Organizational behavior is a field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior in organizations. It uses scientific methods to link independent and dependent variables. While organizational behavior draws from various disciplines, it does not emphasize finding a single best way to complete tasks. The document provides a sample exam for an organizational behavior course, with questions covering topics like organizational culture, teams, motivation, and conflict management.

1. MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 5
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MGT 307 Final Exam Guide 5
1) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding individual and group behavior, interpersonal
processes, and organizational dynamics.
A.
motivation.
B.
workgroup analysis.
C.
performance management.
D.
organizational behavior.
2) Scientific methods models link _________________ - presumed causes, with _________________ - outcomes, of
practical value and interest.
A.
specific variables, contingency variables.
B.
discovered variables, with undisclosed variables.
C.
proven variables, non-proven variables.
D.
independent variables, dependent variables.
3) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.
B.
contingency thinking.
C.
use of scientific methods.
D.
an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a task.
4) In the context of the three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations, the level referred to as __________ can
play a critical part in linking people together and can provide a powerful motivational mechanism for members of the
culture.
A.
observable culture
B.
common culture
C.
implicit culture
D.
shared values
5) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are __________.
A.
shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission.
B.
explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions.

3. C.
observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions.
D.
implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences.
6) Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.
A.
visible aspects
B.
oral aspects
C.
verbal aspects
D.
vocal aspects
7) According to the research conducted on the nature of managerial work, which of the following is false?
A.
managers work at fragmented and varied tasks.
B.
managers work with many communication media.
C.
managers work long hours.
D.
managers spend much time working alone.
8) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-
world phenomenon.
A.
True
B.
False
9) When it comes to ethics and morality, scholar Archie B. Carroll draws a distinction between __________.
A.
immoral managers, amoral managers and ethical managers
B.
amoral managers, ethical managers and moral managers
C.
immoral managers, ethical managers and unethical managers
D.
immoral managers, amoral managers and moral managers
10) __________ are important to spot since non-verbals can add insight into what is really being said in face-to-face
communication.
A.
Mangled messages.
B.
Merged messages.
C.
Mixed messages.
D.
Perceptual distractions.
11) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.
A.
geographic differences
B.
lifestyle differences

4. C.
language differences
D.
religious differences
12) Which of the following statements about the role of language in cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?
A.
Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the spoken and written word.
B.
In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must be inferred or interpreted from the context, which
includes body language, the physical setting and past relationships.
C.
In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the
“context” in which the words are spoken.
D.
Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context cultures.
13) Each of the following is a characteristic of high-performance teams EXCEPT:
A.
high-performance teams have strong core values.
B.
members of high-performance teams have the right mix of skills.
C.
high-performance teams turn a general sense of purpose into specific performance objectives.
D.
high-performance teams have members who focus on individual effort and excellence.
14) __________ typically work with a target completion date and disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.
A.
Teams that recommend things.
B.
Teams that review things.
C.
Teams that run things.
D.
Teams that study things.
15) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the individual work unit composed of a team leader and team
members to the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior executives.
A.
Teams that review things.
B.
Teams that make or do things.
C.
Teams that run things.
D.
Teams that evaluate things.
16) Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by saying: “I don’t want to get in the middle
of your personal disputes.” This manager is using which conflict management style?
A.
avoidance
B.
unassertive
C.
authoritative command
D.
accommodation

5. 17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and
uses her authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management style?
A.
competition
B.
compromise
C.
collaboration
D.
accommodation
18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their
differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?
A.
accommodation
B.
compromise
C.
competition
D.
avoidance
19) Process theories focus on _________________.
A.
when a person will react to specific management styles.
B.
who will be a more appropriate manager for an employee.
C.
why a person decides to behave in a certain way relative to available rewards and work opportunities.
D.
how a person will respond to types of leadership direction.
20) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on _______________.
A.
perceptions on-the-job.
B.
pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked needs.
C.
the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.
D.
the relationship between values and attitudes.
21) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to __________.
A.
an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible alternatives.
B.
the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
C.
the amount of effort a person puts forth.
D.
the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
22) Unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-
performance organizations.
A.
True
B.

6. False
23) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or
stage of development.
A.
True
B.
False
24) Which of the following statements about heterogeneous teams is not accurate?
A.
research indicates that diversity among team members rarely creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or
stage of development.
B.
unlocking the full potential of teams and teamwork rich in diversity is one of the great advantages of high-performance
organizations.
C.
diversity offers a rich pool of information, talent, and varied perspectives that can help improve team problem solving and
increase creativity.
D.
heterogeneous teams have members who are diverse in demography, experiences, life styles, and cultures, among other
variables.
25) Job burnout manifests itself as a loss of interest in and satisfaction with a job due to stressful working conditions.
A.
True
B.
False
26) Employee assistance programs are designed to provide help to employees who are experiencing personal problems and
the stress associated with them.
A.
True
B.
False
27) Stress is a potential source of both anxiety and frustration, which can harm the body’s physiological and psychological
well-being over time.
A.
True
B.
False
28) In today’s modern organization the base for power and politics rests on a system of authority. Which of the following
statements about legitimacy regarding power is NOT correct?
A.
in firms, the legitimacy of those at the top increasingly derives from their positions as representatives for various
constituencies.
B.
senior managers may justify their lofty positions within organizations by separating themselves from stockholders.
C.
in other societies, “higher authority” does not have a bureaucratic or organizational reference but consists of those with
moral authority such as tribal chiefs, religious leaders, etc.
D.
in U.S. firms, “higher authority” denotes those close to the top of the corporate pyramid.
29) Directives falling within the zone of indifference are __________.

7. A.
obeyed.
B.
subjected to severe scrutiny.
C.
rejected.
D.
subjected to slight scrutiny.
30) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?
A.
the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and
the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at various intermediate points.
B.
the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.
C.
experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed were successively higher levels of electric shocks to
people who missed the word pairs
D.
Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent to which people obey the commands of an authority
figure, even if they believe they are endangering the life of another person.
31) A high-performing team can be created by communicating high-performance standards, having members spend time
together, creating a sense of urgency, making sure members have the right skills, and rewarding high performance.
A.
True
B.
False
32) A high-performing team can be created by ensuring that new information is kept to a minimum and by giving negative
feedback.
A.
True
B.
False
33) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent
with the team’s purpose.
A.
True
B.
False
34) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:
A.
charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation, performance driven.
B.
implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.
C.
autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.
D.
self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.
35) _________________ is often used in combination with vertical leadership.
A.
shared leadership
B.

8. individual leadership
C.
organizational goal setting
D.
power negotiation
36) All of the following statements about full-range leadership theory are true EXCEPT:
A.
C. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership theory used by organizations.
B.
D. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could serve as a general leadership model that would trim or
eliminate the numerous models now emphasized today.
C.
B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor Leadership Questionnaire.
D.
A. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five transformational, three transactional one non-transactional
factor.
37) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the boiled frog phenomenon, wherein managers fail to monitor their
environments, recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly
lose their competitive edge.
A.
True
B.
False
38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein managers fail to monitor their environments,
recognize the important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently their organizations slowly lose their
competitive edge.
A.
impatience trap
B.
immobility trap
C.
proactive phenomenon
D.
boiled frog phenomenon
39) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.
A.
mechanistic
B.
organic
C.
centralized
D.
bureaucratic