This document contains a sample question paper for a valuation examination with multiple choice questions. The questions cover topics related to valuation principles, methods and approaches including demand and supply, market value, income approach, cost approach, market approach, and relevant laws. The question paper tests the examinee's understanding of concepts, definitions, and applications of valuation for land and buildings.
Refer to the information provided in Figure 2.4 below to answer the .docxlorent8
Refer to the information provided in Figure 2.4 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 2.4
Refer to the information provided in Figure 2.5 below to answer the questions that follow.
1) production is the process by which
a) products are used by consumers.
b) resources are transformed into useful forms.
c) products are converted into capital.
d) resources are allocated and distributed.
.
2) Which of the following is a resource as the term is used by economists?
a) buildings
b) labor
c) land
d) all of the above
.
3) Economists refer to things that have already been produced that are in turn used to produce other goods and services as
a) land.
b) labor.
c) entrepreneurship.
d) capital.
.
4) According to the theory of ________, specialization and free trade will benefit all trade partners, even when some are absolutely
more efficient producers than others.
a) comparative advantage
b) absolute advantage
c) social equity
d) laissez-faire
.
5) Specialization and trade exploit differences in productivity across workers and
a) only benefit the exporter.
b) only benefit the importer
c) make everyone better off.
d) make everyone worse off
.
6) If a vintner has a comparative advantage in producing wine
a) he can produce more wine using the same resources than other vintners.
b) wine is the only product he can produce.
c) he can produce wine at a lower opportunity cost than other vintners.
d) he also has an absolute advantage in producing wine.
.
7) Which of the following is an act of economic "investment"?
a) The state legislature authorizes the sale of a state park
b) An entrepreneur buys 5000 shares of stock at $5 a share and then sells the stock at a profit for $60 a share.
c) A manufacturer purchases a new machinery system for his plant.
d) A teacher deposits $500 in a retirement account.
.
8) In economics, the creation of capital is referred to as
a) investment.
b) comparative advantage
c) consumption.
d) allocation.
.
9) When an economy is producing inside its production possibility frontier
a) production inefficiency occurs
b) only technological advances will allow it to increase production
c) it is efficient so long as it is producing what people want.
d) it must overcompensate by producing outside the curve to achieve efficiency.
.
10) According to Figure 2.4, Point A necessarily represents
a) an unattainable production point
b) only hybrid cars being produced
c) the economy's optimal production point.
d) what society wants.
.
11) According to Figure 2.4, Point F
a) is efficient and attainable
b) represents underallocation of resources
c) represents what the people want.
d) cannot be produced with the current state of technology
.
12) According to Figure 2.4, Point E necessarily represents
a) an impossible production point
b) technological advancement
c) overallocation of resources
d) only motorcycle.
This document contains a summary of key concepts in microeconomics. It includes 20 multiple choice questions covering topics like production possibilities curves, opportunity cost, demand and supply, elasticity, cost concepts, and market structures. The questions are from a compiled microeconomics document and assess understanding of fundamental microeconomic principles.
This document contains a summary of key concepts in microeconomics. It includes 20 multiple choice questions covering topics like production possibilities curves, opportunity cost, demand and supply, elasticity, cost concepts, and market structures. The questions are from a compiled microeconomics document and assess understanding of fundamental microeconomic principles.
This document contains a 12 question microeconomics quiz covering concepts like scarcity, opportunity cost, production possibilities frontiers, and efficiency. Questions ask about definitions of economic terms, identifying opportunity costs of various production choices, and determining points on a production possibilities frontier graph. The quiz concludes with a production possibilities table for cotton and corn in Egypt and questions involving calculating opportunity costs of different production combinations based on the data in the table.
This document contains a 45 question CPT exam from June 2014 covering topics in fundamentals of accounting, financial accounting standards, preparation of financial statements, inventory valuation, depreciation, partnership accounts, and consignment. The questions are multiple choice with 4 answer options for each question testing understanding of accounting concepts, journal entries, calculations, and analyzing accounting information.
The document appears to be a set of questions for a licensing exam on construction project management. It includes questions on topics like construction contracts, project scheduling, specifications for construction materials and methods, quality control testing procedures, and roles of people involved in construction projects.
The document discusses key concepts in microeconomics including:
1) Utility refers to how consumers rank goods and services based on satisfaction. Marginal utility is the additional satisfaction from consuming one more unit of a good. The law of diminishing marginal utility states that utility grows at a slower rate as more is consumed.
2) Consumers maximize utility when the marginal utility per dollar is equal for all goods purchased. Demand curves slope downward because consumers want less of a good at a higher price. Substitution and income effects explain how consumption changes when a good's price increases.
3) Elasticity measures the responsiveness of quantity to price changes. Demand is more inelastic for addictive drugs than casual drugs.
Full download : http://alibabadownload.com/product/macroeconomics-australia-7th-edition-mctaggart-test-bank/ Macroeconomics Australia 7th Edition McTaggart Test Bank
Refer to the information provided in Figure 2.4 below to answer the .docxlorent8
Refer to the information provided in Figure 2.4 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 2.4
Refer to the information provided in Figure 2.5 below to answer the questions that follow.
1) production is the process by which
a) products are used by consumers.
b) resources are transformed into useful forms.
c) products are converted into capital.
d) resources are allocated and distributed.
.
2) Which of the following is a resource as the term is used by economists?
a) buildings
b) labor
c) land
d) all of the above
.
3) Economists refer to things that have already been produced that are in turn used to produce other goods and services as
a) land.
b) labor.
c) entrepreneurship.
d) capital.
.
4) According to the theory of ________, specialization and free trade will benefit all trade partners, even when some are absolutely
more efficient producers than others.
a) comparative advantage
b) absolute advantage
c) social equity
d) laissez-faire
.
5) Specialization and trade exploit differences in productivity across workers and
a) only benefit the exporter.
b) only benefit the importer
c) make everyone better off.
d) make everyone worse off
.
6) If a vintner has a comparative advantage in producing wine
a) he can produce more wine using the same resources than other vintners.
b) wine is the only product he can produce.
c) he can produce wine at a lower opportunity cost than other vintners.
d) he also has an absolute advantage in producing wine.
.
7) Which of the following is an act of economic "investment"?
a) The state legislature authorizes the sale of a state park
b) An entrepreneur buys 5000 shares of stock at $5 a share and then sells the stock at a profit for $60 a share.
c) A manufacturer purchases a new machinery system for his plant.
d) A teacher deposits $500 in a retirement account.
.
8) In economics, the creation of capital is referred to as
a) investment.
b) comparative advantage
c) consumption.
d) allocation.
.
9) When an economy is producing inside its production possibility frontier
a) production inefficiency occurs
b) only technological advances will allow it to increase production
c) it is efficient so long as it is producing what people want.
d) it must overcompensate by producing outside the curve to achieve efficiency.
.
10) According to Figure 2.4, Point A necessarily represents
a) an unattainable production point
b) only hybrid cars being produced
c) the economy's optimal production point.
d) what society wants.
.
11) According to Figure 2.4, Point F
a) is efficient and attainable
b) represents underallocation of resources
c) represents what the people want.
d) cannot be produced with the current state of technology
.
12) According to Figure 2.4, Point E necessarily represents
a) an impossible production point
b) technological advancement
c) overallocation of resources
d) only motorcycle.
This document contains a summary of key concepts in microeconomics. It includes 20 multiple choice questions covering topics like production possibilities curves, opportunity cost, demand and supply, elasticity, cost concepts, and market structures. The questions are from a compiled microeconomics document and assess understanding of fundamental microeconomic principles.
This document contains a summary of key concepts in microeconomics. It includes 20 multiple choice questions covering topics like production possibilities curves, opportunity cost, demand and supply, elasticity, cost concepts, and market structures. The questions are from a compiled microeconomics document and assess understanding of fundamental microeconomic principles.
This document contains a 12 question microeconomics quiz covering concepts like scarcity, opportunity cost, production possibilities frontiers, and efficiency. Questions ask about definitions of economic terms, identifying opportunity costs of various production choices, and determining points on a production possibilities frontier graph. The quiz concludes with a production possibilities table for cotton and corn in Egypt and questions involving calculating opportunity costs of different production combinations based on the data in the table.
This document contains a 45 question CPT exam from June 2014 covering topics in fundamentals of accounting, financial accounting standards, preparation of financial statements, inventory valuation, depreciation, partnership accounts, and consignment. The questions are multiple choice with 4 answer options for each question testing understanding of accounting concepts, journal entries, calculations, and analyzing accounting information.
The document appears to be a set of questions for a licensing exam on construction project management. It includes questions on topics like construction contracts, project scheduling, specifications for construction materials and methods, quality control testing procedures, and roles of people involved in construction projects.
The document discusses key concepts in microeconomics including:
1) Utility refers to how consumers rank goods and services based on satisfaction. Marginal utility is the additional satisfaction from consuming one more unit of a good. The law of diminishing marginal utility states that utility grows at a slower rate as more is consumed.
2) Consumers maximize utility when the marginal utility per dollar is equal for all goods purchased. Demand curves slope downward because consumers want less of a good at a higher price. Substitution and income effects explain how consumption changes when a good's price increases.
3) Elasticity measures the responsiveness of quantity to price changes. Demand is more inelastic for addictive drugs than casual drugs.
Full download : http://alibabadownload.com/product/macroeconomics-australia-7th-edition-mctaggart-test-bank/ Macroeconomics Australia 7th Edition McTaggart Test Bank
New School of ArchitectureEcon 281Final ExamName ________.docxcurwenmichaela
New School of Architecture
Econ 281
Final Exam Name __________
1) Externalities
A) can be either benefits or costs.
B) always create extra social costs.
C) always make society better off.
D) cannot be expressed in dollar amounts.
E) are always part of private costs or private benefits.
2) A cost that arises from the production or consumption that falls on someone other than the producer or consumer is called
A) a negative benefit.
B) a public choice impact.
C) a positive externality.
D) a negative externality.
E) a private good.
3) Evidence of external costs in the production of a product is present if
A) the price of the product is higher than it should be.
B) the production cost increases because of an increase in the minimum wage.
C) non-buyers and/or non-producers of the product experience a loss for which they are not compensated.
D) buyers refuse to purchase the product.
E) producers pay all of the costs of producing the good or service.
4) Marginal private cost
A) is always zero if there is an external cost.
B) equals the marginal social cost only if the marginal external cost is positive.
C) is the cost of producing an additional unit of a good or service that is paid by the producer of that good or service.
D) the cost of producing an additional unit of a good or service that falls on people other than the producer of that good or service.
E) the cost of producing an additional unit of a good or service that is paid by the entire society.
5) A private cost is a cost of production that is
A) borne by the producer of a good.
B) measured in marginal terms.
C) borne by someone other than the producer of a good.
D) measured in total terms.
E) the same as an external cost.
6) The difference between private cost and social cost is that
A) social cost only considers the external cost borne by society.
B) social cost only considers the cost borne by people other than the producer.
C) private cost only considers the cost borne by producers of the good.
D) social cost also includes any external benefit whereas private cost excludes all external benefits.
E) there is no difference; the terms refer to the same cost.
7) Harry, the owner of a beauty salon, hires a new hair stylist. The wages paid to the new stylist are
A) a private cost and not an external cost.
B) an external cost and not a private cost.
C) both a private cost and an external cost.
D) neither a private cost nor an external cost.
E) only a private benefit because people want their hair styled.
8 The cost of producing an additional unit of a good or service that falls on people other than the producer is the marginal
A) external cost.
B) private cost.
C) social cost.
D) social benefit.
E) None of the above answers is correct.
9) A firm dumps dioxin in a river, thereby severely polluting the river. The cost of the water pollution is
i. zero for the firm.
ii. an external cost.
iii. part of the marginal social cost
A) i only
B) ii only
C) iii only
D) ii and iii
E) i, ...
The document contains multiple choice questions about accounting concepts such as current assets, current liabilities, capital expenditures, cash discounts, tangible and intangible assets, purchases, debtors, creditors, features of business transactions, cash book balances, and the purpose of accounting journals. It tests the reader's understanding of key terms and how to classify different accounting items and transactions.
Sample Macro QuestionsMultiple Choice (Select the best option av.docxanhlodge
Sample Macro Questions
Multiple Choice (Select the best option available.)
1..
In the factor market, households
(a)
sell resources.
(b)
buy resources.
(c)
are neither buyers nor sellers of resources.
(d)
are both buyers and sellers of resources.
2.
GDP does not include
(a)
business investment.
(b)
overseas production of U.S. subsidiaries.
(c)
net exports.
(d)
consumption expenditures.
3.
Official unemployment rates may underestimate the true rate of unemployment because the
official rate
(a)
includes those workers who only work part time.
(b)
may include some individuals who are not actually in the labor force.
(c)
does not include individuals receiving any type of unemployment compensation.
(d)
fails to include discouraged workers.
4.
If the U.S. economy enters a recessionary phase, the
(a)
economy experiences full employment.
(b)
unemployment rate will increase.
(c)
entire population will be unemployed.
(d)
entire population will be partially unemployed.
5.
The circular flow diagram shows
(a)
goods, services, and money payments flowing in the same direction.
(b)
goods and money payments flowing in one direction and services flowing in the opposite direction.
(c)
goods and services flowing in one direction and money payments in the other direction.
(d)
goods flowing in one direction and services and money payments flowing in the other direction.
6.
GDP measures
(a)
the total value of labor used in the economy.
(b)
the total market value of final goods and services produced within a nation’s borders.
(c)
the total income received by residents of a nation.
(d)
the total worth of all goods consumed within the borders of a nation.
7.
A price index shows
(a)
the current cost of a basket of goods.
(b)
the relative price of necessities.
(c)
the price of goods in the future.
(d)
the cost of today’s goods expressed in terms of the cost of goods in a base year.
8. A public good is:
(a) a good or service for which it is relatively easy to exclude nonpaying customers from consumption.
(b) a good or service which is consumed by both the paying and nonpaying customers.
(c) any good or service which is produced by the government.
(d) a good or service which is consumed by private individuals and financed by private contributions.
9.
The sum of all planned expenditures for the entire economy at each possible price level is
(a)
aggregate supply.
(b)
effective demand.
(c)
aggregate demand.
(d)
actual expenditures by consumers.
10.
Suppose the total value of all assets in the United States is $10 trillion. In 2006, the total value of all final services produced in the United States was $100 billion, the total value of all final goods produced in the United States was $300 billion, and the total value of all final goods and services produced by American firms in other countries was $100 billion. In this situation, gross domestic product for 2006 was
(a)
$600 billion.
(b)
$500 billion.
(c)
$400 billion.
(d).
Common Final Exam ECON 201 OL2 Spring 2014 I. MULTIP.docxmonicafrancis71118
Common Final Exam ECON 201 OL2 Spring 2014
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 questions 2 points each). Choose the one alternative that best completes
the statement or answers the question.
1) Business cycles are 1) _______
A) used to describe fluctuations in GDP.
B) a description of the time required to bring a new product to market.
C) the transfer of executives between firms.
D) movements in stock prices.
2) If real GDP was 100 in 2011 and 104.4 in 2012, the growth rate of real GDP between 2011 and 2012 was
2) _______
A) 2.2 percent.B) 4.4 percent. C) 100 percent. D) 102.2 percent.
3) When considering imports and exports, economists include the ________ as a component of the GDP.
3) _______
A) net exports B) total imports C) gross exports D) total exports
4) Which prices are used to measure goods and services in calculating the nominal GDP? 4) _______
A) projected prices B) average prices
C) current prices D) past years prices
5) Which of the following is NOT an example of private investment expenditure? 5) _______
A) using credit cards to purchase durable and nondurable goods
B) new houses built during the year
C) increases in inventories on goods produced during the year
D) new plants and equipment added during the year
6) Which of the following is NOT a component of gross domestic product? 6) _______
A) net exports
B) purchases by consumers of finished goods
C) purchases by consumers of used goods
D) government purchases
7) If Cassie's Coffee House purchases 33 cents worth of ingredients and spends 36 cents on wages per cup of
coffee to produce an 89 cent cup of coffee, then Cassie's Coffee House's contribution to GDP is ________ per
cup of coffee. 7) _______
A) 20 cents B) 33 cents C) 36 cents D) 56 cents
8) Economists define the labor force to include 8) _______
A) people who are working.
B) only people who are working full time.
C) people who are not working but are actively looking for a job, and people who are working.
D) all individuals of working age, regardless of whether they are working or looking for a job.
9) If Sam does not have a job and is not looking for work, he is considered 9) _______
jose.king
Highlight
jose.king
Highlight
jose.king
Highlight
jose.king
Highlight
A) not in the labor force. B) unemployed.
C) unemployed and in the labor force. D) unemployed and not in the labor force.
10) Suppose that the CPI in Egypt was 111 in 2011 and 122 in 2012. The inflation rate between those two years
was approximately 10) ______
A) 4.8 percent.B) 5.5 percent. C) 9.9 percent. D) 11 percent.
11) In June 2012, the U.S. labor force consisted of 142,415,000 employed and 12,749,000 unemployed. The
U.S. unemployment rate for June 2012 was about 11) ______
A) 7.4 percent.B) 8.2 percent. C) 9.0 percent. D) 11.2 percent.
12) Juanita quit her job to move to Santa Fe to be closer to her family. She is actively looking for a new job in
Santa Fe. Juanita is con.
1) Suppose that you purchased a ticket to the symphony for $40 fro.docxdorishigh
1) Suppose that you purchased a ticket to the symphony for $40 from an online ticket broker. Once you arrived at the symphony, you discovered that parking costs you an additional $10. In this situation, the additional $10 you pay for parking is an example of
A) an inefficient cost.
B) marginal cost.
C) opportunity cost.
D) an economic loss.
2) Opportunity cost is
A) the additional cost incurred from the consumption of one more unit of output.
B) the cost involved when choosing between alternatives.
C) the cost of production which cannot be recaptured.
D) the total cost incurred from the consumption of additional output.
3) As an individual consumes ________ of a product within a given period of time, it is likely that each additional unit consumed will yield ________ satisfaction.
A) more; successively more
B) more; successively less
C) more; no additional
D) less; negative
Refer to the information provided in Figure 3.1 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 3.1
4) Refer to Figure 3.1. Which of the following would be most likely to cause the demand for Dr. Pepper to shift from D0 to D1?
A) an increase in income, assuming that Dr. Pepper is a normal good
B) a decrease in the price of 7-UP, assuming 7-UP is a substitute for Dr. Pepper
C) an increase in the price of Dr. Pepper
D) an increase in the price of sugar used to make Dr. Pepper
5) If the price of spinach decreases, there will be ________ of spinach enchiladas.
A) an increase in the supply
B) a decrease in the supply
C) an increase in the quantity supplied
D) a decrease in the quantity supplied
Refer to the information provided in Figure 3.15 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 3.15
6) Refer to Figure 3.15. A decrease in the wage rate of gardenburger makers will cause a movement from Point B on supply curve S2 to
A) Point A on supply curve S2.
B) Point C on supply curve S2.
C) supply curve S3.
D) supply curve S1.
Refer to the information provided in Table 3.2 below to answer the questions that follow.
Table 3.2
Price per Cheeseburger
Quantity Demanded (Cheeseburgers per Month)
Quantity Supplied (Cheeseburgers per Month)
$5
1,500
500
6
1,200
700
7
900
900
8
600
1,100
9
300
1,300
7) Refer to Table 3.2. This market will be in equilibrium if the quantity of cheeseburgers demanded is
A) 300.
B) 600.
C) 900.
D) 1,200.
8) Refer to Table 3.2. If the price per cheeseburger is $5, the price will
A) remain constant because the market is in equilibrium.
B) decrease because there is an excess demand in the market.
C) increase because there is an excess demand in the market.
D) decrease because there is an excess supply in the market.
Refer to the information provided in Figure 3.13 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 3.13
9) Refer to Figure 3.13. The market is initially in equilibrium at Point A. If supply shifts from S1 to S2 and there is an excess demand of 6 cheeseburgers, the price of cheeseburgers will hav ...
Instructions use a RED scantron and bubble in your answers. T.docxdirkrplav
Instructions: use a RED scantron and bubble in your answers. Turn in your
scantron along with your typed answers to the written portion of the exam.
1. When private ownership rights are well-defined and enforced, owners
a. can ignore the wishes of others, without bearing the cost.
b. have little incentive to take care of things.
c. can do anything they want with their property.
d. can be held accountable for damage to others through misuse of their
property.
2. Criteria for rationing goods and resources must be established because of
a. the law of comparative advantage.
b. the use of capitalism as a form of economic organization.
c. the inability of politicians to develop efficient forms of economic organization.
d. scarcity imposed by nature.
3. When we say the cost of production is $50, what is meant according to economic
principles?
a. A firm had to spend $50 in order to purchase the resources required to make the
good or service.
b. A value to society of this good or service was $50, so its cost is said to be $50.
c. A firm could have made something else with the resources that was worth $50 in
the market.
d. $50 represents the maximum willingness to pay from market participants.
4. For markets to be efficient in production, what must be true?
e. All profitable opportunities must be exhausted
f. No firm is doing something where MC>MB
g. All of the above
h. None of the above
Use the production possibilities data below for Honduras and Nicaragua to answer the
following question(s).
Table 2-2
Honduras
Oranges Apples
0 16
1 12
2 8
3 4
4 0
Nicaragua
Oranges Apples
0 8
1 6
2 4
3 2
4 0
5. Refer to Table 2-2. Which of the following is correct?
a. Honduras has the comparative advantage in both goods.
b. Nicaragua has the comparative advantage in oranges.
c. Honduras has the comparative advantage in oranges.
d. It would be impossible for Honduras and Nicaragua to gain from trade.
Figure 2-2
6. Which of the following would most likely cause the production possibilities curve for
breadfruit and fish to shift outward from AA to BB in Figure 2-2?
a. a decrease in the labor force of the country
b. a sudden change in consumer preferences for more fish and less breadfruit
c. a major technological advance
d. a decrease in the capital stock
Figure 2-10
7. Refer to Figure 2-10. A movement from point C to point D could be caused by
a. unemployment.
b. a decrease in society's preference for bananas.
c. fewer resources available for production of bananas.
d. All of the above are correct.
8. Which of the following results in more elastic demand?
a. Fewer substitutes
b. Less time in which to respond to a price spike
c. A higher proportion of income spent on the good
d. Good considered a luxury good rather than a necessity
9. Two points on a demand curve are P=60,Q=10 and P=30,Q=30. What is the elasticit.
1. BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation organizations that originated the concept of biodiversity hotspots and identifies Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas.
2. Teak is a dominant tree species in tropical moist deciduous forests in India.
3. The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action is an agenda for women's empowerment adopted at a UN conference.
This document appears to be instructions for an economics entrance exam in India. It provides details about the exam such as the date, time limit, number of questions, and scoring information. It instructs students to write their hall ticket number on the paper and answer sheet. It indicates there are two sections, with Section A having 25 questions and Section B having 75 questions. Use of a non-programmable calculator is allowed.
The document contains a series of questions with multiple choice answers about ordering sentences to form coherent paragraphs. The questions cover topics such as scientific realism, industrial development in India, emission trading, demand in economics, and Count Rumford's experiments on heat.
This document contains a question bank on financial derivatives. It includes 45 multiple choice questions testing understanding of key concepts related to financial derivatives such as forwards, futures, hedging, and positions (long vs. short). The questions cover how derivative payoffs are linked to underlying securities, examples of different types of derivatives, reasons for hedging, and how hedging works to reduce interest rate risk through offsetting gains or losses on futures contracts versus held securities.
The document contains 47 multiple choice questions related to construction management. The questions cover topics such as project scheduling techniques like bar charts, CPM and PERT, network analysis methods, activity definitions, float calculations, cost control, safety practices, contract management and other construction management concepts. Answers to all 47 questions are provided at the end.
PREVIEW OF HOMEWORK # 5, ECO 157MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect 1. Mo.docxChantellPantoja184
PREVIEW OF HOMEWORK # 5, ECO 157MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
1. Monopoly is at the other end of the spectrum from: A) monopolistic competition
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
B) perfect competition
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
C) oligopoly
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
D) none of the aboveCorrect answer(s): B
2. Barriers that prevent the entry of new firms may arise because: A) economies of scale exist over a substantial range of industry demand.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
B) price exceeds marginal cost.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
C) marginal revenue is less than average total cost.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
D) the government protects some firms from competition.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
E) of both a. and d.
Correct answer(s): E
3. Pure monopoly: A) is characterized by single supplier.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
B) is a market structure in which no close substitute products are available.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
C) exists when entry and survival of potential competitors is extremely unlikely.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
D) is characterized by all of the above.
Correct answer(s): D
4. Why does the government allow some markets to be monopolized by granting patents? A) to promote a more equal distribution of income
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
B) to correct for negative externalities
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
C) to promote technological progress
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
D) to ensure lower prices for consumers in the short run
Correct answer(s): C
5. Many communities have granted monopoly rights to cable companies. This is an example of a monopoly created through: A) government licensing.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
B) ownership of the cable resources.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
C) patent protection.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
D) smart business practices by shrewd entrepreneurs.
Correct answer(s): A
6. When a single firm can produce output over the relevant range of demand more efficiently than two or more firms can, because of the existence of economies of scale, we have: A) perfect competition.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
B) monopolistic competition.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
C) diseconomies of scale.
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
D) a natural monopoly
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
E) is called a government monopoly.
Correct answer(s): C
7. Which of these contributes to the existence of monopoly power? A) the control of critical resources
MACROBUTTON HTMLD.
This document provides instructions for a test being administered. It states that the test contains 100 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each with negative marking for incorrect answers. Answers should be marked on the provided OMR answer sheet. No additional materials will be provided and electronic devices are prohibited. The document provides examples of the types of questions that will be on the test related to topics like ratios, percentages, time, speed and distance word problems.
The document contains a series of paragraphs that have been scrambled and need to be put in the correct logical order. It provides directions for rearranging sentences from several paragraphs to form coherent summaries. Several examples are given of rearranged sentences with the correct order highlighted.
This document contains 60 multiple choice questions related to accounting topics such as financial statements, inventory valuation, long-lived assets, intangibles, contingencies, bonds, and leases. The questions cover concepts like cash, accounts receivable, inventory systems, depreciation methods, impairment of assets, contingencies, bonds, and types of leases.
Final Exam ECON 201 OL4 US2 Fall 2014I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 ques.docxmydrynan
Final Exam ECON 201 OL4 US2 Fall 2014
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 questions 2 points each). Choose the one alternative that best completes
the statement or answers the question.
1) ________ is a situation in which resources are limited in quantity and can be used in different ways. 1) _______
A) Choice B) Economics
C) Supply and demand D) Scarcity
2) The single largest expenditure component in GDP is: 2) _______
A) consumption expenditures. B) private investment expenditures.
C) net exports. D) government purchases.
3) In the circular flow diagram, the different payments made by firms to households are: 3) _______
A) rent on office and factory buildings. B) interest on borrowed money.
C) wages and salaries. D) all of the above.
4) ________ is commonly defined as six consecutive months of declining real GDP. 4) _______
A) A recession B) An expansion C) A peak D) A trough
5) If gross investment in 2009 is $600 billion and depreciation in 2012 is $50 billion, net investment in 2012 is: 5)
_______
A) $600 billion. B) $50 billion.
C) $550 billion. D) none of the above.
6) The number of people classified as employed is 220,000 and the number of people classified as unemployed is 30,000.
The size of the labor force: 6) _______
A) equals 250,000.
B) equals 200,000.
C) equals 300,000.
D) cannot be determined from this information.
7) Unanticipated inflation arbitrarily redistributes income because: 7) _______
A) medical costs rise faster than health insurance premiums.
B) nominal interest rates fall below real interest rates.
C) actual tax revenue decreases and so do government subsidies.
D) people forecast relative prices incorrectly and either gain or lose purchasing power.
8) A ʺshoe‐leather costʺ is the cost associated with: 8) _______
A) trying to reduce holdings of cash when there is inflation.
B) changing price lists when there is inflation.
C) designing a new basketball sneakers when there is inflation.
D) buying new shoes when there is inflation.Table 6.11
9) Refer to Table 6.11. If 1999 is the base year, the price index in 2001 is: 9) _______
A) 100. B) 1998. C) 121.7. D) 138.7.
10) Refer to Table 6.11. If 1999 is the base year, then the inflation rate (i.e., the growth rate of the price index) between 1999
and 2000 is: 10) ______
A) 121.7 percent. B) zero percent. C) 2.17 percent. D) 17.8 percent.
Figure 8.1
11) Refer to Figure 8.1. If the saving rate is s2, the economy reaches the long run equilibrium at: 11) ______
A) pt. E. B) pt. A.C) pt. D. D) pt. C.
12) If the economy experiences an increase in the amount of capital stock per worker, then we say that the economy is
experiencing: 12) ______
A) capital deepening. B) capital depreciation.
C) capital widening. D) technological progress.
13) Using a production possibility curve, a shifting of the curve outward illustrates: 13) ______
A) economic growth. B) a lower level of production.
C) a decrease in the unemployment rate.D) fewer inputs.
14) Steel rod prices are an example of: 14) ______
A) ...
This document contains a multi-part exam on corporate finance concepts. Part I contains 25 multiple choice questions covering topics like agency costs, net present value calculations, portfolio risk and return, and option valuation. Part II contains a problem asking to calculate monthly payments on auto financing and the required size of a cash back offer. Part III contains two longer problems, the first asking to calculate betas and the security market line given a two-asset portfolio, and the second asking how unexpected inflation would affect the prices of a leveraged firm's debt and equity.
This document contains 30 multiple choice questions related to estimating and costing. The questions cover topics like types of beams in canals, definitions of VAT and provisional sum, specifications for contractor work, center line estimation methods, measurement units, order of measurement, break wall thickness, tentative road cost calculation, definitions of demolition and salvage value, depreciation methods, and incorrect statements. The document provides answers to the questions from various subject matter experts to test knowledge of concepts in estimating and costing.
The document contains 50 multiple choice questions covering various topics in science, mathematics, and engineering. The questions test knowledge in areas such as: properties of materials, units of measurement, financial and accounting concepts, thermodynamics, fluid mechanics, chemistry, and more. The correct answer is provided for each question.
ECN 282 Final Exam Spring 20161.The marginal propensity.docxSALU18
ECN 282
Final Exam Spring 2016
1.
The marginal propensity to consume is equal to:
A)
the proportion of consumer spending as a function of aggregate disposable income.
B)
the change in saving divided by the change in aggregate disposable income.
C)
the ratio of the change in consumer spending to the change in aggregate disposable income.
D)
the change in saving divided by the change in consumer spending.
2.
The MPS plus the MPC must equal:
A)
zero.
B)
one.
C)
income.
D)
saving.
3.
If the MPS = 0.1, then the value of the multiplier equals:
A)
1.
B)
5.
C)
9.
D)
10.
4.
If the multiplier equals 4, then the marginal propensity to save must be equal to:
A)
1/4.
B)
1/2.
C)
3/4.
D)
the marginal propensity to consume.
5.
Suppose that the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, and investment spending increases by $100 billion. The increase in aggregate demand is:
A)
$100 billion, the same amount as investment spending.
B)
$125 billion, composed of $100 billion in investment spending and $25 billion in consumption.
C)
$80 billion, composed of $100 billion in investment spending and a decrease in consumption of $20 billion.
D)
$500 billion, composed of $100 billion in investment spending and $400 billion in consumption.
6.
The marginal propensity to save is:
A)
savings divided by aggregate income.
B)
the fraction of an additional dollar of disposable income that is saved.
C)
1 + MPC.
D)
savings divided by aggregate income or 1 + MPC.
7.
If disposable income increases by $5 billion and consumer spending increases by $4 billion, the marginal propensity to consume is equal to:
A)
20.
B)
0.8.
C)
1.25.
D)
9.
8.
The spending multiplier is equal to:
A)
MPC / MPS.
B)
1 / (1 – MPS).
C)
MPC + MPS.
D)
1 / (1 – MPC).
9.
Suppose that a financial crisis decreases investment spending by $100 billion and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8. Assuming no taxes and no trade, by how much will real GDP change?
A)
$500 billion decrease
B)
$200 billion decrease
C)
$800 billion decrease
D)
$400 billion increase
10.
Suppose the government increases spending by $100 billion as a stimulus package. If the MPC is 0.6, then equilibrium income will:
A)
decrease by $250 billion.
B)
increase by $250 billion.
C)
increase by $600 billion.
D)
decrease by $400 billion.
11.
According to the National Bureau of Economic Research, the U.S. economy is going through a severe recession. Most households are trying to save more of their income than before. This increase in private spending will lead to:
A)
an increase in aggregate income, as more saving means more funds for business investment.
B)
a fall in aggregate income, as more saving means people will spend less.
C)
no change in aggregate income, because there is no saving multiplier.
D)
an increase in aggregate income, as an increase in saving will make people wealthier.
12.
A key statistic to measure economic growth is:
A)
the size of the ...
Open Channel Flow: fluid flow with a free surfaceIndrajeet sahu
Open Channel Flow: This topic focuses on fluid flow with a free surface, such as in rivers, canals, and drainage ditches. Key concepts include the classification of flow types (steady vs. unsteady, uniform vs. non-uniform), hydraulic radius, flow resistance, Manning's equation, critical flow conditions, and energy and momentum principles. It also covers flow measurement techniques, gradually varied flow analysis, and the design of open channels. Understanding these principles is vital for effective water resource management and engineering applications.
Blood finder application project report (1).pdfKamal Acharya
Blood Finder is an emergency time app where a user can search for the blood banks as
well as the registered blood donors around Mumbai. This application also provide an
opportunity for the user of this application to become a registered donor for this user have
to enroll for the donor request from the application itself. If the admin wish to make user
a registered donor, with some of the formalities with the organization it can be done.
Specialization of this application is that the user will not have to register on sign-in for
searching the blood banks and blood donors it can be just done by installing the
application to the mobile.
The purpose of making this application is to save the user’s time for searching blood of
needed blood group during the time of the emergency.
This is an android application developed in Java and XML with the connectivity of
SQLite database. This application will provide most of basic functionality required for an
emergency time application. All the details of Blood banks and Blood donors are stored
in the database i.e. SQLite.
This application allowed the user to get all the information regarding blood banks and
blood donors such as Name, Number, Address, Blood Group, rather than searching it on
the different websites and wasting the precious time. This application is effective and
user friendly.
New School of ArchitectureEcon 281Final ExamName ________.docxcurwenmichaela
New School of Architecture
Econ 281
Final Exam Name __________
1) Externalities
A) can be either benefits or costs.
B) always create extra social costs.
C) always make society better off.
D) cannot be expressed in dollar amounts.
E) are always part of private costs or private benefits.
2) A cost that arises from the production or consumption that falls on someone other than the producer or consumer is called
A) a negative benefit.
B) a public choice impact.
C) a positive externality.
D) a negative externality.
E) a private good.
3) Evidence of external costs in the production of a product is present if
A) the price of the product is higher than it should be.
B) the production cost increases because of an increase in the minimum wage.
C) non-buyers and/or non-producers of the product experience a loss for which they are not compensated.
D) buyers refuse to purchase the product.
E) producers pay all of the costs of producing the good or service.
4) Marginal private cost
A) is always zero if there is an external cost.
B) equals the marginal social cost only if the marginal external cost is positive.
C) is the cost of producing an additional unit of a good or service that is paid by the producer of that good or service.
D) the cost of producing an additional unit of a good or service that falls on people other than the producer of that good or service.
E) the cost of producing an additional unit of a good or service that is paid by the entire society.
5) A private cost is a cost of production that is
A) borne by the producer of a good.
B) measured in marginal terms.
C) borne by someone other than the producer of a good.
D) measured in total terms.
E) the same as an external cost.
6) The difference between private cost and social cost is that
A) social cost only considers the external cost borne by society.
B) social cost only considers the cost borne by people other than the producer.
C) private cost only considers the cost borne by producers of the good.
D) social cost also includes any external benefit whereas private cost excludes all external benefits.
E) there is no difference; the terms refer to the same cost.
7) Harry, the owner of a beauty salon, hires a new hair stylist. The wages paid to the new stylist are
A) a private cost and not an external cost.
B) an external cost and not a private cost.
C) both a private cost and an external cost.
D) neither a private cost nor an external cost.
E) only a private benefit because people want their hair styled.
8 The cost of producing an additional unit of a good or service that falls on people other than the producer is the marginal
A) external cost.
B) private cost.
C) social cost.
D) social benefit.
E) None of the above answers is correct.
9) A firm dumps dioxin in a river, thereby severely polluting the river. The cost of the water pollution is
i. zero for the firm.
ii. an external cost.
iii. part of the marginal social cost
A) i only
B) ii only
C) iii only
D) ii and iii
E) i, ...
The document contains multiple choice questions about accounting concepts such as current assets, current liabilities, capital expenditures, cash discounts, tangible and intangible assets, purchases, debtors, creditors, features of business transactions, cash book balances, and the purpose of accounting journals. It tests the reader's understanding of key terms and how to classify different accounting items and transactions.
Sample Macro QuestionsMultiple Choice (Select the best option av.docxanhlodge
Sample Macro Questions
Multiple Choice (Select the best option available.)
1..
In the factor market, households
(a)
sell resources.
(b)
buy resources.
(c)
are neither buyers nor sellers of resources.
(d)
are both buyers and sellers of resources.
2.
GDP does not include
(a)
business investment.
(b)
overseas production of U.S. subsidiaries.
(c)
net exports.
(d)
consumption expenditures.
3.
Official unemployment rates may underestimate the true rate of unemployment because the
official rate
(a)
includes those workers who only work part time.
(b)
may include some individuals who are not actually in the labor force.
(c)
does not include individuals receiving any type of unemployment compensation.
(d)
fails to include discouraged workers.
4.
If the U.S. economy enters a recessionary phase, the
(a)
economy experiences full employment.
(b)
unemployment rate will increase.
(c)
entire population will be unemployed.
(d)
entire population will be partially unemployed.
5.
The circular flow diagram shows
(a)
goods, services, and money payments flowing in the same direction.
(b)
goods and money payments flowing in one direction and services flowing in the opposite direction.
(c)
goods and services flowing in one direction and money payments in the other direction.
(d)
goods flowing in one direction and services and money payments flowing in the other direction.
6.
GDP measures
(a)
the total value of labor used in the economy.
(b)
the total market value of final goods and services produced within a nation’s borders.
(c)
the total income received by residents of a nation.
(d)
the total worth of all goods consumed within the borders of a nation.
7.
A price index shows
(a)
the current cost of a basket of goods.
(b)
the relative price of necessities.
(c)
the price of goods in the future.
(d)
the cost of today’s goods expressed in terms of the cost of goods in a base year.
8. A public good is:
(a) a good or service for which it is relatively easy to exclude nonpaying customers from consumption.
(b) a good or service which is consumed by both the paying and nonpaying customers.
(c) any good or service which is produced by the government.
(d) a good or service which is consumed by private individuals and financed by private contributions.
9.
The sum of all planned expenditures for the entire economy at each possible price level is
(a)
aggregate supply.
(b)
effective demand.
(c)
aggregate demand.
(d)
actual expenditures by consumers.
10.
Suppose the total value of all assets in the United States is $10 trillion. In 2006, the total value of all final services produced in the United States was $100 billion, the total value of all final goods produced in the United States was $300 billion, and the total value of all final goods and services produced by American firms in other countries was $100 billion. In this situation, gross domestic product for 2006 was
(a)
$600 billion.
(b)
$500 billion.
(c)
$400 billion.
(d).
Common Final Exam ECON 201 OL2 Spring 2014 I. MULTIP.docxmonicafrancis71118
Common Final Exam ECON 201 OL2 Spring 2014
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 questions 2 points each). Choose the one alternative that best completes
the statement or answers the question.
1) Business cycles are 1) _______
A) used to describe fluctuations in GDP.
B) a description of the time required to bring a new product to market.
C) the transfer of executives between firms.
D) movements in stock prices.
2) If real GDP was 100 in 2011 and 104.4 in 2012, the growth rate of real GDP between 2011 and 2012 was
2) _______
A) 2.2 percent.B) 4.4 percent. C) 100 percent. D) 102.2 percent.
3) When considering imports and exports, economists include the ________ as a component of the GDP.
3) _______
A) net exports B) total imports C) gross exports D) total exports
4) Which prices are used to measure goods and services in calculating the nominal GDP? 4) _______
A) projected prices B) average prices
C) current prices D) past years prices
5) Which of the following is NOT an example of private investment expenditure? 5) _______
A) using credit cards to purchase durable and nondurable goods
B) new houses built during the year
C) increases in inventories on goods produced during the year
D) new plants and equipment added during the year
6) Which of the following is NOT a component of gross domestic product? 6) _______
A) net exports
B) purchases by consumers of finished goods
C) purchases by consumers of used goods
D) government purchases
7) If Cassie's Coffee House purchases 33 cents worth of ingredients and spends 36 cents on wages per cup of
coffee to produce an 89 cent cup of coffee, then Cassie's Coffee House's contribution to GDP is ________ per
cup of coffee. 7) _______
A) 20 cents B) 33 cents C) 36 cents D) 56 cents
8) Economists define the labor force to include 8) _______
A) people who are working.
B) only people who are working full time.
C) people who are not working but are actively looking for a job, and people who are working.
D) all individuals of working age, regardless of whether they are working or looking for a job.
9) If Sam does not have a job and is not looking for work, he is considered 9) _______
jose.king
Highlight
jose.king
Highlight
jose.king
Highlight
jose.king
Highlight
A) not in the labor force. B) unemployed.
C) unemployed and in the labor force. D) unemployed and not in the labor force.
10) Suppose that the CPI in Egypt was 111 in 2011 and 122 in 2012. The inflation rate between those two years
was approximately 10) ______
A) 4.8 percent.B) 5.5 percent. C) 9.9 percent. D) 11 percent.
11) In June 2012, the U.S. labor force consisted of 142,415,000 employed and 12,749,000 unemployed. The
U.S. unemployment rate for June 2012 was about 11) ______
A) 7.4 percent.B) 8.2 percent. C) 9.0 percent. D) 11.2 percent.
12) Juanita quit her job to move to Santa Fe to be closer to her family. She is actively looking for a new job in
Santa Fe. Juanita is con.
1) Suppose that you purchased a ticket to the symphony for $40 fro.docxdorishigh
1) Suppose that you purchased a ticket to the symphony for $40 from an online ticket broker. Once you arrived at the symphony, you discovered that parking costs you an additional $10. In this situation, the additional $10 you pay for parking is an example of
A) an inefficient cost.
B) marginal cost.
C) opportunity cost.
D) an economic loss.
2) Opportunity cost is
A) the additional cost incurred from the consumption of one more unit of output.
B) the cost involved when choosing between alternatives.
C) the cost of production which cannot be recaptured.
D) the total cost incurred from the consumption of additional output.
3) As an individual consumes ________ of a product within a given period of time, it is likely that each additional unit consumed will yield ________ satisfaction.
A) more; successively more
B) more; successively less
C) more; no additional
D) less; negative
Refer to the information provided in Figure 3.1 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 3.1
4) Refer to Figure 3.1. Which of the following would be most likely to cause the demand for Dr. Pepper to shift from D0 to D1?
A) an increase in income, assuming that Dr. Pepper is a normal good
B) a decrease in the price of 7-UP, assuming 7-UP is a substitute for Dr. Pepper
C) an increase in the price of Dr. Pepper
D) an increase in the price of sugar used to make Dr. Pepper
5) If the price of spinach decreases, there will be ________ of spinach enchiladas.
A) an increase in the supply
B) a decrease in the supply
C) an increase in the quantity supplied
D) a decrease in the quantity supplied
Refer to the information provided in Figure 3.15 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 3.15
6) Refer to Figure 3.15. A decrease in the wage rate of gardenburger makers will cause a movement from Point B on supply curve S2 to
A) Point A on supply curve S2.
B) Point C on supply curve S2.
C) supply curve S3.
D) supply curve S1.
Refer to the information provided in Table 3.2 below to answer the questions that follow.
Table 3.2
Price per Cheeseburger
Quantity Demanded (Cheeseburgers per Month)
Quantity Supplied (Cheeseburgers per Month)
$5
1,500
500
6
1,200
700
7
900
900
8
600
1,100
9
300
1,300
7) Refer to Table 3.2. This market will be in equilibrium if the quantity of cheeseburgers demanded is
A) 300.
B) 600.
C) 900.
D) 1,200.
8) Refer to Table 3.2. If the price per cheeseburger is $5, the price will
A) remain constant because the market is in equilibrium.
B) decrease because there is an excess demand in the market.
C) increase because there is an excess demand in the market.
D) decrease because there is an excess supply in the market.
Refer to the information provided in Figure 3.13 below to answer the questions that follow.
Figure 3.13
9) Refer to Figure 3.13. The market is initially in equilibrium at Point A. If supply shifts from S1 to S2 and there is an excess demand of 6 cheeseburgers, the price of cheeseburgers will hav ...
Instructions use a RED scantron and bubble in your answers. T.docxdirkrplav
Instructions: use a RED scantron and bubble in your answers. Turn in your
scantron along with your typed answers to the written portion of the exam.
1. When private ownership rights are well-defined and enforced, owners
a. can ignore the wishes of others, without bearing the cost.
b. have little incentive to take care of things.
c. can do anything they want with their property.
d. can be held accountable for damage to others through misuse of their
property.
2. Criteria for rationing goods and resources must be established because of
a. the law of comparative advantage.
b. the use of capitalism as a form of economic organization.
c. the inability of politicians to develop efficient forms of economic organization.
d. scarcity imposed by nature.
3. When we say the cost of production is $50, what is meant according to economic
principles?
a. A firm had to spend $50 in order to purchase the resources required to make the
good or service.
b. A value to society of this good or service was $50, so its cost is said to be $50.
c. A firm could have made something else with the resources that was worth $50 in
the market.
d. $50 represents the maximum willingness to pay from market participants.
4. For markets to be efficient in production, what must be true?
e. All profitable opportunities must be exhausted
f. No firm is doing something where MC>MB
g. All of the above
h. None of the above
Use the production possibilities data below for Honduras and Nicaragua to answer the
following question(s).
Table 2-2
Honduras
Oranges Apples
0 16
1 12
2 8
3 4
4 0
Nicaragua
Oranges Apples
0 8
1 6
2 4
3 2
4 0
5. Refer to Table 2-2. Which of the following is correct?
a. Honduras has the comparative advantage in both goods.
b. Nicaragua has the comparative advantage in oranges.
c. Honduras has the comparative advantage in oranges.
d. It would be impossible for Honduras and Nicaragua to gain from trade.
Figure 2-2
6. Which of the following would most likely cause the production possibilities curve for
breadfruit and fish to shift outward from AA to BB in Figure 2-2?
a. a decrease in the labor force of the country
b. a sudden change in consumer preferences for more fish and less breadfruit
c. a major technological advance
d. a decrease in the capital stock
Figure 2-10
7. Refer to Figure 2-10. A movement from point C to point D could be caused by
a. unemployment.
b. a decrease in society's preference for bananas.
c. fewer resources available for production of bananas.
d. All of the above are correct.
8. Which of the following results in more elastic demand?
a. Fewer substitutes
b. Less time in which to respond to a price spike
c. A higher proportion of income spent on the good
d. Good considered a luxury good rather than a necessity
9. Two points on a demand curve are P=60,Q=10 and P=30,Q=30. What is the elasticit.
1. BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation organizations that originated the concept of biodiversity hotspots and identifies Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas.
2. Teak is a dominant tree species in tropical moist deciduous forests in India.
3. The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action is an agenda for women's empowerment adopted at a UN conference.
This document appears to be instructions for an economics entrance exam in India. It provides details about the exam such as the date, time limit, number of questions, and scoring information. It instructs students to write their hall ticket number on the paper and answer sheet. It indicates there are two sections, with Section A having 25 questions and Section B having 75 questions. Use of a non-programmable calculator is allowed.
The document contains a series of questions with multiple choice answers about ordering sentences to form coherent paragraphs. The questions cover topics such as scientific realism, industrial development in India, emission trading, demand in economics, and Count Rumford's experiments on heat.
This document contains a question bank on financial derivatives. It includes 45 multiple choice questions testing understanding of key concepts related to financial derivatives such as forwards, futures, hedging, and positions (long vs. short). The questions cover how derivative payoffs are linked to underlying securities, examples of different types of derivatives, reasons for hedging, and how hedging works to reduce interest rate risk through offsetting gains or losses on futures contracts versus held securities.
The document contains 47 multiple choice questions related to construction management. The questions cover topics such as project scheduling techniques like bar charts, CPM and PERT, network analysis methods, activity definitions, float calculations, cost control, safety practices, contract management and other construction management concepts. Answers to all 47 questions are provided at the end.
PREVIEW OF HOMEWORK # 5, ECO 157MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect 1. Mo.docxChantellPantoja184
PREVIEW OF HOMEWORK # 5, ECO 157MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
1. Monopoly is at the other end of the spectrum from: A) monopolistic competition
MACROBUTTON HTMLDirect
B) perfect competition
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C) oligopoly
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D) none of the aboveCorrect answer(s): B
2. Barriers that prevent the entry of new firms may arise because: A) economies of scale exist over a substantial range of industry demand.
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B) price exceeds marginal cost.
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C) marginal revenue is less than average total cost.
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D) the government protects some firms from competition.
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E) of both a. and d.
Correct answer(s): E
3. Pure monopoly: A) is characterized by single supplier.
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B) is a market structure in which no close substitute products are available.
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C) exists when entry and survival of potential competitors is extremely unlikely.
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D) is characterized by all of the above.
Correct answer(s): D
4. Why does the government allow some markets to be monopolized by granting patents? A) to promote a more equal distribution of income
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B) to correct for negative externalities
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C) to promote technological progress
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D) to ensure lower prices for consumers in the short run
Correct answer(s): C
5. Many communities have granted monopoly rights to cable companies. This is an example of a monopoly created through: A) government licensing.
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B) ownership of the cable resources.
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C) patent protection.
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D) smart business practices by shrewd entrepreneurs.
Correct answer(s): A
6. When a single firm can produce output over the relevant range of demand more efficiently than two or more firms can, because of the existence of economies of scale, we have: A) perfect competition.
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B) monopolistic competition.
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C) diseconomies of scale.
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D) a natural monopoly
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E) is called a government monopoly.
Correct answer(s): C
7. Which of these contributes to the existence of monopoly power? A) the control of critical resources
MACROBUTTON HTMLD.
This document provides instructions for a test being administered. It states that the test contains 100 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each with negative marking for incorrect answers. Answers should be marked on the provided OMR answer sheet. No additional materials will be provided and electronic devices are prohibited. The document provides examples of the types of questions that will be on the test related to topics like ratios, percentages, time, speed and distance word problems.
The document contains a series of paragraphs that have been scrambled and need to be put in the correct logical order. It provides directions for rearranging sentences from several paragraphs to form coherent summaries. Several examples are given of rearranged sentences with the correct order highlighted.
This document contains 60 multiple choice questions related to accounting topics such as financial statements, inventory valuation, long-lived assets, intangibles, contingencies, bonds, and leases. The questions cover concepts like cash, accounts receivable, inventory systems, depreciation methods, impairment of assets, contingencies, bonds, and types of leases.
Final Exam ECON 201 OL4 US2 Fall 2014I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 ques.docxmydrynan
Final Exam ECON 201 OL4 US2 Fall 2014
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 questions 2 points each). Choose the one alternative that best completes
the statement or answers the question.
1) ________ is a situation in which resources are limited in quantity and can be used in different ways. 1) _______
A) Choice B) Economics
C) Supply and demand D) Scarcity
2) The single largest expenditure component in GDP is: 2) _______
A) consumption expenditures. B) private investment expenditures.
C) net exports. D) government purchases.
3) In the circular flow diagram, the different payments made by firms to households are: 3) _______
A) rent on office and factory buildings. B) interest on borrowed money.
C) wages and salaries. D) all of the above.
4) ________ is commonly defined as six consecutive months of declining real GDP. 4) _______
A) A recession B) An expansion C) A peak D) A trough
5) If gross investment in 2009 is $600 billion and depreciation in 2012 is $50 billion, net investment in 2012 is: 5)
_______
A) $600 billion. B) $50 billion.
C) $550 billion. D) none of the above.
6) The number of people classified as employed is 220,000 and the number of people classified as unemployed is 30,000.
The size of the labor force: 6) _______
A) equals 250,000.
B) equals 200,000.
C) equals 300,000.
D) cannot be determined from this information.
7) Unanticipated inflation arbitrarily redistributes income because: 7) _______
A) medical costs rise faster than health insurance premiums.
B) nominal interest rates fall below real interest rates.
C) actual tax revenue decreases and so do government subsidies.
D) people forecast relative prices incorrectly and either gain or lose purchasing power.
8) A ʺshoe‐leather costʺ is the cost associated with: 8) _______
A) trying to reduce holdings of cash when there is inflation.
B) changing price lists when there is inflation.
C) designing a new basketball sneakers when there is inflation.
D) buying new shoes when there is inflation.Table 6.11
9) Refer to Table 6.11. If 1999 is the base year, the price index in 2001 is: 9) _______
A) 100. B) 1998. C) 121.7. D) 138.7.
10) Refer to Table 6.11. If 1999 is the base year, then the inflation rate (i.e., the growth rate of the price index) between 1999
and 2000 is: 10) ______
A) 121.7 percent. B) zero percent. C) 2.17 percent. D) 17.8 percent.
Figure 8.1
11) Refer to Figure 8.1. If the saving rate is s2, the economy reaches the long run equilibrium at: 11) ______
A) pt. E. B) pt. A.C) pt. D. D) pt. C.
12) If the economy experiences an increase in the amount of capital stock per worker, then we say that the economy is
experiencing: 12) ______
A) capital deepening. B) capital depreciation.
C) capital widening. D) technological progress.
13) Using a production possibility curve, a shifting of the curve outward illustrates: 13) ______
A) economic growth. B) a lower level of production.
C) a decrease in the unemployment rate.D) fewer inputs.
14) Steel rod prices are an example of: 14) ______
A) ...
This document contains a multi-part exam on corporate finance concepts. Part I contains 25 multiple choice questions covering topics like agency costs, net present value calculations, portfolio risk and return, and option valuation. Part II contains a problem asking to calculate monthly payments on auto financing and the required size of a cash back offer. Part III contains two longer problems, the first asking to calculate betas and the security market line given a two-asset portfolio, and the second asking how unexpected inflation would affect the prices of a leveraged firm's debt and equity.
This document contains 30 multiple choice questions related to estimating and costing. The questions cover topics like types of beams in canals, definitions of VAT and provisional sum, specifications for contractor work, center line estimation methods, measurement units, order of measurement, break wall thickness, tentative road cost calculation, definitions of demolition and salvage value, depreciation methods, and incorrect statements. The document provides answers to the questions from various subject matter experts to test knowledge of concepts in estimating and costing.
The document contains 50 multiple choice questions covering various topics in science, mathematics, and engineering. The questions test knowledge in areas such as: properties of materials, units of measurement, financial and accounting concepts, thermodynamics, fluid mechanics, chemistry, and more. The correct answer is provided for each question.
ECN 282 Final Exam Spring 20161.The marginal propensity.docxSALU18
ECN 282
Final Exam Spring 2016
1.
The marginal propensity to consume is equal to:
A)
the proportion of consumer spending as a function of aggregate disposable income.
B)
the change in saving divided by the change in aggregate disposable income.
C)
the ratio of the change in consumer spending to the change in aggregate disposable income.
D)
the change in saving divided by the change in consumer spending.
2.
The MPS plus the MPC must equal:
A)
zero.
B)
one.
C)
income.
D)
saving.
3.
If the MPS = 0.1, then the value of the multiplier equals:
A)
1.
B)
5.
C)
9.
D)
10.
4.
If the multiplier equals 4, then the marginal propensity to save must be equal to:
A)
1/4.
B)
1/2.
C)
3/4.
D)
the marginal propensity to consume.
5.
Suppose that the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, and investment spending increases by $100 billion. The increase in aggregate demand is:
A)
$100 billion, the same amount as investment spending.
B)
$125 billion, composed of $100 billion in investment spending and $25 billion in consumption.
C)
$80 billion, composed of $100 billion in investment spending and a decrease in consumption of $20 billion.
D)
$500 billion, composed of $100 billion in investment spending and $400 billion in consumption.
6.
The marginal propensity to save is:
A)
savings divided by aggregate income.
B)
the fraction of an additional dollar of disposable income that is saved.
C)
1 + MPC.
D)
savings divided by aggregate income or 1 + MPC.
7.
If disposable income increases by $5 billion and consumer spending increases by $4 billion, the marginal propensity to consume is equal to:
A)
20.
B)
0.8.
C)
1.25.
D)
9.
8.
The spending multiplier is equal to:
A)
MPC / MPS.
B)
1 / (1 – MPS).
C)
MPC + MPS.
D)
1 / (1 – MPC).
9.
Suppose that a financial crisis decreases investment spending by $100 billion and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8. Assuming no taxes and no trade, by how much will real GDP change?
A)
$500 billion decrease
B)
$200 billion decrease
C)
$800 billion decrease
D)
$400 billion increase
10.
Suppose the government increases spending by $100 billion as a stimulus package. If the MPC is 0.6, then equilibrium income will:
A)
decrease by $250 billion.
B)
increase by $250 billion.
C)
increase by $600 billion.
D)
decrease by $400 billion.
11.
According to the National Bureau of Economic Research, the U.S. economy is going through a severe recession. Most households are trying to save more of their income than before. This increase in private spending will lead to:
A)
an increase in aggregate income, as more saving means more funds for business investment.
B)
a fall in aggregate income, as more saving means people will spend less.
C)
no change in aggregate income, because there is no saving multiplier.
D)
an increase in aggregate income, as an increase in saving will make people wealthier.
12.
A key statistic to measure economic growth is:
A)
the size of the ...
Open Channel Flow: fluid flow with a free surfaceIndrajeet sahu
Open Channel Flow: This topic focuses on fluid flow with a free surface, such as in rivers, canals, and drainage ditches. Key concepts include the classification of flow types (steady vs. unsteady, uniform vs. non-uniform), hydraulic radius, flow resistance, Manning's equation, critical flow conditions, and energy and momentum principles. It also covers flow measurement techniques, gradually varied flow analysis, and the design of open channels. Understanding these principles is vital for effective water resource management and engineering applications.
Blood finder application project report (1).pdfKamal Acharya
Blood Finder is an emergency time app where a user can search for the blood banks as
well as the registered blood donors around Mumbai. This application also provide an
opportunity for the user of this application to become a registered donor for this user have
to enroll for the donor request from the application itself. If the admin wish to make user
a registered donor, with some of the formalities with the organization it can be done.
Specialization of this application is that the user will not have to register on sign-in for
searching the blood banks and blood donors it can be just done by installing the
application to the mobile.
The purpose of making this application is to save the user’s time for searching blood of
needed blood group during the time of the emergency.
This is an android application developed in Java and XML with the connectivity of
SQLite database. This application will provide most of basic functionality required for an
emergency time application. All the details of Blood banks and Blood donors are stored
in the database i.e. SQLite.
This application allowed the user to get all the information regarding blood banks and
blood donors such as Name, Number, Address, Blood Group, rather than searching it on
the different websites and wasting the precious time. This application is effective and
user friendly.
Home security is of paramount importance in today's world, where we rely more on technology, home
security is crucial. Using technology to make homes safer and easier to control from anywhere is
important. Home security is important for the occupant’s safety. In this paper, we came up with a low cost,
AI based model home security system. The system has a user-friendly interface, allowing users to start
model training and face detection with simple keyboard commands. Our goal is to introduce an innovative
home security system using facial recognition technology. Unlike traditional systems, this system trains
and saves images of friends and family members. The system scans this folder to recognize familiar faces
and provides real-time monitoring. If an unfamiliar face is detected, it promptly sends an email alert,
ensuring a proactive response to potential security threats.
Prediction of Electrical Energy Efficiency Using Information on Consumer's Ac...PriyankaKilaniya
Energy efficiency has been important since the latter part of the last century. The main object of this survey is to determine the energy efficiency knowledge among consumers. Two separate districts in Bangladesh are selected to conduct the survey on households and showrooms about the energy and seller also. The survey uses the data to find some regression equations from which it is easy to predict energy efficiency knowledge. The data is analyzed and calculated based on five important criteria. The initial target was to find some factors that help predict a person's energy efficiency knowledge. From the survey, it is found that the energy efficiency awareness among the people of our country is very low. Relationships between household energy use behaviors are estimated using a unique dataset of about 40 households and 20 showrooms in Bangladesh's Chapainawabganj and Bagerhat districts. Knowledge of energy consumption and energy efficiency technology options is found to be associated with household use of energy conservation practices. Household characteristics also influence household energy use behavior. Younger household cohorts are more likely to adopt energy-efficient technologies and energy conservation practices and place primary importance on energy saving for environmental reasons. Education also influences attitudes toward energy conservation in Bangladesh. Low-education households indicate they primarily save electricity for the environment while high-education households indicate they are motivated by environmental concerns.
Digital Twins Computer Networking Paper Presentation.pptxaryanpankaj78
A Digital Twin in computer networking is a virtual representation of a physical network, used to simulate, analyze, and optimize network performance and reliability. It leverages real-time data to enhance network management, predict issues, and improve decision-making processes.
Discover the latest insights on Data Driven Maintenance with our comprehensive webinar presentation. Learn about traditional maintenance challenges, the right approach to utilizing data, and the benefits of adopting a Data Driven Maintenance strategy. Explore real-world examples, industry best practices, and innovative solutions like FMECA and the D3M model. This presentation, led by expert Jules Oudmans, is essential for asset owners looking to optimize their maintenance processes and leverage digital technologies for improved efficiency and performance. Download now to stay ahead in the evolving maintenance landscape.
DEEP LEARNING FOR SMART GRID INTRUSION DETECTION: A HYBRID CNN-LSTM-BASED MODELijaia
As digital technology becomes more deeply embedded in power systems, protecting the communication
networks of Smart Grids (SG) has emerged as a critical concern. Distributed Network Protocol 3 (DNP3)
represents a multi-tiered application layer protocol extensively utilized in Supervisory Control and Data
Acquisition (SCADA)-based smart grids to facilitate real-time data gathering and control functionalities.
Robust Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are necessary for early threat detection and mitigation because
of the interconnection of these networks, which makes them vulnerable to a variety of cyberattacks. To
solve this issue, this paper develops a hybrid Deep Learning (DL) model specifically designed for intrusion
detection in smart grids. The proposed approach is a combination of the Convolutional Neural Network
(CNN) and the Long-Short-Term Memory algorithms (LSTM). We employed a recent intrusion detection
dataset (DNP3), which focuses on unauthorized commands and Denial of Service (DoS) cyberattacks, to
train and test our model. The results of our experiments show that our CNN-LSTM method is much better
at finding smart grid intrusions than other deep learning algorithms used for classification. In addition,
our proposed approach improves accuracy, precision, recall, and F1 score, achieving a high detection
accuracy rate of 99.50%.
1. MODEL QUESTION PAPER FOR VALUATION EXAMINATION
Asset Class: LAND and BUILDING
1. The price elasticity of demand measures the change in the quantity demanded of a
service in relation to a change in its price when nothing but the ___________ changes.
a) price
b) cost
c) quality
d) value
Ans.(a)
2. Other things remaining same, the law of demand states __________.
a) the higher the price, the lower the quantity demanded
b) the higher the price, the higher the quantity demanded
c) the higher the price, the lower the quantity supplied
d) the higher the price, the higher the quantity demanded
Ans.(a)
3. A market which has only one seller selling a homogeneous product to many buyers, is
known as _______.
a) Monopoly
b) Oligopolistic
c) Perfect Competition
d) Monopolist Competition
Ans.(a)
4. Which of the following statements is not true about factors of production?
a) Land means natural resources.
b) Labour means human resources.
c) Capital means financial resources.
d) Entrepreneurship means pursuit of opportunity beyond resources controlled.
Ans.(c)
5. Which of the following is not true about Ricardian theory of rent?
a) Rent increases with increase in population.
b) Rent is surplus above cost.
c) Rent is unearned income.
d) Rent arises only in the short run.
Ans.(d)
6. Which of the following is not correct about functions of money?
a) It is a medium of exchange.
b) It is a measure of economic power.
c) It is a standard of deferred payments.
d) It is a store of value.
Ans.(b)
7. Which of the following is not a cause of demand-pull inflation?
a) Increase in wages and salaries
b) Increase in Government spending
2. c) Increase in interest rates
d) Increase in exports
Ans.(c)
8. If a person has an income of Rs.30000 and his consumption is Rs.10000, then his
propensity to save is____.
a) 1.33
b) 0.33
c) 0.67
d) 1.50
Ans.(c)
9. Which of the following is an example of secondary sector of an economy?
a) Mining
b) Forestry
c) Food Processing
d) Pisciculture
Ans.(c)
10. How are Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP) related?
a) GNP = GDP – NR + NP
b) GNP = GDP + NR - NP
c) GNP = GDP + EX - IM
d) GNP = GDP -EX + IM
Ans.(b)
11. In double entry system, accounts are primarily classified in to ___________.
a) Receiver account & Giver account
b) Income account & Expenses account
c) Real account & Nominal account
d) Personal Account & Impersonal account
Ans.(d)
12. Discount received is recorded on which side of a cash book?
a) Receipts
b) Payments
c) Income
d) Expense
Ans.(b)
13. For a real estate construction company, which of the following are not part of Profit
and Loss Statement?
a) Revenue from apartment sales
b) Interest paid to lenders
c) Cash deposited in bank
d) Depreciation expense
Ans.(c)
14. Proposed dividend is shown in the Balance Sheet of a company under the head _____.
a) provisions
3. b) reserves and surplus
c) current liabilities
d) other liabilities
Ans.(a)
15. Difference between variable cost per unit and selling price can be classified as______
margin per unit.
a) contribution
b) gross
c) net
d) profit
Ans.(a)
16. Right to property is a ___ right.
a) fundamental
b) statutory
c) constitutional
d) human
Ans.(c)
17. Which of the following is not a requirement of a contract?
a) Competent Parties
b) Free Consent
c) Legal Object
d) Adequate Consideration
Ans.(d)
18. Performance of contract is one of the methods to__________.
a) create a new contract
b) set-aside a contract
c) make a contract void
d) discharge a contract
Ans.(d)
19. In case of a ___________, the duty is one imposed by the law and is owed to the
community at large.
a) contingent contract
b) cecile agreement
c) government tender
d) tort
Ans.(d)
20. As per section 36 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the liquidator shall
hold the liquidation estate ___________.
a) as an agent of debtor
b) as an agent of committee of creditors
c) as a fiduciary for the benefit of all the creditors
d) as a fiduciary for the benefit of all the stakeholders
Ans.(c)
4. 21. Section 231 (2) of the Companies Act, 2013 empowers a tribunal to __________, if it
is satisfied that the compromise sanctioned under section 230 cannot be implemented
satisfactorily, and the company is unable to pay its debts as per the scheme.
a) wind up the company
b) restructure the debt
c) call for rearrangement
d) replace the management
Ans.(a)
22. In a right skewed frequency distribution, __________.
a) mean is typically greater than the median
b) mean is typically less than the median
c) mean is typically less than the mode
d) mean is equal to mode which is equal to median
Ans.(a)
23. When numbers are associated with weights, then obtained mean is said to be _______.
a) weighted arithmetic mean
b) harmonic mean
c) standard mean
d) geometric mean
Ans.(a)
24. If two events A and B are mutually exclusive, the probability of occurrence of either A
or B is__________.
a) difference between individual probabilities of A and B
b) sum of the individual probabilities of A and B
c) always 1
d) one minus sum of the probabilities of A and B
Ans.(b)
25. Gradual shifting of a time series over a long period of time is called as __________.
a) periodicity
b) cycle
c) regression
d) trend
Ans.(d)
26. Technology that permits safe, efficient, and inexpensive clean-up of contaminants in
property tends to minimise _________ in asset value.
a) decrease
b) increase
c) fluctuations
d) variations
Ans.(a)
27. Which planning provision is required around the battery limit of industry and for
industry having odour problem?
a) No development zone
b) Green belt
5. c) Special permission zone
d) Industrial regulation zone
Ans.(b)
28. Which of the following is not covered under the Indian Forest Act, 1927?
a) Reserved forest
b) Village forest
c) Protected forest
d) Prohibited forest
Ans.(d)
29. Which of the following legislations does not provide for pollution control?
a) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
b) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
c) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d) The Technology (Transfer of Abuse) Act, 2007
Ans.(d)
30. A valuer shall act with objectivity in his professional dealings by ensuring that his
decisions are made ________.
a) without the presence of any bias
b) with coercion
c) with confidence
d) with undue influence of any party
Ans.(a)
31. A valuer, while respecting the confidentiality of information acquired during the course
of performing professional services, shall maintain proper working papers for a period of
______.
a) 3 years
b) 2 years or such shorter period as required in its contract for a specific valuation
c) 3 years or such longer period as required in its contract for a specific valuation
d) 2 years
Ans.(c)
32. Integrity of registered valuer is seriously affected by ____.
a) being honest
b) being straightforward
c) misrepresenting any facts or situations
d) ignoring public interest
Ans.(c)
33. Which of the following is not a duty of the valuer?
a) To verify ownership in document and occupancy on actual site
b) To identify plot number in document as well as on-site
c) To be responsible for correctness of survey findings by his assistant
d) To investigate title of the property to be valued
Ans.(d)
6. 34. Under the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in the Land Acquisition and
Rehabilitation Act, 2013, market value is decided by the collector as per________.
a) circle rate/guidelines rates of last 5 years
b) the average of the sale price for similar type of land being acquired, ascertained from
the highest fifty per cent of the sale deeds registered during the preceding three years
in the nearest village or nearest vicinity of the land being acquired
c) purchase price of adjoining land
d) purchase price paid by the owner at the time of purchase of land which is to be acquired
Ans.(b)
35. Which of the following would have effect on development potential and values of
properties?
a) Floor space index
b) Ownership pattern
c) size and height of rooms
d) provision of utility services in a building
Ans.(a)
36. The approach to valuation of rented properties depends on_________.
a) nature and behaviour of landlords
b) category of tenants - tenant protected or not protected under the applicable rent act
c) rent paying capacity of the tenant
d) cordial and homely relationship between landlord and tenant
Ans.(b)
37. As per the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, what percentage of
collections needs to be deposited by developers in Escrow accounts towards the cost of
construction including that of land?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
Ans.(c)
38. As per the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, immovable property includes ______.
a) furniture
b) growing crops
c) grass
d) things permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth
Ans.(d)
39. Where, on a transfer of property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person to
take effect only on the happening of a specified event, such interest is called _________.
a) simple interest
b) diminishing interest
c) vested interest
d) contingent interest
Ans.(d)
7. 40. A mortgage is a transfer of an interest in a specific immovable property for the purpose
of securing __________.
a) the payment of money advanced by way of loan
b) fully paid up debts
c) transfer of ownership of property
d) transfer of rights to sublease
Ans.(a)
41. A gives Rs. 5,00,000 to B on condition that he shall marry A’s daughter C. At the date
of transfer, C was dead. The transfer is void ______.
a) it is forbidden by the law
b) court regards it as immoral or opposed to public policy
c) it is impossible to fulfil the condition
d) it is immoral transfer
Ans.(c)
42. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 does not apply to ______.
a) a follower of the Arya Samaj
b) a Sikh by religion
c) a child both of whose parents are Jains by religion
d) a person who is a convert to Christian
Ans.(d)
43. Which of the following items cannot be transferred under Inheritance/Succession laws
in India?
a) Personal movable property
b) Jewellery
c) Property not owned by self
d) Personal belongings
Ans.(c)
44. Value is an estimate of what ______ ought to be.
a) value
b) price
c) cost
d) worth
Ans.(b)
45. The value at the end of utility period of the asset without being dismantled is called
____ value.
a) salvage
b) realisable
c) scrap
d) junk
Ans.(a)
46. Real estate has some _______and, therefore, has a value.
a) profit
b) immobility
c) characteristics of non-marketable and non-investment property
8. d) use
Ans.(d)
47. Which of the following factor is not physical yet affects the valuation of the subject
property?
a) Damages to the building
b) Gross Domestic Product
c) Property location
d) Neighbourhood properties
Ans.(b)
48. Property is a ___ concept.
a) physical
b) legal
c) technical
d) social
Ans.(b)
49. The price that would tend to prevail in a free, open and competitive market on the basis
of equilibrium set by the forces of demand and supply is called ______.
a) value in exchange
b) value in use
c) optimum value
d) realisable value
Ans.(a)
50. What is the subject matter of valuation?
a) Interest in a property
b) Land and Building
c) Standard Rent
d) Profit Rent
Ans.(a)
51. A fund formed by setting aside an annual recurring amount for a given period of time
to recoup capital invested in a landed property is called ____.
a) sinking fund
b) annual amount of Rs. 1
c) annual value
d) investment value
Ans.(a)
52. A project requires an investment of Rs.10 lakh and has an NPV of Rs.16 lakh. What is
its profitability index?
a) 1.0
b) 1.6
c) 0.6
d) 3.2
Ans.(b)
53. Which one of the following best defines Annual sinking fund?
9. a) Annual sum required to be invested to amount to Rs. 1/- in specified years
b) Monthly sum required to be invested to amount to Rs. 10/- in specified years
c) Annual sum required to be invested to amount to Rs. 10/- in specified years
d) Annual sum required to be invested to amount to Rs. 100/- in specified years
Ans.(a)
54. A proposed development of Metrorail station in the city would _____.
a) decrease in supply of real estate in surrounding area
b) increase demand of real estate in surrounding area
c) decrease cost of construction of buildings in surrounding area
d) decrease demand of the real estate in surrounding area
Ans.(b)
55. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of real estate market?
a) No Free flow of information
b) It is imperfect market
c) It is perfect investment market
d) Heterogeneity
Ans.(c)
56. Which factor would negatively influence demand in real estate?
a) Low liquidity
b) Potential of capital appreciation
c) Regular income
d) Redevelopment potential of the property
Ans.(a)
57. Under rent capitalization method, value of the property increases with_______.
a) higher property tax
b) higher capitalization rate
c) lower capitalization rate
d) longer duration
Ans.(c)
58. In case the unexpired period of lease is too long then reversionary value would be___.
a) negative net present value
b) zero
c) negligible
d) less than zero
Ans.(c)
59. Which among the following is not a factor affecting market rent?
a) City
b) Location
c) Type of building
d) Turnover of the lessee
Ans.(d)
60. In relation to a lease agreement, the actual rent specified in the lease is called _____.
a) contractual rent
10. b) effective rent
c) negotiated rent
d) standard rent
Ans.(a)
61. Which of the following is not correct about ‘surrender of lease’?
a) Premature termination by lessee
b) Unilaterally terminated by a lessee
c) Terminated with the consent of the lessor
d) It can happen post expiry of the lease
Ans.(d)
62. Acceptance of project depends on __________.
a) positive net present value
b) negative net present value
c) zero net present value
d) zero internal rate of return
Ans.(a)
63. For which of the following, profit method of valuation is most appropriate?
a) Vacant Land
b) Petrol pump
c) Residential Home
d) School
Ans.(b)
64. The market demand curve shows ____________.
a) effect on market supply of a change in the demand for a good or service
b) marginal cost of producing and selling different quantities of a good
c) quantity of a good that consumers would like to purchase at different prices
d) effect of advertising expenditures on the market price of a good
Ans.(c)
65. Market approach basically operates on the_______.
a) principle of increasing and decreasing returns
b) principle of substitution
c) principle of conformity
d) principle of contribution
Ans.(b)
66. Which of the following is not a source from which sale instances of immovable property
in a particular locality can be collected?
a) Sales record at the registrar’s office
b) Advertisements in newspapers
c) Auction sale information from different authorities
d) Share market
Ans.(d)
67. The residual income from real estate available to land is representative of the principle
of_______.
11. a) surplus productivity
b) balance
c) increasing and decreasing returns
d) consistent use
Ans.(a)
68. Which of the valuation method is generally used for carrying out valuation of large
plots when sale instances of large size plots in the locality are not available?
a) Sales comparison method
b) Hypothetical plotting scheme
c) Hypothetical building scheme
d) Adopting rental instances
Ans.(b)
69. Quick estimation of costs of construction can be carried out by_________.
a) sum of digit method
b) detail estimation
c) plinth area rate
d) discounted cash flow method
Ans.(c)
70. Actual survival life of the building before it collapses is called the _____.
a) useful life
b) economic life
c) physical life
d) residual life
Ans.(c)
71. Asset which has become outdated mainly due to the planning and designing being
unsuitable for present day requirement of the user is an example of ___________.
a) technological obsolescence
b) economic obsolescence
c) functional obsolescence
d) both technological obsolescence as well as economic obsolescence
Ans.(c)
72. Depreciated Replacement Cost is market value of special purpose industrial plant
building subject to potential______.
a) profitability
b) cost
c) price
d) value
Ans.(a)
73. Which one of the following valuation methodology is most appropriate for valuing a
non-income generating residential bungalow?
a) Discounted Cash Flow Method
b) Sales Comparable & Depreciated Replacement Cost Method
c) Profit Method
d) Direct Capitalization Method
12. Ans.(b)
74. While carrying out valuation of property for bank finance, which of the following is not
to be taken into consideration?
a) Age of the building
b) Rent fetching capacity of the property
c) Economic obsolescence
d) Amount of loan
Ans.(d)
75. The income chargeable under head ‘capital gains’ is computed by deducting the
___________ from the full value of the consideration received as a result of transfer of the
capital asset __________.
a) expenditure incurred wholly and exclusively in connection with such transfer
b) expenditure incurred wholly and excessively after such transfer
c) indexed cost of repairing to be carried out
d) index cost of any improvements carried out after such transfer
Ans.(a)
76. Under the provision of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, enforcement of security interest means
__________.
a) sale of assets of the borrowing party by the bank
b) sale of charged assets by the secured creditor through the Debt Recovery Tribunal
c) sale of charged assets by the secured creditor without court intervention
d) getting bank's charge registered with central registry
Ans.(c)
77. If owner of plot A with house has a right of way over his neighbour’s plot B for
beneficial enjoyment of house, owner A is called ____.
a) co-owner
b) dominant owner
c) joint owner
d) servient owner
Ans.(b)
78. Which of the following transaction is an arm’s length transaction?
a) Transaction between parties at auction sale.
b) Transaction between parent and subsidiary company
c) Transaction between two old friends
d) Transaction between two brothers
Ans.(a)
79. Which return would you adopt as base while determining appropriate rate of the net
profit, unless it is otherwise found unsuitable?
a) The return from investments in stock and shares
b) The return from gilt-edge security
c) Interest paid in the saving account
d) The return from investment in gold
Ans.(b)
13. 80. Which of the following judgements recognises the concept ‘Valuation is an art, not an
exact science. Mathematical certainly is not demanded, nor indeed is it possible.’.
a) K.P. Varghese vs ITO (1981) 131 ITR 597 (SC)
b) Gold Coast Trust Ltd. vs Humphray (1949) 17 ITR 19
c) Rustam C Cooper vs Union of India AIR 1970 SC 564
d) Hays Will Trust vs Hays and Others (1971) 1 WLR 758
Ans.(b)
81. Which of the following is expressed by a valuer while giving expert evidence in the
examination-in-chief in the court?
a) Opinions regarding values with reasoning
b) Evidence of facts
c) Answers without reasoning
d) Answers only in ‘yes’ or ‘no’
Ans.(a)
82. In context of the property insurance, which of the following is a human peril?
a) War
b) Age of the Property
c) Cyclone Facade
d) Upliftment
Ans.(a)
83. An insurance policy generally allows one to value the respective building and/or
contents by-____
a) Internal Rate of Return
b) Replacement Cost
c) Floor space index
d) Ground Coverage
Ans.(b)
84. A fire broke out in Hemant's factory and damaged half of the stock which was to be
shipped to a nearby cloth dealer. His fire insurance policy had the average clause in it. Actual
value of the stock: Rs.3,00,000, Sum insured for the stock: Rs.2,00,000, Loss incurred:
Rs.1,50,000 (As half the stock was destroyed). The claim amount will be Rs. ______.
a) Rs.1,00,000
b) Rs.3,00,000
c) Rs.2,00,000
d) Rs.1,50,000
Ans.(a)
85. When insurable amount is lower than ‘value at risk’, it is called ______.
a) over insured
b) fair insurable amount
c) fair premium for insurance
d) under insured
Ans.(d)
14. 86. Upon paying the amount of loss to the insured, the insurer steps into the place of the
insured, taking over all his rights. It is called exercise of __________.
a) right of reinstatement
b) right of contribution
c) right of subrogation
d) right to salvage
Ans.(c)
87. Where the opinion of an expert is required for litigation in valuation, the report ____.
a) must rely on requirements imposed by the local authority where the property is located
b) rely on requirements imposed by the local authority where the Client is registered
c) rely on requirements imposed by the local authority of the registered office of the
lawyer
d) rely on requirements imposed by the local authority of the registered office of the reliant
party
Ans.(a)
88. While valuing assets where the valuer is not conversant with its features, __________.
a) it is advisable to engage the services of an expert and the signed report of the expert be
made a part of valuation report
b) it is advisable to engage the services of an expert and his report need not be made a part
of valuation report
c) he can privately seek the services of such expert and need not disclose in the report
d) it is enough to mention in report about details of expert engaged.
Ans.(a)
Attempt Questions 89 to 94 based upon the following case study.
A business man purchased a plot of 1000 Sq.mt. in a posh locality of a city in the year 1987 for a price
of Rs. 30,00,000. In the year 1988, he constructed a residential bungalow having 300 Sq.mt. built up
floor area at ground level and 100 Sq.mt. built up area at first floor level at the cost of Rs. 14,00,000.
Prevalent replacement cost of similar bungalow as on today is Rs. 30,000 per Sq.mt. Prevalent land
price in the locality at present is Rs. 60,000 per Sq.mt. Age of building is 30 years and the total life of
the building is 60 years.
89. What will be the depreciation amount of the bungalow by adopting straight line method
of depreciation and considering scrap value at 10 % ?
a) Rs.60,00,000
b) Rs.54,00,000
c) Rs.45,00,000
d) Rs.12,00,000
Ans . (b)
90. What will be the depreciation amount of the bungalow by adopting constant percentage
method of depreciation?
a) Rs.54,00,000
b) Rs.47,37,600
c) Rs.60,00,000
15. d) Rs.54,46,000
Ans. (b)
91. What will be the market value of the land at present?
a) Rs.240,00,000
b) Rs.600,00,000
c) Rs.480,00,000
d) Rs.410,00,000
Ans. (b)
92. What will be the total market value of the bungalow property for the bank loan purpose?
a) Rs.600,00,000
b) Rs.666,00,000
c) Rs.612,00,000
d) Rs.566,10,000
Ans (b)
93. What is the balance economic life of the building?
a) 60 years
b) 30 years
c) Zero
d) 45 years
Ans. (b)
94. Which of the following will not be considered for the estimation of present market value of
above property?
a) Deprecation
b) Current Replacement cost of the building
c) Economic obsolescence
d) Current land rate
Ans. (c)
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