1. TheEuropean Parliament is voted in for a period of:
a) 3 years
b) 4 years
c) 5 years
d) 6 years
2. Which of the following candidate countries had not finished accession negotiations
with the EU by the end of the year 2002:
a) Bulgaria, Malta, Slovenia, Slovakia
b) Rumania, Bulgaria, and Turkey
c) Rumania, Turkey, Lithuania and Estonia
d) Cyprus, Malta, Turkey
3. The Treaty on European Union was signed in the year:
a) 1957
b) 1968
c) 1986
d) 1992
4. Which of the following is NOT a part of the EU institutional framework:
a) The Council of Europe
b) The European Council
c) The Council of the EU
d) The Committee of the Regions
5. The number of EU inhabitants in 2001 reached:
a) 280 million
b) 380 million
c) 320 million
d) 400 million
6. Which of the following is one of the EU common policies:
a) Agriculture policy
b) Regional policy
c) Research and development
d) Environmental policy
7. The European Parliament members are:
a) Delegated from national parliaments
b) Directly elected
c) Installed by governments of member states
d) Installed by the Council of the European Union
8. The Treaty establishing the European Economic Community was signed in:
a) 1957
b) 1968
c) 1986
d) 1992
9. Which of the following institutions belongs among EU advisory bodies:
a) The Committee of the Regions
b) The European Parliament
c) The European Council
d) The Council of Europe
10. The Schengen Agreement:
a) reforms institutions of the EU according to enlargement
b) reforms common agriculture policy
c) was signed in 1983
d) relates to free movement of persons in the territory of the EU
11. The Court of First Instance’s headquarters are in:
a) Brussels
b) Luxembourg
c) Strasbourg
d) London
12. Judges of the European Court of Justice are nominated for a term of:
a) 3 years
b) 4 years
c) 5 years
d) 6 years
13. Which of the following institutions is the Community’s highest judicial body?
a) the European Court of Justice
b) the Court of First Instance
c) the European Supreme Court
d) the European Court of Human Rights

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/167
14. Which of the following measures, by Community institutions are usually not
binding?
a) decisions
b) regulations
c) action programmes
d) directives
15. Each Member State holds the presidency of the Council of the EU for a period of:
a) 5 months
b) 6 months
c) 7 months
d) 2 years
16. The Council of Ministers consists of:
a) one minister from each Member State
b) two ministers from each Member State
c) heads of state and government of Member States
d) ministers from each Members State and representatives of the European
Parliament
17. The European Council was established in:
a) 1957
b) 1974
c) 1989
d) 1993
18. The European Council does NOT:
a) provide a general political impetus towards European integration
b) initiate co-operation in new areas of EU activity
c) take basic EU policy decisions
d) interpret Community law
19. Leonardo da Vinci is the Community’s action programme for:
a) implementing the vocational training policy
b) support of cultural heritage of European significance
c) strengthening the competitiveness of the European audiovisual industry
d) encouraging production and the commercial use of European digital products
and promoting linguistic diversity on the Internet
20. Rural development:
a) is not linked to the Common Agricultural Policy
b) is closely linked to the Common Agricultural Policy together with measures to
support employment
c) is not financed by the European Agricultural Guidance and Guarantee Fund’s
Guarantee Section
d) is not financed by the Community at all
21. The European Central Bank’s headquarters are situated in:
a) Strasbourg
b) Brussels
c) Frankfurt am Main
d) Luxembourg
22. The model for the European Central Bank (particularly as regards its independence)
was:
a) Banque de France
b) Banca d'Italia
c) Bank of England
d) Deutsche Bundesbank
23. The curent number of members of the Economic and Social Committee is:
a) 55
b) 77
c) 111
d) 222
24. The Court of Auditors has:
a) 10 members
b) 15 members
c) 20 members
d) 25 members
25. The European Investment Bank was established in:
a) 1958
b) 1986
c) 1992
d) 1997

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26. The Committee of the Regions was established by:
a) the Treaty of Rome
b) the Treaty of Maastricht
c) the Treaty of Amsterdam
d) the Treaty of Nice
27. The European Ombudsman has its headquarters based in:
a) Bonn
b) Paris
c) Strasbourg
d) Rome
28. The first stage of European Economic and Monetary Union (EMU) began on:
a) January 1, 1990
b) July 1, 1990
c) January 1, 1991
d) July 1, 1991
29. At present, the euro zone is composed of:
a) 9 countries
b) 11 countries
c) 12 countries
d) 15 countries
30. In 1989, the “Social Charter” was adopted by all Member States of the European
Communities with the exception of:
a) Belgium
b) the United Kingdom
c) Italy
d) Spain
31. Who are considered to be the “founding fathers” of European Communities?
a) Ch. de Gaulle and K. Adenauer
b) R. Schuman and J. Monnet
c) G. Marshall and R. Schuman
d) G. Marshall and Ch. De Gaulle
32. The European Economic Area was established:
a) in 1957 by the Treaty of Rome
b) in 1992 as an agreement between the EU and EFTA
c) in 1986 by the Single European Act
d) in 1991 by the Treaty of Maastricht
33. Great Britain became a member of the European Community in:
a) 1963
b) 1957
c) 1969
d) 1973
34. The Single Act was signed in 1986. It was:
a) a political act leading to the unification of Germany
b) an act uniting the institutions of the three Communities
c) the first revision of all Treaties and it allowed for the creation of the single
market
d) an agreement creating the European Economic Area
35. The First Schengen agreement was originally signed in 1985 by 5 countries which
agreed on:
a) the creation of monetary union
b) the creation of an area with no internal borders for free movement of persons
c) the Community social policy
d) the creation of a single European market with free movement of goods, services,
persons, and capital
36. Who was the Chairman of the Convention on the Future of Europe:
a) Romano Prodi
b) Javier Solana
c) Valéry Giscard d’Estaing
d) Jacques Delors
37. The EU competition policy:
a) gives rules of competition according to which European companies can compete
against American companies
b) must guarantee the unity of the internal market and avoid the monopolisation
of certain markets by preventing firms from sharing the market via protective
agreements
c) helps governments Member States' governments support public enterprises
d) gives rules of distribution of financial aid from the common budget among
Member States

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/171
38. The name of the commissioner who is responsible for EU competition policy is:
a) Romano Prodi
b) Chris Patten
c) Mario Monti
d) Javier Solana
39. The “second pillar” of the European Union is concerned with:
a) internal affairs
b) citizen’s rights and freedoms
c) foreign and security policy
d) monetary union
40. The three pillar construction of the “house of Europe” was introduced by:
a) the Treaty of Rome
b) the Treaty of Maastricht
c) the Treaty of Amsterdam
d) the Single European Act
41. How many official languages are there in the EU of 15 Members?
a) 10
b) 11
c) 14
d) 15
42. Which method of Council decision-making implies the right of veto
a) unanimity
b) qualified majority decision
c) simple majority decision
d) common sense decision
43. Which institution has a monopoly on initiating the legislative proces?
a) the Parliament
b) the Commission
c) the Council
d) none of them
44. Which of the following institutions represents the supranational principle element?
a) the Council
b) the European Council
c) the Commission
d) all of them
45. Which institution is responsible for decide to start negotiations with applicant
countries?
a) the Parliament by a two-thirds majority
b) the Commission
c) the Council and the Parliament
d) a referendum in the applicant country and common assent by the Member
States
46. The European Parliament:
a) was restricted by the Single Act
b) was strenghtened by introducing the co-operation procedure
c) and its procedures were not effected by the Treaty of Maastricht
d) does not have sufficient power to reject a proposal
47. Closer or reinforced co-operation of the Member States:
a) is not allowed within EU institutions but in practice is often carried out
b) was introduced by the Treaty of Nice
c) was enabled by the Treaty of Amsterdam
d) can be initiated by a minimum of two-thirds of Member States
48. Qualified majority voting in the Council does not apply:
a) when fixing Common Customs Tariff duties
b) when laying down rules for implementing the provisions of transport within the
Community
c) in the field of mutual recognition of diplomas, certificates and degrees
d) for an accession application
49. The ACP countries are a block of states in:
a) Africa, the Caribbean and the Pacific
b) Asia, the Caribbean and the Pacific
c) Australia, Canada and the Pacific
d) South America, Canada and the Pacific
50. Which European country is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?
a) France
b) Germany
c) United Kingdom
d) all of them are permanent members.

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TEST A5 BASICS - KEY
Test A5 BASICS - KEY:
1. c)
2. b)
At the Copenhagen European Council (12th and 13th December 2002), the EU
concluded negotiations with ten countries: the Czech Republic, Cyprus, Estonia,
Hungary, Latvia, Lithuania, Malta, Poland, Slovakia and Slovenia.
3. d)
The Treaty on European Union was signed in Maastricht on 7 February 1992.
4. a)
According to the Treaties there are 5 EU institutions: the European Parliament,
the Commission, the Council, the Court of Justice and the Court of Auditors. The
Committee of Regions, Economic and Social Committee, EIB, and European Council
can be considered EU institutions in a more general context. The Council of Europe is
a separate organisation not related to the EU.
5. b)
In the year 2001 the total population of the EU reached 377 850 000 inhabitants.
Source: EUROSTAT.
6. a)
Common policies are agriculture policy, transport policy, trade and monetary policy.
7. b)
The members of the European Parliament have been directly elected since 1979.
8. a)
The Treaty establishing the European Economic Community was signed in Rome on
25 March 1957.
9. a)
The advisory bodies of the EU are the Economic and Social Committee and the
Committee of the Regions.
10. d)
The Schengen Agreement concerns to free movement of persons in the territory of
the EU. The first agreement between the five members was signed on 14 June 1985.
A further convention was drafted and signed on 19 January 1990. When it came into
effect in 1995, it abolished the internal borders of the signatory states and created
a single set of rules at external borders.
11. b)
The Court of First Instance is the judicial body at first instance of the European
Communities. Its headquarters are in Luxembourg.
12. d)
The 15 judges and 8 advocates-general are appointed by common accord of the
governments of the Member States and hold office for a renewable term of six years. In
order to ensure a degree of continuity, partial replacements of half of the judges and six
advocates-general take place every three years.
13. a)
The European Court of Justice is the highest judicial authority in matters of Community
law. It was established in 1952 as the Court of Justice of the European Coal and Steel
Community. It now exercises judicial functions for the Community, and in more limited
circumstances, for the third pillar of the European Union.
14. c)
Resolutions, declarations and action programmes are the most important courses
of action for forming and shaping the Community legal order. They are usually not
binding. If an action programme is specifically provided for in the Treaties, those
provisions when planning it bind the Community institutions. Other programmes are
regarded in practice merely as general guidelines with no legally binding effect.
15. b)
The presidency of the Council of the European Union rotates among the Member States
according to an established order. Each Member State holds the post for a period of six
months, beginning on 1 January or 1 July. The order of rotation is changed in the event
of enlargement, when the new Member States must be incorporated into the list.
16. a)
The Council of Ministers meets in different formations, depending on the items on the
agenda. Each council is composed of the relevant minister from each Member State.
17. b)
The European Council grew out of the Summit Conferences of Heads of State or
Government. In December 1974 it was decided that meetings should be held three
times a year under the banner of the European Council. In 1987, the Single European
Act (Article 23) formally incorporated the European Council into the Community’s
institutional set-up.

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18. d)
The European Council: provides a general political impetus towards the construction
of Europe; defines general political guidelines for European integration in relation to
both the EC and the EU; takes the most important decisions; initiates co-operation in
new areas of activity; expresses the common position in questions of external policy.
The European Court of Justice ensures that the law is observed in the interpretation and
application of the Treaty.
19. a)
Leonardo da Vinci is the action programme for implementing the European
Community's vocational training policy, supporting and supplementing action taken
by the Member States. Its aim is to use transnational cooperation to enhance quality,
promote innovation and support the European dimension of vocational training systems
and practices.
20. b)
Rural development is closely linked to the Common Agricultural Policy (CAP) together
with measures to support employment. Under Agenda 2000, it was possible to step up
rural development measures, now the second pillar of the CAP. The goals pursued by
rural development include: modernising farms; producing safe, good-quality products;
ensuring fair and stable income for farmers; improving living and working conditions
for the agricultural community.
21. c)
The European Central Bank (ECB) is a financial institution which was established
during the second stage of the realisation of the Economic and Monetary Union (EMU)
on June 1, 1998 as a successor to the European Monetary Institute. From January 1,
1999, the ECB assumed responsibility for the conduct of the single monetary policy
with the primary objective of maintaining price stability. The ECB has its seat in
Frankfurt am Maim, Germany.
22. d)
When performing its tasks, neither the European Central Bank, nor any national central
bank, nor any member of their decision-making bodies may seek or take instructions
from any external body (and vice versa) - the ECB and the national central banks of the
euro zone (the Eurosystem) are independent. In this sense, the statute of the ECB was
prepared following the model of Deutsche Bundesbank.
23. d)
The Economic and Social Committee is a consultative body of European Communities,
consisting of 222 members (representatives of different economic and social sectors).
According to the Treaty of Nice, the number of members should not exceed 350.
24. b)
The Court of Auditors consists of 15 members (one per each Member State of the
European Union) nominated by the Council of the EU, after consultation with the
European Parliament, for a six-year period. The Treaty of Nice does not change the rule
for composition: one citizen per Member State.
25. a)
The European Investment Bank is a specialised financial institution of the European
Union which was created by the Treaty of Rome (signed on March 25, 1957; came into
effect on January 1, 1958).
26. b)
The Committee of the Regions is a consultative body of the European Union which
was established in Brussels by the Treaty of Maastricht on March 15, 1994 in order
to represent the interests of the regional and local administrative bodies of Member
States.
27. c)
The Ombudsman is responsible for processing complaints received from any citizen
of the EU or any natural or legal person residing or having a registered office in any
Member State of the EU, and is based in Strasbourg.
28. b)
On the basis of the Delors Report, the European Council decided in June 1989 that the
first stage of the realisation of Economic and Monetary Union (EMU) should begin on
July 1, 1990.
29. c)
At present, the following 12 Member States of the EU are participating in the euro zone:
Austria, Belgium, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Ireland, Italy, Luxembourg, the
Netherlands, Portugal, and Spain.
30. b)
Great Britain decided not to adopt the so-called Social Charter in 1989. Great Britain
joined the Charter more recently, within the framework of the Treaty of Amsterdam in
1997.
31. b)
The foundation stone of the European Community was laid by the then French Foreign
Minister, Robert Schuman, in his declaration of 9 May 1950, in which he put forward
the plan he had worked out with Jean Monnet to pool Europe’s coal and steel industries.
Jean Monnet was the first President of the ECSC High Authority.

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TEST A5 BASICS - KEY
32. b)
The creation of the European Economic Area is based on an agreement between the
EU and EFTA signed in Porto in 1992 which came into effect in 1994. The EEA’s
objectives are: to associate the EFTA countries (except Switzerland), extend the im-
plementation of Community policies to the participating EFTA countries, and support
efforts to consolidate economic growth and reduce unemployment.
33. d)
In 1961 Great Britain first applied for membership of the EU, just after one year after
creating the EFTA. The French president Ch. de Gaulle twice refused to sign the
accession agreement. Finally, the applications of Great Britain, Denmark and Ireland
were approved in 1969 when Ch. De Gaulle left the French government and these
countries became members in 1973.
34. c)
On the basis of a White paper drawn up in 1985 by the Commission chaired by Jacques
Delors, the Community set itself the task of creating a single market by 1 January
1993. The Single Act, signed in February 1986, confirmed this ambitious target and
introduced new procedures for adopting associated legislation. It came into effect on
1 July 1987.
35. b)
In the early 1980s the Member States found it impossible to reach an agreement about
the concept of free movement of persons. France, Germany, Belgium, Luxembourg
and the Netherlands decided in 1985 to create a territory without internal borders. This
became known as the “Schengen area”. The name was taken from the name of the town
in Luxembourg where the first agreements were signed.
36. c)
The Chairman was Giscard d’Estaing.
37. b)
EU competition policy ensures that there is effective competition on the common
market. Enterprises are forbidden to sign restrictive agreements, to abuse dominant
position and to merge if this would lead to a monopolised market. It must also prevent
Member States' governments from breaking the rules by discriminating in favour of
public enterprises or by giving aid to private-sector companies (State aid).
38. c)
Mario Monti, an Italian professor of economics, is the Commissioner responsible for
competition policy.
39. c)
The Treaty on European Union, signed in Maastricht in 1992 introduced the three
pillar “house of Europe”. The first pillar conprises the three Communities (EC, ECSC,
EAEC). The second pillar is concerned with Common Foreign and Security Policy and
the third pillar is defined as Cooperation in justice and internal affairs.
40. b)
The Treaty on European Union signed in Maastricht introduced the three pillar construction.
41. b)
At the time of its creation, the Community had 4 languages. Today, there are 11.
42. a)
The right of veto is created by a method in which any decision is subject to negotiati-
ons until a consensus of all Member States is reached. This is related to a State’s vital
interest issues.
43. b)
According to the EC Treaty, the Commission enjoys its own initiative power, in
legislative as well as budgetary matters, while the Council is the decision-making body.
44. c)
The supranational principle was introduced as a new method of integration. It is based
on the assumption that the States voluntarily hand over some powers (resposibilities)
to a supranational body. This body will then perform the powers on behalf of the States
and the States will be submitted to its decisions within the specified fields.
45. c)
The Council decides to open negotiations after receiving the assent of the European
Parliament and entitles the Commission to negotiate within the assigned mandate.
46. b)
The co-operation or double reading procedure was introduced in the Single Act: If
Parliament rejects the common position or proposes amendments, the act in question
is sent back to the Council for a second reading in which the Council must approve the
act unanimously.
The co-decision procedure, established by the Treaty of Maastricht, consists of
3 phases. It gives the European Parliament the right to veto proposals it receives. It
does not allow the Parliament to adopt acts but to reject proposals, which consequently
become null and void
The Amsterdam Treaty extended the application of the procedure and simplified it.

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47. c)
Closer or reinforced co-operation was introduced by the Treaty of Amsterdam.
See Article 43 of the EU Treaty. “Member States which intend to establish closer
cooperation between themselves may be authorized to make use of the institutions,
procedures and mechanisms laid down by the Treaties, provided that the cooperation is
proposed”. It must respect several principles further specified by the Treaty. The Treaty
of Nice modifies the reinforced co-operation procedure, in particular by abolishing the
veto which any Member State could use in cases of national importance.
48. d)
An application for accession to the EU should be addressed to the Council, which
requires a unanimous vote after consultation with the Commission and after receiving
the assent of the European Parliament. See Article 49 of the EU Treaty.
49. a)
The ACP countries are composed of certain countries in Africa, the Caribbean and the
Pacific. They have 77 members. In June 2000, the new Cotonou Partnership Agreement
was signed, effective for a period of 20 years.
50. b)
Germany is not. The UN Security Council is composed of 5 permanent members (the
United States, Russia, China, France and the United Kingdom) and 10 non-permanent
members. Its responsibility is to take decisions on maintaining or re-establishing peace,
applicable in all UN member states. The permanent members of the Council have the
right of veto.