May is experiencing an incomplete abortion, as she is 9 weeks pregnant but began having cramps and bleeding and was found to have a dilated cervix on examination. A history of genital herpes would alert a nurse that a pregnant client is at risk for a spontaneous abortion. For a client newly admitted with a possible ectopic pregnancy, the priority nursing action would be to monitor the client's temperature.

1. MATERNAL CHILD HEALTH NURSING MCQ 2
1. May arrives at the health care clinic and tells the nurse that her
last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. She also tells the nurse that
a home pregnancy test was positive but she began to have mild
cramps and is now having moderate vaginal bleeding. During the
physical examination of the client, the nurse notes that May has a
dilated cervix. The nurse determines that May is experiencing which
type of abortion?
A. Inevitable
B. Incomplete
C. Threatened
D. Septic
2.Nurse Reese is reviewing the record of a pregnant client for her
first prenatal visit. Which of the following data, if noted on the
client’s record, would alert the nurse that the client is at risk for a
spontaneous abortion?
A.Age 36 years
B.History of syphilis
C. History of genital herpes
D. History of diabetes mellitus
3.Nurse Hazel is preparing to care for a client who is newly admitted
to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nurse
Hazel develops a plan of care for the client and determines that
which of the following nursing actions is the priority?
A. Monitoring weight
B. Assessing for edema
C. Monitoring apical pulse
D. Monitoring temperature
4.Nurse Oliver is teaching a diabetic pregnant client about nutrition
and insulin needs during pregnancy. The nurse determines that the
client understands dietary and insulin needs if the client states that
the second half of pregnancy require:
A. Decreased caloric intake
B. Increased caloric intake
C. Decreased Insulin
D. Increase Insulin
5.Nurse Michelle is assessing a 24 year old client with a diagnosis of
hydatidiform mole. She is aware that one of the following is
unassociated with this condition?
A Excessive fetal activity.
B Larger than normal uterus for gestational age.
C Vaginal bleeding
D Elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin.
6.A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe
pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). The clinical findings that
would warrant use of the antidote , calcium gluconate is:

2. A. Urinary output 90 cc in 2 hours.
B. Absent patellar reflexes.
C. Rapid respiratory rate above 40/min.
D. Rapid rise in blood pressure
7.During vaginal examination of Janna who is in labor, the
presenting part is at station plus two. Nurse, correctly interprets it
as:
A. Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane of the ischial spines.
B. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines.
C. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial
spines.
D. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
8.A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) for induction of
labor. A condition that warrant the nurse in-charge to discontinue
I.V. infusion of Pitocin is:
A. Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds.
B. Maternal temperature 101.2
C. Early decelerations in the fetal heart rate.
D. Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160 bpm.
9.Calcium gluconate is being administered to a client with
pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). A nursing action that must
be initiated as the plan of care throughout injection of the drug is:
A. Ventilator assistance
B. CVP readings
C. EKG tracings
D. Continuous CPR
10.A trial for vaginal delivery after an earlier caesareans, would
likely to be given to a gravida, who had:
A. First low transverse cesarean was for active herpes type 2
infections; vaginal culture at 39 weeks pregnancy was
positive.
B. First and second caesareans were for cephalopelvic
disproportion.
C. First caesarean through a classic incision as a result of
severe fetal distress.
D. First low transverse caesarean was for breech position.
Fetus in this pregnancy is in a vertex presentation.
11.Nurse Ryan is aware that the best initial approach when trying to
take a crying toddler’s temperature is:
A. Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.
B. Bring extra help so it can be done quickly.
C. Encourage the mother to hold the child.
D. Ignore the crying and screaming.
12.Baby Tina a 3 month old infant just had a cleft lip and palate
repair. What should the nurse do to prevent trauma to operative
site?
A. Avoid touching the suture line, even when cleaning.
B. Place the baby in prone position.
C. Give the baby a pacifier.
D. Place the infant’s arms in soft elbow restraints.
13.Which action should nurse Marian include in the care plan for a 2
month old with heart failure?
A. Feed the infant when he cries.
B. Allow the infant to rest before feeding.
C. Bathe the infant and administer medications before
feeding.
D. Weigh and bathe the infant before feeding.

3. 14.Nurse Hazel is teaching a mother who plans to discontinue
breast feeding after 5 months. The nurse should advise her to
include which foods in her infant’s diet?
A. Skim milk and baby food.
B. Whole milk and baby food.
C. Iron-rich formula only.
D. Iron-rich formula and baby food.
15.Mommy Linda is playing with her infant, who is sitting securely
alone on the floor of the clinic. The mother hides a toy behind her
back and the infant looks for it. The nurse is aware that estimated
age of the infant would be:
A. 6 months
B. 4 months
C. 8 months
D. 10 months
16.Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public
health nursing?
A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not
confined in the hospital.
B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the
catchments area.
C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team
providing a public health nursing services.
D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, and not
curative, services.
17.When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized
in implementing Ligtas Tigdas (Measles Prevention), she is
evaluating:
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Adequacy
D. Appropriateness
18.Vangie is a new B.S.N. graduate. She wants to become a Public
Health Nurse. Where should she apply?
A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office
D. Rural Health Unit
19.Tony is aware the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board is:
A. Mayor
B. Municipal Health Officer
C. Public Health Nurse
D. Any qualified physician
20.Myra is the public health nurse in a municipality with a total
population of about 20,000. There are 3 rural health midwives
among the RHU personnel. How many more midwife items will the
RHU need?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. The RHU does not need any more midwife item.
21.According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is
a developmental service. Which of the following best illustrates this
statement?

4. A. The community health nurse continuously develops himself
personally and professionally.
B. Health education and community organizing are necessary
in providing community health services.
C. Community health nursing is intended primarily for health
promotion and prevention and treatment of disease.
D. The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing
services to people in their own places of residence.
22.Nurse Tina is aware that the disease declared through
Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for eradication in the
Philippines is?
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Neonatal tetanus
23.May knows that the step in community organizing that involves
training of potential leaders in the community is:
A. Integration
B. Community organization
C. Community study
D. Core group formation
24.Beth a public health nurse takes an active role in community
participation. What is the primary goal of community organizing
A. To educate the people regarding community health
problems
B. To mobilize the people to resolve community health
problems
C. To create a sense of cooperation integration and unity
among the people
D. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with
health problems.
25.Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural
history of disease?
A. Pre-pathogenesis
B. Pathogenesis
C. Prodromal
D. Terminal
26.The nurse is caring for a primigravid client in the labor and
delivery area. Which condition would place the client at risk for
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A. Intrauterine fetal death.
B. Placenta accreta.
C. Dysfunctional labor.
D. Premature rupture of the membranes.
27.A full term client is in labor. Nurse Betty is aware that the fetal
heart rate would be:
A. 80 to 100 beats/minute
B. 100 to 120 beats/minute
C. 120 to 160 beats/minute
D. 160 to 180 beats/minute
28.The skin in the diaper area of a 7 month old infant is excoriated
and red. Nurse Hazel should instruct the mother to:
A. Change the diaper more often.
B. Apply talc powder with diaper changes.
C. Wash the area vigorously with each diaper change.

5. D. Decrease the infant’s fluid intake to decrease saturating
diapers.
29.Nurse Carla knows that the common cardiac anomalies in
children with Down Syndrome (trisomy 21) is:
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Pulmonic stenosis
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Endocardial cushion defect
30.Malou was diagnosed with severe preeclampsia is now receiving
I.V. magnesium sulfate. The adverse effects associated with
magnesium sulfate is:
A. Anemia
B. Decreased urine output
C. Hyperreflexia
D. Increased respiratory rate
31.A 23 year old client is having her menstrual period every 2 weeks
that last for 1 week. This type of menstrual pattern is bets defined
by:
A. Menorrhagia
B. Metrorrhagia
C. Dyspareunia
D. Amenorrhea
32.Jannah is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The critical
laboratory result for this client would be:
A. Oxygen saturation
B. Iron binding capacity
C. Blood typing
D. Serum Calcium
33.Nurse Gina is aware that the most common condition found
during the second-trimester of pregnancy is:
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Mastitis
D. Physiologic anemia
34.Nurse Lynette is working in the triage area of an emergency
department. She sees that several pediatric clients arrive
simultaneously. The client who needs to be treated first is:
A. A crying 5 year old child with a laceration on his scalp.
B. A 4 year old child with a barking coughs and flushed
appearance.
C. A 3 year old child with Down syndrome who is pale and
asleep in his mother’s arms.
D. A 2 year old infant with stridorous breath sounds, sitting up
in his mother’s arms and drooling.
35.Maureen in her third trimester arrives at the emergency room
with painless vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions is
suspected?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Premature labor
D. Sexually transmitted disease
36.A young child named Richard is suspected of having pinworms.
The community nurse collects a stool specimen to confirm the
diagnosis. The nurse should schedule the collection of this specimen
for:

6. A. Just before bedtime
B. After the child has been bathe
C. Any time during the day
D. Early in the morning
37.In doing a child’s admission assessment, Nurse Betty should be
alert to note which signs or symptoms of chronic lead poisoning?
A. Irritability and seizures
B. Dehydration and diarrhea
C. Bradycardia and hypotension
D. Petechiae and hematuria
38.To evaluate a woman’s understanding about the use of
diaphragm for family planning, Nurse Trish asks her to explain how
she will use the appliance. Which response indicates a need for
further health teaching?
A. “I should check the diaphragm carefully for holes every time
I use it”
B. “I may need a different size of diaphragm if I gain or lose
weight more than 20 pounds”
C. “The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours
after intercourse”
D. “I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly most during
the middle of my menstrual cycle”.
39.Hypoxia is a common complication of laryngotracheobronchitis.
Nurse Oliver should frequently assess a child with
laryngotracheobronchitis for:
A. Drooling
B. Muffled voice
C. Restlessness
D. Low-grade fever
40.How should Nurse Michelle guide a child who is blind to walk to
the playroom?
A. Without touching the child, talk continuously as the child
walks down the hall.
B. Walk one step ahead, with the child’s hand on the nurse’s
elbow.
C. Walk slightly behind, gently guiding the child forward.
D. Walk next to the child, holding the child’s hand.
41.When assessing a newborn diagnosed with ductus arteriosus,
Nurse Olivia should expect that the child most likely would have an:
A. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
B. Bluish color to the lips.
C. Decreased BP reading in the upper extremities
D. Increased BP reading in the upper extremities.
42.The reason nurse May keeps the neonate in a neutral thermal
environment is that when a newborn becomes too cool, the
neonate requires:
A. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
B. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
C. More oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate increases.
D. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s metabolic rate decreases.
43.Before adding potassium to an infant’s I.V. line, Nurse Ron must
be sure to assess whether this infant has:
A. Stable blood pressure
B. Patent fontanelles
C. Moro’s reflex
D. Voided

7. 44.Nurse Carla should know that the most common causative factor
of dermatitis in infants and younger children is:
A. Baby oil
B. Baby lotion
C. Laundry detergent
D. Powder with cornstarch
45.During tube feeding, how far above an infant’s stomach should
the nurse hold the syringe with formula?
A. 6 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 18 inches
D. 24 inches
46.In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lynnette discussed childhood diseases
such as chicken pox. Which of the following statements about
chicken pox is correct?
A. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the
complications of chickenpox.
B. A single attack of chickenpox will prevent future episodes,
including conditions such as shingles.
C. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may
be imposed by health authorities.
D. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an
impending outbreak in the community
47.Barangay Pinoy had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent
congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to
women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the Barangay Pinoy?
A. Advise them on the signs of German measles.
B. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and movie houses.
C. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be
given.
D. Consult a physician who may give them rubella
immunoglobulin.
48.Myrna a public health nurse knows that to determine possible
sources of sexually transmitted infections, the BEST method that
may be undertaken is:
A. Contact tracing
B. Community survey
C. Mass screening tests
D. Interview of suspects
49.A 33-year old female client came for consultation at the health
center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying
symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the
start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera.
History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before
the onset of symptoms. Based on her history, which disease
condition will you suspect?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus
D. Leptospirosis
50.Mickey a 3-year old client was brought to the health center with
the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice-
watery” stools. The client is most probably suffering from which
condition?
A. Giardiasis
B. Cholera
C. Amebiasis

8. D. Dysentery
51.The most prevalent form of meningitis among children aged 2
months to 3 years is caused by which microorganism?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Morbillivirus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
52.The student nurse is aware that the pathognomonic sign of
measles is Koplik’s spot and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting
the:
A. Nasal mucosa
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Skin on the abdomen
D. Skin on neck
53.Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You will say that
there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nail bed that you
pressed does not return within how many seconds?
A. 3 seconds
B. 6 seconds
C. 9 seconds
D. 10 seconds
54.In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, the nurse is
aware that the severe conditions generally require urgent referral to
a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES NOT
always require urgent referral to a hospital?
A. Mastoiditis
B. Severe dehydration
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Severe febrile disease
55.Myrna a public health nurse will conduct outreach immunization
in a barangay Masay with a population of about 1500. The
estimated number of infants in the barangay would be:
A. 45 infants
B. 50 infants
C. 55 infants
D. 65 infants
56.The community nurse is aware that the biological used in
Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in
the freezer?
A. DPT
B. Oral polio vaccine
C. Measles vaccine
D. MMR
57.It is the most effective way of controlling schistosomiasis in an
endemic area?
A. Use of molluscicides
B. Building of foot bridges
C. Proper use of sanitary toilets
D. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
58.Several clients is newly admitted and diagnosed with leprosy.
Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of
multibacillary leprosy?
A. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
B. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

9. C. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
D. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
59.Nurses are aware that diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent
on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign
of leprosy?
A. Macular lesions
B. Inability to close eyelids
C. Thickened painful nerves
D. Sinking of the nose bridge
60.Marie brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because
of fever, started 4 days prior to consultation. In determining malaria
risk, what will you do?
A. Perform a tourniquet test.
B. Ask where the family resides.
C. Get a specimen for blood smear.
D. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
61.Susie brought her 4 years old daughter to the RHU because of
cough and colds. Following the IMCI assessment guide, which of the
following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral
to a hospital?
A. Inability to drink
B. High grade fever
C. Signs of severe dehydration
D. Cough for more than 30 days
62.Jimmy a 2-year old child revealed “baggy pants”. As a nurse,
using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage Jimmy?
A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement.
B. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a
feeding program
C. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on menu
planning for her child.
D. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections
and intestinal parasitism.
63.Gina is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year
old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. As a nurse
you will tell her to:
A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further
assessment.
B. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid
therapy.
C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the
physician.
D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol
more slowly.
64.Nikki a 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the
health center because of diarrhea for 4 to 5 times a day. Her skin
goes back slowly after a skin pinch and her eyes are sunken. Using
the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category?
A. No signs of dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. The data is insufficient.
65.Chris a 4-month old infant was brought by her mother to the
health center because of cough. His respiratory rate is 42/minute.
Using the Integrated Management of Child Illness (IMCI) guidelines
of assessment, his breathing is considered as:

10. A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Normal
D. Insignificant
66.Maylene had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. She is
aware that her baby will have protection against tetanus for
A. 10 years
B. 5 years
C. 3 years
D. Lifetime
67.Nurse Ron is aware that unused BCG should be discarded after
how many hours of reconstitution?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
D. At the end of the day
68.The nurse explains to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is
sufficient for all of the baby’s nutrient needs only up to:
A. 5 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
69.Nurse Ron is aware that the gestational age of a conceptus that
is considered viable (able to live outside the womb) is:
A. 8 weeks
B. 12 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 32 weeks
70.When teaching parents of a neonate the proper position for the
neonate’s sleep, the nurse Patricia stresses the importance of
placing the neonate on his back to reduce the risk of which of the
following?
A. Aspiration
B. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
C. Suffocation
D. Gastroesophageal reflux (GER)
71.Which finding might be seen in baby James a neonate suspected
of having an infection?
A. Flushed cheeks
B. Increased temperature
C. Decreased temperature
D. Increased activity level
72.Baby Jenny who is small-for-gestation is at increased risk during
the transitional period for which complication?
A. Anemia probably due to chronic fetal hypoxia
B. Hyperthermia due to decreased glycogen stores
C. Hyperglycemia due to decreased glycogen stores
D. Polycythemia probably due to chronic fetal hypoxia
73.Marjorie has just given birth at 42 weeks’ gestation. When the
nurse assessing the neonate, which physical finding is expected?
A. A sleepy, lethargic baby
B. Lanugo covering the body
C. Desquamation of the epidermis

11. D. Vernix caseosa covering the body
74.After reviewing the Myrna’s maternal history of magnesium
sulfate during labor, which condition would nurse Richard anticipate
as a potential problem in the neonate?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Jitteriness
C. Respiratory depression
D. Tachycardia
75.Which symptom would indicate the Baby Alexandra was
adapting appropriately to extra-uterine life without difficulty?
A. Nasal flaring
B. Light audible grunting
C. Respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute
D. Respiratory rate 60 to 80 breaths/minute
76.When teaching umbilical cord care for Jennifer a new mother,
the nurse Jenny would include which information?
A. Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change
B. Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing
C. Keep the cord dry and open to air
D. Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub
bath.
77.Nurse John is performing an assessment on a neonate. Which of
the following findings is considered common in the healthy
neonate?
A. Simian crease
B. Conjunctival hemorrhage
C. Cystic hygroma
D. Bulging fontanelle
78.Dr. Esteves decides to artificially rupture the membranes of a
mother who is on labor. Following this procedure, the nurse Hazel
checks the fetal heart tones for which the following reasons?
A. To determine fetal well-being.
B. To assess for prolapsed cord
C. To assess fetal position
D. To prepare for an imminent delivery.
79.Which of the following would be least likely to indicate
anticipated bonding behaviors by new parents?
A. The parents’ willingness to touch and hold the newborn.
B. The parent’s expression of interest about the size of the
newborn.
C. The parents’ indication that they want to see the newborn.
D. The parents’ interactions with each other.
80.Following a precipitous delivery, examination of the client’s
vagina reveals a fourth-degree laceration. Which of the following
would be contraindicated when caring for this client?
A. Applying cold to limit edema during the first 12 to 24 hours.
B. Instructing the client to use two or more peri pads to
cushion the area.
C. Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if ordered.
D. Instructing the client about the importance of perineal
(kegel) exercises.
81.A pregnant woman accompanied by her husband, seeks
admission to the labor and delivery area. She states that she’s in
labor and says she attended the facility clinic for prenatal care.
Which question should the nurse Oliver ask her first?

12. A. “Do you have any chronic illnesses?”
B. “Do you have any allergies?”
C. “What is your expected due date?”
D. “Who will be with you during labor?”
82.A neonate begins to gag and turns a dusky color. What should
the nurse do first?
A. Calm the neonate.
B. Notify the physician.
C. Provide oxygen via face mask as ordered
D. Aspirate the neonate’s nose and mouth with a bulb syringe.
83.When a client states that her “water broke,” which of the
following actions would be inappropriate for the nurse to do?
A. Observing the pooling of straw-colored fluid.
B. Checking vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper.
C. Conducting a bedside ultrasound for an amniotic fluid index.
D. Observing for flakes of vernix in the vaginal discharge.
84.A baby girl is born 8 weeks premature. At birth, she has no
spontaneous respirations but is successfully resuscitated. Within
several hours she develops respiratory grunting, cyanosis,
tachypnea, nasal flaring, and retractions. She’s diagnosed with
respiratory distress syndrome, intubated, and placed on a
ventilator. Which nursing action should be included in the baby’s
plan of care to prevent retinopathy of prematurity?
A. Cover his eyes while receiving oxygen.
B. Keep her body temperature low.
C. Monitor partial pressure of oxygen (Pao2) levels.
D. Humidify the oxygen
85.Which of the following is normal newborn calorie intake?
A. 110 to 130 calories per kg.
B. 30 to 40 calories per lb of body weight.
C. At least 2 ml per feeding
D. 90 to 100 calories per kg
86.Nurse John is knowledgeable that usually individual twins will
grow appropriately and at the same rate as singletons until how
many weeks?
A. 16 to 18 weeks
B. 18 to 22 weeks
C. 30 to 32 weeks
D. 38 to 40 weeks
87.Which of the following classifications applies to monozygotic
twins for whom the cleavage of the fertilized ovum occurs more
than 13 days after fertilization?
A. conjoined twins
B. diamniotic dichorionic twins
C. diamniotic monochorionic twin
D. monoamniotic monochorionic twins
88.Tyra experienced painless vaginal bleeding has just been
diagnosed as having a placenta previa. Which of the following
procedures is usually performed to diagnose placenta previa?
A. Amniocentesis
B. Digital or speculum examination
C. External fetal monitoring
D. Ultrasound
89.Nurse Arnold knows that the following changes in respiratory
functioning during pregnancy is considered normal:

13. A. Increased tidal volume
B. Increased expiratory volume
C. Decreased inspiratory capacity
D. Decreased oxygen consumption
90.Emily has gestational diabetes and it is usually managed by which
of the following therapy?
Diet
A. Long-acting insulin
B. Oral hypoglycemic
C. Oral hypoglycemic drug and insulin
91.Magnesium sulfate is given to Jemma with preeclampsia to
prevent which of the following condition?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Hypertension
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Seizure
92.Cammile with sickle cell anemia has an increased risk for having a
sickle cell crisis during pregnancy. Aggressive management of a
sickle cell crisis includes which of the following measures?
A. Antihypertensive agents
B. Diuretic agents
C. I.V. fluids
D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain
93.Which of the following drugs is the antidote for magnesium
toxicity?
A. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)
B. Hydralazine (Apresoline)
C. Naloxone (Narcan)
D. Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
94.Marlyn is screened for tuberculosis during her first prenatal visit.
An intradermal injection of purified protein derivative (PPD) of the
tuberculin bacilli is given. She is considered to have a positive test
for which of the following results?
A. An indurated wheal under 10 mm in diameter appears in 6
to 12 hours.
B. An indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48
to 72 hours.
C. A flat circumcised area under 10 mm in diameter appears in
6 to 12 hours.
D. A flat circumcised area over 10 mm in diameter appears in
48 to 72 hours.
95.Dianne, 24 year-old is 27 weeks’ pregnant arrives at her
physician’s office with complaints of fever, nausea, vomiting,
malaise, unilateral flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness.
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
A. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
96.Rh isoimmunization in a pregnant client develops during which of
the following conditions?
A. Rh-positive maternal blood crosses into fetal blood,
stimulating fetal antibodies.
B. Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into maternal blood,
stimulating maternal antibodies.

14. C. Rh-negative fetal blood crosses into maternal blood,
stimulating maternal antibodies.
D. Rh-negative maternal blood crosses into fetal blood,
stimulating fetal antibodies.
97.To promote comfort during labor, the nurse John advises a client
to assume certain positions and avoid others. Which position may
cause maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia?
A. Lateral position
B. Squatting position
C. Supine position
D. Standing position
98.Celeste who used heroin during her pregnancy delivers a
neonate. When assessing the neonate, the nurse Lynnette expects
to find:
A. Lethargy 2 days after birth.
B. Irritability and poor sucking.
C. A flattened nose, small eyes, and thin lips.
D. Congenital defects such as limb anomalies.
99.The uterus returns to the pelvic cavity in which of the following
time frames?
A. 7th to 9th day postpartum.
B. 2 weeks postpartum.
C. End of 6th week postpartum.
D. When the lochia changes to alba.
100.Maureen, a primigravida client, age 20, has just completed a
difficult, forceps-assisted delivery of twins. Her labor was unusually
long and required oxytocin (Pitocin) augmentation. The nurse who’s
caring for her should stay alert for:
A. Uterine inversion
B. Uterine atony
C. Uterine involution
D. Uterine discomfort
ANSWERS & EXPLAINATIONS
Question 1 Explanation: ANS-A
An inevitable abortion is termination of pregnancy that cannot be
prevented. Moderate to severe bleeding with mild cramping and
cervical dilation would be noted in this type of abortion
Question 2 Explanation: ANS-B
Maternal infections such as syphilis, toxoplasmosis, and rubella are
causes of spontaneous abortion
Question 3 Explanation: ANS-C
Nursing care for the client with a possible ectopic pregnancy is
focused on preventing or identifying hypovolemic shock and
controlling pain. An elevated pulse rate is an indicator of shock
Question 4 Explanation: ANS-B
Glucose crosses the placenta, but insulin does not. High fetal
demands for glucose, combined with the insulin resistance caused
by hormonal changes in the last half of pregnancy can result in
elevation of maternal blood glucose levels. This increases the
mother’s demand for insulin and is referred to as the diabetogenic
effect of pregnancy..
Question 5 Explanation: ANS-A
The most common signs and symptoms of hydatidiform mole
includes elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin, vaginal

15. bleeding, larger than normal uterus for gestational age, failure to
detect fetal heart activity even with sensitive instruments, excessive
nausea and vomiting, and early development of pregnancy-induced
hypertension. Fetal activity would not be noted
Question 6 Explanation: ANS-B
Absence of patellar reflexes is an indicator of hypermagnesemia,
which requires administration of calcium gluconate.
Question 7 Explanation: ANS-C
Fetus at station plus two indicates that the presenting part is 2 cm
below the plane of the ischial spines.
Question 8 Explanation: ANS-A
Contractions every 1 ½ minutes lasting 70-80 seconds, is indicative
of hyperstimulation of the uterus, which could result in injury to the
mother and the fetus if Pitocin is not discontinued
Question 9 Explanation: ANS-C
A potential side effect of calcium gluconate administration is cardiac
arrest. Continuous monitoring of cardiac activity (EKG) through
administration of calcium gluconate is an essential part of care
Question 10 Explanation: ANS-D
This type of client has no obstetrical indication for a caesarean
section as she did with her first caesarean delivery.
Question 11 Explanation: ANS-A
When dealing with a crying toddler, the best approach is to talk to
the mother and ignore the toddler first. This approach helps the
toddler get used to the nurse before she attempts any procedures.
It also gives the toddler an opportunity to see that the mother trusts
the nurse
Question 12 Explanation: ANS-D
Soft restraints from the upper arm to the wrist prevent the infant
from touching her lip but allow him to hold a favorite item such as a
blanket. Because they could damage the operative site, such as
objects as pacifiers, suction catheters, and small spoons shouldn’t
be placed in a baby’s mouth after cleft repair. A baby in a prone
position may rub her face on the sheets and traumatize the
operative site. The suture line should be cleaned gently to prevent
infection, which could interfere with healing and damage the
cosmetic appearance of the repair.
Question 13 Explanation: ANS-B
Because feeding requires so much energy, an infant with heart
failure should rest before feeding
Question 14 Explanation: ANS-C
The infants at age 5 months should receive iron-rich formula and
that they shouldn’t receive solid food, even baby food until age 6
months
Question 15 Explanation: ANS-D
A 10 month old infant can sit alone and understands object
permanence, so he would look for the hidden toy. At age 4 to 6
months, infants can’t sit securely alone. At age 8 months, infants
can sit securely alone but cannot understand the permanence of
objects.
Question 16 Explanation: ANS-D

16. The catchments area in PHN consists of a residential community,
many of whom are well individuals who have greater need for
preventive rather than curative services.
Question 17 Explanation: ANS-B
Efficiency is determining whether the goals were attained at the
least possible cost
Question 18 Explanation: ANS-D
R.A. 7160 devolved basic health services to local government units
(LGU’s ). The public health nurse is an employee of the LGU.
Question 19 Explanation: ANS-A
The local executive serves as the chairman of the Municipal Health
Board
Question 20 Explanation: ANS-A
Each rural health midwife is given a population assignment of about
5,000
Question 21 Explanation: ANS-B
The community health nurse develops the health capability of
people through health education and community organizing
activities.
Question 22 Explanation: ANS-B
Presidential Proclamation No. 4 is on the Ligtas Tigdas Program
Question 23 Explanation: ANS-D
In core group formation, the nurse is able to transfer the technology
of community organizing to the potential or informal community
leaders through a training program
Question 24 Explanation: ANS-D
Community organizing is a developmental service, with the goal of
developing the people’s self-reliance in dealing with community
health problems. A, B and C are objectives of contributory
objectives to this goal
Question 25 Explanation: ANS-D
Tertiary prevention involves rehabilitation, prevention of
permanent disability and disability limitation appropriate for
convalescents, the disabled, complicated cases and the terminally ill
(those in the terminal stage of a disease).
Question 26 Explanation: ANS-A
Intrauterine fetal death, abruptio placentae, septic shock, and
amniotic fluid embolism may trigger normal clotting mechanisms; if
clotting factors are depleted, DIC may occur. Placenta accreta,
dysfunctional labor, and premature rupture of the membranes
aren’t associated with DIC.
Question 27 Explanation: ANS-C
A rate of 120 to 160 beats/minute in the fetal heart appropriate for
filling the heart with blood and pumping it out to the system
Question 28 Explanation: ANS-A
Decreasing the amount of time the skin comes contact with wet
soiled diapers will help heal the irritation.
Question 29 Explanation: ANS-D

17. Endocardial cushion defects are seen most in children with Down
syndrome, asplenia, or polysplenia
Question 30 Explanation: ANS-B
Decreased urine output may occur in clients receiving I.V.
magnesium and should be monitored closely to keep urine output
at greater than 30 ml/hour, because magnesium is excreted through
the kidneys and can easily accumulate to toxic levels.
Question 31 Explanation: ANS-A
Menorrhagia is an excessive menstrual period
Question 32 Explanation: ANS-C
Blood type would be a critical value to have because the risk of
blood loss is always a potential complication during the labor and
delivery process. Approximately 40% of a woman’s cardiac output is
delivered to the uterus therefore, blood loss can occur quite rapidly
in the event of uncontrolled bleeding
Question 33 Explanation: ANS-D
Hemoglobin values and hematocrit decrease during pregnancy as
the increase in plasma volume exceeds the increase in red blood cell
production
Question 34 Explanation: ANS-D
The infant with the airway emergency should be treated first,
because of the risk of epiglottitis
Question 35 Explanation: ANS-A
Placenta previa with painless vaginal bleeding
Question 36 Explanation: ANS-D
Based on the nurse’s knowledge of microbiology, the specimen
should be collected early in the morning. The rationale for this
timing is that, because the female worm lays eggs at night around
the perineal area, the first bowel movement of the day will yield the
best results. The specific type of stool specimen used in the
diagnosis of pinworms is called the tape test
Question 37 Explanation: ANS-A
Lead poisoning primarily affects the CNS, causing increased
intracranial pressure. This condition results in irritability and
changes in level of consciousness, as well as seizure disorders,
hyperactivity, and learning disabilities
Question 38 Explanation: ANS-D
The woman must understand that, although the “fertile” period is
approximately mid-cycle, hormonal variations do occur and can
result in early or late ovulation. To be effective, the diaphragm
should be inserted before every intercourse.
Question 39 Explanation: ANS-C
In a child, restlessness is the earliest sign of hypoxia. Late signs of
hypoxia in a child are associated with a change in color, such as
pallor or cyanosis
Question 40 Explanation: ANS-B
This procedure is generally recommended to follow in guiding a
person who is blind
Question 41 Explanation: ANS-A
A loud, machinery-like murmur is a characteristic finding associated
with patent ductus arteriosus.

18. Question 42 Explanation: ANS-C
When cold, the infant requires more oxygen and there is an increase
in metabolic rate. Non-shivering thermogenesis is a complex
process that increases the metabolic rate and rate of oxygen
consumption, therefore, the newborn increase heat production.
Question 43 Explanation: ANS-D
Before administering potassium I.V. to any client, the nurse must
first check that the client’s kidneys are functioning and that the
client is voiding. If the client is not voiding, the nurse should
withhold the potassium and notify the physician
Question 44 Explanation: ANS-C
Eczema or dermatitis is an allergic skin reaction caused by an
offending allergen. The topical allergen that is the most common
causative factor is laundry detergent
Question 45 Explanation: ANS-A
This distance allows for easy flow of the formula by gravity, but the
flow will be slow enough not to overload the stomach too rapidly.
Question 46 Explanation: ANS-A
Chickenpox is usually more severe in adults than in children.
Complications, such as pneumonia, are higher in incidence in adults
Question 47 Explanation: ANS-D
Rubella vaccine is made up of attenuated German measles viruses.
This is contraindicated in pregnancy. Immune globulin, a specific
prophylactic against German measles, may be given to pregnant
women
Question 48 Explanation: ANS-A
Contact tracing is the most practical and reliable method of finding
possible sources of person-to-person transmitted infections, such as
sexually transmitted diseases.
Question 49 Explanation: ANS-D
Leptospirosis is transmitted through contact with the skin or
mucous membrane with water or moist soil contaminated with
urine of infected animals, like rats
Question 50 Explanation: ANS-B
Passage of profuse watery stools is the major symptom of cholera.
Both amoebic and bacillary dysentery are characterized by the
presence of blood and/or mucus in the stools. Giardiasis is
characterized by fat malabsorption and, therefore, steatorrhea